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AP Midterm Review Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. What type of compound is NaOH? A. Binary B. Molecular C. Acid D. Base ____ 2. Name the compound CrO3. A. chromium oxide B. chromium(II) oxide C. chromium(III) trioxide D. chromium(VI) oxide ____ 3. Which of the following elements is chemically similar to magnesium? A. sulfur B. calcium C. iron D. nickel ____ 4. Which one of the following elements is most likely to form a 2+ ion? A. calcium B. carbon C. fluorine D. oxygen ____ 5. Which one of the following elements is most likely to form a 2– ion? A. scandium B. selenium C. silicon D. strontium ____ 6. A magnesium ion, Mg2+, has A. 12 protons and 13 electrons. B. 24 protons and 26 electrons. C. 12 protons and 10 electrons. D. 24 protons and 22 electrons. ____ 7. An oxide ion, O2–, has: A. 8 protons and 10 electrons B. 10 protons and 8 electrons C. 8 protons and 9 electrons D. 8 protons and 7 electrons ____ 8. What are the two different ions present in the compound Na2S? A. Na2+, S2B. Na+, S2C. Na2+, S2D. Na+, S- ____ 9. Which of the following is an example of an empirical formula? A. C9H12 B. C9H18Cl2 C. C6H6 D. N2O4 ____ 10. What is the empirical formula for C10H22O2? A. C10H22O2 B. C5H11O C. C20H44O4 D. C2H11O ____ 11. What is the formula for the ionic compound containing calcium ions and nitrate ions? A. Ca3N2 B. Ca(NO3)2 C. Ca2NO3 D. Ca2NO2 ____ 12. Which is the correct formula for iron(II) phosphate? A. Fe2PO4 B. Fe3(PO4)2 C. Fe2PO3 D. Fe(PO4)2 ____ 13. Which of the following is the formula for hydroiodic acid? A. HIO4 B. HIO3 C. HIO2 D. HI ____ 14. The formula for magnesium sulfate is A. MnS B. MgS C. MnSO3 D. MgSO4 ____ 15. The formula for sodium sulfide is A. NaS. B. K2S. C. NaS2. D. Na2S. ____ 16. The name for KHCO3 is A. calcium bicarbonate. B. potassium hydrogen carbonate . C. potassium carbonate. D. calcium hydrogen carbon trioxide. ____ 17. Name the compound Al2O3 A. Aluminum oxide B. Aluminum (II) oxide C. Dialuminum trioxide D. Aluminum trioxide ____ 18. Which is the formula for lead(IV) chloride? A. Pb4Cl B. PbCl2 C. PbCl3 D. PbCl4 ____ 19. What type of compound is NH4NO3 A. Ionic B. Molecular C. Acid D. Base ____ 20. What type of compound is IF5? A. Ionic B. Molecular C. Acid D. Base ____ 21. What type of compound is H2SO3? A. Ionic B. Binary C. Acid D. Base ____ 22. Name the acid H3PO4 (dissolved in water). A. Phosphoric acid B. Phosphorous acid C. Hydrogen phosphate acid D. Hydrophosphate acid ____ 23. Name the acid H2SO3 (dissolved in water). A. Sulfuric acid B. Sulfurous acid C. Hydrosulfuric acid D. Persulfuric acid ____ 24. What is the molecular mass of Br2 ? A. 79.90 amu B. 79.90 g C. 159.8 amu D. 159.8 g ____ 25. What is the mass of 3.50 1024 Ti atoms? A. 47.9 amu B. 47.9 g C. 5.81 g D. 278 g ____ 26. If 0.274 moles of a substance weighs 62.5 g, what is the molar mass of the substance, in units of g/mol? A. 2.28 102 g/mol B. 1.71 101 g/mol C. 4.38 10–3 g/mol D. 2.17 102 g/mol ____ 27. How many C atoms are in 5.50 g of C? A. 5.01 1022 C atoms B. 3.31 1024 C atoms C. 6.02 1023 C atoms D. 2.76 1023 C atoms ____ 28. How many moles of CF4 are there in 171 g of CF4? A. 0.51 mol B. 1.94 mol C. 4.07 mol D. 88.0 mol ____ 29. Calculate the number of moles of cesium in 50.0 g of cesium. A. 0.376 mol B. 0.357 mol C. 2.66 mol D. 2.80 mol ____ 30. Calculate the molar mass of Ba(NO3)2. A. 199.3 g/mol B. 323.3 g/mol C. 247.3 g/mol D. 261.3 g/mol ____ 31. How many moles of O are in 2.45 moles of H2CO3? A. 2.45 moles O B. 39.2 moles O C. 118 moles O D. 7.35 moles O ____ 32. Calculate the mass of N in 2.34 g of N2H4? A. 4.68 g N B. 65.6 g N C. 28.02 g N D. 2.05 g N ____ 33. A mass spectrometer works by ionizing atoms or molecules, and then accelerating them through oppositely charged plates. The mass is obtained by A. measuring the force of impact on a detecting screen, and then calculating the mass using force = mass acceleration. B. suspending the ions in an applied electric field, and then calculating mass by the setting the downward gravitational force equal to the upward electrostatic force. C. measuring the magnitude of deflection as the ions pass through a magnetic field to obtain the charge-to-mass ratio, and then calculating the mass from that ratio. D. measuring the time it takes for the ions to hit the detector at a known distance to calculate the acceleration, and then calculating mass from force = mass acceleration. ____ 34. An unknown compound with a molar mass of 223.94 g/mol consists of 32.18% C, 4.50% H, and 63.32% Cl. Find the molecular formula for the compound. A. CHCl B. C6H10Cl4 C. C3H5Cl2 D. C9H15Cl6 ____ 35. The empirical formula of a compound of uranium and fluorine that is composed of 67.6% uranium ____ 36. ____ 37. ____ 38. ____ 39. ____ 40. ____ 41. and 32.4% fluorine is A. U2F B. U3F4 C. UF4 D. UF6 Which one of the following is an example of a balanced chemical reaction? A. C3H6O + 4O2 3CO2 + 3H2O B. 2C3H6O + 9O2 6CO2 + 6H2O C. C3H6O + 3O2 3CO2 + 3H2O D. 2C3H6O + 9O2 6CO2 + 3H2O When balanced the coefficient of O2 in the following equation is __ C2H4 + __ O2 __ CO2 + __ H2O A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. Ammonia reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce ammonium chloride. Identify the balanced reaction that describes this process. A. NH4+ + HCl NH4Cl + H B. NH3 + HCl NH4Cl C. NH3 + 2HCl NH4Cl + H D. NH4+ + 2HCl NH4Cl2 When 22.0 g NaCl and 21.0 g H2SO4 are mixed and react according to the equation below, which is the limiting reagent? 2NaCl + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2HCl A. NaCl B. H2SO4 C. Na2SO4 D. HCl. Phosphorus pentachloride reacts with water to form hydrochloric acid and phosphoric acid. How many total moles of acid are formed when starting with 4.5 g of PCl5 and excess H2O? PCl5 + 4H2O 5HCl + H3PO4 A. 0.022 moles B. 0.12 moles C. 0.13 moles D. 27 moles Hydrogen chloride gas can be prepared by the following reaction: 2NaCl(s) + H2SO4(aq) 2HCl(g) + Na2SO4(s) How many grams of HCl can be prepared from 2.00 mol H2SO4 and 2.56 mol NaCl? A. 7.30 g B. 93.3 g C. 146 g D. 150 g ____ 42. Calculate the mass of excess reagent remaining at the end of the reaction in which 90.0 g of SO2 are mixed with 100.0 g of O2. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 A. 11.5 g B. 22.5 g C. 67.5 g D. 77.5 g ____ 43. What is the theoretical yield of H2O that can be obtained from the reaction of 4.5 g H2 and excess O2? 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) A. 4.5 g B. 9.0 g C. 40. g D. 80. g ____ 44. The reaction of 44.1 g of Cr2O3 with 35.0 g of Al produced 25.6 g of Cr. What is the percent yield for this reaction? 2Al + Cr2O3 Al2O3 + 2Cr A. 37.9 % B. 58.0 % C. 73.1 % D. 84.9% ____ 45. Based on the solubility rules, which one of the following compounds should be insoluble in water? A. NaCl B. MgBr2 C. FeCl2 D. AgBr ____ 46. Based on the solubility rules, which of the following compounds should be insoluble in water? A. Na2SO4 B. BaSO4 C. CuSO4 D. MgSO4 ____ 47. Which of the following will occur when a solution of Pb(NO3)2(aq) is mixed with a solution of KI(aq) ? A. A precipitate of KNO3 will form; Pb2+ and I– are spectator ions. B. No precipitate will form. C. A precipitate of Pb(NO3)2 will form; K+ and I– are spectator ions. D. A precipitate of PbI2 will form; K+ and NO3– are spectator ions. ____ 48. Which of the following will occur when solutions of CuSO4(aq) and BaCl2(aq) are mixed? A. A precipitate of CuCl2 will form; Ba2+ and SO42– are spectator ions. B. A precipitate of CuSO4 will form; Ba2+ and Cl– are spectator ions. C. A precipitate of BaSO4 will form; Cu2+ and Cl– are spectator ions. D. A precipitate of BaCl2 will form; Cu2+ and SO42– are spectator ions. ____ 49. Identify the precipitate(s) formed when solutions of Ca(ClO4)2(aq), K2CO3(aq), and NaNO3(aq) are mixed. A. CaCO3 B. Na2CO3 C. Ca(NO3)2 and NaClO4 D. CaCO3 and Na2CO3 ____ 50. Identify the correct net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and NH4Cl are mixed. A. Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NH4Cl(aq) NH4NO3(aq) + PbCl2(s) B. Pb2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) PbCl2(s) C. Pb2+(aq) + 2NO3– (aq) + 2NH (aq) + 2Cl–(aq) 2NH (aq) + 2NO3– (aq) + PbCl2(s) D. NH4+(aq)+ NO3– (aq) 2NH4NO3(s) ____ 51. Which of the following compounds is a strong acid? A. HF B. HI C. HClO2 D. H2SO3 ____ 52. Which of the following compounds is a weak base? A. KOH B. Sc(OH)3 C. NH3 D. NH4+ ____ 53. Identify the correct net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of HNO3 and KOH are mixed? A. HNO3(aq) + KOH(aq) H2O(l) + KNO3(aq) B. K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) KNO3(aq) C. HNO3(aq) + KOH(aq) 2(l) + KNO3(s) D. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) H2O(l) ____ 54. The oxidation number of Fe in K3Fe(CN)6 is A. +3 B. +2 C. +1 D. –3 ____ 55. Determine the correct oxidation numbers for all three elements in Rb2SO3 in the order that the elements are shown in the formula. A. –2, +6, –2 B. –1, +4, –3 C. +2, +4, –2 D. +1, +4, –2 ____ 56. Using the redox reaction below determine which element is oxidized and which is reduced. 4NH3 + 3Ca(ClO)2 2N2 + 6H2O + 3CaCl2 A. H is oxidized and N is reduced B. N is oxidized and Cl is reduced C. N is oxidized and O is reduced D. Cl is oxidized and O is reduced ____ 57. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction? A. 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l) B. CaBr2(aq) + H2SO4(aq) CaSO4(s) + 2HBr(g) C. 2KNO3(s) 2KNO2(s) + O2(g) D. 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g) 2KCl(aq) + Br2(l) ____ 58. Which of the following represents an acid-base neutralization reaction? A. 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g) B. SO2(g) + H2O(l) H2SO3(g) C. LiOH(aq) + HNO3(aq) LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l) D. 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g) 2KCl(aq) + Br2(l) ____ 59. Which of the following represents a combustion reaction? A. 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) B. LiOH(aq) + HNO3(aq) LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l) C. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) D. 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) ____ 60. What mass of C6H12O6 (glucose) is needed to prepare 450. mL of a 0.650 M solution of glucose in water? A. 0.293 g B. 293 g C. 0.692 g D. 52.7 g ____ 61. A 50.0 mL sample of 0.436 M NH4NO3 is diluted with water to a total volume of 250.0 mL. What is the ammonium nitrate concentration in the resulting solution? A. 21.8 M B. 0.459 M C. 2.18 10–2 M D. 8.72 10–2 M ____ 62. A 350. mL solution of 0.150 M HNO3(aq) is mixed with a solution of 230. mL of 0.240 M HCl(aq). How many moles of H+(aq) are present in the final solution? A. 0.0525 moles H+ B. 0.108 moles H+ C. 0.186 moles H+ D. 0.0539 moles H+ ____ 63. What volume (mL) of a 0.3428 M HCl(aq) solution is required to completely neutralize 23.55 mL of a 0.2350 M Ba(OH)2(aq) solution? A. 55.34 mL B. 11.07 mL C. 16.14 mL D. 32.29 mL ____ 64. What will happen to the height (h) of the column of mercury in the manometer shown below if the stopcock is opened? A. B. C. D. h will decrease h will not change h will increase not enough information given to answer the question ____ 65. A sample of oxygen gas has a volume of 545 mL at 35°C. The gas is heated to 151°C at constant pressure in a container that can contract or expand. What is the final volume of the oxygen gas? A. 750. mL B. 396 mL C. 417 mL D. 267 mL ____ 66. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where the temperature and pressure are 4°C and 3.0 ____ 67. ____ 68. ____ 69. ____ 70. ____ 71. ____ 72. atm, to the water's surface, where the temperature is 25°C and the pressure is 0.95 atm. Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its initial volume was 2.1 mL. A. 0.72 mL B. 6.2 mL C. 7.1 mL mL D. 22.4 mL The temperature of a sample of argon gas in a 365 mL container at 740. mmHg and 25°C is lowered to 12°C. Assuming the volume of the container and the amount of gas is unchanged, calculate the new pressure of the argon. A. 0.468 atm B. 0.931 atm C. 1.02 atm D. 1.54 atm 0.820 mole of hydrogen gas has a volume of 2.00 L at a certain temperature and pressure. What is the volume of 0.125 mol of this gas at the same temperature and pressure? A. 0.0512 L B. 0.250 L C. 0.305 L D. 4.01 L Calculate the volume occupied by 35.2 g of methane gas (CH4) at 25°C and 1.0 atm. R = 0.08206 Latm/Kmol. A. 0.0186 L B. 4.5 L C. 53.7 L D. 49.2 L Calculate the mass, in grams, of 2.74 L of CO gas measured at 33°C and 945 mmHg. A. 0.263 g B. 2.46 g C. 3.80 g D. 35.2 g A 1.07 g sample of a Noble gas occupies a volume of 363 mL at 35°C and 678 mmHg. Identify the Noble gas in this sample? (R = 0.08206 Latm/Kmol) A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr A mixture of three gases has a total pressure of 1,380 mmHg at 298 K. The mixture is analyzed and is found to contain 1.27 mol CO2, 3.04 mol CO, and 1.50 mol Ar. What is the partial pressure of Ar? A. 0.258 atm B. 301 mmHg C. 356 mmHg D. 5,345 mmHg ____ 73. How many liters of chlorine gas at 25°C and 0.950 atm can be produced by the reaction of 12.0 g of ____ 74. ____ 75. ____ 76. ____ 77. ____ 78. ____ 79. ____ 80. MnO2 with excess HCl(aq) according to the following chemical equation? MnO2(s) + 4HCl(aq) MnCl2(aq) + 2H2O(l) + Cl2(g) -3 A. 5.36 10 L B. 3.55 L C. 0.282 L D. 3.09 L Calculate the volume of H2(g) at 273 K and 2.00 atm that will be formed when 275 mL of 0.725 M HCl solution reacts with excess Mg to give hydrogen gas and aqueous magnesium chloride. A. 0.56 L B. 1.12 L C. 2.23 L D. 3.54 L What mass of KClO3 must be decomposed to produce 126 L of oxygen gas at 133°C and 0.880 atm? (The other reaction product is solid KCl.) A. 24.6 g B. 70.8 g C. 272 g D. 408 g The molecules of different samples of an ideal gas have the same average kinetic energies, at the same A. pressure. B. temperature. C. volume. D. density. Which gas has molecules with the greatest average molecular speed at 25°C? A. CH4 B. Kr C. N2 D. CO2 Which of these gas molecules have the highest average kinetic energy at 25°C? A. H2 B. O2 C. N2 D. All the gases have the same average kinetic energy. Deviations from the ideal gas law are greater at A. low temperatures and low pressures. B. low temperatures and high pressures. C. high temperatures and high pressures. D. high temperatures and low pressures. Samples of the following volatile liquids are opened simultaneously at one end of a room. If you are standing at the opposite end of this room, which species would you smell first? (Assume that your nose is equally sensitive to all these species.) A. ethyl acetate (CH3COOC2H5) B. camphor (C10H16O) C. naphthalene (C10H8) D. diethyl ether (C2H5OC2H5) AP Midterm Review Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: D EK.1.C.1 D EK.1.C.1 B EK.1.C.1 A EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.1 C EK.1.A.1 A EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.C.1 B EK.1.C.1 D EK.1.C.1 D EK.1.C.1 D EK.1.C.1 B EK.1.C.1 A EK.1.C.1 D EK.1.C.1 A EK.1.C.1 B EK.1.C.1 C EK.1.C.1 A PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 2.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 2.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 2.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS: OBJ: 43. ANS: OBJ: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: OBJ: 46. ANS: OBJ: EK.1.C.1 B EK.1.C.1 C EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 A EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 B EK.1.A.3 A EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 C EK.1.D.2 B EK.1.A.1 D EK.1.A.1 A EK.1.A.1 C EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.1 A EK.1.A.3 C EK.1.A.1 B EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 C EK.1.A.3 D EK.1.A.3 D EK.3.C.1 B EK.3.C.1 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 2.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 3.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 3.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 3.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.9 PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: Section: 3.8 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.9 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.9 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.10 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 3.10 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.2 47. ANS: OBJ: 48. ANS: OBJ: 49. ANS: OBJ: 50. ANS: OBJ: 51. ANS: OBJ: 52. ANS: OBJ: 53. ANS: OBJ: 54. ANS: OBJ: 55. ANS: OBJ: 56. ANS: OBJ: 57. ANS: OBJ: 58. ANS: OBJ: 59. ANS: OBJ: 60. ANS: OBJ: 61. ANS: OBJ: 62. ANS: OBJ: 63. ANS: OBJ: 64. ANS: OBJ: 65. ANS: OBJ: 66. ANS: OBJ: 67. ANS: OBJ: 68. ANS: OBJ: 69. ANS: OBJ: 70. ANS: OBJ: D EK.3.C.1 C EK.3.C.1 A EK.3.C.1 B EK.3.A.1 B EK.3.B.2 C EK.3.B.2 D EK.3.A.1 A EK.3.B.3 D EK.3.B.3 B EK.3.B.3 B EK.3.C.1 C EK.3.B.2 A EK.3.B.1 D EK.2.A.3 D EK.2.A.3 B EK.2.A.3 D EK.2.A.3 A EK.2.A.2 A EK.1.E.1 C EK.2.A.2 B EK.1.E.1 C EK.1.E.1 C EK.2.A.2 C EK.2.A.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 4.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: Section: 4.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 4.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.3 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.4 71. ANS: OBJ: 72. ANS: OBJ: 73. ANS: OBJ: 74. ANS: OBJ: 75. ANS: OBJ: 76. ANS: OBJ: 77. ANS: OBJ: 78. ANS: OBJ: 79. ANS: OBJ: 80. ANS: OBJ: D EK.2.A.2 C EK.2.A.2 B EK.1.E.2 B EK.1.E.2 C EK.1.E.2 B EK.2.A.2 A EK.2.A.2 D EK.2.A.2 B EK.2.A.2 D EK.2.A.2 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.4 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.6 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: Section: 5.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: Section: 5.5 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 5.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 5.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: Section: 5.7 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.8 PTS: 1 DIF: Medium REF: Section: 5.7