Download micro final page

yes no Was this document useful for you?
   Thank you for your participation!

* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project

Document related concepts
no text concepts found
* Required
Multiple Choices
41. The genome of this organism has an unusual linear chromosome of about 950
kb an multiple circular and linear plasmids is
a. Leptospira interrogans
b. Borrelia burgdolferi
c. Borrelia recurrentis
d. Treponema pallidum
Clear selection
42. Which of the following is True of Acinetobacter ?
a. Acinetobacter are non-motile coccobacilli that are generally confused with
b. Acinetobacter do not ferment carbohydrates
c. Acinetobacter are encapsulated, oxidase positive and obligately aerobic
d. B and C are true
e. A and b are true
Clear selection
43. The following organisms causes severe infection of the head and neck that
can progress to complicated infection called Lemierre’s disease
a. Porphyromas
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum
c. Prevotella brevi
d. Fusobacterium necrophorum
Clear selection
44. Patients with whooping cough are most infectious during what stage of the
disease ?
a. Incubation
b. Catarrhal
c. Paroxysmal
d. Convalescent
Clear selection
45. Which of the following bacteria utilize erythrol as a nutrient source ?
a. Yersenia
b. Francisella
c. Brucella
d. Pasteurella
Clear selection
46. The following spirochetes can be seen under ordinary light microscopy after
stained with Giemsa or Wright stains
a. Borrelia recurrentis
b. Treponema pallidum
c. both
d. neither
Clear selection
47. The body louse is the vector for
a. Endemic typhus
b. Epidemic typhus
d. Q fever
Clear selection
Matching type
Porphyromonas Bifidobacterium Propionibacterium
that causes
acne vulgaris
49. Gram
cocci that
are part of
the normal
flora of the
50. Gram
bacilli that
are part of
the normal
Clear selection
51. Mycobacterium fortuitum belongs to Runyon group :
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV
E. None of the above
Clear selection
52. True about tuberculoid leprosy :
A. Lepromin test is positive
B. Cell-mediated immunity deficient
C. Lepra bacilli in lesions numerous
D. Leonine face present
E. Prognosis is bad
Clear selection
53. Examples of scotochromogen mycobacteria :
A. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
C. Mycobacterium intracellulare
D. Mycobacterium xenopi
E. Mycobacterium chelonae
Clear selection
54. Identify false statement about the pathogenesis of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis :
A. Cell wall of this bacillus causes delayed hypersensitivity
B. The bacterial polysaccharide induces immediate hypersensitivity
C. Lipid causes accumulation of macrophages and neutrophils
D. Produces powerful toxin
E. Phosphatids induce the formation of tubercle consisting of epitheloid cells and
giant cells
Clear selection
55. Koch-Weeks bacillus is :
A. Hemophilus aphrophilus
B. Hemophilus hemolyticus
C. Hemophilus aegypticus
D. Hemophilus parainfluenzae
E. Hemophilus ducreyi
Clear selection
56. True about Bordetella pertussis, EXCEPT :
A. Require X and V factors for growth
B. Thumb print appearance in cultured films
C. Confluent growth gives aluminium paint appearance
D. Colony shows mercury drop appearance
E. Causes whooping cough
Clear selection
57. Mycobacteria means :
A. Fungus like
B. Wig like
C. Amoeboid like
D. Chinese letter
E. Drumstick
Clear selection
58. BCG vaccine is :
A. Killed
B. Toxoid
C. Live attenuated
D. Subunit
Clear selection
59. True about Rickettsia :
A. Does not multiple outside the cell
B. Exotoxin is produced
C. Does not contain muramic acid
D. Does not contain enzymes for metabolic function
E. Multiples by budding
Clear selection
60. Rickettsial pox is the example of :
A. Typhus fever
B. Spotted fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Trench fever
E. Q-fever
Clear selection
61. Skin test done to diagnose Lymphogranuloma venereum is called :
A. Frei’s test
B. Schick test
C. Dick’s test
D. Burn test
E. Mantoux test
62. False about Psittacossis :
A. Disease of birds (parrots, pigeons, etc.)
B. Man catches infection by inhaling infected bird feces
C. Caused by chlamydiae group I
D. Lungs show patchy inflammation with sharply demarcated areas of consolidation
E. CFT antibodies are demonstrated by in paired sera using group specific antigen
63. Painless ulcer on genitals :
A. Syphilis
B. Herpes simplex
C. Chancroid
D. Gonorrhea
E. None of the above
64. Non-venereal disease is :
A. Yaws
B. Syphilis
C. Pinta
D. Endemic syphilis
Clear selection
65. Test commonly done for serodiagnosis of syphilis :
A. Wassermann
Clear selection
66. Mycoplasmas can be cultivated in vitro on non-living media as _____________
A. facultative aerobes
B. obligate aerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. microaerophiles
67. What type of colonies are formed by Mycoplasmas on the agar plate?
A. colourless
B. coloured
C. lawn formation
D. fried-egg
68. Which is the most common STI caused by bacteria?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Genital warts
Clear selection
69. What is the most sensitive laboratory diagnostic tests for Chlamydia
A. Giemsa staining test
B. Micro immunofluorescence test
C. Cell culture method
D. None of the above
Clear selection
70. All of the following statements are true about the antigens of Chlamydia spp,
A. Genus-specific antigens are common to all Chlamydia
B. Only Chlamydia trachomatis have genus-specific antigens
C. Species-specific antigens are present in the outer membrane of Chlamydia spp
D. None of the above
Clear selection
71. Which one of the following clinical presentations is most consistent with
lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
A. A large, tender beefy red ulcer with raised, friable borders
B. A large, pustular genital lesion with punctate central lesions displaying a “button
C. A genital ulcer associated with regional tender lymphadenopathy that displays a
“groove sign”
D. Multiple shallow perineal ulcers that display a “dewdrops sign”
Clear selection
72. A 20-year-old man presents to clinic with 5 days of dysuria and right-sided
groin pain. He is sexually active with multiple men and has been treated for rectal
gonorrhea within the past year. He regularly engages in insertive and receptive
anal sex. Physical examination is notable for bulky, tender, right-sided inguinal
adenopathy. A diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum is suspected. Which
one of the following is TRUE regarding diagnostic testing for lymphogranuloma
A. Chlamydia trachomatis serology is a specific method of diagnosing
lymphogranuloma venereum.
B. PCR testing to distinguish LGV strains of Chlamydia trachomatis from non-LGV
strains of C. trachomatis is needed to make a diagnosis of LGV.
C. Detection of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in the setting of a clinical syndrome
consistent with LGV is sufficient grounds to treat for LGV.
D. A serologic diagnosis of Treponema pallidum excludes the diagnosis of LGV
Clear selection
73. The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is :
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. B. canis
Clear selection
74. Agglutination test for Brucella mainly identifies which class of antibodies?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
Clear selection
75. Which of the following pathogen can be transferred to human and cause
infections from the bite of dogs and cats?
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Yersinia enterolitica
D. Pasteurella pneumotropica
Clear selection
76. A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the obstetrics
clinic for prenatal care. She has a history of treatment for syphilis 7 years
previously. The results of serologic tests for syphilis are as follows:
nontreponemal test, RPR, nonreactive; treponemal test (TP-PA), reactive. Which
of the ollowing statements is most correct?
A. The mother’s previous treatment for syphilis was effective.
B. The baby is at high risk for congenital syphilis.
C. The mother needs to be treated again for syphilis.
D. The mother needs a lumbar puncture and a VDRL test of her CSF for neurosyphilis.
Clear selection
77. A 12-year-old Boy Scout went to summer camp for 2 weeks in late August at a
site located just outside Mystic, Connecticut. When he returned home, his
mother noticed a bull’s-eyeshaped rash on the back of her son’s left calf. Shortly
after Labor Day, the boy developed a flulike illness that resolved after 4 days of
bed rest. Three weeks later, the boy complained to his mother that his body hurt
all over whenever he moved. This prompted a visit to the pediatrician, who
ordered an infectious disease workup. What is the most likely source of the boy’s
A. Respiratory transmission from another sick camper
B. Ingestion of urine-contaminated water from a stream
C. The bite of a mosquito harboring a parasite
D. The bite of a spirochete-infected tick
Clear selection
78. Nontreponemal serological tests:
A. Are useful in definitively identifying a Treponema pallidum infection.
B. Measure antibodies against Treponema pallidum.
C. Can be used to monitor antibiotic treatment of primary or secondary syphilis.
D. Measure antibodies against lipids released from damaged cells.
Clear selection
79. A 42-year-old woman went camping in the Sierra Nevada Mountains, where
she slept for two nights in an abandoned log cabin. After the second night, a tick
was found on her shoulder. Six days later, she developed fever to 38°C, which
lasted for 4 days. Ten days later, she had another similar episode of fever.
Examination of a blood smear stained with Wright stain showed spirochetes
suggestive of Borrelia species. Which of the following statements about
relapsing fever is correct?
A. Each relapse is associated with an antigenically distinct variant.
B. Blood smears should be made when the patient is afebrile.
C. Borreliae do not pass transovarially from one generation to the next in ticks.
D. The main reservoir for the Borrelia is deer.
Clear selection
80. A 23-year-old man presented with a maculopapular rash over much of his
trunk but not in his mouth or on his palms. Because secondary syphilis was
considered in the differential diagnosis, a RPR test was done, and the result was
positive at a 1:2 dilution. However, the TP-PA test result was negative. Which of
the following diseases can be ruled out?
A. Secondary syphilis
B. Atypical measles
C. Coxsackie virus infection
D. Acute HIV 1 infection
Clear selection
81. Which of the following animals is the source of Leptospira interrogans?
A. Alligators
B. Ducks
C. Frogs
D. Swine
Clear selection
82. A 27-year-old medical resident was admitted to the hospital because of
sudden onset of fever to 39°C and headache. Two weeks previously, he had
vacationed in rural Oregon, where he had frequently gone swimming in an
irrigation canal that bordered land where cows were pastured. Blood tests done
shortlyafter admission indicated renal function abnormality and elevated bilirubin
and other liver function test results. Routine blood, urine, and CSF culture results
were negative. Leptospirosis is suspected. Which of the following would be most
likely to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Testing acute and convalescent phase sera using the RPR test
B. Culture of urine on human diploid fibroblast cells
C. Testing serum by dark-field examination for the presence of leptospires
D. Testing acute and convalescent phase sera for antileptospiral antibodies
Clear selection
83. A 47-year-old man presents with slowly progressive arthritis in his knees. He
enjoys hiking in the coastal areas of Northern California, where the prevalence of
Borrelia burgdorferi in the Ixodes ticks is known to be 1–3% (considered low). The
patient is concerned about Lyme disease. He never noticed a tick on his body
and did not see an expanding red rash. The result of an EIA for Lyme borreliosis is
positive. What should be done now?
A. A biopsy specimen of the synovium of a knee joint should be examined for Borrelia
B. The patient should be given an antibiotic to treat Lyme disease.
C. PCR on the patient’s plasma should be done to detect Borrelia burgdorferi.
D. A serum specimen should be submitted for immunoblot assay to detect antibodies
reactive with Borrelia burgdorferi antigens.
Clear selection
84. Which of the following organisms principally infects the liver and kidneys?
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Treponema pallidum
Clear selection
85. The following statement regarding relapsing fever is correct
A. Endemic disease in North America is caused by Borrelia recurrentis.
B. The recurrent febrile episodes are caused by geographic variation among the
C. Bacitracin is the drug of choice.
D. Crushing a tick could transmit the spirochetes.
86. Infections with which of the following agents can result in a false-positive
nontreponemal (VDRL or RPR) test result for syphilis?
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Measles
C. Leprosy
D. All of the above
87. A 20-year-old woman presents with a 2-cm ulcer on her labia majora. The
lesion has a raised border and is relatively painless. What is the most likely
A. Adenovirus infection
B. Papilloma virus infection
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection
D. Treponema pallidum infection
Clear selection
88. Which of the following spirochetes are transmitted primarily by sexual
A. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
B. Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. All of the above
89. Reverse sequence testing for the diagnosis of syphilis
A. Involves screening with a high-throughput EIA or CIA assay followed by
confirmation using a nontreponemal test
B. May be associated with a high level of false-positive results
C. May be more sensitive than the traditional algorithm in detecting early disease
D. All of the above
90. Dark-field microscopy may be used to diagnose spirochetes in which of the
following scenarios?
A. To detect spirochetes in the cerebrospinal fluid in a patient with tertiary syphilis
B. To detect spirochetes in a suspicious lesion in the oral cavity in a patient with
secondary syphilis
C. To detect spirochetes in the urine of a patient with suspected leptospirosis
D. To detect spirochetes in the blood of a patient with a positive RPR result but no
91. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to cause a pandemic?
A. Influenza A virus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Influenza B virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
Clear selection
92. Which of the following statements about diagnostic testing for influenza is
A. Clinical symptoms reliably distinguish influenza from other respiratory illnesses.
B. Viral culture is the “gold standard” diagnostic test because it is the most rapid
C. Patient antibody responses are highly specific for the strain of infecting influenza
D. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is preferred for its speed,
sensitivity, and specificity.
Clear selection
93. Which of the following statements about the neuraminidase of influenza virus
is not correct?
A. Is embedded in the outer surface of the viral envelope
B. Forms a spike structure composed of four identical monomers, each with enzyme
C. Facilitates release of virus particles from infected cells
D. Is antigenically similar among all mammalian influenza viruses
Clear selection
94. Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza?
A. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.
B. Viremia is common.
C. The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lung.
D. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infections.
Clear selection
95. A 32-year-old male physician developed a “flulike” syndrome with fever, sore
throat, headache, and myalgia. To provide laboratory confirmation of influenza, a
culture for the virus was ordered. Which of the following would be the best
specimen for isolating the virus responsible for this infection?
A. Stool
B. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Vesicle fluid
D. Saliva
Clear selection
96. Listeria monocytogenes is frequently a foodborne pathogen because
A. It can survive at 4°C.
B. It survives under conditions of low pH.
C. It survives in the presence of high salt concentrations.
D. All of the above are correct.
Clear selection
97. A 45-year-old fisherman imbedded a fishhook into his right forefinger. He
removed it and did not seek immediate medical therapy. Five days later, he noted
fever, severe pain, and nodular type swelling of the finger. He sought medical
therapy. The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48 hours of incubation,
colonies of a gram-positive bacillus that caused greenish discoloration of the
agar and formed long filaments in the broth culture were noted. The most likely
cause of this infection is
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Nocardia brasiliensis
Clear selection
98. Which of the following aerobic gram-positive bacilli is modified acid-fast
A. Nocardia brasiliensis
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Listeria monocytogenes
Clear selection
99. An 8-year-old boy, who recently arrived in the United States, develops a
severe sore throat. On examination, a grayish exudate (pseudomembrane) is
seen over the tonsils and pharynx. The differential diagnosis of severe
pharyngitis such as this includes group A streptococcal infection, Epstein-Barr
virus (EBV) infection, Neisseria gonorrhoeae pharyngitis, and diphtheria. The
cause of the boy’s pharyngitis is most likely:
A. A gram-negative bacillus
B. A single-stranded positive-sense RNA virus
C. A catalase-positive, gram-positive coccus that grows in clusters
D. A club-shaped gram-positive bacillus
Clear selection
100. It is particularly difficult to differentiate Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae from
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Actinomyces israelii
D. Lactobacillus species
Clear selection
Submission ID (skip this field) *
⚠️DO NOT EDIT this field or your time will not be recorded.
Never submit passwords through Google Forms.
This form was created inside of Lyceum-Northwestern University. Report Abuse