Download Test 2 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the

Test 2
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. An example of scope verification is:
a. reviewing the performance of an installed c. managing changes to the project schedule.
software module.
b. decomposing the WBS to a work package d. performing a benefit/cost analysis to
level.
determine if we should proceed with the
project.
2. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____.
a. double bind
c. double constraint
b. triple constraint
d. double obstacle
3. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change?
a. a variation in government regulations.
c. a need to engage in bottom-up cost
estimating.
b. failure to include a required feature in the d. introducing technology that was not
design of a telecommunication system.
available when scope was originally
defined.
4. Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project
successfully.
a. scope
c. time
b. quality
d. cost
5. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was
undertaken.
a. cost
c. scope
b. time
d. quality
6. Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with the project.
a. human resource
c. communications
b. risk
d. procurement
7. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
a. risk
c. communications
b. procurement
d. resource
8. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge
areas.
a. cost
c. integration
b. quality
d. time
9. PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient
project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated
knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.
a. Producer
c. Professional
b. Practitioner
d. Professor
10. In a ____ matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to
high authority.
a. weak
c. strong
b. balanced
d. functional
11. ____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
a. Developing the project charter
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement
c. Developing the project management plan
d. Directing and managing project execution
____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document.
a. Developing the project charter
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement
c. Developing the project management plan
d. Directing and managing project execution
The outputs of ____ include approved and rejected change requests, approved corrective and preventive
actions, approved and validated defect repair, deliverables, and updates to the project management plan and
project scope statement.
a. monitor and control the project work
c. develop the project management plan
b. close the project
d. perform integrated change control
A(n) ____ is a document that describes the products or services to be created by the project team.
a. contract
c. project charter
b. statement of work
d. business case
A(n) ____ is a document used to develop and confirm a common understanding of the project scope.
a. business case
c. scope statement
b. statement of work
d. contract
A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s
execution and control.
a. project management plan
c. scope statement
b. statement of work
d. contact
The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____, as is most of the project’s budget.
a. execution
c. closing
b. planning
d. monitoring and controlling
A(n) ____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be
changed.
a. integrated change control
c. performance report
b. change request
d. change control system
The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project.
a. end-product
c. deliverable
b. scope
d. outcome
____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer
and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during this
process.
a. Scope planning
c. Scope control
b. Scope definition
d. Scope verification
The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables, requested changes, and recommended corrective actions.
a. scope planning
c. scope definition
b. scope control
d. scope verification
____ involves controlling changes to project scope, which is a challenge on many information technology
projects.
a. Scope planning
c. Scope control
b. Scope definition
d. Scope verification
It is helpful to document project success criteria in the ____.
a. scope management plan
c. WBS
b. project scope statement
d. decomposition
____ 24. The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project.
a. project charter
c. WBS
b. scope statement
d. Gantt chart
____ 25. The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture
perspective.
a. analogy
c. top-down
b. bottom-up
d. mind mapping
____ 26. ____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform
to produce the project deliverables.
a. Activity definition
c. Activity resource estimating
b. Activity sequencing
d. Activity duration estimating
____ 27. The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested
changes.
a. activity definition
c. activity resource estimating
b. activity sequencing
d. activity duration estimating
____ 28. ____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities.
a. Activity definition
c. Activity resource estimating
b. Activity sequencing
d. Activity duration estimating
____ 29. Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, requested changes, recommended corrective actions,
and updates to the schedule model data, the schedule baseline, organizational process assets, the activity list
and attributes, and the project management plan.
a. activity duration estimating
c. schedule control
b. schedule development
d. activity resource estimating
____ 30. The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors,
logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions
related to the activity.
a. activity list
c. activity descriptions
b. milestones
d. activity attributes
____ 31. The goal of the ____ process is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work
they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work.
a. activity definition
c. activity resource estimating
b. activity sequencing
d. activity duration estimating
____ 32. ____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and
constraints related to specific activities.
a. Activity definition
c. Activity resource estimating
b. Activity sequencing
d. Activity duration estimating
____ 33. ____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies.
a. Activity definition
c. Activity resource estimating
b. Activity sequencing
d. Activity duration estimating
____ 34. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project.
a. Mandatory
c. External
b. Discretionary
d. Internal
____ 35. ____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit
later scheduling options.
a. Mandatory
c. External
b. Discretionary
d. Internal
____ 36. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities.
a. Mandatory
c. External
____ 37.
____ 38.
____ 39.
____ 40.
____ 41.
____ 42.
____ 43.
____ 44.
____ 45.
____ 46.
____ 47.
____ 48.
____ 49.
b. Discretionary
d. Internal
The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities.
a. PDM
c. ADM
b. AOA
d. POA
In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity can start.
a. start-to-start
c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start
d. start-to-finish
In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity is started.
a. start-to-start
c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start
d. start-to-finish
A(n) ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project’s resources by category and type.
a. work breakdown structure
c. network diagram
b. resource breakdown structure
d. critical path analysis
The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project
progress for the time dimension of the project.
a. activity definition
c. schedule development
b. activity sequencing
d. activity duration estimating
____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and
their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format.
a. Gantt charts
c. Critical chain scheduling
b. Critical path analysis
d. PERT analysis
The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to
complete a project.
a. longest; longest
c. shortest; longest
b. longest; shortest
d. shortest; shortest
____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately
following activities.
a. Total slack
c. Free time
b. Total float
d. Free slack
The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish
date.
a. early finish date
c. late start date
b. late finish date
d. early start date
____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule
compression for the least incremental cost.
a. Crushing
c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing
d. Expediting
____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence.
a. Crushing
c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing
d. Expediting
____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes
buffers to protect the project completion date.
a. Gantt charts
c. Critical chain scheduling
b. Critical path analysis
d. PERT analysis
____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed.
a. Murphy’s Law
c. Parkinson’s Law
b. Newton’s Law
d. Moore’s Law
____ 50. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes,
determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
a. activity duration estimating
c. schedule control
b. schedule development
d. activity resource estimating
____ 51. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved
budget.
a. Cost budgeting
c. Cost control
b. Cost estimating
d. Project cost management
____ 52. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a
project.
a. Cost budgeting
c. Cost control
b. Cost consolidation
d. Cost estimating
____ 53. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for.
a. Contingency reserves
c. Unknown unknowns
b. Management reserves
d. Direct reserves
____ 54. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
a. Contingency reserves
c. Known unknowns
b. Management reserves
d. Indirect reserves
____ 55. ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current
project.
a. Actual estimates
c. Bottom-up estimates
b. Parametric estimates
d. Analogous estimates
____ 56. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.
a. Actual estimates
c. Bottom-up estimates
b. Parametric estimates
d. Analogous estimates
____ 57. ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the
programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity
of the data involved, and so on.
a. Analogous cost estimating
c. Bottom-up estimating
b. Parametric modeling
d. Reserve analysis
____ 58. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
a. budget baseline
c. cost baseline
b. ledger
d. cost line
____ 59. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given
period.
a. AC
c. RP
b. EV
d. PV
____ 60. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
a. AC
c. RP
b. EV
d. PV
____ 61. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to
complete the project.
a. SV
c. CPI
b. CV
d. SPI
____ 62. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
a. CPI
c. EAC
b. SV
d. SPI
____ 63. The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
____ 64.
____ 65.
____ 66.
____ 67.
____ 68.
____ 69.
____ 70.
____ 71.
____ 72.
____ 73.
____ 74.
____ 75.
____ 76.
____ 77.
a. project team
c. project manager
b. CEO
d. customer
____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those
standards.
a. Quality assurance
c. Quality checking
b. Quality control
d. Quality planning
The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process
improvement plan, a quality baseline, and updates to the project management plan.
a. quality control
c. quality assurance
b. quality planning
d. quality certification
____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the
relevant quality standards.
a. Quality assurance
c. Quality checking
b. Quality control
d. Quality planning
____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality
standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
a. Quality assurance
c. Quality checking
b. Quality control
d. Quality planning
The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as
Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
a. quality planning
c. quality assurance
b. quality certification
d. quality control
____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product
characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
a. Design of experiments
c. Testing
b. Quality auditing
d. Benchmarking
____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected.
a. Process adjustments
c. Acceptance decisions
b. Rework
d. Auditing
____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
a. Process adjustments
c. Acceptance decisions
b. Rework
d. Auditing
In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean.
a. 95.5
c. 99.7
b. 99.0
d. 99.9
A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
a. defect
c. error
b. failure
d. recall
____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
a. Prevention cost
c. Internal failure cost
b. Appraisal cost
d. External failure cost
____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships.
a. Human resource planning
c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team
d. Managing the project team
____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project.
a. Human resource planning
c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team
d. Managing the project team
____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
____ 78.
____ 79.
____ 80.
____ 81.
____ 82.
____ 83.
____ 84.
____ 85.
____ 86.
____ 87.
____ 88.
____ 89.
____ 90.
____ 91.
____ 92.
a. Frederick Herzberg
c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland
d. Douglas McGregor
The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as ____ needs.
a. self-actualization
c. safety
b. deficiency
d. growth
The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
a. deficiency
c. safety
b. growth
d. physiological
____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering
motivation in work settings.
a. Frederick Herzberg
c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland
d. Douglas McGregor
People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted
by others.
a. affiliation
c. power
b. money
d. achievement
People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy.
a. affiliation
c. power
b. money
d. achievement
____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.
a. Frederick Herzberg
c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland
d. Douglas McGregor
People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid
responsibility.
a. Theory W
c. Theory Y
b. Theory X
d. Theory Z
Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
a. Scope Management Plan
c. Approved Change Requests
b. Project Charter
d. Organizational Process Assets
____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks.
a. Resource loading
c. Resource allocation
b. Resource leveling
d. Resource requesting
____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.
a. Performance reporting
c. Managing stakeholders
b. Information distribution
d. Communications planning
The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan.
a. Performance reporting
c. Managing stakeholders
b. Information distribution
d. Communications planning
The project’s ____ is a starting point for identifying internal stakeholders.
a. WBS
c. business case
b. organizational chart
d. communications management plan
Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system.
a. phone conversations
c. e-mail conversations
b. face-to-face meetings
d. reading user guides
As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____.
a. increases, decreases
c. increases, stays constant
b. decreases, increases
d. increases, increases
Two people have ____ communications channel(s).
____ 93.
____ 94.
____ 95.
____ 96.
____ 97.
____ 98.
____ 99.
____ 100.
____ 101.
____ 102.
____ 103.
____ 104.
____ 105.
____ 106.
a. 0
c. 2
b. 1
d. 3
Four people have ____ communications channel(s).
a. 1
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.
a. Progress reports
c. Forecasts
b. Status reports
d. Updates
____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
a. Progress reports
c. Forecasts
b. Status reports
d. Updates
With the ____, project managers use a give-and- take approach to resolving conflicts.
a. confrontation mode
c. smoothing mode
b. compromise mode
d. forcing mode
When using the ____, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas
of agreement.
a. confrontation mode
c. smoothing mode
b. withdrawal mode
d. forcing mode
When using the ____, project managers retreat from an actual or potential disagreement.
a. confrontation mode
c. smoothing mode
b. withdrawal mode
d. forcing mode
____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
a. Project archives
c. Project databases
b. Project backups
d. Project notes
Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at
stake.
a. risk-seeking
c. risk-neutral
b. risk-averse
d. risk-indifferent
A(n) ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff
a. risk-seeking
c. risk-fearing
b. risk-averse
d. risk-neutral
____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives.
a. Qualitative risk analysis
c. Risk response planning
b. Risk management planning
d. Quantitative risk analysis
____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans,
and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project.
a. Quantitative risk analysis
c. Risk monitoring and control
b. Risk response planning
d. Qualitative risk analysis
Unenforceable conditions, unenforceable contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions
associated with which project management knowledge area?
a. Integration
c. Procurement
b. Quality
d. Human Resources
____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
a. Risk avoidance
c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance
d. Risk mitigation
____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party.
a. Risk avoidance
c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance
d. Risk mitigation
____ 107. ____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
a. Risk avoidance
c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance
d. Risk mitigation
____ 108. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens.
a. Risk exploitation
c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing
d. Risk acceptance
____ 109. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
a. Risk exploitation
c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing
d. Risk acceptance
____ 110. ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive
risk.
a. Risk exploitation
c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing
d. Risk acceptance
____ 111. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk.
a. Risk enhancement
c. Risk sharing
b. Risk acceptance
d. Risk exploitation
____ 112. ____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response.
a. Tertiary
c. Residual
b. Primary
d. Secondary
____ 113. Activity duration estimate inputs include all of the following except:
a. Activity List
c. Project Scope Statement
b. Activity Attributes
d. Basis of estimates
____ 114. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering system should allow project staff to:
a. identify the level at which individual WBS c. estimate the costs of WBS elements.
elements are found.
b. identify configuration management
d. $provide project justification.
milestones.
____ 115. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except:
a. parametric modeling.
b. analogous estimating.
c. bottom-up estimating.
d. activity duration estimates.
____ 116. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how.
a. Planning contracting
c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers
d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
____ 117. ____ involves obtaining information, quotes, bids, offers, or proposals from sellers, as appropriate.
a. Planning contracting
c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers
d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
____ 118. Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, contracts, a contract management plan, resource
availability information, updates to the procurement management plan, and requested changes.
a. Closing the contract
c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers
d. Administering the contract
____ 119. ____ involves managing the relationship with the selected seller.
a. Closing the contract
c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers
d. Administering the contract
____ 120. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment
usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
a. CPFF
c. CPPC
____ 121.
____ 122.
____ 123.
____ 124.
b. CPIF
d. CPPF
From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract and the most risk with the ____
contract.
a. CPFF, FPI
c. CPPC, FFP
b. FFP, CPPC
d. CPFF, FFP
The procurement management plan, contract statement of work, make-or-buy decisions, and project
management plan are all important inputs for the ____ process.
a. planning contracting
c. requesting seller responses
b. selecting sellers
d. planning purchases and acquisitions
A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers.
a. RFQ
c. COW
b. RFP
d. SOW
A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory
completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor's project manager informs their
contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and
subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished.
Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project?
a. starting partial payments for work
c. paying for work accomplished to date.
accomplished.
b. making no payments because it would
d. negotiating a change to the payment
violate the conditions of the contract.
conditions in the contract.
Test 2
Answer Section
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77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
B
D
C
B
C
C
C
C
D
D
A
B
D
C
B
C
D
B
D
C
D
D
B
A
B
D
D
C
A
C
A
D
A
C
C
B
B
A
A
C
D
B
A
B
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
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PTS:
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PTS:
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PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
231
237
239
239
242
242
243
245
247
266
266
271
271
274
274
275
283
285
286
287
288
307
307
308
308
308
308
312
313
313
325
327
337
361
361
363
364
364
365
366
366
367
367
369
383
407
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
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ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
D
B
B
D
B
C
B
A
B
C
B
A
A
D
D
C
C
A
C
D
A
B
C
B
D
D
A
A
D
C
B
D
A
C
D
A
B
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
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PTS:
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PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
407
409
417
417
418
418
419
420
423
424
424
434
451
451
452
452
459
475
475
475
476
476
476
476
477
490
490
491
494
494
494
494
500
501
504
505
508