Download KEC201T mcq questions

PRACTICE MCQ
UNIT-1
EMERGING DOMAIN IN ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING(KEC201T)
CS-2020
1. For full-wave rectification, a four diode bridge rectifier is claimed to have the following
advantages over a two diode circuit:
i.
ii.
iii.
Less expensive transformer
Smaller size transformer, and
Suitability for higher voltage application.
Of these,
a.
b.
c.
d.
Only i and ii are true
Only i and iii are true
Only ii and iii true
i, ii, as well as iii, are true
2. Determine the value of RL
a.
b.
c.
d.
RL=5 KΩ
RL=5.5 KΩ
RL=6 KΩ
None of the above
3. Determine V2
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.201 V
0V
4.3 V
1.371 V
4. Determine ID2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.40 mA
30.30 mA
14.70 mA
None of the above
5. What best describes the circuit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Full-wave rectifier
Half-wave rectifier
Clipper
Clamper
6. Determine the peak value of the current through the load resistor.
a. 2.325 mA
b. 5 mA
c. 1.25 mA
d. 0 mA
7. Determine the average value of the current through the load resistor.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.5 mA
0 mA
1.37 mA
1.479 mA
8. Determine the peak value of the output waveform.
a.
b.
c.
d.
25 V
15 V
–25 V
–15 V
9. Determine the peak for both half cycles of the output waveform.
a.
b.
c.
d.
16 V, –4 V
16 V, 4 V
–16 V, 4 V
–16 V, –4 V
10. Calculate IL and IZ.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 mA, 0 mA
4 mA, 2 mA
2 mA, 2 mA
2 mA, 4 mA
11. How many carriers participate in the injection process of a unipolar device?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0
d. 3
12. When the diode is forward biased, it is equivalent to
a. An off switch
b. An On switch
c. A high resistance
d. None of the above
13. Avalanche breakdown in a diode occurs when
a. Potential barrier is reduced to zero.
b. Forward current exceeds a certain value.
c. Reverse bias exceeds a certain value.
d. None of these
14. A forward potential of 10V is applied to a Si diode. A resistance of 1 KΩ is also in series with
the
diode. The current is
a. 10 mA
b. 9.3 mA
c. 0.7 mA
d. 0
15. When a reverse bias is applied to a diode, it will
a. Raise the potential barrier
b. Lower the potential barrier
c. Increases the majority-carrier a current greatly
d. None of these
16. The bridge rectifier is preferred to an ordinary two diodes full-wave rectifier because
a. it needs a much smaller transformer for the same output
b. no center tap required
c. less PIV rating per diode
d. all the above
17. The device associated with voltage-controlled capacitance is
a. LED
b. Varactor diode
c. Photodiode
d. Zener diode
18. The depletion region in the p-n junction is caused by
a. Drift of holes
b. Diffusion of minority ions
c. Diffusion of charge carriers
d. Drift of electrons
19. Calculate minority current ICO if IC = 20.002 mA and IC majority = 20 mA.
a. 2 µA
b. 0.002 µA
c. 2 nA
d. 2 pA
20. A tunnel diode is used
a.
b.
c.
d.
in high-power circuits.
in circuits requiring negative resistance.
in very fast-switching circuits.
in power supply rectifiers.
21. You have an application for a diode to be used in a tuning circuit. A type of diode to use might
be
a. an LED.
b. Schottky diode.
c. Gunn diode.
d. varactor.
22. LEDs are made out of
a.
b.
c.
d.
silicon.
germanium.
Gallium arsenide
silicon and germanium, but not gallium arsenide.
23. What diode is used in seven-segment displays?
a. LED
b. Zener
c. Laser
d. Varactor
24. P-N junction photodiode has to be
a. Reverse biased
b. Forward biased
c. Switched on
d. Switched off
25. The sensitivity of a photodiode depends on
a. Light intensity & depletion region width
b. Depletion region width and excess carrier lifetime
c. Excess carrier lifetime and forward bias current
d. Forward bias current and light intensity
PRACTICE MCQ
UNIT-2
EMERGING DOMAIN IN ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING(KEC201T)
CS-2020
1. For a transistor IC/IE=0.96.The current gain for CE configuration is
a. 12
b. 6
c. 24
d. 48
2. An n-p-n transistor conducts when the collector is………………..and emitter
is……………w.r.t to base.
a. Positive, negative
b. Negative, positive
c. Negative, negative
d. Positive, positive
3. The extremely high input impedance of a MOSFET is primarily due to the
a.
b.
c.
d.
absence of its channel
negative gate-source voltage
depletion of current carriers
extremely small leakage current of its gate capacitor
4. In MOSFET devices the N-channel type is better than the P-channel type in the following
respects
a. it has better noise immunity
b. it is faster
c. it is TTL compatible
d. it has better drive capability
5.
In a MOSFET, the polarity of the inversion layer is the same as that of the
a. charge on the gate electrode
b. minority carriers in the drain
c. majority carries in the substrate
d. majority carries in the source
6. A Depletion-MOSFET is considered to be a
a. Normally off the device
b. Normally on device
c. Current controlled device
d. High-power switch
7. When a reverse bias is applied to the gate of JFET the depletion region width
a. Is uniform in the channel
b. Is wider near the source and tapers near the drain
c. Is wider near the drain and tapers near-source
d. None of the above
8. Pinch-off voltage in a JFET is
a. the drain voltage that gives zero drain current
b. the gate to source voltage that gives unity drain current
c. the gate to source voltage that gives zero drain current
d. the drain voltage that gives infinite drain current
9. FET is advantageous in comparison with BJT because of
a. High input impedance
b. Low noise
c. High gain-bandwidth product
d. Its current-controlled behavior
10. Which of the following statement is not true in the case of FET?
a. It has a high input impedance
b. It is less noisy than bipolar transistor
c. It has a large gain-bandwidth product
d. All of the above
11. The input impedance of a FET is of the order of
a. 10 20 ohm
b. Hundreds of megaohm
c. Hundred ohms
d. A few ohms
12. A transistor when connected in CE mode has
a. a low input resistance and a low output resistance
b. a high input resistance and high output resistance
c. a high input resistance and low output resistance
d. a medium input resistance and high output resistance
13. A BJT has an IB of 50 µA and a βdc of 75; IC is:
a. 375 mA
b. 37.5 mA
c. 3.75 mA
d. 0.375 mA
14. In CE configuration the output V- I characteristics are drawn by taking
a.
b.
c.
d.
VCE vs. IC for a constant value of IE
VCE vs. IC for a constant value of IB
VCE vs. IC for a constant value of VCB
None of these
15. In CE configuration the input V-I characteristics are drawn by taking
a. VCE vs. IC for a constant value of IE
b. VBE vs. IE for a constant value of VCE
c. VBE vs. IB for a constant value of IC
d. VBE vs. IB for a constant value of VCB
16. For a JEFT, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch-off voltage, the drain current
a. increased
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. first increased and then decreases
17. The gate controls
a. The width of the channel
b. The drain current
c. The gate voltage
d. All the above
18. When the drain saturation current is less than IDSS a JFET acts like a
a. Bipolar junction transistor
b. Current source
c. Resistor
d. Battery
19. In which mode of BJT operation are both junction reverse biased
a. active
b. saturation
c. cut off
d. revers active
20. In which mode of BJT operation are both junction forward biased
a. active
b. saturation
c. cut off
d. reverse active
21. In a bipolar junction transistor, the base region is made very thin so that
a. recombination in base region is minimum
b. electric field gradient in the base is high
c. base can be easily fabricated s
d. base can be easily biased
22. In the case of Enhancement n-channel MOSFETs
a. VGS has a positive polarity and VDS has negative polarity.
b. VGS& VDS have positive polarity.
c. Both VGS and VDS have negative polarity.
d. VGS has a negative polarity and VDS has a positive polarity
23. Which of the following device has revolutionized the computer industry
a. JFET
b. D-MOSFET
c. E-MOSFET
d. Power FET
24. An E-MOSFET that operates at the cutoff or in the ohmic region is an example of
a. Current source
b. An active load
c. A passive load
d. A switching device
25. The term “saturation current” is not used in
a. D-MOSFET
b. E-MOSFET
c. JFET
d. BJT
PRACTICE MCQ
UNIT-3
EMERGING DOMAIN IN ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING(KEC201T)
CS-2020
1. Determine the output from the following circuit
a) 180o in phase with input signal
b) 180o out of phase with input signal
c) Same as that of input signal
d) Output signal cannot be determined
2. Which of the following electrical characteristics is not exhibited by an ideal op-amp?
a) Infinite voltage gain
b) Infinite bandwidth
c) Infinite output resistance
d) Infinite slew rate
3. An ideal op-amp requires infinite bandwidth because
a) Signals can be amplified without attenuation
b) Output common-mode noise voltage is zero
c) Output voltage occurs simultaneously with input voltage changes
d) Output can drive infinite number of device
4. Ideal op-amp has infinite voltage gain because
a) To control the output voltage
b) To obtain finite output voltage
c) To receive zero noise output voltage
d) None of the mentioned
5. Determine the output voltage from the following circuit diagram?
a)
b)
c)
d) None of the mentioned
6. Find the output voltage of an ideal op-amp. If V1 and V2 are the two input voltages
a) VO= V1-V2
b) VO= A×(V1-V2)
c) VO= A×(V1+V2)
d) VO= V1×V2
7. How will be the output voltage obtained for an ideal op-amp?
a) Amplifies the difference between the two input voltages
b) Amplifies individual voltages input voltages
c) Amplifies products of two input voltage
d) None of the mentioned
8. The signal to an inverting terminal of an ideal op-amp is zero. Find the output voltage, if the
other input voltage is
a)
b)
c)
d) Data provided is insufficient
9. Which is not the ideal characteristic of an op-amp?
a) Input Resistance –> 0
b) Output impedance –> 0
c) Bandwidth –> ∞
d) Open loop voltage gain –> ∞
10. Find the ideal voltage transfer curve of a normal op-amp.
a)
b)
c)
d)
11. Find the input voltage of an ideal op-amp. It’s one of the inputs and output voltages are 2v
and 12v. (Gain=3)
a) 8v
b) 4v
c) -4v
d) -2v
12. Which factor determine the output voltage of an op-amp?
a) Positive saturation
b) Negative saturation
c) Both positive and negative saturation voltage
d) Supply voltage
13. Which of the following is not an application of IoT?
a. Wearables
b. Smart Grid
c. Arduino
d. Smart City
14. An IoT network is a collection of ______ devices.
a. Signal
b. Machine to Machine
c. Interconnected
d. Network to Network
15. Which of the following is the way in which an IoT device is associated with data?
a. Internet
b. Cloud
c. Automata
d. Network
16. When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, …………
A. the output is grounded
B. one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other
C. both inputs are connected together
D. the output is not inverted
Answer : 2
17. In differential-mode, …………….
A. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
B. the gain is one
C. the outputs are of different amplitudes
D. only one supply voltage is used
Answer : 1
18. In the common mode, ……………
A. both inputs are grounded
B. the outputs are connected together
C. an identical signal appears on both the inputs
D. the output signal are in-phase
Answer : 3
19. The common-mode gain is ………..
A. very high
B. very low
C. always unity
D. unpredictable
20. The differential gain is ………
A. very high
B. very low
C. dependent on input voltage
D. about 100
21. If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ……….
A. 1225
B. 10,000
C. 80 dB
D. answers (1) and (3)
22. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output ………..
A. equal to the positive supply voltage
B. equal to the negative supply voltage
C. equal to zero
D. equal to CMRR
23. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an OP-amp is
……
A. 1
B. 2000
C. 80 dB
D. 100,000
24. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is ……..
A. 700 nA
B. 99.3 μA
C. 49.7 μA
D. none of these
25. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is …….
A. 90 V/μs
B. 0.67 V/μs
C. 1.5 V/μs
D. none of these
ANSWERS
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. D
24. A
25. B
PRACTICE MCQ
UNIT-4
EMERGING DOMAIN IN ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING(KEC201T)
CS-2020
1. The representation of octal number (532.2)8 in decimal is ________
a)(346.25)10
b)(532.864)10
c)(340.67)10
d)(531.668)10
2. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (1011.011)2 is ________
a)(11.375)10
b)(10.123)10
c)(11.175)10
d)(9.23)10
3. The decimal equivalent of the octal number (645)8 is ______
a)(450)10
b)(451)10
c)(421)10
d)(501)10
4. The largest two digit hexadecimal number is ________
a)(FE)16
b)(FD)16
c)(FF)16
d)(EF)16
5. SimplifyY=AB’+(A’+B)C.
a)AB’+C
b)AB+AC
c)A’B+AC’
d)AB+A
6. The expression Y=AB+BC+AC shows the _________ operation.
a)EX-OR
b)SOP
c)POS
d) NOR
7. The expression Y=(A+B)(B+C)(C+A) shows the _________ operation.
a)AND
b)POS
c)SOP
d) NAND
8. There are _____________ Minterms for 3 variables (a, b, c).
a)0
b)2
c)8
d) 1
9. How many AND gates are required to realize Y = CD + EF + G?
a)4
b)5
c)3
d) 2
10. A universal logic gate is one which can be used to generate any logic function. Which of
the following is a universal logic gate?
a)OR
b)AND
c)XOR
d) NAND
11.How many truth table entries are necessary for a four-input circuit?
a)4
b)8
c)12
d) 16
12.How many NAND circuits are contained in a 7400 NAND IC?
a)1
b)2
c)4
d) 8
13. There are ______ cells in a 4-variable K-map.
a)12
b)16
c)18
d) 8
14. These logic gates are widely used in _______________ design and therefore are
available in IC form.
a)Sampling
b)Digital
c)Analog
d) Systems
15.1’s complement of 1011101 is ____________
a)0101110
b)1001101
c)0100010
d)1100101
16.2’s complement of 11001011 is ____________
a)01010111
b)11010100
c)00110101
d) 11100010
17. A(A+B)=?
a)AB
b)1
c)(1+AB)
d)A
18. Any signed negative binary number is recognised by its ________
a) MSB
b) LSB
c) Byte
d) Nibble
19. The given hexadecimal number (1E.53)16 is equivalent to ____________
a) (35.684)8
b) (36.246)8
c) (34.340)8
d) (35.599)8
20. The octal number (651.124)8 is equivalent to ______
a) (1A9.2A)16
b) (1B0.10)16
c) (1A8.A3)16
d) (1B0.B0)16
21.SSI refers to ___________
a)Small Scale Integration
b) Short Scale Integration
c) Small Set Integration
d) Short Set Integration
22.MSI includes _______ gates per chip.
a) 12 to 100
b) 13 to 50
c) greater than 10
d) greater than 100
23.LSI means ________ and refers to ________ gates per chip.
a) Long Scale Integration, more than 10 upto 10000
b) Large Scale Integration, more than 100 upto 5000
c) Large Short Integration, less than 10 and greater than 5000
d) Long Short Integration, more than 10 upto 10000
24. . Convert the hexadecimal number (1E2)16 to decimal.
a) 480
b) 483
c) 482
d) 484
25. Convert (0.345)10 into an octal number.
a) (0.16050)8
b) (0.26050)8
c) (0.19450)8
d) (0.24040)8
Answers
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. d
10. d
11. d
12. c
13. b
14. b
15. c
16. c
17. d
18. a
19. b
20. a
21. a
22. a
23. a
24. c
25. b
PRACTICE MCQ
UNIT-5
EMERGING DOMAIN IN ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING(KEC201T)
CS-2020
1. Which of the following multiple access techniques are used by second generation Cellular System
A. TDMA/FDD and CDMA/FDD
B. FDMA/FDD and CDMA/FDD
C. FDMA/FDD and TDMA/FDD
D. FDMA/FDD only
2. SGSN Stand as
A .Serial Gateway Supporting Node
B .Supporting GPRS Support Node
C. Supporting GGSN Support Node
D. Supporting Gateway Support Node
3. GPRS Stands for
A .General Packet recourse system
B .General packet radio service
C .General picture radio system
D .General pixel radio system
4. The multiple access technique that is particularly suitable for communication satellites with military
applications is
A .FDMA
B .CDMA
C. TDMA
D. None of above
5. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture
A .BSS
B .OSS
C .NSS
D .Channel
6. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s identification number in
GSM?
A .Register
B .Flip Flop
C .SIM
D .SMS
7. Rake receiver is used for.
A .TDMA System
B .FDMA System
C .CDMA System
D .None of above
8. BTS stand as
A .Base transfer station
B .Base transportation station
C .Base Transceiver Station
D. None
9. RADAR Stands for
A .Radio Detection and Ranging
B .Radio Data and Ranging
C .Radio Detection and Resource
D. None
10. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a
A .Transponder
B .Relay
C .Duplexer
D. Repeater
D. None
11. Modulation is done at
A .Receiver
B .Transmitter
C .Between Transmitter and Receiver
D. None
12. In AM wave useful power in carried by
A .Carrier
B .side Bands
C .Both Carrier and Side bands
D. None
D. None
13. In Amplitude Modulation, Bandwidth is ……… Audio signal frequency
A. 3 Times
B .4 Times
C. 2 times
D. None
D. None
14. In amplitude Modulation which thing of carrier is varied accordance to the strength of signal?
A. Amplitude
B .Phase
C .frequency
D. None
15. What is the modulation index value if Vmax=5.9v and Vmin=1.2v?
A. 0.5
B .0.66
C .0.42
D. None
16. Which of the following modulating signal voltage would cause over-modulation on a carrier voltage
of 10v?
A. 9.5
B. 9.9
C .10
D. 12
17. Calculate the power in a DSB SC signal when the modulation is 60% with a carrier power of 600W
A. 600 W
B. 540 W
C. 108 W
D. 300 W
18. Bandwidth of the AM wave is the difference in the two extreme frequencies of the AM signal. It is
given by
A. B = 2 ωm
B. B = (ωc + ωm) - (ωc - ωm)
C. ωm
D. Both A and B
19. What is the carrier frequency in an AM wave when its highest frequency component is 850Hz and the
bandwidth of the signal is 50Hz?
A. 80 Hz
B. 625 Hz
C. 695 Hz
D.825Hz
20. Calculate the power in one of the side band in SSBSC modulation when the carrier power is 124W
and there is 80% modulation depth in the amplitude modulated signal.
A. 89.33 W
B. 64.85 W
C. 79.36 W
D.102 W
21. Vestigial side band signals are detected by
A. Filters
B. Synchronous detection
C. Balanced modulator
D. None
22. Where does bridge operate in OSI model?
A. Application layer
B. Data link layer
C. Physical layer
D. None
23. The OSI model consists of ___ layers.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
24. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Internet
C. Host to Host
D. Network Access
25. HLR Stand for
A. Home Location Register
B. Home local Resistance
C. House Location Register
D. None
Q No.
Option
1
A
2
B
3
B
4
B
5
D
6
C
7
C
8
C
9
A
10
A
11
B
12
B
13
C
14
A
15
B
16
D
17
C
18
D
19
D
20
C
21
B
22
B
23
B
24
C
25
A