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Chapter-1
Self Assessment Questions
1. Communication is a process of ……………
(a) transfer of information
(b) transfer of energy
(c) transfer of channel
(d) none of these
2. There are six steps in developing effective communications.
(a) True
(b) False
3. A form of communication which has much in common with modern public speaking is …………
(a) Conversation.
(b) Lecturing.
(c) Declamation.
(d) Revising.
4. The three types of general speech purposes are…………..
(a) to inform, to demonstrate, and to persuade.
(b) to entertain, to inform, and to persuade.
(c) to persuade, to convince, and to move to action.
(d) to entertain, to introduce, and to inform.
5. What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model?
(a) Attention; perception; retention
(b) Perception; retention.
(c) Receiving; processing and storing information
(d) Short term memory; decoding; long term memory.
6. The process of choosing symbols to carry the message you send is called
(a) decoding.
(b) channeling.
(c) encoding.
(d) interpreting.
7. A form of communication which has much in common with modern public speaking is
(a) revising.
(b) conversation.
(c) lecturing.
(d) declamation.
8. Which of the following reactions is an example of feedback?
(a) Laughing at a friend's joke
(b) answering a teacher's question
(c) Rolling your eyes when you hear a racial slur
(d) All of these are feedback.
9. Of the following definitions, the one that implies that communication is intentional is
(a) speech communication is a process through which people make sense of the world.
(b) communication has as its central interest those behavioral situations in which a source transmits
a message to a receiver with conscious intent to affect the latter's behaviors.
(c) communication is the discriminatory response of an organism to a stimulus.
(d) communication is a process of acting on information.
10. A component in the communication process that we often send without being aware of it is
(a) feedback.
(b) an encoded message.
(c) verbal communication.
(d) a message sent via touch.
11. Why do we communicate?
(a) To create and maintain our sense of identity
(b) To develop the ability to influence others
(c) To convey and create information
(d) For all of the above reasons
12. The process of understanding information within oneself is called
(a) active communication.
(b) intrapersonal communication.
(c) interactive communication.
(d) interpersonal communication.
13. The essential components of communication are
(a) symbols, understanding, communication, and communicant.
(b) symbols, understanding, purpose, ideas, opinions, nonverbals, and reaction.
(c) source, message, interference, channel, receiver, feedback, environment, and context.
(d) source, destination, interaction, and correlation.
14. A communication source performs which of the following roles?
(a) Determining the meaning of what is to be communicated
(b) Encoding the meaning into a message
(c) Sending the message
(d).All of the above
15. Storytelling and joke telling can accomplish which purpose of communication?
(a) to discover
(b) to help
(c) to relate
(d) to play
16. In reality marketing communications activities occur:
(a) In parallel
(b) In rough order
(c) Randomly
(d) Sequentially
17. E-mail is a good channel for the daily communication to specific target groups.
(a) True
(b) False
18. Communication with people outside the company is called ……………….
(a) parallel communication
(b) Internal communication
(c) external communication
(d) none of these
19. ……………..is the process of interpretation of an encoded message into the understandable
meaning.
(a) Encoding
(b) communication
(c) Decoding
(d) All of these
20. Contents of Communication should be of ……………… to the sender and the receiver.
(a) encoding
(b) mutual interest
(c) decoding
(d) All of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (b)
4. (b)
5 (a)
6. (c)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10 (a)
11. (d)
12. (d)
13. (c)
14. (d)
15 (d)
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (c)
19. (c)
20 (b)
Chapter-2
Self Assessment Questions
1. The essence of effective communication is that:
(a) sender and receiver both attribute the same meaning to a message.
(b) sender and receiver both exchange information.
(c) the receiver gives feedback to the sender.
(d) none of these
2. Information richness is:
(a) whether a message conveys the ‘facts’.
(b) elimination of noise.
(c) the potential information carrying capacity of a communication medium.
(d) all of these
3. Feedback is:
(a) a situation in which sender and receiver exchange information.
(b) confined to the verbal form of communication.
(c) confined to the written from of communication.
(d) none of these
4. Which of the following is described in your text as a contextual factor that can impact on the
effectiveness of communication in an organisation?
(a) Organisational structure.
(b) Organisational culture.
(c) Technology.
(d) All of the above.
5. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication associated with the media
and channel?
(a) Noise.
(b) Information overload.
(c) Space proxemics.
(d) Inappropriateness of media and/or channel.
6. To decode a message is to
(a) interpret a message.
(b) evaluate a message.
(c) translate ideas into code.
(d) reject a message.
7. The ability to communicate effectively
(a) can be learned.
(b) depends on the education level of those around you.
(c) depends on not using technology to send messages.
(d) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
8. Encoding is important because it
(a) eliminates noise.
(b) Produces messages.
(c) guarantees that one's message will be decoded.
(d) encourages listener feedback.
9. An example of a communication channel is
(a) feedback.
(b) context.
(c) noise.
(d) face-to-face conversation.
10. Noise does the following:
(a) focuses wandering thoughts.
(b) distorts or interferes with a message.
(c) enhances a message.
(d) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.
11. Interpersonal communication occurs only when
(a) three or more people are communicating with each other at the same time.
(b) intimate conversation takes place.
(c) an individual converses with people they have no interest in knowing.
(d) an individual interacts with another person as a unique individual.
12. What is "context"?
(a) An interference with message reception
(b) Effective communication
(c) Verbal and nonverbal responses to messages
(d) A physical and psychological environment for conversation
13. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?
(a) Jargon
(b) Mumbling
(c) Eye contact
(d) Yelling
14. A message can only be deemed effective when it is
(a) repeated back as proof of understanding.
(b) understood by others and produces the intended results.
(c) delivered with confidence.
(d) communicated face-to-face.
15. In the communication process, a receiver is
(a) the person who encodes an idea.
(b) a message pathway.
(c) the person who decodes a message.
(d) message interference.
16. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?
(a) Message, noise, feedback
(b) Noise, feedback, jargon
(c) Message, recording, feedback
(d) Feedback, message, critiquing
17. Feedback can come in the form of
(a) verbal and nonverbal listener responses.
(b) environmental noise.
(c) verbal communication only.
(d) nonverbal communication only.
18. Feedback is a listener's
(a) aversion to a message.
(b) verbal critique of your message.
(c) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.
(d) acceptance of a message.
19. Which of the following is not true about the grapevine?
(a) It is faster at conveying information than an organisation’s formal communication system.
(b) It is somewhere between 75 and 95 percent as accurate as the formal communication system.
(c) It is found in almost all organisations.
(d) Managers usually welcome its existence.
20. In interpersonal communication, ethics
(a) increase barriers to understanding.
(b) stand in the way of honesty.
(c) are not a consideration.
(d) are important.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5 (b)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (d)
10 (b)
11. (d)
12. (d)
13. (c)
14. (b)
15 (c)
16. (a)
17. (a)
18. (d)
19. (d)
20 (d)
Chapter-3
Self Assessment Questions
1. Listening is a
(a) physiological process that occurs without effort.
(b) natural habit.
(c) reflex.
(d) complex process that involves steps.
2. The responding step of listening
(a) is the result of remembering.
(b) is nonverbal.
(c) can be verbal or nonverbal.
(d) is verbal.
3. Responding occurs in two phases:
(a) Receiving responses and sending responses.
(b) Responses one makes while the speaker is talking and responses one makes after the speaker has
stopped talking.
(c) Responses one makes and responses one's listener makes.
(d) Responses you make while the speaker is talking and responses you make when you are talking
4. One of the most important communication skills
(a) objective listening.
(b) active listening.
(c) empathic listening.
(d) inactive listening.
5. A technique that might be used by an active listener is to
(a) offer a point of view often when in conversation.
(b) explain the speaker's meaning.
(c) paraphrase the speaker's meaning.
(d) express concern.
6. One example of the differences between men and women in the ways they listen is that
(a) men listen more to women than women listen to men.
(b) women tend to ask questions that are more argumentative.
(c) women tend to give more feedback; men listen more quietly.
(d) men are more interested in being liked; women seek respect.
7. Effective listening includes
(a) filtering out points of disagreement.
(b) bias.
(c) detailed criticism.
(d) confirming one's understanding of a message.
8. Two skills associated with being a good listener are the ability
(a) to pay attention and to provide feedback.
(b) to pay attention and to mask your disinterest when necessary.
(c) to pay attention and to provide a strong point of view in response to a given message.
(d) to listen to more than one message at a time and to provide constructive criticism.
9. When listening to someone similar to in background, beliefs and ideas,
(a) there is less speaker credibility than when listening to someone with whom you have greater
differences.
(b) it is easier to understand the message than when listening to someone with whom you have
greater differences.
(c) more bias gets in the way of understanding than when listening to someone with whom you
have greater differences.
(d) it is more difficult to understand the message than when listening to someone with whom you
have greater differences.
10. When someone in conversation spends more time trying to figure out what they are going to say
next than they do listening, he or she could be called
(a) self-absorbed.
(b) wise.
(c) an experienced listener.
(d) a proactive listener.
11. Asking questions of the person speaking to you is
(a) advised for the purpose of gaining power in the conversation.
(b) better than paraphrasing for understanding.
(c) impolite.
(d) advised for the purpose of understanding.
12. Which of the following does research show to be better listeners?
(a) All people are the same
(b) Men
(c) Women
(d) Americans
13. Nonverbal messages are
(a) generally irrelevant to overall message meaning.
(b) often overestimated in importance.
(c) attempts at manipulation and should be ignored.
(d) important for a listeners to understand.
14. Critical listening involves
(a) jumping to conclusions.
(b) bias.
(c) offering at least a few negative comments.
(d) listening to evaluate the information given.
15. Logic and reasoning are key to
(a) receiving a message.
(b) responding to as message.
(c) critical listening
(d) message understanding.
16. As a listener, delaying feedback
(a) is a sign of a bad listener.
(b) is irresponsible.
(c) is inappropriate in all circumstances.
(d) might be appropriate in some circumstances.
17. When responding to a speaker,
(a) hold back on feelings.
(b) be as detailed as possible.
(c) always agree with him or her to avoid conflict.
(d) be brief.
18. What does it mean to paraphrase?
(a) To evaluate
(b) To obscure
(c) To summarize
(d) To emphasize
19. Emphatic listening takes into account the speaker's
(a) thoughts.
(b) thoughts and feelings.
(c) culture and feelings.
(d) feelings.
20. Looking for commonalities when listening is
(a) intrusive.
(b) biased.
(c) a good idea.
(d) unethical.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (b)
5 (c)
6. (c)
7. (d)
8. (a)
9. (b)
10 (a)
11. (d)
12. (c)
13. (d)
14. (d)
15 (c)
16. (d)
17. (d)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20 (c)
Chapter-4
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which of the following is not a role of the chairperson during a meeting?
(a) Delegating tasks.
(b) Ruling on points of order.
(c) Keeping clear and accurate minutes.
(d) All of these.
2. The problem of 'meetings within meetings' is most likely to occur when:
(a) the seating is arranged in an oval shape.
(b) the seating is arranged in a U shape.
(c) there is a long rectangular seating arrangement.
(d) none of these
3. What is another term for a proposal put to the meeting by a member?
(a) A motion
(b) The agenda
(c) A quorum
(d) All of these
4. Your staff club committee meets once a month. Their meetings can be attended by any member of
the organisation and strictly follow Westminster procedure. These meetings are:
(a) committee.
(b) formal.
(c) informal.
(d) All of these
5. Which forms of electronic meeting take place over the Internet?
(a) Audio conferencing and web conferencing
(b) Formal electronic meetings and discussion threads
(c) Videoconferencing and audio conferencing
(d) Audio conferencing and teleconferencing
6. A less structured meeting that is oriented towards decision making and problem solving is
usually:
(a) committee.
(b) informal.
(c) formal.
(d) All of these
7. A committee that has been set up by two committees to deal with matters of common interest is
known as a:
(a) Consultative committee
(b) Standing committee.
(c) Joint committee
(d) Subcommittee
8. Which of the following activities is the responsibility of members during a meeting?
(a) To encourage all members to participate.
(b) To prepare for the meeting and be aware of how to conduct themselves.
(c) To ensure that the agenda items are dealt with.
(d) All of these
9. Which of the following is not a communication barrier in a meeting scenario:
(a) Providing a script (agenda).
(b) High intertia amongst group members.
(c) Members who lack skill in managing and facilitating mutual decision making.
(d) Using jargon.
10. How can a virtual meeting be made more personal?
(a) Seek input from reticent members.
(b) Allow time for introductions.
(c) Seek input from participants prior to the meeting.
(d) All of the above.
11. The ideal seating arrangement for a face-to-face meeting is:
(a) V-shaped seating arrangement.
(b) U shaped seating arrangement.
(c) Circular or oval seating arrangement.
(d) Long rectangular seating arrangement.
12. Group decisions may fail because:
(a) Everyone has a different role.
(b) Conflict emerges.
(c) The leader is not willing or able to accept decisions made by the group.
(d) All of these
13. A group that is not formally established by management is known as a:
(a) Responsive team
(b) An informal group.
(c) A consensus group
(d) All of these
14. Brainstorming is a technique to:
(a) facilitate participation.
(b) propose solutions before the problem is clearly understood.
(c) facilitate problem-solving.
(d) stimulate creativity.
15. When team members agree on a solution or a position, we can say they have:
(a) reached consensus.
(b) developed cohesiveness.
(c) reached a compromise.
(d) All of these
16. At the norming stage of development of a team:
(a) issues of inclusion and exclusion can cause conflict.
(b) people develop a pattern of relationships and begin to share goals.
(c) the group balances working and maintaining relationships.
(d) none of these
17. At a general staff meeting, Murray proposes a solution to a problem based on his prior
experiences in a similar situation. What kind of role is Murray fulfilling?
(a) A task-related role.
(b) An interpersonal problem solver role.
(c) A maintenance-related role.
(d) All of these
18. Groupthink:
(a) prevents disagreement but allows for a full assessment of alternatives.
(b) creates disagreement and prevents a full assessment of alternatives.
(c) prevents disagreement and constructive criticism.
(d) All of these
19. Which of the following is an example of a dysfunctional role?
(a) A person who seeks to avoid conflict.
(b) A person trying to achieve personal goals at the expense of the group's goals.
(c) A person who asks question to draw out facts.
(d) None of these
20. Meetings play an important role in management and communication.
(a) True
(b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5 (a)
6. (b)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10 (d)
11. (c)
12. (c)
13. (b)
14. (d)
15 (a)
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20 (a)
Chapter-5
Self Assessment Questions
1. The three necessary elements necessary when someone communicates are...
(a) Object, referent, interpreter
(b) Speaker, interpreter, symbol
(c) Concept, symbol, referent
(d) Symbol, referent and interpreter
2. Elissa is sitting in class analyzing how well she understands the lecture. Elissa is communicating...
(a) Publicly
(b) Impersonally
(c) Interpersonally
(d) Intrapersonally
3. You need at least how many people in order to practice group communication?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
4. According to the Communication Elements Model, the listener...
(a) Merely encodes the feeback.
(b) Decodes the feedback and encodes the message.
(c) Encodes the feedback and decodes the message.
(d) Decodes both the message and the feedback.
5. Which of the following levels of communication is most formal?
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Group
(c) Intrapersonal
(d) Public
6. Messages are also sent to the speaker from the listener. These are called...
(a) Decoding.
(b) Feedback.
(c) Channels.
(d) Encodings.
7. The ideas for the message originate...
(a) Within the environment.
(b) Within the feedback.
(c) Within the channel.
(d) Within the speaker.
8. What distinguishes the levels of communication?
(a) Environment involved, noise occurring, and feedback opportunity.
(b) Noise occurring, channels used and the formality of situation.
(c) Number of people, environment involved and channels used.
(d) Number of people, formality of situation and feedback opportunity.
9. The communication is derived from the Latin word communicare, which means...
(a) To make specific, interpret, share, and impart.
(b) To make common to many, interpret, send, receive.
(c) To make common to many, share, impart, divide.
(d) To care about others through sharing, imparting and dividing.
10. According to the book, which of the following skills is the least effective form of memorization?
(a) Reading
(b) Seeing
(c) Speaking
(d) Hearing
11. The four conditions that affect encoded messages are:
(a) knowledge, aptitude, timing and feedback.
(b) skill, attitudes, values and leadership capabilities.
(c) skill, attitudes, knowledge and social-cultural system.
(d) ability, language, timing and feedback.
12. John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of:
(a) decoding.
(b) encoding.
(c) sourcing.
(d) feedback.
13. Undue stress regarding oral and/or written communication is known as:
(a) ambivalent reticence
(b) communication block
(c) communication apprehension.
(d) reticent apprehension
14. When communicating with people from different cultures it is best to:
(a) assume similarities
(b) treat your interpretation as a working hypothesis
(c) avoid descriptions
(d) focus on interpretations
15. In dealing with cross-cultural communication, putting oneself in the recipient’s shoes is a method
termed:
(a) symbolic interaction.
(b) empathy.
(c) semantics.
(d) hypothesis testing.
16. When communicating with people from a different culture it is best to assume:
(a) differences until similarity is proven
(b) similar interpretation of symbols
(c) similar understanding of ideas
(d) differences in intelligence
17. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of nonverbal communication?
(a) It includes meanings transmitted through facial expressions.
(b) Less is known about it than is known about verbal communication.
(c) It does not make use of oral processes, speech, or formal language.
(d) It is insignificant and should be ignored in the process of explaining and predicting behaviour.
18. To improve your listening skills it is a good idea to:
(a) interrupt with questions
(b) paraphrase
(c) make lots of gestures
(d) avoid eye contact
19. Intranets are a useful way to improve communication with:
(a) customers
(b) external clients
(c) global markets
(d) employees
20. Receivers in the communication process project their interests and expectations into
communications as they decode them. This is called:
(a) emotions.
(b) language.
(c) selective perception.
(d) filtering.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5 (d)
6. (b)
7. (d)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10 (a)
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (c)
14. (b)
15 (b)
16. (a)
17. (d)
18. (b)
19. (d)
20 (c)
Chapter-6
Self Assessment Questions
1. The essential parts of a business letter are:
(a) writer's name and address, date, inside address, greeting, subject line, body of letter,
complimentary close, writer's signature and job title.
(b) writer's name and address, date, attention line, sender's telephone extension, body of letter,
complimentary close.
(c) writer's name and address, date, subject line, inside address, enclosure, complimentary close.
(d) none of these
2. Which is not one of the advantages of sending a memo?
(a) It provides a written record that can be placed on file.
(b) It indicates that the information it contains is part of organisational procedures because it is on
company letterhead.
(c) It can replace personal interaction.
(d) none of these
3. The routine order of information in short reports:
(a) Is suited to a reader who is familiar with the content.
(b) is suited to a reader who needs to make decisions based on information contained within the
report
(c) is suited to a reader who is unfamiliar with the content.
(d) All of these
4. A monthly report on occupational health and safety incidents on your workplace site would be
which type of report?
(a) A justification report.
(b) A periodic report.
(c) A progress report.
(d) none of these
5. The writing strategy for a bad news letter conforms to the following pattern of organisation:
(a) a buffer, the bad news, the reasons, a neutral close.
(b) the news, the explanation, a positive close and a contact number.
(c) a buffer, an explanation, the bad news, a positive close.
(d) none of these
6. Your manager requests a report on the current state of development of a short-term project that
you have been supervising. What type of report will you write?
(a) A progress report
(b) An incident report
(c) A periodic report
(d) All of these
7. When writing a good news or neutral letter, you should use the:
(a) indirect order of information.
(b) AIDA order of information.
(c) direct order of information.
(d) All of these
8. Yours sincerely':
(a) is typed four lines below the last line of the letter.
(b) Matches the salutation 'Dear' and the name of someone with whom you have never
corresponded.
(c) is a complimentary close in a business letter, and matches a formal salutation "Dear Mr Jones".
(d) is replacing 'Yours faithfully' to match the formal salutations 'Dear Sir' or 'Dear Madam'.
9. The six types of memo are:
(a) instruction, request, announcement, transmittal, confirmation and authorisation.
(b) instruction, repeal, announcement, transition, conditional and acceptance.
(c) introduction, request, announcement, convenience, transmittal and acceptance.
(d) All of these
10. Suggestions of security, safety, trust and prestige are:
(a) objective appeals.
(b) emotional appeals.
(c) appeals to authority.
(d) none of these
11. Business letters produce immediate effect because they are:
(a) formal
(b) brief
(c) informal
(d) interesting
12. Letters that please the receiver are called:
(a) invitation letters
(b) good-news letters
(c) routine letters
(d) “yes” letters
13. The purpose of a “no” response letter is to leave the reader with:
(a) reasons for the rejection of the request
(b) minimum disappointment
(c) no future hope
(d) unpleasant feelings
14. Which of the following is not a guideline for writing a business letter?
(a) remember that you are often writing for multiple audiences
(b) state your purpose at the end of your document
(c) proofread for grammar all documents you send out
(d) write so that your letter is clear, concise, professional, and friendly
15. Which of the following is not part of a business letter?
(a) return address
(b) salutation
(c) close
(d) references
16. Which of the following is not part of a memo?
(a) closing
(b) heading
(c) discussion section
(d) salutation
17. Which of the following is not part of a newsletter?
(a) contributions from readers
(b) notices of upcoming events
(c) salutation
(d) short news articles
18. Which of the following is correct about full block-style business letters?
(a) signature appears on the right half of the page
(b) all parts start at the left margin
(c) paragraph indentations
(d) return address appears on the right half of the page
19. Which of the following is correct about a newsletter?
(a) do not include a banner on the front page
(b) everything on every page should align with something else on the page
(c) pages should not contain any contrasting elements
(d) margin size for newsletters should be the same on all sides
20. Which of the following is a form of a résumé?
(a) dysfunctional résumé
(b) forward chronological order résumé
(c) reverse ability résumé
(d) functional résumé
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (b)
5 (c)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (a)
10 (c)
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (b)
14. (b)
15 (d)
16. (d)
17. (c)
18. (b)
19. (b)
20 (d)
Chapter-7
Self Assessment Questions
1. Good research reports will always:
(a) provide results that may be irrelevant.
(b) focus on the Harvard style.
(c) focus on addressing the research objectives.
(d) provide respondent names and addresses.
2. The report writer should always remember that people have expectations about what information
they will find and where it will be. It is unusual for final reports to have a section with:
(a) research costs.
(b) method.
(c) appendices.
(d) recommendation.
3. Which report section is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research
question?
(a) Objectives.
(b) Appendices.
(c) Results.
(d) Method.
4. Which of these would not help your confidence in the context of a presentation?
(a) Good preparation.
(b) Looking good.
(c) Presentation software.
(d) Comfort with the situation.
5. Which of these is bad practice for a report?
(a) To have a contents page or another form of indexing.
(b) To state fieldwork dates and sample sizes.
(c) To include names of all respondents with contact details.
(d) To use a title that is short and to the point.
6. Which one of these phrases is best avoided in a report?
(a) Frequently occurring.
(b) Typical behaviour.
(c) Normal respondent.
(d) Average consumption.
7. Which one of these is best avoided in a report?
(a) Conclusions.
(b) Transcribed fragments.
(c) Idiomatic phrases.
(d) Political correctness.
8. Which of these situations cannot be discovered to help preparation before a presentation?
(a) Audience size.
(b) Reason for meeting.
(c) Room size.
(d) The mood of the meeting.
9. The report is not:
(a) future secondary data.
(b) tangible evidence of a research project.
(c) a basis for decision-making.
(d) a research proposal.
10. he results section is where you present the findings in a readable format. In a qualitative report it
is likely that you will always use:
(a) tables.
(b) pie charts.
(c) words.
(d) graphs.
11. Reports present conclusions based on:
(a) investigation
(b) intuition
(c) belief
(d) impression
12. The terms of reference for producing a specific report are given by the:
(a) writer
(b) expert
(c) reader
(d) organization
13. The index forms a part of the:
(a) glossary
(b) main body
(c) front matter
(d) end matter
14. How many basic parts of a formal report are there?
(a) Six
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
15. Which of the following is not a subsidiary part of a formal report?
(a) Appendix
(b) Glossary
(c) Table of contents
(d) References
16. A cover letter is normally written by the:
(a) CEO
(b) report writer
(c) top management
(d) reader
17. The chronological development of information in the body of the report is done according to the:
(a) collection of data
(b) choice of the writer
(c) order in which events occurred
(d) logical sequence of events
18. The glossary is the list of:
(a) technical terms used in the report
(b) diagrams used in the report
(c) subjects covered in the report
(d) references
19. Business research gives information to guide:
(a) business decisions
(b) brokers
(c) stockholders
(d) scholars
20.
A report can present the information in:
(a) two ways
(b) three ways
(c) four ways
(d) five ways
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5 (c)
6. (c)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (d)
10 (c)
11. (a)
12. (d)
13. (d)
14. (d)
15 (a)
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (a)
19. (a)
20 (b)
Chapter-8
Self Assessment Questions
1. The resume type that showcases the job seeker's qualifications and skills is the
(a) scannable
(b) reverse-chronological
(c) functional
(d) combination
2. The resume style that includes formatting techniques such as boldface, italic, and underlining is
the
(a) scannable
(b) key word
(c) bells and whistles
(d) plain vanilla
3. Resume scanning software
(a) is not very popular with major recruiters
(b) creates a template that resume writers can use
(c) helps job candidates write effective resumes
(d) evaluates resumes based on key words
4. The heading of a resume includes
(a) personal information such as name and address
(b) career objective
(c) title of most recent job
(d) names of references
5. A clear and concise statement of the type of job you are seeking and the benefits the company will
gain by hiring you is the definition of a
(a) personal statement
(b) personal summary
(c) career objective
(d) heading
6. How prominently you display your education on your resume and how detailed this section is
depends on
(a) whether your school is well known
(b) your grade point average
(c) how long it has been since you were in school
(d) how many schools you have attended
7. A good way to add impact to the work experience section of a resume is to use which types of
statements about your work:
(a) Scope statement, seniority statement, skill statement
(b) Achievement statement, skill statement, training statement
(c) Duty statement, scope statement, achievement statement
(d) Duty statement, loyalty statement, achievement statement
8. When writing a resume, it is recommended that each line that describes your work experience
start with a(n)
(a) action noun
(b) proper noun
(c) action verb
(d) adjective
9. Using resume writing templates will NOT make
(a) the task of typing your resume easier
(b) your resume look unique and distinct
(c) writing your resume very automatic
(d) you fit your ideas into someone else's format
10. The number of references typically recommended is
(a) 2–4
(b) 1–3
(c) 4–6
(d) 3–5
11. Which of the following people should you not ask to be a reference?
(a) Your coworker
(b) Your boss
(c) Your mother
(d) Your professor
12. Which question should not be asked of a reference?
(a) Who lives with the candidate?
(b) How long have you known the candidate?
(c) What is the candidate's attendance like at work?
(d) What are the candidate's weaknesses?
13. A resume is...
(a) An autobiography of one's career life and professional experiences in order to secure
employment.
(b) A detailed listing of a job candidate's skills, experiences, responsibilities and achievements as
these relate to the position and company being targeted.
(c) A complete listing of an individual's education, work experience and professional training.
(d) none of these
14. The purpose of a resume is to...
(a) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to secure an interview.
(b) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to secure employment.
(c) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to eliminate the competition.
(d) All of these
15. The length of a resume must be...
(a) One page, no longer.
(b) Two pages, no longer.
(c) Whatever number of pages is necessary to qualify the candidate.
(d) none of these
16. The most important information in resume is...
(a) Job experience and education.
(b) Contact information.
(c) Achievements.
(d) All of these
17. When writing resume, main focus should be on...
(a) Who will be reading resume.
(b) Presenting my best skills, experiences and achievements in priority.
(c) The readability and visual presentation of my document.
(d) All of these
18. Certain personal information needs to be included in the resume, such as...
(a) My name and contact information.
(b) My name, contact information and date of birth.
(c) My name, contact information, date of birth and number of dependents.
(d) All of these
19. It's okay to exaggerate information on resume when...
(a) writing about older, less important positions and need to make my career path more logical.
(b) shy of completing a degree by only a few credits - and a degree is a requirement of the position.
(c) It's never okay to exaggerate information in a resume.
(d) none of these
20. Posting resume on a job search database online will make resume available to:
(a) Potential employers.
(b) Only those ads to which I respond.
(c) Almost anyone, including my current employer.
(d) none of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5 (c)
6. (c)
7. (c)
8. (c)
9. (b)
10 (d)
11. (c)
12. (a)
13. (b)
14. (a)
15 (c)
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (a)
19. (c)
20 (c)
Chapter-9
Self Assessment Questions
1.Oral communication is the interchange of _____________ between the sender and receiver.
(a) verbal messages
(b) cues and clues
(c) written messages
(d) signs and gestures
2. Body talk is also known as:
(a) overflow
(b) physical communication
(c) noise
(d) leakage
3. Oral communication is better than written communication for:
(a) saving time
(b) conveying facts and opinions
(c) conveying feelings and emotions
(d) providing opportunity to refer back
4. The limitation of oral communication is that:
(a) it does not require on-the-spot thinking
(b) it is irreversible—what is said cannot be taken back
(c) it is easy to be aware of our body language
(d) it is not affected by the speaker’s feelings or stress or excitement levels
5. In business, oral communication is face-to-face:
(a) in all situations
(b) in some situations
(c) in all but one situation
(d) in no situation
6. The foremost barrier to oral communication is:
(a) poor listening
(b) concentration
(c) interestedness
(d) humility
7. The effectiveness of oral communication depends on the speaker’s ability to use:
(a) foreign words
(b) long sentences
(c) complex words
(d) simple language
8. In oral communication, what matters most is:
(a) how you say it
(b) when you say it
(c) where you say it
(d) what you say
9. Oral communication is also known as:
(a) impersonal communication
(b) non-verbal communication
(c) verbal communication
(d) face-to-face communication
10. In business, oral communication is suitable for:
(a) recording things
(b) confusing workers
(c) delaying the decision-making process
(d) discussing things
11. Please identify which of the following comments is false or is stated incorrectly in regards to
delivering a presentation.
(a) People cannot distinguish between the words and who speaks them.
(b) Speaking in a way that is hard to understand may result in the audience rejecting your ideas.
(c) Monologues are one-way speeches, delivered without interruption.
(d).Vocal enthusiasm has little impact on how the presentation is perceived by the audience.
12. Which type of speaking relies on speaking notes?
(a) Manuscript
(b) Memorized
(c) Impromptu
(d) Extemporaneous
13. Conversation, in general, differs from other forms of oral communication with respect to its:
(a) purpose
(b) informality
(c) technique
(d) structure
14. Social conversation is also known as:
(a) idle talk
(b) gossip
(c) chit-chat
(d) meaningless communication
15. Conversation control means that, through practice, you can control the conversation of:
(a) the whole group
(b) your opponent
(c) your own self
(d) someone else
16. An emotional outburst should be answered with:
(a) tolerance
(b) strong language
(c) humour
(d) facts
17. A presentation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information
with an audience that is:
(a) specific
(b) large
(c) small
(d) mixed
18. The three major elements of presentation do not include:
(a) a presenter
(b) specific content
(c) an audience
(d) visual aids
19. Initially, a presentation is a form of:
(a) group communication
(b) two-way communication
(c) intrapersonal communication
(d) one-way communication
20. To make a presentation effective and impressive, you should use:
(a) a simple and active form of sentences
(b) complex sentences
(c) passive sentences
(d) jargon
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5 (c)
6. (a)
7. (d)
8. (a)
9. (c)
10 (d)
11. (d)
12. (d)
13. (b)
14. (c)
15 (c)
16. (d)
17. (a)
18. (d)
19. (d)
20 (a)
Chapter-10
Self Assessment Questions
1. "That is a ____ nice ring," said Dwayne.
(a) real
(b) really
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
2. ____________________ is a developmental disability that significantly affects a student's verbal
and nonverbal communication, social interaction, and educational performance.
(a) Autism
(b) Mental retardation
(c) Speech/language impairment
(d) Learning disability
3. Autism is generally evident before age three and is manifest when the child engages in
____________________________, resists environmental change, and displays unusual responses to
sensory experiences.
(a) Academic activitie
(b) Poor behavior
(c) Repetitive activities and stereotyped movements
(d) Social activities
4. Autistic disorder, Rett's disorder, childhood disintegrative disorder, Asperger's disorder, and
pervasive developmental disorder are sometimes referred to as which of the following?
(a) Autism
(b) Autism spectrum disorder
(c) Stereotypy
(d) Mental retardation
5. The term _________________ describes individuals with significant challenges in social and
emotional functioning but without significant delays in language development or intellectual
functioning.
(a) Autistic disorder
(b) Childhood disintegrative disorder
(c) Rett's disorder
(d) Asperger syndrome
6. Students with autism usually have a number of language impairments. Two common language
impairments are delayed language and _______________________.
(a) Fluency
(b) Echolalia
(c) Articulation
(d) Dyslexia
7. When given challenging problems, children try out a variety of strategies, observe which work
best, which work less well, and which are ineffective and gradually select strategies that result in
rapid, accurate solutions.
(a) Vygotsky
(b) Information processing
(c) Piaget
(d) none of these.
8. Mnemonic strategies help students learn and retain information. Mnemonic strategies include
which of the following?
(a) Keyword strategies
(b) Pegword strategies
(c) Letter strategies
(d) All of these
9. Positive behavior support seeks to tailor students' environments to their ___________________,
strengths, and needs.
(a) Differences
(b) Preferences
(c) Family structure
(d) Cultural background
10. Social stories are written by educators, parents, or students and describe
_________________________, social cues, and appropriate responses to those cues.
(a) Conversation style
(b) Conflict resolution techniques
(c) Social situations
(d) Using appropriate introductions
11. Goals for promoting friendship should include trustworthiness and loyalty, conflict resolution,
general friendship skills, positive interaction style, and _________________.
(a) Conversation style
(b) Taking the perspective of others
(c) Responding appropriately
(d) Using appropriate introductions
12. The bird that I saw in my garden this morning has ____ colors than any other bird I've seen.
(a) more brilliant
(b) brillianter
(c) the most brilliant
(d) none of these.
13. That is the _____ I've ever had at a party.
(a) funnest time
(b) most fun
(c) more fun
(d) none of these.
14. Tim hopes that he did ____ on his history test.
(a) good
(b) well
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
15. My aunt and uncle ____ enjoyed their visit with us.
(a) surely
(b) sure
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
16. The people in the downstairs apartment were playing their stereo too ____, so the manager told
them to turn it down.
(a) loudly
(b) loud
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
17. The paragraph I wrote for this assignment was _____ than the one I wrote last time.
(a) more short
(b) shorter
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
18. Young children egocentrically assign human purposes to physical events.
(a) Piaget
(b) Information processing
(c) Vygotsky
(d) none of these.
19. Obsessions, tics, and perseveration are characteristics of which of the following?
(a) Repetitive behavior
(b) Speech/language impairments
(c) Emotional disorders
(d) Atypical social development
20. Students with autism usually have a number of language impairments. Two common language
impairments are delayed language and _______________________.
(a) Fluency
(b) Echolalia
(c) Articulation
(d) Dyslexia
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5 (d)
6. (b)
7. (b)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10 (c)
11. (b)
12. (a)
13. (b)
14. (b)
15 (a)
16. (a)
17. (b)
18. (a)
19. (a)
20 (b)
Chapter-11
Self Assessment Questions
1. Effective presentations require:
(a)Good presentation skills and especially the ability to present material dramatically
(b)A pleasant smile, good eye contact, suitable clothes and a well-modulated voice.
(c)Planning, practice and presentation skills
(d)Planning, a logical order of presentation and asking the class lots of questions.
2. What are the features of an introduction for a presentation?
(a)The use of questions, quotations, statistics or humour as a means of gaining audience
involvement
(b)Statement of purpose, background, overview or outline of the argument, and the gaining of
audience interest
(c)There are two features: using a question as a means of gaining audience involvement right from
the start, and providing a summary of the argument within the presentation.
(d)Statement of purpose, background, and overview or outline of the argument in the presentation
3. Audience engagement is used:
(a)To help the audience to understand the information.
(b)So that the audience may be part of the experience.
(c)To show the assessor how good you are at giving presentations.
(d)To keep the audience awake during the presentation
4. What is important to consider when asking questions in a presentation?
(a)Cultural differences are important, as direct questions may be offensive to some class members.
(b)It is important to consider how you can answer the question fully as a means of showing the
lecturer your depth of knowledge on the topic.
(c)It is important to consider the use of a rhetorical question as it allows the audience the
opportunity to provide a specific answer.
(d)All of these.
5. What type of written format should be taken into the presentation?
(a)A formal essay
(b)Note form using short simple sentences or bullet points
(c)A 'scripted' form to be read aloud
(d)Do not take in anything at all as it is an oral presentation
6. Which of the following should NOT be done in a team or group presentation?
(a)Referring to your team members by name
(b)Planning so the whole presentation is consistent and complete
(c)Using 'I' when presenting ideas and information in your own section of the presentation
(d)Using 'we' when presenting the ideas and information in your own section of the presentation
7. How should you practice your oral presentation?
(a)While practising, use as many of your senses as possible.
(b)Always record your presentation so that you can listen to it over and over again.
(c)Memorise it word for word.
(d)Always have someone to listen to it so that they may give you feedback.
8. What 'body' aspect of the presentation is the most important to consider?
(a)The whole body
(b)The voice
(c)The eyes
(d)Gestures
9. Good posture is the most important type of body language for a speaker giving a presentation.
(a)True
(b)False
(c)No Information
10. A presentation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information
with an audience that is:
(a)mixed
(b)small
(c)specific
(d)large
11. The presenter acts as the:
(a)advocate of the information
(b)supporter of the information
(c)medium of the information
(d)deliverer of the information
12. The three major elements of presentation do not include:
(a)visual aids
(b)an audience
(c)specific content
(d)a presenter
13. The audience for a presentation consists of people who:
(a)are uninformed and lack a purpose
(b)are confused in their purpose
(c)are uniform in their level of information and purpose
(d)vary in their level of information and purpose
14. To be able to give a good presentation, a full rehearsal is:
(a)audience based
(b)useless
(c)necessary
(d)optional
15. Reading out a presentation is:
(a)not allowed
(b)helpful
(c)dull
(d)allowed
16. To make a presentation effective and impressive, you should use:
(a)passive sentences
(b)a simple and active form of sentences
(c)complex sentences
(d)jargon
17. To select the content of your presentation, you should know:
(a)your purpose
(b)the audience’s needs
(c)the available material
(d)the time limit
18. In presentation design, maximum time is given to the:
(a)question–answer session
(b)introduction
(c)main body
(d)conclusion
19. Initially, a presentation is a form of:
(a)one-way communication
(b)intrapersonal communication
(c)group communication
(d)two-way communication
20. Nonverbal communication is best described as:
(a)the facial expressions and tone of voice used while speaking.
(b)the part of the message not encoded in words.
(c)body language
(d)noe of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6. (c)
7.(a)
8. (b)
9.(c)
10.(c)
11.(a)
12.(a)
13.(c)
14.(c)
15. (a)
16.(b)
17.(b)
18.(c)
19.(a)
20. (b)