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Bios 1300 SI
Shiloh & Katie
Exam Review 3
Chapter 7
1. Which cells build bones?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Osteoprogenitor cells
2. Where are osteocytes located in?
a. Bone collar
b. Lacunae
c. Primary Ossification center
d. In blood
3. What bone does Intramembranous Ossification not produce?
a. Maxilla
b. Clavicle
c. Ribs
d. Mandible
4. What cartilage is being replaced with bone tissue in Endochondral
Ossification?
a. Elastic
b. Fibrocatilage
c. Dense CT
a. Hyaline
2. What is the function of Chondrocytes?
a. Build bone
b. Enlarge and leave holes
c. Break down bones
d. Calcify the cartilage
3. What is bone growth that occurs in length called?
a. Appositional growth
b. Endochondral Ossification
c. Interstitial growth
d. Intramembranous Ossification
4. What zone of growth at the epiphyseal plate is where growth occurs
a. Zone of bone deposition and cell hypertrophy
b. Zone of cell proliferation and calcification
c. Zone of cell hypertrophy and cell proliferation
d. Zone of bone deposition and cell proliferation
5. What zone of growth at the epiphyseal plate has lacunae wall break down?
a. Zone of reserve cartilage
b. Zone of cell proliferation
c. Zone of calcification
d. Zone of bone deposition
6. Which hormone makes bone grow at the epiphyseal plate but slowly?
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. PTH
d. Calcitonin
7. Which is not a dietary nutrient for bone growth?
a. Calcium and phosphate
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin D
d. Protein
8. What is not a growth hormone for the bone
a. GH
b. Insulin-like growth factor
c. PTH
d. Thyroid hormones
9. __________ bone is replaced slower rate than __________ bone.
10. Why do people who exercise have larger cortices in bone?
a. Charles’s Law
b. Dalton’s Law
c. Hennery’s law
d. Wolff’s Law
11. Which of the following are reasons why you would take longer to heal a
fracture? (pick 2)
a. Lack of LDL’s
b. DM
c. Bronchitis
d. Smoking
12. What is normal Calcium levels in the blood
a. 7.35-7.45
b. 9.2-10.4
c. 8.3-9.2
d. 6.5-7.5
13. Which is not a function of calcium?
a. Increases kidney function
b. Nerve Exocytosis
c. Muscle contraction
d. Helps with blood clotting
14. Which causes muscle and nerve depression?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypercalcemia
15. Put the following in order.
a. Add OH group by liver(Changes to calcidiol)
b. Add OH group by kidney
c. Changes from 7-dehydrocholestrol to Vit D3 at epidermis (by uv
light)
d. Vit D diffuses into blood
e. Calcitriol diffuses into blood
f. Calcidiol diffuses into the blood
_________, ____________, ___________, _____________, ____________, ____________,
16. Which is not a function of Calcitriol?
a. Stimulates abosrbition of Ca+ at small intestine
b. Stimulates osteoclasts
c. Tells kidneys to release Ca+
d. Inhibits Osteoblasts
17. Rickets occurs in ____________ and osteomalacia occurs in ____________.
18. What is not a function of PTH
a. Promotes Calcitrol synthesis at liver
b. Increases Osteoclasts activity
c. Increases Ca+ absorption
d. Inhibit College synthesis
19. What is not a function of Calcitonin?
a. Stimulates Calcitriol
b. Stops osteoclast activity
c. Tells kidneys to release Ca+
d. Increases Osteoblast activity
20. How long does it take for a bone to heal in general?
a. 7-10 weeks
b. 5-6 weeks
c. 14-16 weeks
d. 8-12 weeks
21. Put the following in order
a. Bone has hard callus and is bone is turned into compact bone
b. Fracture hematoma forms
c. A fibrocartolagionus callus forms
d. Hard callus forms
_____________, ______________, ______________, _______________
22. Which fracture is a pediatric fracture?
a. Stress
b. Compression
c. Tarus
d. Avulsion
23. Which fracture shows up on an X ray as bent on one side?
a. Greenstick
b. Growth plate
c. Tarus
d. Compression
24. Which fracture is associated with Osgood-schlatters disease?
a. Compression
b. Greenstick
c. Avulsion
d. Non-union
25. In a bone scan the areas of high metabolism show up:
a. Light areas
b. Red color
c. Dark areas
d. White areas
Chapter 8
26. How many bones are in adulthood?
a. 270
b. 206
c. 254
d. 232
27. What are sesamoids?
a. Bones in ligaments
b. Extra bones in the skull
c. Bones in tendons
d. Bones in muscle
28. Which one of these is not a paranasal sinus?
a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Maxillary
d. Nasal
29. Which one of these are not auditory ossicles?
a. Mastoids
b. Incus
c. Stapes
d. Malleus
30. Which broken bone is usually a sign of strangulation?
a. C1 and C2
b. Mastoid process
c. Clavicle
d. Hyoid
31. The _______________ goes out the bottom of the foramen magnum and
______________ goes out the top.
32. How many ribs do we have?
a. 10
b. 8
c. 14
d. 12
33. Which about the female pelvis is not true?
a. Enlarged pelvic outlet
b. Broad pubic angle
c. More curvature of the sacrum and coccyx
d. Wide, circular pelvic inlet
34. Which is refered to as a supinated foot?
a. Pes planus
b. Pes Cavus
c. Charcot foot
d. “key stone” arch
35. What type of foot needs a shoe that helps with stability?
a. Pes Planus
b. Pas Cavus
c. Charcot foot
d. “Key Stone” Arch
36. Label the following picture:
37. What is the purpose of articular cartilage?
a. Nothing, it is left over from endochondral ossification
b. To increase friction in a joint to allow for more traction
c. To send pain signals to the brain in cases of damage
d. To create a smooth surface with minimal friction
38. Why is movement of synovial fluid important?
a. Because movement of a joint means you’re active and healthy
b. Moving is needed to strengthen the bone
c. Need to move joints to distribute nutrients
d. Because movement of the fluid provides proper blood flow
39. Which of the following does NOT have an articular disc?
a. TM joint
b. SC joint
c. AC joint
d. Elbow joint
40. Tendons attach _______ to __________.
a. Bone to bone
b. Bone to muscle
c. Tendon to muscle
d. Muscle to muscle
41. When a person is holding a plank (ab excerise), which of the following would
best describe this?
a. Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
42. Which of the following joints is least stable?
a. Hinge
b. Pivot
c. Ball and socket
d. Saddle
43. Which of the following has the greatest range of motion?
a. Knee
b. Elbow
c. Sternoclavicular
d. Glenohumeral
44. What describes death of the femoral head due to insufficient microvascular
feeding within the acetabulum?
a. Acetabulum stenosis
b. Femoral shaft fracture
c. Avascular necrosis
d. Vascular necrosis
e.
45. Which of the following is not a ligament of the knee?
a. Patellar ligament
b. PCL
c. ACL
d. Annular ligament
e. A & D
46. When white blood cells leak from the synovial membrane and the articular
cartilage erodes, the person experiences pain & swelling. What is this?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Avulsion fracture
d. Damage to the joint capsule
47. Complete rupture of a muscle is called?
a. 3rd degree sprain
b. 3rd degree strain
c. 2nd degree sprain
d. 2nd degree sprain
48. Ischemia to a muscle compartment that compresses an artery is what
condition?
a. Slipped disc
b. 3rd degree muscle strain
c. compartment syndrome
d. Osteoarthritis
49. A synergist muscle can perform the majority of the force during the joint
action if the agonist is damaged:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
50. Muscles, like bones, are not highly vascularized.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
51. What structure holds calcium over myofibrils?
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Lysosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. Sarcolemma
52. What structures make up the triad?
a. 2 mitochondria and 1 T tubule
b. 1 T tubule and the sarcolemma
c. 2 terminal cisternae and 1 T tubule
d. 2 terminal cisternae and 1 mitochondria
53. What are the two contractile proteins?
a. Actin and Myosin
b. Troponin and tropomyosin
c. Myosin and tropomyosin
d. Actin and Troponin
54. Which of the following contains the myosin binding site?
a. Troponin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Myosin
d. Actin
55. What anchors to the ends of thick filaments to keep them attached to the Z
discs?
a. Collagen filaments
b. Elastic filaments
c. Actin filaments
d. Dystrophin
56. When a muscle contracts the myofilaments change length.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
57. Cell bodies of skeletal nerves are found where?
a. Spinal cord
b. Brain stem
c. Intervertebral foramina
d. A & B
e. A & C
58. When the neuron fires all the muscle fibers innervated by it, this is called..
a. Motor neuron
b. Motor unit
c. Motor end plate
d. Motor nerve
59. Precise motion requires a motor neuron to…
a. Innervate as many muscle fibers as possible
b. Innervate many muscle fibers from only a few muscle groups
c. Innervate many muscle fibers from many muscle groups
d. Innervate only a few fibers of a muscle group
60. All motor neurons work at the same time.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
61. A difference in electrical charge is called ….
a. A current
b. Electrical potential
c. Excitation
d. Depolarization
62. Where does excitation of the muscle occur?
a. T tubule
b. Terminal cisternae
c. Sarcoplasm
d. Neuromuscular junction
63. What signals the opening of voltage gated calcium channels on the synaptic
knob?
a. Nothing, calcium moves passively
b. Nothing, calcium will move down its concentration gradient
c. The action potential
d. Acetylcholine
64. Acetylcholine enters the synaptic cleft via
a. Endocytosis of the synaptic vesicle
b. Exocytosis through a transport protein
c. The synaptic vesicle binding with the plasma membrane and doing
pinocytosis
d. The synaptic vesicle binding with the plasma membrane and doing
exocytosis
65. Once in the cleft, acetylcholine binds with receptors on which kind of
transmembrane protein in the sarcolemma?
a. Calcium voltage gated channels
b. Potassium voltage gated channels
c. Chemically gated ion channels
d. Sodium voltage gated channels
66. Sarcolemma next to the motor end plate have voltage gated ion channels
that open in response to
a. End-plate potential
b. Calcium deficiency
c. Acetylcholine esterase
d. Sodium/ Potassium pumps
67. Acetylcholine enters the muscle.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
68. When sodium voltage gated channels open and sodium floods the inside of
the cell, what happens to the electrical potential of the membrane?
a. It is repolarized
b. It is depolarized
c. It is remaining constant
d. Sodium voltage gated channels have no effect on electrical potential
69. When the action potential travels down the T tubules it opens ________________
in the terminal cisternae.
a. Opens sodium voltage gated channels
b. Opens potassium voltage gated channels
c. Opens sodium potassium pumps
d. Opens calcium voltage gated channels
70. Calcium released from the terminal cisternae binds to __________ of the thin
filaments.
a. Tropomyosin
b. Myosin binding site
c. Troponin
d. ATP binding site to release ADP and Pi
71. A conformational change in troponin causes tropomyosin to….
a. Turn into actin
b. Expose myosin binding sites
c. Expose actin binding sites
d. Expose calcium binding sites
72. What is needed to release the myosin head from actin?
a. ADP and Pi
b. Actin binding site must deteriorate
c. Myosin binding site deteriorates
d. ATP
73. What enzyme is needed to break down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
a. ATPase
b. Synaptic cholinerase
c. Synaptic kinase
d. Acetylcholine esterase
e. Acetylecholine aminase
74. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae during relaxation by utilizing
a. Passive transport calcium pump
b. Facilitated transport calcium pump
c. Active transport calcium pump
d. Acetylcholine esterase
75. When calcium is reabsorbed into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, what happens
to the thin myofilament?
a. It’s myosin binding sites are covered by troponin
b. It’s myosin binding sites are covered by tropomyosin
c. It’s actin binding sites are covered by troponin
d. It’s actin binding sites are covered by tropomyosin
76. Rigor mortis can be best described as…
a. deterioration of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that activates
crossbridges to form without production of ATP to break them up
b. Deterioration of troponin preventing myosin binding sites to be
revealed, thus myosin cannot for a crossbridge
c. Deterioration of myosin head which prevents the power stroke from
occurring during contraction
d. Excessive stiffening due to insufficient release of calcium from the
terminal cisternae.
77. Botulism can cause potentially fatal muscular paralysis because it….
a. Prevents acetylcholine from being broken up by acetylcholine
esterase
b. Blocks voltage gated calcium channels on the synaptic knob,
preventing them from opening
c. Prevents the release of acetylcholine at the synaptic knob
d. Enhances the release of acetylcholine on the synaptic knob.
78. Botox permanently paralyses facial muscles to prevent wrinkles.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
79. When antibodies attack the neuromuscular junction by binding to Ach
receptors which fatigue the muscle quickly is known as…
a. Compartment syndrome
b. Sarin poisoning
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Botulism
80. Which of the following is a very potent acetylcholine esterase inhibitor?
a. Botulism
b. Botox
c. Sarine
d. Calcium