Download Micro Summer 2014 Take Home chapters 11 and 12

Micro Summer 2014 Take Home chapters 11
and 12
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1. (1) Microbiological contaminants are best described as:
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unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.
any and all microbes present on or in a substance.
pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance.
vegetative microbes present on or in a substance.
None of the choices are correct.
2. (1) Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except:
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ultraviolet radiation.
boiling water.
HEPA filters.
pasteurization.
hydrogen peroxide.
3. (1) Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and
chemical controls?
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naked viruses
protozoan cysts
fungal spores
bacterial endospores
yeast
4. (1) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including
bacterial endospores is:
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disinfection.
sterilization.
antisepsis.
sanitization.
degermation.
5. (1) The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce
microorganisms and debris to safe levels is:
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disinfection.
sterilization.
antisepsis.
sanitization.
degermation.
6. (1) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is:
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disinfection.
sterilization.
antisepsis.
sanitization.
degermation.
7. (1) The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit
vegetative pathogens is:
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disinfection.
sterilization.
antisepsis.
sanitization.
degermation.
8. (1) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the
skin is:
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disinfection.
sterilization.
antisepsis.
sanitization.
degermation.
9. (1) Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?
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virucide
bactericide
germicide
sporicide
fungicide
10. (1)Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?
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cells die at increasingly greater rates
only older cells die in a culture
cells in a culture die at a constant rate
upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time
cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed
11. (1)Sterilization is achieved by:
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flash pasteurization.
hot water.
boiling water.
steam autoclave.
All of the choices are correct.
12. (1)Dry heat:
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is less efficient than moist heat.
cannot sterilize.
includes tyndallization.
is used in devices called autoclaves.
will sterilize at 121° C for 15 minutes.
13. (1)Endospores can be killed by:
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dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.
incineration.
glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.
ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.
All of the choices are correct.
14. (1)The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are:
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121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
63° C for 30 minutes.
160° C for 2 hours.
71.6° C for 15 seconds.
100° C for 30 minutes.
15. (1)Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by:
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pasteurization.
chlorination.
moist heat autoclave.
filtration.
boiling water.
16. (1)Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
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ground beef and other meat and poultry
human tissues such as heart valves and skin
operating room air
surgical gloves
All of the choices are correct.
17. (1)HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from:
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air.
liquids.
human tissues.
medical instruments.
All of the choices are correct.
18. (1)Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
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tincture of iodine
Merthiolate
silver nitrate solutions
zinc
Mercurochrome
19. (1)All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except:
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Lysol.
hexachlorophene.
triclosan.
cresols.
chloramines.
20. (1)The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:
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naked viruses.
vegetative bacteria and fungi.
endospores.
protozoan cysts.
Mycobacteria and Staphylococci.
21. (1)Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped
culture tube?
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ultraviolet (germicidal) light
gamma rays
121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
160° C for 2 hours
All of the choices are correct.
22. (1)All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except:
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release hypochlorous acid in solution.
cause denaturation of enzymes.
found in iodophors.
used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment.
found in common household bleach.
23. (1)Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?
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iodophor
chlorhexidine
3% hydrogen peroxide
Merthiolate
aqueous glutaraldehyde
24. (1)Iodophors include:
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chloramines.
Betadine.
tincture of iodine.
alcohols.
chlorhexidine.
25. (1)The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is
used increasingly for handscrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping
surgical skin sites is:
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carbolic acid.
chlorhexidine.
triclosan.
formalin.
quarternary ammonium compounds.
26. (1)Alcohols:
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denature proteins when in a 50–95% alcohol-water solution.
disinfect items soaked in alcohol.
are skin degerming agents.
at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.
All of the choices are correct.
27. (1)The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is:
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ethylene oxide.
iodophor.
glutaraldehyde.
formaldehyde.
chlorine dioxide.
28. (1)The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also
decomposes to O2 gas is:
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Cidex.
cationic detergents.
hydrogen peroxide.
chlorhexidine.
iodophors.
29. (1)All the following are correct about detergents, except:
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they are polar molecules that act as surfactants.
the most effective ones are positively charged.
in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic.
they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria.
they are active in the presence of organic matter.
30. (1)Ethylene oxide is:
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sporicidal.
only effective with high heat.
the active agent in household bleach.
used as an antiseptic against anaerobes.
a halogen.
31. (1)Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?
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hydrogen peroxide
alcohol
hexachlorophene
glutaraldehyde
hypochorites
32. (1)Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?
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benzalkonium chloride
silver nitrate
glutaraldehyde
triclosan
cresol
33. (1)All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:
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food is not made radioactive by the process.
the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork.
it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.
no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.
34. (1)All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:
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food is not made radioactive by the process.
the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork.
it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.
no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.
35. (1)All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:
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it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.
it can kill insects on the food.
it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.
it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.
it makes the food less nutritious.
36. (1)Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to
prevent gonococcal infections?
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triclosan
formaldehyde
phenol
silver nitrate
mercurochrome
37. (1)Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?
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Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas
Hemophilus influenzae
Mycobacteria tuberculosis
Salmonella
38. (1)All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except:
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it is important not to overload the chamber.
it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.
the duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is.
it is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself.
sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber
and raises their temperatures.
39. (1)Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to non-animate surfaces only removes
or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is:
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Sterilization
Disinfection
Antisepsis
Degermation
None of these are correct
40. (1)Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?
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Silver
Gold
Tin
Aluminum
Both A and B are correct.
41. (1)Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.
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True
False
42. (1)Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.
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True
False
43. (1)The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of
disinfectants.
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True
False
44. (1)When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger
cells typically die more rapidly than older cells.
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True
False
45. (1)A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered
dead.
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True
False
46. (1)Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures.
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True
False
47. (1)Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids.
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True
False
48. (1)Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter.
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True
False
49. (1)Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses.
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True
False
50. (1)Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
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True
False
51. (1)Salvarsan was
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discovered in the mid-1900's.
used to treat syphilis.
formulated from the red dye prontosil.
first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum.
discovered by Robert Koch.
52. (1)Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or
destroy other microorganisms are called
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antibiotics.
narrow-spectrum drugs.
semisynthetic drugs.
synthetic drugs.
broad-spectrum drugs
53. (1)Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
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antibiotics.
narrow-spectrum drugs.
semisynthetic drugs.
synthetic drugs.
broad-spectrum drugs.
54. (1)Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
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Penicillium.
Bacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Streptomyces.
Cephalosporium.
55. (1)Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
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readily delivered to the site of infection.
high toxicity against microbial cells.
do not cause serious side effects in humans.
remains active in body tissues and fluids.
All of the choices are correct.
56. (1)Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause
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nephrotoxicity.
superinfections.
allergic reactions.
drug toxicity.
All of the choices are correct.
57. (1)Penicillins and cephalosporins
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interfere with DNA synthesis.
are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
damage cell membranes.
block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
58. (1)Sulfonamides
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interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
damage cell membranes.
block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
59. (1)Aminoglycosides
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interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
damage cell membranes.
block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
60. (1)Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
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a beta-lactam ring.
resistance to the action of penicillinase.
a semisynthetic nature.
an expanded spectrum of activity.
All of the choices are correct.
61. (1)A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
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synercid.
penicillinase.
aztreonam.
clavulanic acid.
imipenem.
62. (1)All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
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they have a beta-lactam ring.
greater resistance to beta-lactamases.
newer generations have activity against gram negatives.
many administered by injection not orally.
they are synthetic drugs.
63. (1)Gram negative rods are often treated with
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penicillin G.
vancomycin.
aminoglycosides.
synercid.
isoniazid.
64. (1)This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
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penicillin G.
vancomycin.
aminoglycosides.
synercid.
isoniazid.
65. (1)Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
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aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
erythromycin
trimethroprim
chloramphenicol
66. (1)Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and
vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus?
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tetracycline
isoniazid
linezolid
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
67. (1)All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
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broad spectrum.
include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
are nephrotoxic.
used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections.
they work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication.
68. (1)Antimicrobics that are macrolides
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disrupt cell membrane function.
include tetracyclines.
include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.
are very narrow-spectrum drugs.
are hepatotoxic.
69. (1)The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain
abscesses is
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chloramphenicol.
clindamycin.
ciprofloxacin.
bacitracin.
gentamicin.
70. (1)The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing
antibiotic-associated colitis is
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chloramphenicol.
clindamycin.
ciprofloxacin.
bacitracin.
gentamicin.
71. (1)The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal
infections is
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nystatin.
griseofulvin.
amphotericin B.
sulfa drugs.
metronidazole.
72. (1)The drug used for several protozoan infections is
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nystatin.
griseofulvin.
amphotericin B.
sulfa drugs.
metronidazole.
73. (1)Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used
to treat _____ infections.
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bacterial
fungal
protozoan
helminthic
virus
74. (1)There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to
antibacterial drugs because these organisms
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do not cause many human infections.
are not affected by antimicrobics.
are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.
are parasites found inside human cells.
have fewer target sites compared to bacteria.
75. (1)An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
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blocks penetration.
blocks DNA replication.
inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking.
blocks maturation.
bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
76. (1)Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
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influenza A virus.
HIV.
herpes zoster virus.
respiratory syncytial virus.
hepatitis C virus.
77. (1)Acyclovir is used to treat
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influenza A virus.
HIV.
shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.
respiratory syncytial virus.
hepatitis C virus.
78. (1)The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
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bacterial chromosomal mutations.
synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
prevention of drug entry into the cell.
alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
All of the choices are correct.
79. (1)The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause
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bacterial chromosomal mutations.
synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
prevention of drug entry into the cell.
alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
All of the choices are correct.
80. (1)Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the
following except
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development of resistance to the drug.
hepatotoxicity.
nephrotoxicity.
diarrhea.
deafness.
81. (1)A superinfection results from
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build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.
the wrong drug administered to the patient.
an immune system reaction to the drug.
decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
All of the choices are correct.
82. (1)Drug susceptibility testing
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determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics.
determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.
determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics.
determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.
determines the pathogen's identity.
83. (1)A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then
incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen.
What is this microbiologist setting up?
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Kirby-Bauer
antibiogram
E-test
MIC
therapeutic index (TI)
84. (1)A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose
for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called
the
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Kirby-Bauer.
antibiogram.
E-test.
MIC.
therapeutic index (TI).
85. (1)Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed
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antibiotics.
narrow-spectrum drugs.
semisynthetic drugs.
synthetic drugs.
broad-spectrum drugs.
86. (1)A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
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giving a narrow spectrum drug.
culturing the pathogen and identifying it.
performing the disk diffusion assay.
using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.
87. (1)Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?
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patient age
pregnancy
liver function
alcohol use
All of the choices are correct.
88. (1)All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
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the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment.
a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant.
not completing the full course of treatment.
a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.
diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.
89. (1)All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except
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the drug acts as an antigen.
the greatest number of antimicrobic allergies are to the penicillins.
hives may be the result after the drug is taken.
anaphylaxis can occur.
allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.
90. (1)Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the
blood, including drugs?
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Liver
Kidneys
Gall bladder
Spleen
Stomach
91. (1)Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent
tooth discoloration?
-2-2
Penicillin G
Tetraclycline
Gentamicin
Vancomycin
Erythromycin
92. (1)Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?
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Because it makes the animals grow too large.
Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them.
Because it raises the price of the meat too high.
Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem.
All of the choices are correct.
93. (1)Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
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It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.
It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV
RNA.
It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles.
It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.
94. (1)All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
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they should be given early in an infection.
they prevent assembly and release of the virus.
they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B.
they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus.
they are effective prophylactics for influenza.
95. (1)Which bacteria does Levaquin target?
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
All of the choices are correct
96. (1)What does Vancomycin target?
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium difficile
Streptococcus pyogenes
Both A & B are correct choices
97. (1)When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called
a superinfection.
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True
False
98. (1)A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after
being isolated from natural sources.
-2-2
True
False
99. (1)Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins.
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True
False
100. (1)Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
-2-2
True
False
10,20,30,40,50,60
Prepared by: Perkins, Cameron
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