Download 36030213 Name: roup: page 1 (S)

36030213 Name:
roup:
page 1 (S)-single multiple choice
#1.
Pressure gradient is the driving force of the transport as
follows: (S)
a) facilitated diffusion
b) simple diffusion
c) secondary active transport
d) filtration
e) osmosis
#2.
If a nerve membrane suddenly became equally permeable to
both Na and K ions, the membrane potential would (S)
a) not change
b) approach the new sodium equilibrium potential
c) approach a constant value of about +55 mV
d) approach the new potassium equilibrium potential
e) approach a value of about 0 mV
#3.
The action potential conduction velocity of an axon shows
positive correlation with (M)
a) the length of the axon
b) the distance between two Ranvier's nodes
c) the diameter of the axon
d) the capacity of the membrane
e) the thickness of the myelin sheath
#4.
Reuptake is a major way of eliminating transmitters in the:
(M)
a) inhibitory synapses
b) excitatory synapses
c) cholinerg synapses
d) noradrenergic synapses
e) serotoninergic synapses
#5.
Atropine inhibits (S)
a) Ach actions in the skeletal muscles
b) transmission in the sympathetic ganglia
c) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
d) the actions of noradrenaline
e) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
#6.
ATP in skeletal muscles is used for (S)
a) pumping Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) the release of Ca2+ from endoplasmic reticulum
c) uptake of glucose
d) opening of voltage-gated Na-channels
e) pumping out K+ from the cell
#7.
Haptoglobin is the plasma carrier of (S)
a) hemoglobin
b) copper
c) bilirubin
d) vitamin B12
e) iron
#8.
The mechanism of iron uptake by the erythroblasts is (M)
a) cotransport with Na+
b) facilitated diffusion
c) simple diffusion
d) endocytosis
e) an active transport
#9.
Free bilirubin is released from (M)
a) Kupffer cells
b) macrophages in the red pulp of the spleen
c) erythrocytes
d) urobilinogen
e) transferrin
f) hepatocytes
#10.
What are the TWO most important cellular sources of von
Willebrand factor (vWF)? (M)
liver cells
renal tubular cells
macrophages
megakaryocytes/platelets
endothelial cells
#11.
Blood cells were agglutinated by anti A, anti B and anti AB.
The blood type is (S)
a) type A
b) type B
c) type AB
d) cannot be decided; the test has to be repeated
e) type O
#12.
Members of the specific immune system: (M)
a) T-lymphocytes
b) complement system
c) cytokines
d) B-lymphocytes and plasma ceils
e) natural killer cells
f) phagocytes
g) antibodies
#13.
The protein concentration of the blood plasma is about (S)
a) 40 mmol/l
b) 80 g/l
c) 40 mg/l
d) 120 umol/l
e) 80 mol/l
#14.
When determining RBC osmotic resistence (S)
a) hypotonic series of NaCl solutions are used
b) we use Ringer solution
c) hypertonic series of KCl solutions are used
d) physiological saline is used #15.
FALSE statement concerning the pacemaker potential in the
sino-atrial node: (S)
a) frequency of depolarization is faster than that of any other
part of the heart
36030213 Name:
roup:
page 2 (S)-single multiple choice
b) depolarizes at a faster rate under increased cholinergic
stimulation
c) depolarization is inhibited by decreased extracellular
calcium levels
d) depolarization is stimulated by noradrenalin
e) depolarization is partly a result of an increased membrane
permeability to Na+ (If)
#16.
During isovolumetric contraction: (M)
a) right ventricular pressure reaches 120 Hgmm
b) AV valves are closed
c) T-wave appears on the ECG
d) aortic pressure reaches 120 Hgmm
e) left ventricular pressure is higher than left atrial pressure
#17.
The P wave of the electrocardiogram is elicited by: (S)
a) ventricular repolarization
b) atrial repolarization
c) atrial contraction
d) atrial depolarization
e) none of the answers
#18.
Parasympathetic stimulation on the heart (M)
a) decreases the cAMP content of the atrial myocardium
b) decreases heart rate
c) elicits an enhanced ventricular contractility
d) can be blocked by administration of muscarine
e) results in a duplication of the first heart sound
f) shortens the PQ interval in the ECG
#19.
Determine the cardiac output! Oxygen consumption:
2000mL/min, arterial oxygen concentration: 20mL/100mL,
venous oxygen concentration: 10 mL/100mL (S)
a) 10 L/min
b) 5 L/min
c) 25 L/min
d) 20 L/min
#20.
Renal blood flow is about 20% of the resting cardiac output.
Which of the following statements is true concerning renal
vascular resistance? (S)
renal vascular resistance does not contribute to total
peripheral resistance
renal vascular resistance is about 20% of total peripheral
resistance
renal vascular resistance is about 80% of total peripheral
resistance
renal vascular resistance is about 500% of total peripheral
resistance
#21.
The Fahraeus-Lindquist effect: (S)
a) blood viscosity decreases with increasing shear rate
e) is well characterized by all of the above statements
b) blood viscosity decreases in small tubes corresponding with
vessel sizes in the microcirculation
c) blood viscosity decreases with decreasing hematocrit
d) blood viscosity decreases with increasing body temperature
#22.
The venous pulse : (S)
a) is a damped arterial pulse
b) is a result of pressure changes in the heart propagated to
neighboring veins
c) is diminished in cardiac failure
d) is produced by rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscles
of the veins that is the main force helping the cardiac filling
#23.
Blood flow in the terminal vasculature of systemic circulation:
(M)
a) increases with local hypoxia
b) increases with increasing local pH
c) the diameter of the capillaries is importantly modified by
nervous stimulation
d) increases with increasing local C02 concentration #24.
Mediators which cause vasodilataton: (M)
a) CGRP
b) TXA2
c) 5-HT
d) Endothelin-1
e) VIP
#25.
Net capillary filtration increases, if: (M)
a) blood hemoglobin concentration decreases
b) plasma albumin concentration selectively increases
c) microvascular permeability increases
d) plasma protein concentration decreases
e) the activity of muscle pump increases
#26.
The most effective factor enhancing venous return is (S)
a) exspiration
b) muscle pump
c) positive intraabdominal pressure
d) negative hydrostatic pressure in the veins above the heart
#27.
During early ventricular systole, coronary blood flow... (S)
a) is more markedly reduced at the subepicardial surface than
the subendocardial surface
b) is markedly reduced because the cups of the aortic valve
occlude the coronary arteries and therefore protect them from
excess pressure
c) in the left coronary artery goes to near 0 or below
d) in the right coronary artery goes to near 0 or below
36030213 Name:
roup:
page 3 (S)-single multiple choice
#28.
Local hypoxia elicits vasoconstriction in the resistance vessels
of (S)
a) the cerebral circulation
b) the skeletal muscle circulation
c) the pulmonary circulation
d) the coronary circulation
#29.
The baroreceptors: (M)
a) when activated, they stimulate the bulbar cardioinhibitory
area
b) are stretch receptors
c) are situated in the carotid and aortic bodies
d) are innervated with afferent fibers projecting to the nucleus
of the solitary tract
e) are found exclusively in the high pressure-part of the
circulatory system
#30.
The intrapleural pressure rises above the atmospheric pressure
(S) :
during normal inspiration
it is always higher than the atmospheric pressure
during normal expiration
during the Valsalva's maneuver
during the Mueller's maneuver
#31.
Hb-O2 dissociation curve is shifted to the right by (M)
a) increased Hb concentration
b) increased p02
c) increased pH
d) increased pC02
#32.
Normal Hb02 saturation of the pulmonary arterial blood is
(M)
a) 75 %
b) 15 %
c) 40 %
d) always lower than in the pulmonar vein
e) 97 %
#33.
Peripheral chemoreceptors (S)
a) are not responsive to H+ ions
b) stimulate breathing in arterial hypoxia
c) are the major receptors for mediating the effects of C02 on
breathing
d) are located in the wall of carotid sinus and aortic arch
#34.
Which of the following cells belong to JGA? (M)
a) the podocytes of the Bowman capsule
b) intraglomerular mesangial cells
c) the external epithelial cells of the Bowman capsule
d) cells of the macula densa
e) smooth muscle cells of the efferent arteriole
e) increased temperature #35.
The patient produces 1 ml urine each minute. The plasma
osmotic concentration is 300 milliosmol/l, the urine osmotic
concentrations is 900 milliosmol/L. Which of the following
statements are true? (M)
a) the patient's free water clearance is 0 ml/min
b) the patient's free water clearance is 3 ml/min
c) the patient's free water clearance is -2 ml/min
d) the patient's osmotic clearance is 3 ml/min
e) the patient's osmotic clearance is 0.33 ml/min
#36.
The correct definition of GFR is as follows (S)
a) the quantity of blood filtered through the glomerular
capillaries each minute in all nephrons of both kidneys
b) the quantity of glomerular filtrate formed each minute in
all nephrons of both kidneys
c) the quantity of blood filtered in a nephron in a minute
d) the fraction of the blood flow that becomes filtrate each
mm
#37.
The effect of ADH is (S)
a) increase the permeability of the peritubular capillaries
b) regulate the filtration slits
c) increase the water permeability of the proximal tubules
d) increase the water permeability of the collecting tubules
e) increase the capillary permeability in the glomerulus
#38.
What happens to K+ in the kidney? (S)
a) filtration, secretion and reabsorption
b) filtration only
c) filtration and reabsorption
d) filtration and secretion
f) (myoepithelial) granular cells of the afferent arteriole #39.
The plasma glucose concentration when glucose first appears in
the urine is (S)
a) between 15 and 20 mmol/L
b) above 20-22 mmol/L
c) between 10 and 12 mmol/L
d) between 6 and 8 mmol/L
#40.
The preganglionic neuronal cell bodies controlling the detrusor
muscle of the bladder are located in the (S)
lumbar spinal cord
hypothalamus
medulla oblongata
sacral spinal cord
#41.
The intercalated cells in the collecting duct of the kidneys (S)
a) determine the final pH of the urine
b) are supporting cells in between the principal cells
c) are important for the reabsorption of water
d) are important for the reabsorption of urea
e) are involved in aldosterone-sensitive Na-reabsorption
36030213 Name:
roup:
page 4 (S)-single multiple choice
#42.
Normal swallowing is dependent on the integrity of the : (S)
a) appetite center in the hypothalamus
b) the cervical part of the spinal cord
c) 9th and 10th cranial nerves
d) facial nerve
e) 11th and 12 th cranial nerve #49.
#43.
Which portions of the gastrointestinal tract is innervated by
the sacral parasympathetic nerves (M)
a) descending colon
b) internal anal sphincter
c) pancreas
d) pylorus
e) external anal sphincter #44.
The parietal cells of the oxyntic glands produce (M)
a) intrinsic factor
b) mucus
c) gastrin
d) pepsinogen
e) HCl
#45.
Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is stimulated mainly by (S)
a) sympathetic efferents
b) somatostatin e) bile salts
d) secretin
e) cholecystokinin
#46.
After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme
is converted into its active form, trypsin, by (S)
a) procarboxypeptidase
b) enterokinase
c) an alkaline pH
#48.
Which nutrient elicits the biggest diet-induced thermogenesis
(specific dynamic effect)? (S)
a) lipids
b) carbohydrates
c) mixture of B vitamins
d) water
e) proteins
f) mixture of trace elements
The method to determine basal metabolic rate by measuring
oxygen consumption is called: (S)
a) spirometry
b) oxymetry
c) indirect calorimetry
d) whole-body plethysmograph
d) pancreatic lipase
e) pepsin
#47.
The ileum (M)
a) is the major site for absorption of
bile salts
b) is more permeable to water than
the jejunum
c) is the major site for absorption of
vitamin B12
d) is the major site for absorption of
calcium
e) is the major site for absorption of
iron #50.
Lipid-soluble vitamins include (M)
thiamine
retinol
riboflavin
cholecalciferol
alpha-tocopherol
pyridoxine
ascorbic acid