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Test 2 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. An example of scope verification is: a. reviewing the performance of an installed c. managing changes to the project schedule. software module. b. decomposing the WBS to a work package d. performing a benefit/cost analysis to level. determine if we should proceed with the project. 2. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____. a. double bind c. double constraint b. triple constraint d. double obstacle 3. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change? a. a variation in government regulations. c. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating. b. failure to include a required feature in the d. introducing technology that was not design of a telecommunication system. available when scope was originally defined. 4. Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. a. scope c. time b. quality d. cost 5. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. cost c. scope b. time d. quality 6. Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with the project. a. human resource c. communications b. risk d. procurement 7. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. a. risk c. communications b. procurement d. resource 8. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas. a. cost c. integration b. quality d. time 9. PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination. a. Producer c. Professional b. Practitioner d. Professor 10. In a ____ matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority. a. weak c. strong b. balanced d. functional 11. ____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. ____ 12. ____ 13. ____ 14. ____ 15. ____ 16. ____ 17. ____ 18. ____ 19. ____ 20. ____ 21. ____ 22. ____ 23. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution ____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution The outputs of ____ include approved and rejected change requests, approved corrective and preventive actions, approved and validated defect repair, deliverables, and updates to the project management plan and project scope statement. a. monitor and control the project work c. develop the project management plan b. close the project d. perform integrated change control A(n) ____ is a document that describes the products or services to be created by the project team. a. contract c. project charter b. statement of work d. business case A(n) ____ is a document used to develop and confirm a common understanding of the project scope. a. business case c. scope statement b. statement of work d. contract A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s execution and control. a. project management plan c. scope statement b. statement of work d. contact The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____, as is most of the project’s budget. a. execution c. closing b. planning d. monitoring and controlling A(n) ____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be changed. a. integrated change control c. performance report b. change request d. change control system The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a. end-product c. deliverable b. scope d. outcome ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during this process. a. Scope planning c. Scope control b. Scope definition d. Scope verification The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables, requested changes, and recommended corrective actions. a. scope planning c. scope definition b. scope control d. scope verification ____ involves controlling changes to project scope, which is a challenge on many information technology projects. a. Scope planning c. Scope control b. Scope definition d. Scope verification It is helpful to document project success criteria in the ____. a. scope management plan c. WBS b. project scope statement d. decomposition ____ 24. The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. a. project charter c. WBS b. scope statement d. Gantt chart ____ 25. The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping ____ 26. ____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables. a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating ____ 27. The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a. activity definition c. activity resource estimating b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating ____ 28. ____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities. a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating ____ 29. Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and updates to the schedule model data, the schedule baseline, organizational process assets, the activity list and attributes, and the project management plan. a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating ____ 30. The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a. activity list c. activity descriptions b. milestones d. activity attributes ____ 31. The goal of the ____ process is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a. activity definition c. activity resource estimating b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating ____ 32. ____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities. a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating ____ 33. ____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies. a. Activity definition c. Activity resource estimating b. Activity sequencing d. Activity duration estimating ____ 34. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal ____ 35. ____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal ____ 36. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities. a. Mandatory c. External ____ 37. ____ 38. ____ 39. ____ 40. ____ 41. ____ 42. ____ 43. ____ 44. ____ 45. ____ 46. ____ 47. ____ 48. ____ 49. b. Discretionary d. Internal The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities. a. PDM c. ADM b. AOA d. POA In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity can start. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity is started. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish A(n) ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project’s resources by category and type. a. work breakdown structure c. network diagram b. resource breakdown structure d. critical path analysis The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a. activity definition c. schedule development b. activity sequencing d. activity duration estimating ____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a. Gantt charts c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project. a. longest; longest c. shortest; longest b. longest; shortest d. shortest; shortest ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities. a. Total slack c. Free time b. Total float d. Free slack The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a. early finish date c. late start date b. late finish date d. early start date ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting ____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting ____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a. Gantt charts c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis ____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a. Murphy’s Law c. Parkinson’s Law b. Newton’s Law d. Moore’s Law ____ 50. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating ____ 51. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management ____ 52. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost consolidation d. Cost estimating ____ 53. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves ____ 54. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves ____ 55. ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates ____ 56. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates ____ 57. ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. Analogous cost estimating c. Bottom-up estimating b. Parametric modeling d. Reserve analysis ____ 58. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line ____ 59. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV ____ 60. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV ____ 61. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI ____ 62. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI ____ 63. The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. ____ 64. ____ 65. ____ 66. ____ 67. ____ 68. ____ 69. ____ 70. ____ 71. ____ 72. ____ 73. ____ 74. ____ 75. ____ 76. ____ 77. a. project team c. project manager b. CEO d. customer ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, a quality baseline, and updates to the project management plan. a. quality control c. quality assurance b. quality planning d. quality certification ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a. Quality assurance c. Quality checking b. Quality control d. Quality planning The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Design of experiments c. Testing b. Quality auditing d. Benchmarking ____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing ____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a. 95.5 c. 99.7 b. 99.0 d. 99.9 A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. error b. failure d. recall ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Human resource planning c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a. Human resource planning c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. ____ 78. ____ 79. ____ 80. ____ 81. ____ 82. ____ 83. ____ 84. ____ 85. ____ 86. ____ 87. ____ 88. ____ 89. ____ 90. ____ 91. ____ 92. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as ____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need. a. deficiency c. safety b. growth d. physiological ____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: a. Scope Management Plan c. Approved Change Requests b. Project Charter d. Organizational Process Assets ____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Performance reporting c. Managing stakeholders b. Information distribution d. Communications planning The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a. Performance reporting c. Managing stakeholders b. Information distribution d. Communications planning The project’s ____ is a starting point for identifying internal stakeholders. a. WBS c. business case b. organizational chart d. communications management plan Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a. phone conversations c. e-mail conversations b. face-to-face meetings d. reading user guides As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases Two people have ____ communications channel(s). ____ 93. ____ 94. ____ 95. ____ 96. ____ 97. ____ 98. ____ 99. ____ 100. ____ 101. ____ 102. ____ 103. ____ 104. ____ 105. ____ 106. a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3 Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a. 1 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8 ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates With the ____, project managers use a give-and- take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode When using the ____, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode When using the ____, project managers retreat from an actual or potential disagreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode ____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a. Project archives c. Project databases b. Project backups d. Project notes Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent A(n) ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Qualitative risk analysis c. Risk response planning b. Risk management planning d. Quantitative risk analysis ____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Quantitative risk analysis c. Risk monitoring and control b. Risk response planning d. Qualitative risk analysis Unenforceable conditions, unenforceable contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with which project management knowledge area? a. Integration c. Procurement b. Quality d. Human Resources ____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation ____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation ____ 107. ____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation ____ 108. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance ____ 109. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance ____ 110. ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance ____ 111. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation ____ 112. ____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Tertiary c. Residual b. Primary d. Secondary ____ 113. Activity duration estimate inputs include all of the following except: a. Activity List c. Project Scope Statement b. Activity Attributes d. Basis of estimates ____ 114. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering system should allow project staff to: a. identify the level at which individual WBS c. estimate the costs of WBS elements. elements are found. b. identify configuration management d. $provide project justification. milestones. ____ 115. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except: a. parametric modeling. b. analogous estimating. c. bottom-up estimating. d. activity duration estimates. ____ 116. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions ____ 117. ____ involves obtaining information, quotes, bids, offers, or proposals from sellers, as appropriate. a. Planning contracting c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions ____ 118. Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, contracts, a contract management plan, resource availability information, updates to the procurement management plan, and requested changes. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering the contract ____ 119. ____ involves managing the relationship with the selected seller. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering the contract ____ 120. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC ____ 121. ____ 122. ____ 123. ____ 124. b. CPIF d. CPPF From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract and the most risk with the ____ contract. a. CPFF, FPI c. CPPC, FFP b. FFP, CPPC d. CPFF, FFP The procurement management plan, contract statement of work, make-or-buy decisions, and project management plan are all important inputs for the ____ process. a. planning contracting c. requesting seller responses b. selecting sellers d. planning purchases and acquisitions A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor's project manager informs their contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project? a. starting partial payments for work c. paying for work accomplished to date. accomplished. b. making no payments because it would d. negotiating a change to the payment violate the conditions of the contract. conditions in the contract. Test 2 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: A B C A D A C C C C A C D B C A A D C D D C B B C A A D C D A A B A B C A B A B C PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: 7 8 11 12 13 13 13 13 33 54 127 127 128 146 149 150 157 165 181 181 181 181 186 193 196 218 218 219 219 220 221 221 222 223 223 223 225 225 225 229 230 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 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