Download Homework #4 Due was due March 27

CS/IS 190 Homework #4
Instructions: Answer all questions and put the answers on the excel spreadsheet which is available on
my web page. Note that some questions have multiple correct answers. Print out the answer sheet or
email it to me before the due deadline. Be sure to put your name on the answer sheet.
Chapter 12
Advanced Networking Devices
1. Which of the following is an example of a network operating system in a classic client/server
network?
A. Windows for Workgroups
B. Microsoft Server operating systems
C. Windows 98
D. Novell NetWare
2. Computers that both serve and request data participate in which kind of network?
A. Virtual private network (VPN)
B. VLAN
C. Client/Server
D. Peer-to-peer
3. Which operating system was once a common example of an operating system designed for peer-topeer networking?
A. Linux
B. Windows 98
C. Microsoft Exchange Server
D. Novell NetWare
4. Peer-to-peer applications are often referred to simply as __________.
A. P2P
B. agents
C. PPTP
D. apps
5. Which application uses the BitTorrent standard?
A. Transmission
B. IPsec
C. YOST
D. VoIP
6. Which type of network is created when you use encrypted tunnels between a computer or a remote
network and a private network through the Internet?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Dial-up
C. Client/server
D. Virtual private network (VPN)
7. What TCP/IP protocol layer supports PPTP and L2TP?
A. Link
B. Internet
C. Transport
D. Application
8. Which tools are tunneling protocols?
A. PPTP and L2TP
B. OpenVPN and IPsec
C. IPSec and Radius
D. HTTP and HTTPS
9. What is the result of running “Create a New Connection” on the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN
connection?
A. An RRAS server is created.
B. A dial-up connection is created.
C. A DHCP server is created.
D. A virtual NIC is created.
10. On the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN connection, where does a client get an IP address from
after it creates a virtual NIC?
A. DHCP server
B. WINS server
C. Default gateway
D. PPP private connection
11. Which protocol suite does L2TP use for all of its security needs?
A. DES
B. IPsec
C. AES
D. Radius
12. A type of VPN connection, where a single computer logs into a remote network and becomes, for all
intents and purposes, a member of that network, is commonly called a(n) __________ connection.
A. host-to-site
B. open
C. virtual
D. routed
13. Which protocol was a Cisco proprietary protocol that was replaced by L2TP?
A. L2F
B. PPP
C. PPTP
D. IPsec
14. Cisco has made a big push for companies to adopt VPN hardware that enables VPNs using
__________.
A. MAC addressing
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. port forwarding
D. load balancing
15. What are the two most common types of SSL VPNs?
A. SSL portal VPNs and SSL tunnel VPNs
B. IPsec tunnel VPNs and TLS portal VPNs
C. TLS portal VPNs and SSL tunnel VPNs
D. SSL tunnel VPNs and IPsec tunnel VPNs
16. A __________ VPN deals with a specific single connection between two machines using VPN
software or hardware.
A. host-to-site
B. client/server
C. site-to-site
D. host-to-host
17. In which type of VPN does the client browser run an active control, such as Java or Flash?
A. Site-to-site
B. SSL tunnel
C. Proxy
D. SSL portal
18. To configure a switch, you will need a(n) __________.
A. port number
B. segment ID
C. IP address
D. MAC address
19. Which type of network is created when you segment a network using the switches you already own?
A. Virtual private network (VPN)
B. Dial-up
C. Ethernet LAN
D. Virtual LAN
20. VLANs require special __________ loaded with extra programming to create the virtual networks.
A. hubs
B. routers
C. switches
D. bridges
21. In order for a VLAN to get its name, what is typically appended to the word “VLAN”?
A. A number
B. A slash
C. An IP address
D. A MAC address
22. Which term describes a port on a switch that is configured to carry all traffic, regardless of VLAN
number, between all switches in a LAN?
A. Logical port
B. Trunk port
C. Assigned port
D. Port 0
23. Which trunk standard enables you to connect switches from different manufacturers?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.1Q
C. IEEE 802.11
D. IEEE 802.3
24. Which three states can be applied to switches using VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)?
A. Transparent, server, and client
B. Master, server, and client
C. Open, closed, and active
D. Secure, transparent, and gateway
25. Which term refers to making a bunch of servers look like a single server, thereby creating a server
cluster?
A. Load balancing
B. Content switching
C. Round robin
D. Proxy
26. What OSI model layer supports content switches?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 5
D. Layer 7
27. What term does the Network+ exam use to describe a traffic shaping device that controls the flow
based on packet rules?
A. Bandwidth shaper
B. Content switch
C. Packet sniffer
D. Packet shaper
28. Which term is used by the CompTIA Network+ exam for routers and switches that can implement
traffic shaping?
A. Traffic routers
B. Bandwidth shapers
C. Quality of service routers
D. Port blockers
29. On many advanced routers and switches, you can implement QoS through bandwidth management,
such as __________, where you control the flow of packets into or out of the network according to the
type of packet or other rules.
A. trunking
B. port mirroring
C. traffic shaping
D. content switching
30. A __________ consists of multiple sensors placed around the network, often on one or both sides of
the gateway router.
A. network-based IDS (NIDS)
B. software-based IDS (SIDS)
C. firewall
D. load balancer
31. Which term refers to the capability of a switch to copy data from any or all physical ports on a switch
to a single physical port?
A. Port blocking
B. Load balancing
C. Port mirroring
D. Port authentication
32. Which technology is incredibly useful for any type of situation where an administrator needs to
inspect packets coming to or from certain computers?
A. Port blocking
B. Proxying
C. Port mirroring
D. Port authentication
33. Which proxy server is one of the oldest uses of a proxy server?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. DNS
D. Gopher
34. When configuring a Web client to use a proxy server, what setting should be provided so that the
client requests are redirected to the server?
A. Proxy server IP address
B. Backup DNS server IP address
C. Automatic IP configuration
D. Port mirroring address
35. Which technology acts on behalf of clients, getting information from various sources and handing
that info to the clients?
A. Advanced switch
B. Port mirror server
C. Forward proxy server
D. Reverse proxy server
--- END CHAPTER 12 --Chapter 13
IPv6
1. How many binary digits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
2. How many binary digits are in in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
3. Which organization developed the new IPv6 standard?
A. IEEE
B. IANA
C. ICANN
D. IETF
4. Which address notation is an example of an IPv6 address?
A. 197.169.94.82
B. 2001:0000:0000:3210:0800:200C:00CF:1234
C. 197.169.94.82/24
D. FEDC.BA98.7654.3210.0800.200C.00CF.1234.56AE.9512
5. Which address notation is the IPv6 loopback address?
A. FEDC::00CF:1234
B. 0127.0000.0000.0001.0127.0000.0000.0001
C. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001
D. 127.0.0.1
6. The IPv6 address, 2001:0000:0000:3210:0800:200C:00CF:1234, can be shortened to __________.
A. 2001:X:X:3210:800:200C:CF:1234
B. 2001:0-0:3210:800:200C:CF:1234
C. 2001.0.0.3210.800.200C.CF.1234
D. 2001:0:0:3210:800:200C:CF:1234
7. Which address does a computer running IPv6 gives itself when it first boots up?
A. EUI-64
B. CIDR
C. Link-local
D. Global
8. What type of address is a link-local address?
A. Multicast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Stateful
9. Which statement is true of an IPv6 subnet mask?
A. IPv6 subnet masks do not exist.
B. An IPv6 subnet mask is limited to 32 bits in length.
C. An IPv6 subnet mask consists of all zeros.
D. An IPv6 subnet mask is a maximum of 64 bits.
10. Which multicast reserved address is designed to reach solicited-node addresses?
A. FF02::0:XXXX:XXXX
B. FF02::1:FFXX
C. FF01::2:FFXX:XXXX
D. FF02::1:FFXX:XXXX
11. Which address is a set of reserved addresses designed to go only to certain systems?
A. Global unicast address
B. Link-local address
C. Anycast address
D. Multicast address
12. What is the function of the multicast address FF02::1?
A. All routers address
B. Solicited node address
C. All nodes address
D. Broadcast address
13. Which address range does multicast use in IPv4?
A. 224.0.0.0/4
B. 127.0.0.0/8
C. 192.168.0.0/24
D. 172.16.0.0/16
14. Which multicast addresses will only reach routers?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FE80::.
D. FF02::1:FFXX:XXXX
15. The Ethernet address __________ is used on Ethernet frames that encapsulate IPv6 multicast
packets.
A. 01-00-5E-xx-xx-xx
B. 33-33-xx-xx-xx-xx
C. FF02::1:FFXX:XXXX
D. ::1
16. Ethernet reserves the address __________ for IPv4 multicast frame destination addresses.
A. 01-00-5E-xx-xx-xx
B. 33-33-xx-xx-xx-xx
C. FF02::1:FFXX:XXXX
D. ::1
17. In IPv6, __________ is commonly used with DNS.
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
18. What type of IPv6 address do you need to get on the Internet?
A. Global unicast address
B. Global multicast address
C. Anycast address
D. Link-local address
19. One advantage of aggregation is that it __________.
A. compresses IPv6 addresses
B. provides a more efficient routing scheme
C. provides security through encryption
D. provides an efficient tunneling protocol
20. Which entity passes out IPv6 prefixes?
A. IANA
B. IETF
C. RIRs
D. IEEE
21. What is the default status of IPv6 for Windows Server 2012?
A. Developmental IPv6 support
B. Rudimentary IPv6 support
C. Complete IPv6 support; active on default installs
D. Complete IPv6 support; not installed by default
22. A DHCPv6 server is operating very similarly to an IPv4 DHCP server by passing out IPv6 addresses,
subnet masks, and default gateways, as well as optional items such as DNS server addresses. In which
mode is this server?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Stateful
D. Stateless
23. In which mode is a DHCPv6 server operating if it only passes out optional information?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Stateful
D. Stateless
24. A DNS server identifies a record for a host with an IPv6 address by using a record type of
__________ for IPv6 records.
A. A
B. AA
C. AAA
D. AAAA
25. When the routers and DNS servers between an IPv6-capable computer and other IPv6-capable
computers are not yet IPv6-ready, a(n) __________ is required to leap over this gap.
A. DHCP6
B. DNS
C. IPv4-only routers
D. tunnel
26. Which type of tunnel allows you to encapsulate IPv6 traffic into an IPv4 tunnel to get to an IPv6capable router?
A. IPv6-to-IPv6 tunnel
B. IPv6-to-IPv4 tunnel
C. IPv4-to-IPv4 tunnel
D. IPv4-to-IPv6 tunnel
27. Which tunneling protocol enables IPv6 traffic to use the IPv4 Internet without having to set up
explicit tunnels?
A. 6to4
B. 6in4
C. Teredo
D. ISATAP
28. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router
over an IPv4 network, which one does not require a tunnel broker?
A. 6to4
B. 6in4
C. Teredo
D. ISATAP
29. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router
over an IPv4 network, which one is an open-source implementation of Teredo for Linux and some other
UNIX-based systems?
A. 6to4
B. ISTATAP
C. Miredo
D. Teredo
30. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router
over an IPv4 network, which two can go through a NAT router?
A. 6to4and ISATAP
B. 6in4 and Teredo
C. 4in6 and 4to6
D. ISATAP AND 4in6
31. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router
over an IPv4 network, which one is built into Microsoft Windows?
A. 6to4
B. 6in4
C. Teredo
D. ISATAP
32. When using Teredo, which command should be entered at the Windows command prompt to
ensure that a tunnel has been created and to see the tunnel adapter?
A. ping /all
B. ipconfig /all
C. netsh
D. netstat
33. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router
over an IPv4 network, which one uses nonstandard addresses for the endpoints?
A. 6to4
B. 6in4
C. Teredo
D. ISATAP
34. Which terms refer to automatic tunnel configuration protocols?
A. TSP and TIC
B. ISATAP and Teredo
C. Teredo and Miredo
D. ISATAP and Miredo
35. __________ create the actual IPv6 tunnel and (usually) offer a custom-made endpoint client for you
to use, although more advanced users can often make a manual connection.
A. DHCPv6 protocols
B. TSP protocols
C. TIC protocols
D. Tunnel brokers
--- END CHAPTER 13 ---
Chapter 14
Remote Connectivity
1. Which device takes a circuit and combines it with a few hundred other circuits into a single complex
circuit on one wire?
A. Bridged connection
B. Modulator-demodulator (modem)
C. Multiplexer
D. Terminal adapter (TA)
2. Which technology is used by multiplexers to separate individual voice calls by keeping every call in its
own unique frequency range?
A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
B. Bridge connections
C. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
D. Frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
3. Which digital signal rate does a central office use to convert analog voice signals before multiplexing
them into larger circuits?
A. DS0
B. DS1
C. DS2
D. DS3
4. Which device converts an analog signal to digital and a digital signal to analog?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modulator-demodulator
C. Modulator
D. Demodulator
5. How many copper wires are used by a T1 line?
A. one pair
B. two pairs
C. three pairs
D. four pairs
6. Which device connects to each end of a T1 connection?
A. Modem
B. Multiplexer
C. CSU/DSU
D. Dedicated line
7. Which digital signal rate is used by a T1 line?
A. DS0
B. DS1
C. DS2
D. DS3
8. Which digital signaling rate has a frame containing a framing bit and 24 channels where each channel
holds a single 8-bit DS0 data sample?
A. DS1
B. DS2
C. DS3
D. DS4
9. What is the data transfer speed for DS1?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2,048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 43 Mbps
10. How many channels are in a T1 bundle?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 64
11. What is the European counterpart to a T1 line?
A. T3
B. DS3
C. E3
D. E1
12. What is the approximate total bandwidth of an E3 line?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 34 Mbps
D. 43 Mbps
13. What is the low end speed of the SONET Optical Carrier specification (OC-1)?
A. 34.368 Mbps
B. 39.8 Mbps
C. 43 Mbps
D. 51.8 Mbps
14. Which term refers to the first generation of packet-switching technology?
A. X.25
B. SONET
C. ATM
D. OC-1
15. Which term refers to a technology that serves as a replacement for Frame Relay and ATM switching?
A. FDM
B. TCP/IP
C. SONET
D. Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)
16. What is the range of transfer speed for ATM?
A. 155.52 to 622.08 Mbps and beyond
B. 1.544 Mbps to 2.048 Mbps
C. 1.544 Gbps to 34.368 Gbps
D. 34.368 Gbps to 155.52 Mbps
17. What is the size of an ATM fixed-length cell?
A. 53 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bytes
18. Which test should a network administrator run on a CSU/DSU to test a WAN connection and verify
the T-carrier connection from end to end?
A. Time division multiplexing
B. PRI
C. BERT
D. Baud rate
19. Which phone line has a baud rate of 2,400 and uses an RJ-11 connector?
A. ISDN
B. PSTN
C. Dedicated line
D. SONET
20. Which device takes 8-bit-wide digital data, converts it into 1-bit-wide digital data, and then hands it
to a modem for conversion to analog?
A. CSU/DSU
B. DSL modem
C. UART
D. Multiplexer
21. What is the current modem standard now on the market?
A. V.90
B. V.92
C. V.42bis
D. MNP5
22. When you install an ISDN terminal adapter (TA), what special number provided by the telephone
company must be configured along with the other ISDN telephone number you want to call?
A. Default gateway
B. Service Profile ID (SPID)
C. DS0
D. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSID)
23. Which statement describes an ISDN PRI?
A. ISDN PRI is a full T3 line, carrying 23 B channels.
B. ISDN PRI is a full T3 line, carrying 23 DS0 channels.
C. ISDN PRI is a full T1 line, carrying 23 B channels.
D. ISDN PRI is a full T1 line, carrying 23 DS0 channels.
24. Which terms refer to versions of DSL service?
A. xDSL and MDSL
B. SDSL and ADSL
C. UDSL and MDSL
D. NDSL and MDSL
25. Which term describes a DSL device that is located in a central office, connecting multiple DSL
customers to the Internet?
A. UART
B. NIU
C. CSU/DSU
D. DSLAM
26. What is the maximum distance between a user’s demarc and the central office for all versions of
DSL?
A. 18,000 feet
B. 5 miles
C. 3,000 yards
D. 3.4 kilometers
27. In the most common DSL connection, what device is connected to a telephone wall jack and to a
standard NIC in your computer?
A. CSU/DSU
B. Multiplexer
C. DSL modem
D. Router
28. If you have cable Internet service, what protocol is used between the head end connection and the
cable company’s network?
A. TCP/IP
B. DOCSIS
C. H.323
D. DSLAM
29. Long Term Evolution (LTE) networks feature speeds (in theory) of up to __________ Mbps for
downloads and 75 Mbps for uploads.
A. 53
B. 75
C. 150
D. 300
30. Which technology tries to bring usable Internet access to homes and businesses through the
electrical power grid?
A. WiMAX
B. PPOE
C. BPL
D. DSL
31. To make rollouts affordable, most fiber-to-the-home technologies employ a version of __________
architecture that uses a single fiber to the neighborhood switch and then individual fiber runs to each
final destination.
A. SONET
B. passive optical network
C. OC-1
D. active optical network
32. Which connection type is always used for dial-up connection to the Internet?
A. PPPoE
B. PPP
C. DHCP
D. PPTP
33. Which standard, developed by Citrix, is used with a remote terminal connection?
A. RDP
B. SIP
C. RDC
D. ICA
34. Which term refers to the standard used by the vast majority of VoIP solutions?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. RTP
D. RDC
35. Which protocol is commonly used to stream video?
A. LTE
B. RTSP
C. LEC
D. GSM
--- END CHAPTER 14 ---