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Glencoe World Geography
MindJogger Teacher Guide
1
Teacher Guide for MindJogger Videoquizzes
Includes:
• MindJogger Videoquiz User Guide
• Teaching Strategies for Videoquizzes
• Questions and Answers
• Scoring Sheet
• Answer Cards
Copyright © by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
All rights reserved. Permission is granted to reproduce the material contained
herein on the condition that such material be reproduced only for classroom use;
be provided to students, teachers, and families without charge; and be used
solely in conjunction with Glencoe World Geography. Any other reproduction,
for use or sale, is prohibited without written permission from the publisher.
Send all inquiries to:
Glencoe/McGraw-Hill
8787 Orion Place
Columbus, OH 43240-4027
Part of ISBN: 0-07-868353-X
Printed in the United States of America
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 054 08 07 06 05
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Glencoe World Geography
MindJogger Questions
To The Teacher
Teaching Strategies
User Guide
Chapter 1: How Geographers Look at the World
Chapter 2: The Earth
Chapter 3: Climates of the Earth
Chapter 4: The Human World
Chapter 5: The Physical Geography of the United States and Canada
Chapter 6: The Cultural Geography of the United States and Canada
Chapter 7: The United States and Canada Today
Chapter 8: The Physical Geography of Latin America
Chapter 9: The Cultural Geography of Latin America
Chapter 10: Latin America Today
Chapter 11: The Physical Geography of Europe
Chapter 12: The Cultural Geography of Europe
Chapter 13: Europe Today
Chapter 14: The Physical Geography of Russia
Chapter 15: The Cultural Geography of Russia
Chapter 16: Russia Today
Chapter 17: The Physical Geography of North Africa, Southwest Asia, and Central Asia
Chapter 18: The Cultural Geography of North Africa, Southwest Asia, and Central Asia
Chapter 19: North Africa, Southwest Asia, and Central Asia Today
Chapter 20: The Physical Geography of Africa South of the Sahara
Chapter 21: The Cultural Geography of Africa South of the Sahara
Chapter 22: Africa South of the Sahara Today
Chapter 23: The Physical Geography of South Asia
Chapter 24: The Cultural Geography of South Asia
Chapter 25: South Asia Today
Chapter 26: The Physical Geography of East Asia
Chapter 27: The Cultural Geography of East Asia
Chapter 28: East Asia Today
Chapter 29: The Physical Geography of Southeast Asia
Chapter 30: The Cultural Geography of Southeast Asia
Chapter 31: Southeast Asia Today
Chapter 32: The Physical Geography of Australia, Oceania, and Antarctica
Chapter 33: The Cultural Geography of Australia, Oceania, and Antarctica
Chapter 34: Australia, Oceania, and Antarctica Today
Scoring Sheet
Answer Cards
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TO THE TEACHER
The Glencoe World Geography MindJogger Videoquizzes package contains two
DVDs and a Teacher Guide. There is a videoquiz for each of the 34 chapters of
Glencoe World Geography. Included in the Teacher Guide are teaching
strategies, a user guide, a copy of all the questions and answers in the
MindJogger Videoquizzes, a scoring sheet, and answer cards.
MindJogger Videoquizzes are designed to enhance student learning within the
classroom. The convenience of this medium allows for individual and group
learning.
TEACHING STRATEGIES
The Glencoe World Geography MindJogger Videoquizzes can be used for
reviewing chapter content material in preparation for chapter testing. Set in a
game show context, these quizzes combine oral questioning, written questions
that appear on the screen, and engaging visuals. By incorporating these modes
of communication, the shows are especially helpful for aural and visual learners.
In addition to testing the acquisition of social studies concepts and skills within
the classroom setting, MindJogger Videoquizzes can serve other functions. For
students who have been absent, the videoquizzes can be used for review of
missed material. They may also be used as additional reinforcement of the major
concepts and skills and can be an effective and enjoyable tool when preparing
for semester and final exams.
USER GUIDE
MindJogger Videoquizzes are presented in a game show format. Separate the
students into cooperative groups or teams. Each team should be supplied with a
set of answer cards and a copy of the scoring sheet. Have each team sit together
and face the video screen. Each team should select its own scorekeeper, or you
may wish to select a scorekeeper for the entire classroom.
There are three rounds to each videoquiz, with each round a little more difficult
than the previous one. During each round, a question is asked and a time limit
set in which to answer each question.
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After each question is asked, a time meter will appear on the right side of the
videoscreen, indicating the amount of time left to answer the question. If more
time is needed at any point during the videoquizzes, simply pause the videoquiz.
At the end of each round, time is allotted for each team to total its score. A final
score is totaled at the end of Round Three, indicating a winner for that particular
segment of MindJogger Videoquizzes.
ANSWER CARDS
Each team should be supplied with a copy of the four answer cards labeled A, B,
C, and D. These cards are included at the end of this Teacher Guide.
SCORING SHEET
Each team should be supplied with a copy of the scoring sheet. The scoring
sheet is included at the end of this Teacher Guide.
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Chapter 1 - How Geographers Look at the World
ROUND ONE
Question One
What is the exact spot at which a place is found on the globe?
A. relative location
B. specific location
C. general location
D. absolute location
D is the right answer. Absolute location is the exact spot at which a place is
found on the globe. To determine absolute location, geographers use the grid
system of latitude and longitude.
Question Two
Which line of latitude divides the earth into Northern and Southern hemispheres?
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Equator
C. Tropic of Capricorn
D. Prime Meridian
The correct answer is B. The Equator is the line circling the earth midway
between the North and South Poles. It divides the earth into Northern and
Southern hemispheres. If you answered B, you’re correct.
Question Three
A perceptual region is defined by _____.
A. a common characteristic
B. a central place and the surrounding area linked to it
C. popular feelings and images
D. objective data
If you answered C, you’re correct. A perceptual region is defined by popular
feelings and images associated with it. For example, the term “heartland” refers
to a central area in which traditional values are believed to predominate.
Question Four
Which line of longitude runs through Greenwich, England and the mid-Pacific
Ocean?
A. Equator
B. South Pole
C. Prime Meridian
D. Tropic of Cancer
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The right answer is C, Prime Meridian. The Prime Meridian is the zero degrees
north-south line that runs through Greenwich, England, and the 180 degrees
north-south line running through the mid-Pacific Ocean. It divides the earth into
Eastern and Western hemispheres.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Computer tools that process and organize data and satellite images with other
pieces of information are called _____.
A. geographic information systems (GIS)
B. the Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. ecosystems
D. space shuttles
A is the correct answer. GIS technology is valuable to urban planners, retailers,
and local government officials who use this technology to help them determine
where to build roads, stores, and parks.
Question Two
Which element of geography refers to how people settle the earth, form societies,
and create permanent features?
A. the world in spatial terms
B. human systems
C. environment and society
D. places and regions
If you answered B, you’re right. Geographers’ study of human systems
considers how people shape the world—how they settle the earth, form societies,
and create permanent features. It also examines the ongoing movement of
people, goods, and ideas. B is the correct answer.
Question Three
What kind of region is a metropolitan area such as New Orleans?
A. perceptual
B. formal
C. functional
D. geographical
C is right. New Orleans is a functional region. A functional region is a central
place and the surrounding area linked to it. New Orleans is a central place linked
to suburbs by city streets, highways, and the Mississippi River.
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Question Four
Which of the following is NOT an element of geography?
A. technology and maps
B. places and regions
C. physical systems
D. environment and society
A is correct. Technology and maps are tools used by geographers as they study
the world in spatial terms, but they are not defined as elements of geography.
Places and regions, physical and human systems, environment and society, and
the uses of geography are all elements of geography.
ROUND THREE
Question One
In which branch of geography would a person study plants and animal life?
A. human geography
B. physical geography
C. meteorology
D. cartography
The right answer is B. Physical geography focuses on the study of the earth’s
physical features. It looks at climate, land, water, plants, and animal life in terms
of their relationships to one another and to humans. If you answered B, you’re
correct.
Question Two
The study of maps and mapmaking is _____.
A. aerial photography
B. geographic information systems
C. geography
D. cartography
D is the right answer. Geographic specialists who make and design maps are
known as cartographers. Their area of work, known as cartography, involves the
study of maps and mapmaking. D is the correct answer.
Question Three
Which of the following is NOT a use of geography?
A. helping strip mining companies extract coal
B. helping cities decide where to build schools
C. determining where to build highways
D. suggesting good locations for fire departments
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If you answered A you’re correct. Geography can be used to interpret presentday trends to plan for future needs. Geographic information can help plan
locations of resources needed within a community.
Question Four
The Midwestern United States is called America’s “breadbasket” because of its
agricultural production. Which type of region is this?
A. functional
B. formal
C. perceptual
D. none of the above
B, formal is the correct answer. A formal region is an area defined by a common
characteristic. In the Midwest, farmers grow corn, soybeans, oats, and wheat to
feed animals and people all over the world.
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Chapter 2 - The Earth
ROUND ONE
Question One
Which of the following is NOT a gas giant planet?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Venus
D. Neptune
C is correct. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are the gas giant planets.
They are much more gaseous and less dense than the terrestrial planets of
Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.
Question Two
What is the second layer of planet Earth?
A. inner core
B. crust
C. mantle
D. outer core
If you answered C, mantle, you’re right. Next to the outer core is a thick layer of
hot, dense rock called the mantle. Eighty percent of the heat generated from
Earth’s interior is released from the mantle.
Question Three
The part of a continent that extends underwater is called _____.
A. an isthmus
B. a continental shelf
C. a continental drift
D. a coral reef
The right answer is B. A continental shelf is the part of a continent that extends
underwater. Continental shelves are narrow in some places and wide in others,
sloping out from land for as much as 800 miles before eventually dropping
steeply to the ocean floor.
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Question Four
What physical feature is created when a sea plate collides with a continental
plate in a process called subduction?
A. a trench
B. a rift valley
C. a ridge
D. a mountain
The correct answer is D. Mountains are created when a sea plate collides with a
continental plate. During this process of subduction, the heavier sea plate dives
beneath the lighter continental plate.
ROUND TWO
Question One
How have volcanic eruptions shaped the earth’s surface?
A. They have created oceans.
B. They have created volcanic islands.
C. They have created rivers.
D. They have created volcanic lakes.
B is correct. Some areas deep in the earth are hotter than others and magma
often blasts through the surface as volcanoes. As a moving plate passes over
these hot spots, molten rock flowing out of the earth’s surface may create chains
of volcanic islands.
Question Two
The process of sea plates pulling apart is known as _____.
A. accretion
B. folding
C. spreading
D. faulting
If you answered C, you’re right. Sea plates can pull apart in a process known as
spreading. This spreading activity occurs down the middle of the Atlantic Ocean’s
floor, pushing Europe and North America away from each other.
Question Three
How have scientists been able to turn ocean water into freshwater?
A. desalination
B. water treatment plants
C. water filters
D. water softeners
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If you answered A, you’re correct. Desalination is the process of turning ocean
water into freshwater by removing the salt. It is expensive, however, so only a
small amount of freshwater is obtained this way.
Question Four
How is groundwater an important source of freshwater for people?
A. Lakes get their water from groundwater.
B. Groundwater is not a source of freshwater.
C. Groundwater purifies rainwater.
D. Wells tap into groundwater.
D is the right answer. Wells and springs tap into groundwater and are important
sources of freshwater for people in many rural areas and in some cities.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Which external force involves the movement of dust, sand, and soil from one
place to another?
A. physical weathering
B. water erosion
C. plate tectonics
D. wind erosion
D is the right answer. Wind erosion involves the movement of dust, sand, and
soil from one place to another. Serious wind erosion devastated the Great Plains
in the central United States during the 1930s.
Question Two
Which of the following is NOT part of Earth’s biosphere?
A. atmosphere
B. hydrosphere
C. hemisphere
D. lithosphere
The correct answer is C, hemisphere. Parts of the atmosphere, lithosphere, and
hydrosphere form the biosphere, the part of Earth where life exists.
Question Three
Which external force helped shape the Grand Canyon in the western United
States?
A. chemical weathering
B. water erosion
C. glacial erosion
D. wind erosion
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B is correct for 80 points. Fast moving water is the most significant cause of
erosion in the Grand Canyon. The eroding action of water forms first a gully and
then a V-shaped valley. Sometimes valleys are eroded even further to form
valleys with high, steep walls, called canyons.
Question Four
Which step in the water cycle occurs as liquid water changes into vapor, or gas?
A. condensation
B. precipitation
C. evaporation
D. desalination
The right answer is C. Evaporation is the changing of liquid water into vapor, or
gas. The sun’s heat causes evaporation.
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Chapter 3 - Climates of the Earth
ROUND ONE
Question One
Day and night in the Eastern and Western hemispheres are determined by the
earth’s ________.
A. rotation
B. tilt
C. axis
D. revolution
The correct answer is A, rotation. Rotating from west to east, Earth turns first one
hemisphere and then the other toward the sun, alternating between the light of
day and the darkness of night.
Question Two
The capacity of certain gases in the atmosphere to trap heat, thereby warming
Earth, is ________.
A. weather
B. global warming
C. climate
D. the greenhouse effect
If you answered D, you’re right. Because the atmosphere traps some heat and
keeps it from escaping back into space too quickly, Earth’s atmosphere is like the
glass in a greenhouse, trapping the sun’s warmth for growing plants.
Question Three
All but which of the following factors affect climate?
A. latitude
B. human systems
C. elevation
D. landforms
B is the correct answer. Latitude, elevation, wind and water patterns, and
landforms combine with the earth-sun relationship to influence Earth’s climates.
Question Four
The most variable weather on Earth is found in the _____.
A. mid-latitudes
B. high latitudes
C. low latitudes
D. polar latitudes
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If you answered A, you’re right. The mid-latitudes lie between the Tropic of
Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the
Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Which statement best describes the relationship between elevation and climate?
A. As elevation increases, temperatures increase.
B. As elevation increases, temperatures decrease.
C. Changes in elevation do not affect temperature.
D. As elevation increases, temperatures fluctuate wildly.
The right answer is B. The earth’s atmosphere thins as altitude increases.
Thinner air retains less heat. Therefore, as elevation increases, temperatures
decrease.
Question Two
On which side of a mountain are deserts often found?
A. leeward side
B. windward side
C. north side
D. south side
If you answered A, you’re right. The warm, dry air on the leeward side of a
mountain produces little precipitation. This is known as the rain shadow effect.
The rain shadow often causes dry areas–and even deserts–to develop on the
leeward sides of mountain ranges.
Question Three
What type of vegetation is made up of thickets of bushes and short trees and is
common in Mediterranean climates?
A. mixed forests
B. chaparral
C. prairies
D. oasis
The correct answer is B, chaparral. Land surrounding the Mediterranean Sea has
mild, rainy winters and hot, sunny summers. The natural vegetation includes
chaparral.
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Question Four
What kind of human-environment interaction creates acid rain?
A. building dams
B. fertilizing lawns
C. planting trees
C. burning fossil fuels
D is the right answer. Burning fossil fuels releases gases that mix with water in
the air, forming acids that fall in the form of rain and snow. Acid rain can destroy
forests. Fewer forests may result in climatic change.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Global winds that blow in fairly constant patterns are called _____.
A. currents
B. prevailing winds
C. doldrums
D. trade winds
If you answered B, you’re correct. Global winds blow in fairly constant patterns
called prevailing winds. The direction of prevailing winds is determined by latitude
and is affected by the earth’s movement.
Question Two
On or around June 21, the sun’s rays directly strike the Tropic of Cancer,
marking the beginning of summer in the Northern Hemisphere. What is
this date known as?
A. vernal equinox
B. summer equinox
C. winter solstice
D. summer solstice
D is correct. The sun’s direct rays reach the Tropic of Cancer about June 21,
bringing the Northern Hemisphere its longest day of sunlight. This date, known
as summer solstice, marks the beginning of summer in the Northern Hemisphere.
Question Three
What climate type is found in or near the low latitudes?
A. desert
B. steppe
C. tropical
D. Mediterranean
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The correct answer is C. Tropical climates are found in or near the low
latitudes—the Tropics. The two most widespread kinds of tropical climate regions
are tropical rain forest and tropical savanna.
Question Four
All but which of the following are high latitude climate regions?
A. subarctic
B. tundra
C. permafrost
D. ice cap
C is the right answer. Subarctic, tundra, and ice cap climate regions are all found
in high latitudes. Permafrost is permanently frozen subsoil found in subarctic
regions, not a climate region itself.
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Chapter 4 - The Human World
ROUND ONE
Question One
The pattern of human settlement on the earth is called _____.
A. birthrate
B. population density
C. population distribution
D. natural increase
C is the correct answer. The planet’s population distribution, or the pattern of
human settlement, is uneven among the earth’s regions. Population distribution
is related to the earth’s geography—most people live where fertile soil, available
water, and a moderate climate make human life sustainable.
Question Two
Any system of government in which a small group holds power is _____.
A. an oligarchy
B. an autocracy
C. a democracy
D. a monarchy
The right answer is A. In an oligarchy, a small group holds power. This power is
derived from wealth, military power, social position, or a combination of these
elements.
Question Three
Which of the following is NOT an element of culture?
A. language
B. landforms
C. religion
D. government
B is the correct answer. Culture is the way of life of a group of people who share
similar beliefs and customs. Various elements of culture include language,
religion, history, art, government, economic activities, and social systems.
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Question Four
Places where most people work in manufacturing or service industries and enjoy
a high standard of living are called _____.
A. culture hearths
B. developed countries
C. developing countries
D. traditional economies
The correct answer is B. Countries having much technology and manufacturing,
such as the United States, are called developed countries. Here, most people
work in manufacturing or service industries and enjoy a high standard of living.
ROUND TWO
Question One
The process of spreading new knowledge and skills from one culture to another
is called _____.
A. specialization
B. urbanization
C. cultural diffusion
D. migration
If you answered C you’re correct. Cultural diffusion is the process of spreading
new knowledge and skills from one culture to another. No culture remains the
same over the course of time—internal factors and outside influences create
change within cultures.
Question Two
The shift from gathering food to producing food is known as the _____.
A. Agricultural Revolution
B. Industrial Revolution
C. Economic Revolution
D. Information Revolution
A is right. As the earth’s climate warmed about 10,000 years ago, many nomadic
people settled in river valleys and on fertile plains. They became farmers who
lived in permanent villages and grew crops on the same land every year. This
shift from gathering food to producing food is known as the Agricultural
Revolution.
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Question Three
Under which system of government do people elect representatives with the
responsibility and power to make laws and conduct government?
A. dictatorship
B. oligarchy
C. monarchy
D. democracy
D is the right answer. A democracy is any system of government in which leaders
rule with the consent of the citizens.
Question Four
Which of the following is NOT a common geographic element of culture hearths?
A. They emerged from farming settlements.
B. They were located near sources of water.
C. They had mild climates and fertile land.
D. They had cold climates and rocky land.
D is the right answer. Cold climates and rocky soil would not have allowed
farmers in these areas to build irrigation systems and grow surplus crops.
ROUND THREE
Question One
A unitary system of government gives all key powers to the _____.
A. people
B. monarch
C. state or provincial governments
D. national or central government
D is the correct answer. A unitary system of government gives all key powers to
the national or central government. The central government creates state,
provincial, or other local governments and gives them limited sovereignty.
Question Two
What results when chemical wastes poison fertile topsoil and solid wastes are
dumped in landfills?
A. air pollution
B. land pollution
D. water pollution
E. noise pollution
If you answered B you’re correct. Land pollution is caused by chemical wastes
poisoning fertile topsoil or solid wastes that are dumped in landfills.
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Question Three
Which of the following best states the goal of the WTO, NAFTA, and the EU?
A. to conserve the earth’s resources
B. to build a global culture
C. to promote free trade
D. to encourage travel and tourism
The right answer is C. In recent years governments around the world have
moved toward free trade. Most countries of the world belong to the World Trade
Organization, or WTO. Regional free trade agreements include NAFTA among
the United States, Canada, and Mexico, and the European Union, or EU, to
which most countries of Europe belong.
Question Four
In which type of economy do individuals and private groups make decisions
about what to produce?
A. market
B. traditional
C. command
D. social
A, market, is correct. In a market economy, individuals and private groups make
decisions about what to produce. They have the right to own property or
businesses and make a profit with only limited government interference.
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Chapter 5 - The Physical Geography of the United States and Canada
ROUND ONE
Question One
What is a high point or ridge that determines the direction rivers flow?
A. divide
B. peak
C. headwaters
D. source
The right answer is A. A divide is a high point or ridge that determines the
direction rivers flow. In North America the high ridge of the Rockies is called the
Continental Divide, or Great Divide.
Question Two
Which Pacific mountain range gives rise to Mount McKinley, the highest point in
North America?
A. the Coast Range
B. the Alaska Range
C. the Sierra Nevada
D. the Cascade Range
B is right. The Alaska Range, one of the impressive, sharp-peaked mountain
ranges of the Pacific Ranges, gives rise to the highest point on the continent.
Mount McKinley is 20,320 feet high.
Question Three
What was the result of humans altering natural vegetation on the Great Plains in
the 1930s?
A. severe storms
B. flooding
C. the Dust Bowl
D. Arctic temperatures
The right answer is C, the Dust Bowl. The tangled roots of prairie grasses once
formed dense, solidly packed layers of sod on the Great Plains. Then settlers
broke up the sod to grow crops. When dry weather blanketed the plains in the
1930s, the wind eroded unprotected topsoil, reducing farmlands across several
U.S. states to a barren wasteland called the Dust Bowl.
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Question Four
Which physical feature is a major source of hydroelectric power for both Canada
and the United States?
A. the Great Lakes
B. the Peace River
C. Niagara Falls
D. the Rio Grande
C is the correct answer. Niagara Falls forms part of the border between Ontario,
Canada and New York State in the United States. It is a major source of
hydroelectric power for both countries.
ROUND TWO
Question One
What type of climate is found in the plateaus and basins that lie between the
Pacific Ranges and the Rocky Mountains?
A. steppe or desert
B. tundra
C. tropical rain forest
D. humid continental
A is the correct answer. The rain shadow effect keeps the plateaus and basins
that lie between the Pacific Ranges and the Rocky Mountains hot and dry. Much
of the area has a steppe or desert climate.
Question Two
What natural resources, which once covered most of North America, are now
found in only about 50 percent of Canada and 30 percent of the United States?
A. petroleum and natural gas
B. forests and woodlands
C. iron and nickel
D. copper, gold, and silver
B is correct for. Forests and woodlands once covered much of the United States
and Canada. Today forests cover less than 50 percent of Canada and just 30
percent of the United States. Both countries are making efforts to preserve the
forests and protect the native animals that live in the forests.
Question Three
Which river forms part of the border between Canada and the United States?
A. St. Lawrence River
B. Mississippi River
C. Mackenzie River
D. Nelson River
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The correct answer is A. The St. Lawrence River is one of Canada’s most
important rivers. It flows for about 750 miles from Lake Ontario to the Gulf of St.
Lawrence in the Atlantic. It forms part of the border between Canada and the
United States.
Question Four
In which climate zone are Alaska and much of Canada located?
A. humid subtropical
B. desert
C. subarctic
C. tropical savanna
C is the correct answer. Large parts of Canada and Alaska lie in a subarctic
climate zone with very cold winters and extensive coniferous forests. Two-thirds
of Canada experiences temperatures that average below 0 degrees Fahrenheit.
ROUND THREE
Question One
What are the violent spring and summer thunderstorms that are common in the
Great Plains and eastern United States called?
A. chinook
B. supercells
C. hurricanes
D. dustbowls
B is correct. In the Great Plains and eastern United States, violent spring and
summer thunderstorms called supercells spawn tornadoes, twisting funnels of air
whose winds can reach 300 miles per hour.
Question Two
The coastal waters of the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans and the Gulf of Mexico are
important to the economies of both Canada and the United States because of
their ________.
A. desalination plants
B. factories
C. fisheries
D. paper mills
The right answer is C. The coastal waters of the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans and
the Gulf of Mexico are important to the region’s economy. Rich with fish and
shellfish, these waters are important fisheries, or places for catching fish and
other sea animals.
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Question Three
What was responsible for the formation of many lakes in North America?
A. tornadoes
B. moraines
C. hurricanes
D. glaciers
If you answered D, you’re right. In northern Canada glacial dams created Great
Bear Lake and Great Slave Lake. Glaciers also gouged the Canadian Shield and
tore at the central section of the continent, leaving glacial basins that became the
Great Lakes.
Question Four
What kind of winters are characteristic of a humid continental climate?
A. warm
B. rainy
C. very dry
D. bitterly cold
If you answered D, you’re right. In the center of the continent, far from large
bodies of water that tend to moderate climate, interior regions such as the Great
Plains have a humid continental climate with bitterly cold winters and hot
summers.
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Chapter 6 - The Cultural Geography of the United States and Canada
ROUND ONE
Question One
Where do most people in the United States and Canada live today?
A. in metropolitan areas
B. in the countryside
C. in small towns
D. in the Rocky Mountains
A is the correct answer. Today most people in the United States and Canada live
in metropolitan areas. A metropolitan area includes a city with a population of at
least 50,000 and outlying communities called suburbs.
Question Two
What characteristic of coastal cities in the United States and Canada has
influenced economic growth?
A. factory jobs
B. tourism
C. agricultural jobs
D. major ports for trading
If you answered D, you’re right! Many population centers in the United States and
Canada lie in coastal areas where healthy economies support large populations.
The busy ports along these coasts provide important commercial links to the rest
of the world.
Question Three
What contributed to North America’s transition from an economy based on
agriculture to one based on manufacturing and service industries?
A. highways
B. waterways
C. railroads
D. none of the above
B is correct. North America’s waterways offered both natural resources and
transportation routes that contributed to the region’s rapid industrialization as the
basis of its economy.
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Question Four
Which of the following statements about the physical geography of the English
colonies along the Atlantic coast is NOT true?
A. The northern colonies had thin, rocky soil.
B. The middle colonies had wide river valleys and fertile soil.
C. The northern colonies had few harbors and little timber.
D. The middle colonies had mild winters and warm summers.
The right answer is C. The northern colonies had excellent harbors, as well as
good timber and fishing. Most settlers made their living by shipbuilding, trade,
and fishing.
ROUND TWO
Question One
What sparked the war between Britain and the thirteen British colonies in 1775,
leading to the birth of a new country?
A. slavery
B. land disputes
C. new taxes and limited freedoms
D. all of the above
If you answered C, you’re correct. During the 1760s, the British government
aroused the American colonists’ anger by imposing new taxes and limiting their
freedoms. In 1775, the thirteen British colonies fought a war for independence.
The outcome was a new country–the United States of America.
Question Two
Which of the following British colonies was NOT one of the original four that
united to form the Dominion of Canada in 1867?
A. Quebec
B. Ontario
C. Alberta
D. Nova Scotia
C is right. In 1867, under Prime Minister John A. Macdonald, four of Great
Britain’s remaining North American colonies – Quebec, Ontario, Nova Scotia,
and New Brunswick – united as provinces of the Dominion of Canada.
Neighboring areas, including Alberta, became provinces of Canada over
the next 100 years.
27
Question Three
The western expansion of the United States included which of the following
events?
A. the Louisiana Purchase of 1803
B. the admission of Texas to the Union in 1845
C. the purchase of Alaska in 1867
D. all of the above
The right answer is D. Several events, including the Louisiana Purchase, the
admission of Texas, and the purchase of Alaska, contributed to the westward
expansion of the United States.
Question Four
What geographic feature influenced the location of the first factories in North
America?
A. coal deposits in the Midwest
B. waterfalls in the Northeast
C. cotton plantations in the South
D. gold and silver in the West
B is the correct answer. The first factories arose in the northeastern United
States, which had many waterfalls that could be harnessed to produce power to
run machines.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Why did the governments of both the United States and Canada encourage
settlement of the Great Plains in the late 1800s?
A. to urbanize the Great Plains
B. to industrialize the Great Plains
C. to ease overcrowding in eastern cities
D. to ease overcrowding in western cities
If you answered C, you’re right. Settlement of the Great Plains was encouraged
in the 1800s because the United States and Canadian governments wanted to
ease the crowding in eastern cities caused by immigration from Europe. They
also wanted people to farm the region, thus providing more food for urban
populations.
28
Question Two
Today most Americans and Canadians who are members of an organized
religion are ________.
A. Christians
B. Muslims
C. Jews
D. Buddhists
A is correct. In the United States, the majority of Christians are Protestant, while
in Canada most Christians are Roman Catholic.
Question Three
French-speaking Canadians in Quebec who want greater protection for their
culture and language support a movement for ________.
A. patriotism
B. separatism
C. interdependence
D. immigration
B is correct. In the Canadian province of Quebec, French is the official language
because most of the province’s population is descended from French settlers
who arrived from the 1500s to the 1700s. Many Quebecois want Quebec’s
independence and support a movement for separatism – the breaking away of
one part of a country to create a separate, independent country.
Question Four
During the mid-1900s, from where did many artists in North America adopt their
abstract style?
A. Asia
B. Native Americans
C. Africa
D. Europe
The correct answer is D. In the mid-1900s many artists in North America adopted
from Europe the abstract style, which expresses the artist’s emotions and
attitudes without depicting recognizable images.
29
Chapter 7 - The United States and Canada Today
ROUND ONE
Question One
What has caused the rise of the post-industrial economy in the United States and
Canada?
A. heavy industry
B. high-tech businesses
C. agriculture
D. traditional manufacturing
B is right. The rising post-industrial economy is best reflected in the region’s hightech and biotechnology industries. Both the United States and Canada produce
high-tech equipment for use in computer sciences and telecommunications.
Question Two
What is one factor that has contributed to the decrease in people employed as
farmers?
A. lack of fertilizers and chemical pesticides
B. faulty machinery
C. lack of available land
D. unpredictable consumer demand
D is correct. Today only two percent of Americans and four percent of Canadians
work in agriculture. Some of the factors contributing to this decline are the high
cost of farming, unpredictable consumer demand, natural disasters, and the time
and hard work needed to run a farm.
Question Three
What economic activity helped the American West to prosper but left deep scars
on the landscape?
A. strip mining
B. farming
C. manufacturing
D. technology
The right answer is A. Strip mining made the American West rich, but it also left
deep scars on the landscape. Today mining and other resource-based western
industries are working to control ecological damage.
30
Question Four
In the United States and Canada, reliance on the automobile has resulted in
________.
A. traffic congestion in urban areas
B. air pollution
C. heavy investment in highways, roads, and bridges
D. all of the above
D is the correct answer. Since World War II, the most popular means of personal
transportation in the United States and Canada has been the automobile.
Extensive automobile use in the region has resulted in traffic congestion,
pollution, and the need for heavy investment in highways, roads, and bridges.
ROUND TWO
Question One
The oxides that create acid rain also contribute to the type of air pollution known
as ________.
A. smoke
B. smog
C. dust
D. the greenhouse effect
If you answered B, you’re right. The sulfur and nitrogen oxides from automobile
and factory emissions that create acid rain also contribute to the type of air
pollution known as smog.
Question Two
The United States spends more money on imports than it earns from exports.
This results in a ________.
A. monopoly
B. trade deficit
C. trade surplus
D. market economy
The answer is B. A negative difference in the value between a country’s imports
and its exports is a trade deficit. The U.S. trade deficit results from the country’s
large population and growing industries, which require costly energy purchases.
Question Three
What sparked a war on terrorism, which began in the Southwest Asian country of
Afghanistan in 2001?
A. the signing of NAFTA
B. the bombing of the American embassy in Afghanistan
C. the formation of the European Union
D. the attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon
31
D is the right answer. The September 11 attacks on America won much
international support for a massive, wide-ranging response to terrorism. The first
military operations of the war on terrorism began in the Southwest Asian country
of Afghanistan, which harbored Saudi exile Osama bin Laden, the leader of the
terrorist network believed to have carried out the attacks.
Question Four
As a result of NAFTA, more American companies have built assembly plants in
________.
A. France
B. Canada
C. Mexico
D. Kenya
If you answered C, you’re correct. Because of NAFTA, U.S. businesses seeking
lower production and labor costs have set up plants in Mexico to produce and
assemble parts and products.
ROUND THREE
Question One
What may be the result of global warming in the United States and Canada?
A. melting polar ice in Alaska and Canada
B. thawing of permafrost in Arctic regions
C. northward movement of caribou, polar bears, and seals
D. all of the above
The right answer is D. The slight but steady rise in the earth’s temperatures is
believed to be responsible for melting polar ice and the thawing of permafrost in
the Arctic regions. Thinning sea ice has forced caribou, polar bears, and seals to
move farther north.
Question Two
What has caused geographic boundaries to change, expanding the type of
agriculture that can be carried out in a particular place?
A. climate changes
B. improved transportation
C. increased communication
D. agricultural technology
32
The right answer is D. Advances in agricultural technology have changed or
widened the traditional growing areas. The development of breeds of cattle that
need less room to roam has opened the southern United States to cattle
ranching. Because of improved feed sources and automation, large productive
dairy farms can now be found in every American state and many Canadian
provinces.
Question Three
What crop is grown in the Prairie Provinces of Canada and on the Great Plains of
the United States?
A. wheat
B. tobacco
C. cotton
D. soybeans
A is the right answer. The region often called the Wheat Belt includes the Prairie
Provinces of Canada and the Great Plains of the United States.
Question Four
What has destroyed many old-growth forests, endangered wildlife, and left the
land subject to erosion and flooding in North America?
A. eutrophication
B. flooding
C. clear-cutting
D. pollution
If you said C, you’re correct. Clear-cutting is the practice of taking out whole
forests when harvesting timber.
33
Chapter 8 - The Physical Geography of Latin America
ROUND ONE
Question One
The tallest mountains in South America are the _____.
A. Sierra Madre
B. Central Highlands
C. Andes
D. Rocky Mountains
The correct answer is C. The Andes rise to more than 20,000 feet. The Andes
also stretch across more than four thousand miles of South America, making
them the world’s longest mountain range.
Question Two
An area where a river meets an ocean tide is called _____.
A. an escarpment
B. an estuary
C. an altiplano
D. a tributary
B is the correct answer. An estuary is where the tide meets the current of a river.
The capitals of Argentina and Uruguay both lie on an estuary.
Question Three
Mexico has two mountain ranges that form the _____.
A. Andes
B. Sierra Madre
C. Central Highlands
D. altiplano
The answer is B! Mexico’s Sierra Madre consist of two ranges—the Sierra Madre
Oriental and the Sierra Madre Occidental, which meet to form the Sierra Madre
del Sur near Mexico City.
Question Four
The grasslands of Argentina are known as the _____.
A. pampas
B. altiplano
C. llanos
D. cordilleras
34
The answer is A. The pampas stretch across much of Argentina, making the area
famous for its beef cattle and the cowhands that manage them.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Latin America has a _____.
A. tropical climate
B. desert climate
C. subtropical climate
D. variety of climates
It’s D. Latin America is a region of sharp contrasts and a variety of climates.
From the glaciers of the Andes to the rain forest canopies of Brazil, nearly every
kind of climate is seen in Latin America.
Question Two
Large grasslands grow in which climate?
A. desert
B. highlands
C. tropical savanna
D. tropical rain forest
The correct answer is C. A tropical savanna climate has hot temperatures,
abundant rainfall, and an extended dry season.
Question Three
In a Brazilian rain forest, why does little sunlight reach the forest floor?
A. The canopy is dense.
B. It is always raining.
C. The sun doesn’t shine in Brazil.
D. Mountains block the light.
A is the right answer. The canopy of trees can soar to over 130 feet and block
much of the sunlight. The plants that grow beneath these trees have to be able to
live in the shade.
Question Four
The Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn are _____.
A. lines of latitude
B. lines of longitude
C. time zones
D. country borders
35
These are A, lines of latitude. Most of Latin America lies between these lines.
Much of the area is tropical, although elevation and wind patterns create a variety
of climates in Latin America.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Because Argentina is south of the Equator, its coldest month is _____.
A. January
B. March
C. July
D. October
The southern hemisphere has seasons opposite from those in the northern
hemisphere. When we have summer, it’s winter there. So, the coldest month in
Argentina is July.
Question Two
Latin America’s climate is most dependent on _____.
A. distance from the Equator
B. elevation
C. the oceans surrounding it
D. amount of sunlight
Although Latin America is in the Tropics, its climate is most affected by elevation.
The higher you go, the colder it is.
Question Three
Which of these countries is NOT in the Amazon Basin?
A. Bolivia
B. Argentina
C. Peru
D. Brazil
If you answered B, you’re right. The Amazon drains water from six different
countries. Argentina is the only country listed that is not a part of the Amazon
river system.
Question Four
Which part of Latin America has the most plants and animals?
A. the Mexican Plateau
B. the Amazon rain forest
C. the Andes
D. Patagonia
36
If you said B, you’d be correct! The Amazon rain forest shelters more species of
plants and animals per square mile than anywhere else on Earth.
37
Chapter 9 - The Cultural Geography of Latin America
ROUND ONE
Question One
The religion with the greatest number of followers in Latin America is ________.
A. Roman Catholicism
B. Protestantism
C. Buddhism
D. Santería
A is right. More than 86 percent of the people in Latin America are Roman
Catholics, and Roman Catholic traditions influence daily life in the region.
Question Two
Latin American parents and children often share their home with their ________.
A. extended family
B. nuclear family
C. immediate family
D. compadres
If you answered A, you’re right. Most Latin Americans have a strong sense of
loyalty to family. Each person is part of an extended family that includes
grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins. Latin American parents and children
sometimes share their home with members of their extended family.
Question Three
Which area of Latin America has the largest population?
A. coastal regions
B. Central America and Mexico
C. Caribbean islands
D. rain forests
The correct answer is A. About 350 million people live along the coasts. The
coastal regions provide favorable climates, fertile land, and easy access to
transportation systems.
38
Question Four
Who introduced the rhythms, songs, and dances that have evolved into today’s
Latin American music and dance styles?
A. Asians
B. Europeans
C. Native Americans
D. Africans
The correct answer is D. Africans brought to the region the rhythms, songs, and
dances that evolved into today’s Latin American musical styles and dances, such
as calypso, reggae, and samba.
ROUND TWO
Question One
The four Latin American cities that rank among the world’s fifteen largest urban
areas in population are São Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Buenos Aires, and ________.
A. Lima
B. Mexico City
C. Bogotá
D. Maracaibo
If you answered B, you’re correct. In the past most Latin Americans lived in the
countryside and worked the land. Today most live in urban areas. Mexico City,
Mexico; São Paulo, and Rio de Janeiro, Brazil; and Buenos Aires, Argentina rank
among the world’s 15 largest urban areas in population.
Question Two
How was the 2000 presidential election important to the history of modern
Mexico?
A. It continued the 70-year tradition of one-party rule.
B. The PRI party won the presidency.
C. It was not a democratic election.
D. It ended nearly 70 years of one-party rule.
D is the correct answer. Opposition candidate Vicente Fox defeated the
candidate of the ruling party, which had controlled Mexico for nearly 70 years.
He became Mexico’s president in a genuinely democratic election.
Question Three
Which Latin American country was the first to gain its independence?
A. Venezuela
B. Mexico
C. Haiti
D. Argentina
39
The correct answer is C. Haiti was the first Latin American country to gain its
independence. In 1794, François Toussaint-Louverture led a revolt by enslaved
Africans. By 1804 Haiti had won its independence from France.
Question Four
Which Latin American country has the largest percentage of people of European
heritage?
A. Brazil
B. Argentina
C. Guyana
D. Peru
If you answered B, you’re correct. About 85 percent of the population of
Argentina is of European heritage, more than any other country in the region.
ROUND THREE
Question One
What has caused an increase in the levels of urbanization throughout the region?
A. megacities
B. primate cities
C. immigration
D. migration
D is the right answer. Latin Americans are moving to urban areas both inside and
outside the region to find work and a better life. Most often people migrate to
areas of higher economic prosperity. Migration has caused this increase in the
levels of urbanization throughout the region.
Question Two
Which of the following statements about education in most Latin American
countries is NOT true?
A. Adult literacy rates have risen steadily.
B. University enrollment has declined.
C. Governments devote more financial support to schools.
D. Use of the Internet has influenced education and learning.
B is the right answer. Several factors have helped many Latin American
countries make gains in education. For example, university enrollment is rising,
as some public universities provide higher education at little or no cost to
students.
40
Question Three
Which two European countries ruled large territories in Latin America through the
early 1500s?
A. Spain and France
B. Portugal and Great Britain
C. Spain and Portugal
D. France and Great Britain
C is correct! The major European powers of Spain and Portugal ruled huge
territories from Mexico to southern South America. Later Great Britain, France,
and the Netherlands colonized in the Caribbean and parts of northern South
America.
Question Four
Which Native American empire arose in central Mexico in the A.D. 1300s?
A. the Maya
B. the Zapatista
C. the Aztec
D. the Inca
C is the right answer. The Aztec civilization arose in central Mexico in the A.D.
1300s. The Maya dominated southern Mexico and northern Central America from
about A.D. 250 to 900. The Inca established a civilization in the Andes mountain
ranges of South America during the A.D. 1300s.
41
Chapter 10 - Latin America Today
ROUND ONE
Question One
Building roads and railroads in Latin America is often difficult because ________.
A. many governments cannot afford to invest in transportation routes
B. the rugged mountains limit construction
C. dense rain forests and arid deserts limit construction
D. all of the above
If you answered D, you’re correct. Investing in infrastructure such as roads and
railroads is sometimes too costly for governments in Latin America. In addition,
physical barriers such as mountains, forests, and deserts limit construction in
certain areas.
Question Two
In Latin America, large agricultural estates owned by wealthy families or
corporations are known as ________.
A. minifundia
B. latifundia
C. campesinos
D. maquiladoras
B is the correct answer. Large agricultural estates owned by wealthy families or
corporations are known as latifundia in Latin America. These are highly
mechanized commercial operations that yield high returns for low investments
in labor.
Question Three
Critics of Mexico’s maquiladoras argue that the system ________.
A. does not offer employment for Mexican citizens
B. uses up valuable farm land
C. ignores labor and environmental protection laws
D. offers easy jobs for high pay
C is correct. Critics of maquiladoras charge that the system often ignores labor
and environmental protection laws, damaging the environment and encouraging
low-paying or dangerous jobs.
42
Question Four
Plants and trees have been cleared from the Amazon rain forest by farming,
ranching, and ________.
A. flooding
B. hurricanes
C. reforestation
D. logging
If you answered D, you’re right! Commercial logging operations harvest trees for
timber and other products. Rain forests will regenerate on their own over time but
with a considerable loss of biodiversity. Reforestation will help if the laws are
rigorously enforced.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Why have many Latin American countries borrowed funds from foreign sources?
A. to finance industrial development
B. to improve education
C. to prevent malnutrition
D. to create better health care
A is the right answer. In the past, many Latin American countries borrowed funds
from foreign sources to finance industrial development. Unfortunately the
demand for Latin America’s products declined in the 1980s. Loans were
rescheduled adding more time to repay the loans, but the added interest
increased the total debt amount. Repaying these debts has stopped necessary
domestic programs in some countries.
Question Two
For how long is farmland fertile after the slash-and-burn farming method is used
to clear rain forests?
A. about 4 years
B. about 10 years
C. about 1 or 2 years
D. between 30 and 40 years
C is the correct answer. Frequent rains leach away the nutrients in the soil that
were gained from burning the vegetation. Within one or two years, the soil loses
its fertility or is washed away.
43
Question Three
Which statement best describes workers and farms in Latin America today?
A. Latin America’s campesinos are wealthy.
B. Minifundia are highly mechanized.
C. Governments are redistributing land to the wealthy.
D. The system of latifundia and minifundia is gradually breaking down.
The right answer is D. The centuries-old system of latifundia and minifundia
is gradually breaking down as latifundia become more mechanized and
farmworkers leave for the cities. In addition, reform-minded governments
are passing laws to distribute farmland more fairly.
Question Four
In what country has the North American Free Trade Agreement been
controversial?
A. the United States
B. Mexico
C. Canada
D. all of the above
The correct answer is A. American labor groups fear the loss of jobs to generally
lower-paid Mexican workers. From Mexico’s viewpoint, NAFTA has helped boost
exports and create thousands of new jobs.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Overcrowding in many cities has forced some rural workers migrating to the cities
to live in ________.
A. small apartments
B. shantytowns
C. crowded homes
D. old houses
B is correct. Latin America’s rural workers migrating to cities often end up living in
shantytowns. Shantytowns are makeshift communities on the edges of cities, and
often sit on dangerous slopes and wetlands. Mudslides, floods, and other natural
disasters can wipe out entire communities.
Question Two
Many Latin American countries attempt to preserve the natural environment and
develop economically by working toward ________.
A. sustainable development
B. deforestation
C. reforestation
D. urbanization
44
The right answer is A. Sustainable development is technological and economic
growth that does not deplete the human and natural resources of a given area.
Question Three
Territorial conflicts in Latin America usually arise over strategic locations or
________.
A. rights to natural resources
B. racism
C. money
D. religious freedom
A is the right answer. Neighboring countries quarrel over natural resources such
as fishing rights and petroleum holdings. Border wars divert resources that could
be better used for development, but economic incentives can encourage
countries to settle their differences.
Question Four
In addition to physical geography and ties to more developed regions, what
obstacle are some Latin American countries overcoming to become more
industrialized?
A. striking workers
B. lack of land
C. political instability
D. poor climate
If you answered C, you’re right. Physical geography, ties to more developed
regions, and political instability have limited industrial growth in Latin America.
Some countries are combining the necessary human and natural resources with
relatively stable governments and active business communities to experience
industrial growth.
45
Chapter 11 - The Physical Geography of Europe
ROUND ONE
Question One
What geographic features does the North European Plain offer?
A. fertile soil and rivers
B. mountains and valleys
C. peninsulas and islands
D. none of the above
A is right. The North European Plain offers fertile soil, a wealth of rivers, and
deposits of coal, iron ore, and other minerals. Because of these natural
resources, the North European Plain is a major agricultural region. Many of
Europe’s largest cities, such as Paris and Berlin, are also located there.
Question Two
What type of climate does most of western Europe have?
A. Mediterranean
B. humid continental
C. marine west coast
D. humid subtropic
If you answered C, you’re correct. Much of western Europe has a marine west
coast climate with mild winters, cool summers, and abundant rainfall. The Gulf
Stream and the North Atlantic Drift bring warm waters to this part of Europe.
Prevailing westerly winds blowing over these currents carry warm, moist air
across western Europe.
Question Three
Which part of Europe features mostly a Mediterranean climate and chaparral
vegetation?
A. western
B. northern
C. southern
D. eastern
C is the right answer. Most of southern Europe has a Mediterranean climate with
warm, dry summers and mild, rainy winters. This type of climate supports the
growth of chaparral, or shrubs and small trees such as cork oak trees and olive
trees.
46
Question Four
What physical process shaped the landscape of Europe’s northern peninsulas?
A. subduction
B. glaciation
C. spreading
D. wind erosion
The correct answer is B. Glaciers during the last Ice Age carved fjords on the
Atlantic coastline. They left sparkling lakes in Norway, Sweden, and Finland.
Sand and gravel were deposited on Jutland’s flat western side and fjords were
carved into the slightly higher coastline on the east by glaciers.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Why are the Danube and Rhine Rivers two of the most important rivers in
Europe?
A. They are the main sources for the continent’s fishing industry.
B. They provide hydroelectric power for all of Europe.
C. They provide irrigation for all of Europe’s agricultural needs.
D. They provide links between inland areas and the seas.
D is correct! The Rhine is the most important river in western Europe. It connects
many industrial cities to the busy port of Rotterdam on the North Sea. The
Danube is eastern Europe’s major waterway. Each year ships and barges carry
millions of tons of cargo on the Danube from the Great Hungarian Plain to the
Black Sea.
Question Two
How did the Dutch use windmills to alter their natural environment?
A. to drain the land and keep it dry
B. to provide electrical power for homes
C. to provide power for manufacturing
D. to create breezes during hot summer months
A is the correct answer. Since about 25 percent of the Netherlands lies below
sea level, the Dutch built dikes to hold back the water. This gave them new land,
which was drained and kept dry by the use of windmills. Their windpower
pumped seawater from low-lying areas.
47
Question Three
To which European islands would geographers go in order to study volcanoes
and earthquakes?
A. British Isles
B. Sicily, Sardinia, Corsica, Crete, and Cyprus
C. Greek Isles
D. Spain’s Balearic Islands
The right answer is B. Sicily, Sardinia, Corsica, Crete, and Cyprus lie south of the
European mainland in the Mediterranean Sea. Volcanic and earthquake activity
are characteristic of the region. Mount Etna, Europe’s highest active volcano,
rises over Sicily.
Question Four
How have Europeans enhanced their natural waterways as transportation links?
A. by connecting navigable rivers with canals
B. by making shallow rivers deeper
C. by widening narrow rivers
D. all of the above
A is right. Europeans have connected navigable rivers with canals to greatly
enhance their natural waterways as transportation links. The rivers and canals
also provide water to irrigate farmland and to produce electricity.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Where do Europeans find large deposits of oil and natural gas to supply their
energy needs?
A. Baltic Sea
B. North Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea
D. Adriatic Sea
If you answered B, you’re correct. Europeans rely heavily on coal, oil, gas, and
nuclear and hydroelectric power. Vast oil and natural gas deposits under the
North Sea contribute greatly to Europe’s energy needs.
Question Two
What accounts for the difference in Europe’s northwestern and southern
mountains?
A. age
B. climate
C. latitude
D. pollution
48
A is right. Europe’s northwestern mountains have been rounded by years of
erosion and glaciation. The highest mountain, Ben Nevis, located in the British
Isles, is only 4,406 feet high. The high jagged mountains in southern Europe are
geologically younger. The highest mountain, Mont Blanc, located in the Alps, is
15,771 feet.
Question Three
The climates of western and southern Europe are different from those of eastern
and northern Europe because of their relationship to ________.
A. mountains
B. forests
C. grasslands
D. bodies of water
The correct answer is D. Western and southern Europe lie near or along large
bodies of water and benefit from warm maritime winds. Eastern and northern
Europe have colder climates because of their distance from the warming effects
of the Atlantic Ocean.
Question Four
Which southern peninsula is cut off from the rest of Europe by the Pyrenees
Mountains?
A. Iberian Peninsula
B. Apennine Peninsula
C. Balkan Peninsula
D. Scandinavian Peninsula
A is correct. To the north of the Iberian Peninsula are the Pyrenees Mountains.
They cut off the peninsula from the rest of Europe. Because of this rugged
barrier, the people of the Iberian Peninsula until modern times were relatively
isolated from the rest of Europe.
49
Chapter 12 - The Cultural Geography of Europe
ROUND ONE
Question One
What influenced the ancient Greeks to form separate communities known as citystates?
A. separate languages and cultures
B. closeness to the sea and abundant natural resources
C. mountainous landscape and abundant natural resources
D. mountainous landscape and closeness to the sea
D is the correct answer. The ancient Greeks turned to the sea when the
mountainous landscape limited their ability to grow. Greek merchants and sailors
eventually colonized most of the Mediterranean coast. They established separate
city-states that were connected by Greek language and culture.
Question Two
What is the goal of the European Union?
A. to create a united Europe
B. to create a new government
C. to create a closed economic trading system
D. to create a military superpower
The right answer is A. The European Union is an organization whose goal is a
united Europe in which goods, services, and workers can move freely among
member countries. There are currently 15 member countries and they are looking
to expand their membership to countries in Eastern Europe.
Question Three
Since World War II, what has been the major cause of conflict in Europe?
A. language differences
B. a power struggle with the United States
C. loss of cultural heritages
D. tensions among ethnic groups
D is right. Tensions among European ethnic groups have led to violent conflict.
Within some of the new republics, ethnic hatreds were serious enough to spark
the worst fighting in Europe since World War II.
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Question Four
What religious movement led to the beginnings of Protestantism?
A. the Reformation
B. the Renaissance
C. the Enlightenment
D. the Crusades
If you answered A, you’re correct. The Reformation lessened the power of the
Roman Catholic Church and led to the beginnings of Protestantism. By the mid1500s Protestant Churches were dominant in northern Europe and Roman
Catholic churches were dominant in southern, central, and northeastern parts of
the region.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Countries that have tax-supported programs for higher education, health care,
and social security are known as ________.
A. social service states
B. welfare countries
C. social service countries
D. welfare states
D is the correct answer. Some European countries, such as Sweden and the
United Kingdom, offer complete social welfare programs to their citizens. These
countries are known as welfare states.
Question Two
What has caused Europeans to work toward unity in recent years?
A. ethnic cleansing
B. common attitudes and values
C. the European Union
D. the end of communism
The right answer is B. Europeans in recent years have been working toward
greater unity. Their efforts at cooperation rest on common attitudes and values.
For example, most Europeans value the importance of the past and the cultural
achievements of their ancestors.
Question Three
The parts of Europe with average or higher than average population densities
tend to have which of the following features?
A. plains
B. mineral resources
C. inland waterways
D. all of the above
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D is correct. The parts of Europe with average or higher than average population
densities share one or more of the following features: favorable climates, plains,
fertile soil, mineral resources, and inland waterways.
Question Four
What religion is associated with the Roman Empire?
A. Christianity
B. Islam
C. Buddhism
D. Judaism
If you answered A, you’re correct. In the late A. D. 300s, Christianity became the
official religion of the Roman Empire and, later, one of the world’s major religions.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Since the mid-1900s, what has caused Europeans to remain in the region and
immigrants to come to the region?
A. cheap land
B. affordable housing
C. economic opportunities
D. religious freedoms
C is correct. Since the mid-1900s, far fewer Europeans have permanently left the
region, but large numbers of foreigners have migrated to Europe. When western
Europe’s economy boomed during the 1950s and 1960s, labor shortages
developed, and many European countries invited guest workers from other
countries to fill available jobs.
Question Two
What country was the “hot point” of the Cold War in Europe?
A. Germany
B. the Soviet Union
C. France
D. Great Britain
A is the right answer. A divided Germany – communist East Germany and
democratic West Germany – became the “hot point” of the Cold War in Europe.
Question Three
Which area of Europe is among the world’s most densely populated?
A. the North European Plain
B. the Iberian Peninsula
C. the Massif Central
D. the industrialized urban centers
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The right answer is D. In Europe, the population is not distributed evenly. Most of
Europe is far below the average population density. The region’s highly
industrialized urban centers, however, are among the world’s most densely
populated areas.
Question Four
Which of the following languages does NOT belong to the Indo-European
language family?
A. Baltic
B. Basque
C. Celtic
D. Romance
The correct answer is B. Almost all of Europe’s languages and dialects belong to
the Indo-European language family. Two European language groups are not
Indo-European – the Uralic languages (Finnish, Estonian, and Hungarian) and
Basque, one of the world’s few languages that is not related to any other.
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Chapter 13 - Europe Today
ROUND ONE
Question One
Which countries in Europe are among the world’s most polluted?
A. Poland, Romania, and the Czech Republic
B. Ukraine, Belarus, and Bulgaria
C. Germany, France, and Italy
D. Denmark, Sweden, and Finland
If you answered A, you’re right! In eastern Europe, factories built during the
communist era emit soot, sulfur, and carbon dioxide into the air by the hundreds
of tons. As a result, Poland, Romania, and the Czech Republic are among the
world’s most polluted countries.
Question Two
Which river in Europe presents a more complicated situation for pollution cleanup
because it crosses national borders?
A. Thames River
B. Danube River
C. Rhine River
D. Elbe River
B is the correct answer. Pollution in the Danube River presents a complicated
situation. It flows through eight countries in central and eastern Europe and has
seventy million people living within its drainage area. Pollution in the Danube
threatens wildlife in its outlet – the Black Sea.
Question Three
What are eastern European countries doing in order to move from command
economies to market economies?
A. Industries are cutting back their workforces.
B. Countries have stopped receiving financial aid so they can reduce their debt.
C. Industries are placing more people in management positions.
D. Industries are acquiring new technology.
The right answer is D. As eastern European countries move from command
economies to market economies they have made a lot of changes. Industries are
acquiring new technology, rehiring laid-off workers, and adopting energy
conservation measures to reduce pollution. Governments are seeking investors
and financial aid to boost their economies.
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Question Four
Rotterdam, the Netherlands, is the world’s largest port in terms of ________.
A. surface area
B. the amount of freight it handles
C. the number of ships that can dock at one time
D. all of the above
D is right. Rotterdam, the Netherlands, is the world’s largest port in surface area,
amount of freight handled, and numbers of ships that it can dock at one time.
Europe’s many ports handle more than half of the world’s international shipping.
ROUND TWO
Question One
What animal species is being reintroduced into parts of Europe?
A. wolves
B. musk oxen
C. elk
D. deer
If you answered A, you’re correct. An effort to reintroduce wolves is under way in
some parts of Europe. For example, Spain recolonized the animals in the
northwest areas of the country, and their numbers have tripled to more than
2,000.
Question Two
What treaty established the European Union?
A. Treaties of Rome
B. Maastricht Treaty
C. Treaty of Paris
D. Single Europe Act
B is the right answer. In 1992 representatives from various European
governments met in Maastricht, the Netherlands, and signed the Maastricht
Treaty, which set up the European Union.
Question Three
Which are among Europe’s top service industries?
A. tourism and high-technology
B. high-technology and international banking
C. international banking and insurance
D. insurance and tourism
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The correct answer is C. Service industries employ a large percentage of the
workforce in most European countries. International banking and insurance rank
among Europe’s top service industries. Tourism is another large service industry,
and high-technology industries are a growing sector of western Europe’s
economy.
Question Four
What kind of pollution encouraged algae to grow in Europe’s lakes and rivers?
A. industrial wastes
B. raw sewage
C. agricultural fertilizers
D. acid rain
C is correct. Water pollution affects Europe’s rivers, lakes and coastal waters.
When fertilizers from agricultural runoff become part of these waters, algae
growth results. Algae robs the water of so much oxygen that fish cannot survive.
ROUND THREE
Question One
What environmental problem was the Delta Plan implemented to solve?
A. devastating earthquakes
B. severe flooding
C. an arid climate
D. all of the above
If you answered B, you’re correct. After severe flooding in 1953 caused 1,800
people to lose their lives, Dutch engineers carried out the Delta Plan. Under the
Delta Plan, dams and dikes were built to seal off and protect the Netherland’s
southwestern coast.
Question Two
What type of farming involves raising several kinds of crops and livestock on the
same farm?
A. collective farming
B. farm cooperatives
C. state farming
D. mixed farming
D is the right answer. Mixed farming is common in western Europe, and involves
raising several kinds of crops and livestock on the same farm.
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Question Three
What effect has acid rain had on Europe?
A. It destroyed many forests.
B. It lowered life expectancy.
C. It caused higher rates of cancer and birth defects.
D. It caused severe droughts.
A is correct. Acid rain has destroyed many forests in Europe. Polluted clouds
drifting north from the industrial belt of Europe withered forests in Scandinavia.
Acid rain ravaged 35 percent of Hungary’s forests, 82 percent of Poland’s, and
73 percent of the forests in the Czech Republic and Slovakia.
Question Four
The development of industry in Europe is linked to ________.
A. its navigable rivers
B. its large cities
C. the availability of raw materials
D. its economic wealth
If you answered C, you’re right. The development of industry in Europe is often
linked to the availability of raw materials. In the 1800s Europe’s large deposits of
coal and iron ore sparked the growth of heavy industry. Vast mineral deposits in
the United Kingdom, France, and Germany have helped make them leaders in
manufacturing.
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Chapter 14 - The Physical Geography of Russia
ROUND ONE
Question One
Which river flows through rich farmland and has many fishing villages along its
banks?
A. the Ob River
B. the Dnieper River
C. the Don River
D. the Western Dvina River
The correct answer is C. Many fishing villages line the banks of the Don as it
flows through rich farmland toward Rostov, where it empties into the Sea of
Azov.
Question Two
Why is there a water shortage in European Russia?
A. The rivers supplying most of the water are located in Asian Russia.
B. The rivers are frozen most of the year.
C. The rivers in European Russia are polluted.
D. European Russia is so densly populated.
A is the right answer. Most of Russia’s longest rivers – which supply 84 percent
of the country’s water – are located in Siberia, where only 25 percent of the
population live. Thus, people in Siberia enjoy a surplus of freshwater, but
European Russians often face water shortages or problems with water quality.
Question Three
Where can navigable rivers and rich soil for farming be found in Russia?
A. the West Siberian Plain
B. the southern part of the North European Plain
C. the Central Siberian Plateau
D. the northern part of the North European Plain
B is the correct answer! The southern part of the North European Plain is home
to the Black Earth Belt, a wide fertile band with navigable waterways and
chernozem, a rich black soil that supports the production of wheat, barley,
rye, oats, and other crops.
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Question Four
What is destroying Russia’s forests?
A. permafrost
B. the cold climate
C. forest fires
D. commercial logging
If you answered D, you’re correct. About one-fifth of the world’s remaining
forestlands lie in Russia. It is second in the world in terms of the amount of
oxygen returned to the atmosphere. As a result of logging, however, Russian
forests shrink by almost 40 million acres each year.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Which mountains lie between the Black and Caspian Seas?
A. Ural Mountains
B. Sayan Mountains
C. Altay Mountains
D. Caucasus Mountains
If you answered D, you’re right. In southwestern Russia the rugged Caucasus
Mountains lie between the Black and Caspian Seas. The Caucasus reach their
highest elevation at Mount Elbrus, an extinct volcano that, at 18,510 feet, is
Russia’s highest point.
Question Two
Compared to all other lakes in the world, what is unique about Lake Baikal?
A. It is the only saltwater lake.
B. It is the deepest freshwater lake.
C. It is the longest freshwater lake.
D. It is the widest freshwater lake.
B is right. Lake Baikal in southern Siberia is over one mile deep, making it the
deepest freshwater lake in the world. It is estimated to contain about 20 percent
of the earth’s total supply of freshwater.
Question Three
The Russian taiga is the world’s largest ________.
A. coniferous forest
B. grasslands area
C. treeless plain
D. deciduous forest
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A is correct. Russia’s dominant climate region is the subarctic. The subarctic
climate supports the taiga. The Russian taiga is the world’s largest coniferous
forest. It contains about one-third of the world’s softwood timber.
Question Four
Russia is the world’s leading producer of which natural resource?
A. aluminum
B. gemstones
C. dry natural gas
D. tungsten
C is correct. Russia produces more dry natural gas than any other country in the
world. It also leads the world in nickel production and ranks among the top three
producers of aluminum, gemstones, platinum group metals, sulfur, and tungsten.
ROUND THREE
Question One
Which food supply is dwindling from the Russian fishing industry?
A. herring
B. caviar
C. salmon
D. halibut
The right answer is B. The supply of world-famous Russian caviar, or salted fish
eggs, has declined. Dams built on the Volga River have interrupted the migration
of sturgeon, the fish that provide the eggs for caviar.
Question Two
Which of the following is NOT true about the Volga River?
A. Two-thirds of Russia’s water traffic travels along it.
B. It is fed by melting snow.
C. It forms the border between Russia and China.
D. It supplies 33 percent of Russia’s usable water.
If you answered C, you’re correct. The Volga River does not form the border
between Russia and China. The Amur River forms the border for about 1,000
miles. The Volga River, affectionately called Matushka Volga, or “Mother Volga,”
is vital to Russia.
Question Three
In which climate region do mosses, lichen, algae, and dwarf shrubs thrive?
A. tundra
B. steppe
C. subarctic
D. humid continental
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The right answer is A. The tundra covers about 10 percent of Russia. Its short
growing season and the thin, acidic soil lying just above the permafrost limit the
kinds of plants that can grow there. Only mosses, lichen, algae, and dwarf shrubs
are able to thrive in the tundra.
Question Four
Which sea bordering Russia is actually the largest inland body of water in the
world?
A. Black Sea
B. Sea of Okhotsk
C. Kara Sea
D. Caspian Sea
D is correct. The Caspian Sea, on Russia’s southwestern border, is the largest
inland body of water in the world. Although called a sea, it is actually a saltwater
lake that occupies a deep depression.
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Chapter 15 - The Cultural Geography of Russia
ROUND ONE
Question One
Who seized control of Russia after the Russian Revolution in 1917?
A. Czar Alexander II
B. the Bolsheviks
C. Czar Nicholas II
D. the White Army
If you answered B, you’re correct. In November 1917, the Bolsheviks, a
revolutionary group led by Vladimir Ilyich Lenin, seized control of Russia. The
Bolsheviks believed in communism and promised the people of Russia, “Peace,
Land, and Bread!”
Question Two
Which of the following is NOT a struggle faced by Russian schools since the
collapse of the Soviet Union?
A. overcrowding
B. low budgets
C. illiteracy
D. disrepair
C is right. Russia’s literacy rate is nearly 100% today due to the Soviet emphasis
on free but mandatory education. Unfortunately, Russia’s unstable economy has
severely limited budgets for schools. Many schools are overcrowded and in
disrepair.
Question Three
What kind of artistic expression was allowed during the Soviet era?
A. socialist realism
B. religious inspiration
C. western European
D. none
The correct answer is A. After 1917 the Soviet government severely limited
individual artistic expression. It believed that all artists had the duty to glorify the
achievements of Soviet communism in their works. This approach to art was
called socialist realism.
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Question Four
About what percentage of Russians live between the Belarus and Ukraine
borders and the Ural Mountains?
A. 90 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
D is the right answer. About 75 percent of all Russians live in the area between
the Belarus and Ukraine borders and the Ural Mountains, making the population
density of European Russia about 120 people per square mile. Meanwhile,
Russia’s largest eastern republic, Sakha, averages less than one person per
square mile.
ROUND TWO
Question One
More than 80 percent of Russia’s population belongs to which ethnic group?
A. Turkic
B. Russian
C. Caucasian
D. Finnic
B is the correct answer. Despite Russia’s ethnic diversity, more than 80 percent
of the population are ethnic Russians, people who follow Russian customs and
speak Russian as their first language. The percentage of the population that is
not ethnic Russian usually became part of Russia’s population as a result of
conquest.
Question Two
Who settled among the Slavs, adopted their language and customs, and
organized their communities into Kievan Rus?
A. czars
B. Mongols
C. serfs
D. Varangians
The right answer is D. During the 800s Scandinavian warriors called the
Varangians settled among the Slavs living near the Dnieper and Volga Rivers.
The Varangians adopted the Slav language and many Slav customs. They
organized the Slav communities into a loose union of city-states known as
Kievan Rus.
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Question Three
In the mid- to late 1980s, Mikhail Gorbachev began a policy of greater political
openness called ________.
A. glasnost
B. perestroika
C. Russification
D. pogrom
A is correct. Gorbachev was a dedicated communist who started a policy of
greater political openness called glasnost and a policy of economic restructuring
called perestroika. His reforms, however, failed to save the Soviet Union.
Question Four
Government officials, prominent educators, writers, and artists made up the
Soviet ________.
A. intelligentsia
B. patriarchs
C. czars
D. Bolsheviks
The correct answer is A. During the Soviet era, the education system favored
military, science, and engineering studies. This educational focus produced
generations of technology-focused government officials. They, along with
prominent educators, writers, and artists, made up the Soviet intelligentsia, or
intellectual elite.
ROUND THREE
Question One
All but which of the following changes took place in Russia under Czar Peter I?
A. Trade was developed with Europe.
B. A strong military was built.
C. Russia’s territory was expanded.
D. The Bolsheviks seized power.
D is right. Under Czar Peter I Russia enlarged its territory, built a strong military,
and developed trade with Europe. Peter gained land along the Baltic Sea from
Sweden to acquire seaports. He also strengthened Russia’s control of Serbia.
Question Two
What religion did the Soviet government actively promote?
A. Eastern Orthodox Christianity
B. Judaism
C. Roman Catholicism
D. none
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D is the right answer. The Soviet government actively promoted no religion.
Instead, the government promoted atheism, a belief that there is no God or other
supreme being. After the Soviet breakup, many Russians returned to religious
practices.
Question Three
Why is Russia experiencing a population crisis?
A. Families are choosing to have fewer children.
B. Health care has declined in quality and availability.
C. Many ethnic regions formed new countries.
D. Many Russians are migrating to other countries.
If you answered B, you’re correct. Russia is currently experiencing a population
crisis because of a rise in illnesses as the quality and availability of health care
has declined.
Question Four
After World War II, most eastern European countries became Soviet ________.
A. republics
B. states
C. nations
D. satellites
The correct answer is D. At the end of World War II in 1945, the Soviet Union
controlled much of eastern Europe. By 1949 most of the countries in the region
had become Soviet satellites, countries controlled by the Soviet Union. These
satellites strengthened the Soviet military and supplied raw materials.
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Chapter 16 - Russia Today
ROUND ONE
Question One
Which of the following byproducts of industrialization has polluted most of
Russia’s lakes and rivers?
A. fertilizer runoff
B. sewage
C. radioactive material
D. all of the above
D is the correct answer. Russia has one of the world’s largest supplies of
freshwater. However, industrialization has polluted most of its lakes and rivers.
Fertilizer runoff, sewage, metals and radioactive material all contribute to poor
water quality.
Question Two
Why did Gorbachev move away from a command economy and toward a market
economy?
A. The government could make more money.
B. There were too many consumer goods being produced.
C. The black market was taking over.
D. The economy was in serious trouble.
D is correct. When Mikhail Gorbachev came to power in 1985, the Soviet Union’s
economy was in serious trouble. To remedy the crisis, Gorbachev began to move
toward a market economy in which businesses are privately owned. Production
and prices in a market economy depend on supply and demand.
Question Three
Even as Russia involves itself in world affairs, economic problems have drained
money from its ________.
A. military
B. industry
C. agriculture
D. high-tech communications
The correct answer is A. As Russia asserts itself internationally, economic
problems have drained money from its military. As a result, military forces have
old equipment, and soldiers’ morale is low.
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Question Four
With Russia’s large size, how does the country transport energy to major cities?
A. railways
B. tractor trailers
C. pipelines
D. waterways
C is the right answer. Russia’s large size affects how it transports natural gas,
crude oil, and other petroleum products. A complex maze of pipelines crosses
Russia, providing major Russian cities and parts of western Europe with fuel.
ROUND TWO
Question One
Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of the Soviet command
economy?
A. privately owned businesses
B. heavy industry
C. low unemployment
D. low wages
If you answered A, you’re correct. Under Communist leaders, the Soviet Union
operated as a command economy. Under this system, the government owned
banks, factories, farms, mines, and transportation systems.
Question Two
A small farm in the Soviet Union worked by farmers who shared in the farm’s
production and profits is called a ________.
A. gosplan
B. sovkhoz
C. ruble
D. kolkhoz
D is right. Under the Soviet system, farms were organized into state-controlled
kolkhozes and sovkhozes. The kolkhozes were small farms worked by farmers
who shared, to a degree, in the farm’s production and profits. Sovkhozes were
large farms run like factories, with farm workers receiving wages.
Question Three
What industry has been targeted for improvement as Russia works to repair its
environment?
A. the agricultural industry
B. the timber industry
C. the fishing industry
D. the energy industry
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The right answer is B. Russia contains the world’s largest forest reserve. The
World Bank’s Sustainable Forestry Pilot Project is helping Russia manage its
forests more effectively. Using land more wisely, protecting forests, planting new
trees, and increasing private forestry investment all help Russia’s environment
and economy.
Question Four
Which of the following statements about Russian agriculture is NOT true?
A. State-run farms were restructured by Boris Yeltsin.
B. Most farmers bought their own plots of land under Yeltsin’s new system.
C. Progress toward a market economy for agriculture has been slow.
D. Gains in productivity have reduced the need for agricultural imports.
If you answered B, you’re right. Most farmers could not afford to buy land. In
addition, Russian farmers were accustomed to the stability of Soviet controls.
So, as a result of both of these factors, farmers continued to operate many of
Russia’s farms as kolkhozes and sovkhozes.
ROUND THREE
Question One
What is Russia’s most important industry?
A. steel milling
B. aircraft construction
C. petroleum extraction and processing
D. services
C is correct. Russia’s most important industry is petroleum extraction and
processing. The country is one of the world’s largest producers of crude oil.
Other major manufacturing industries include steel milling; auto and truck
production; aircraft construction; and the manufacturing of chemicals, heavy
machinery, and agricultural equipment.
Question Two
What natural wonder do Russians call “the Pearl of Siberia”?
A. Lake Baikal
B. Volga River
C. Caspian Sea
D. Moskva River
The correct answer is A. Lake Baikal is the world’s oldest and deepest lake. It
contains one-fifth of the world’s freshwater, and 1,500 native species of aquatic
plants and animals make their home there. Calling it “the Pearl of Siberia,”
Russians consider the lake a natural wonder.
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Question Three
Which group of people did NOT benefit from the process of privatization?
A. business owners
B. political insiders
C. foreign investors
D. average Russian workers
D is the right answer. Russian President Boris Yeltsin removed 90 percent of the
price controls and encouraged the mass privatization of state-owned companies
and industries. This process of privatization, however, did not benefit average
Russian workers. They neither earned nor were spending the new wealth.
Question Four
What has reduced Russian forests by about 1.5 millon acres since the early
1970s?
A. commercial logging
B. acid rain and chemical pollution
C. forest fires
D. flooding
If you answered B, you’re correct. Acid rain and chemical pollution has reduced
Russian forests by about 1.5 million acres since the early 1970s. Soot, sulfur,
and carbon dioxide have been released into the air along with burning coal
causing acid rain.
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Glencoe MindJogger Videoquiz
Scoring Sheet
Chapter #: _______ Student Names : ___________________________
Date : ______________________
Round 1
Question 1:
Question 2:
Question 3:
Question 4:
Period : _______________________
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Total Points: ____
Round 2
Question 1:
Question 2:
Question 3:
Question 4:
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Total Points: ____
Round 3
Question 1:
Question 2:
Question 3:
Question 4:
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Total Points: ____
Total points from all three rounds: ____
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