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SAMPLE EMT-B TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 INTRODUCTION EXAM QUESTIONS 1. During the 1960s which federal agency was charged with the development of a modern Emergency Medical Services system? A. The American Red Cross B. Department of Transportation (DOT) C. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) D. Federal Food And Drug Administration (FDA) 2. The chief concern of an EMT-B at all times can be described as – A. Personal Safety. B. The safety of the patient. C. Knowing how to get to the hospital. D. Writing an accurate run form. 3. There are four levels of EMT training and certification. Which level would not be considered part of the National series of levels? A. First Responder B. EMT – Intermediate C. EMT- Advanced D. EMT - Paramedic 4. Which of the following would, under normal circumstances not be considered one of the roles and responsibilities of the EMT-B? A. Patient Care. B. Patient Assessment. C. Transport of the patient. D. Making the scene safe. 5. Patient Advocacy basically means the following – A. You legally represent the patient. B. You speak for the patient when he can not do so for himself. C. Make judgment calls such as whether a patient was driving drunk or whether they were responsible for child abuse. D. Nothing to an EMT-B. It is illegal in most states. 6. Quality Improvement (QI) is A. A continuous self review, by identifying aspects of that system that need improvement. B. A way to identify problems so the same problem does not occur again. C. Often conducted by a committee who evaluates a service's run forms. D. All of the above. 7. One of the best personal traits an EMT-B can possess is – A. A neat and clean appearance. B. The ability to listen to others. C. A good sense of humor. D. A good moral character 8. To keep abreast of the latest information about emergency care, an EMT-B should A. Run on the ambulance as often as possible. B. Reread the text book regularly. C. Attend area EMS conferences and lectures. D. Watch emergency care reenactment shows on television. 9. Good personal traits are an asset to the EMT-B. These would include the following – A. Sincere, resourceful, and cooperative. B. Inventive, sly, and forceful. C. Strong willed, and condescending. D. None of the above. 10. Participation in QI (Quality Improvement) by way of continuing education and accurate documentation is the responsibility of the – A. EMT-B. B. Chief. C. QI committee D. None of the above 11. A communication system that has the capability of automatically identifying a caller's phone number and location is known as – A. 911. B. Enhanced 911. C. 911 Caller ID. D. There is no such technology to date. 12. The categories and standards set forth by NHTSA include all but whichA. Regulation and Policy B. Resource Management and Medical Direction C. Human Resources and Training D. Computerization and Finances 13. An EMT can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by – A. Appearing and acting professionally. B. Telling the patient that everything will be all right. C. Providing necessary patient care without regard to his own personal safety. D. Simply carrying the victim from the scene to a place where medical care is available. 14. The Physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical direction, or oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system is known as – A. Designated Agent B. Medical Director C. Medical Agent D. Standing Orders Physician 15. An EMT-B or higher level provider is operating as a __________ of the ____________. A. Designated Agent / Medical Director B. Medical Director / Designated Agent C. First Responder / Paramedic Unit D. None of the above. 16. _________ medical direction consists of standing orders issued by the Medical Director that allows EMT-Bs to give certain medications or perform certain procedures without speaking to the Medical Director or other physician. A. On-line B. Off-line C. Remote D. Standard 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B Musculoskeletal Section- 1 Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this fracture is called: A) closed B) open C) simple D) spinal Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful, swollen, deformed injury is to: A) cover any external injuries B) prevent it from becoming an open injury C) allow the patient to move the injured extremity without pain D) make transporting the patient easier and more comfortable Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include A) attempting to push protruding bones back into place B) splinting of all injuries individually prior to transport C) not using extra padding, as this may decrease the effectiveness of the splint D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after splinting Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will immobilize the A) injury site, only B) adjacent joints and bone ends C) entire extremity D) injury site and one joint below Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go" transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing A) the injured limb to the torso B) the injured limb to an uninjured limb C) the entire body to a spine board D) each site individually to a rigid splint Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a swollen and deformed extremity is: A) opening and maintaining the airway B) splinting the swollen, deformed extremities C) applying direct pressure to open injuries D) assessing circulation in injured extremities. Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while rock climbing. During your assessment you find a deformed right lower leg. The distal extremity is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency treatment for this injury should include A) splinting the extremity as it is B) attempting to realign the injured extremity C) applying a traction splint D) moving the patient to your ambulance before splinting Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Traction splints are specifically designed to splint injuries to the A) upper arm B) lower arm C) upper leg D) lower leg Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your patient also A) has a knee injury B) has a back injury C) has a femur fracture D) has no distal pulse in the injured extremity Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following splinting devices would NOT be appropriate for the management of a fractured tibia? A) air inflated splint B) two rigid board splints C) traction splint D) single rigid splint Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Your 64-year-old female patient has slipped on the ice and you suspect a pelvic fracture. This type of injury is very serious, because A) a pelvic injury is very painful B) internal organs, blood vessels, and nerves may be injured C) a pelvic injury is difficult to stabilize D) the patient cannot be log rolled Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) You may consider using the PASG for splinting injuries to the A) knee B) ankle C) pelvis D) all of the above Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) "Splinting someone to death" means: A) splinting too tightly, compressing blood vessels and nerves B) splinting too loosely, permitting movement and further tissue damage C) splinting without first applying traction or realignment, causing further tissue damage D) spending too much time splinting, neglecting care for lifethreatening conditions, and unnecessarily delaying transport Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone fractures to occur is called a(n): A) crush injury B) concussion C) contusion D) avulsion Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) To properly apply a pressure dressing and bandage to an open wound it is important that you: A) apply a tourniquet to control bleeding B) replace any dressings that become blood-soaked C) apply an antiseptic solution to the wound D) expose the entire wound, cutting away clothing as needed Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way to transport the amputated finger is by: A) placing the finger directly on ice B) wrapping the finger well in an occlusive dressing C) placing the finger directly in sterile saline D) d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and keeping it cool Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this fracture is called: Answer: (B) open Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful, swollen, deformed injury is to: Answer: (B) prevent it from becoming an open injury Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include Answer: (D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after splinting Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will immobilize the Answer: (B) adjacent joints and bone ends Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go" transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing Answer: (C) the entire body to a spine board Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a swollen and deformed extremity is: Answer: (A) opening and maintaining the airway Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while rock climbing. During your assessment you find a deformed right lower leg. The distal extremity is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency treatment for this injury should include Answer: (B) attempting to realign the injured extremity Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Traction splints are specifically designed to splint injuries to the Answer: (C) upper leg Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your patient also Answer: (A) has a knee injury Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following splinting devices would NOT be appropriate for the management of a fractured tibia? Answer: (C) traction splint Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Your 64-year-old female patient has slipped on the ice and you suspect a pelvic fracture. This type of injury is very serious, because Answer: (B) internal organs, blood vessels, and nerves may be injured Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) You may consider using the PASG for splinting injuries to the Answer: (C) pelvis Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) "Splinting someone to death" means: Answer: (D) spending too much time splinting, neglecting care for life-threatening conditions, and unnecessarily delaying transport Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone fractures to occur is called a(n): Answer: (A) crush injury Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) To properly apply a pressure dressing and bandage to an open wound it is important that you: Answer: (D) expose the entire wound, cutting away clothing as needed Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way to transport the amputated finger is by: Answer: (D) d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and keeping it cool Respiratory Emergencies Section Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 1. The muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is called the – A. Intercostal muscles B. Alveoli C. Bronchi D. Diaphragm 2.The passive process in which the rib muscles and the diaphragm relax causing the rib muscles to move downward and inward and the diaphragm to rise is known as A. Expiration B. Exhalation C. Inspiration D. A and B 3. The active process that uses the constriction of several muscles to increase the size of the chest cavity where the intercostal muscles contract and the diaphragm lowers is called A. Expiration B. Exhalation C. Inspiration D. A and B 4.The average breathing rate of an adult is A. 5 - 8 breaths per minute B. 12 - 20 breaths per minute C. 20 - 26 breaths per minute D. 60 - 100 breaths per minute 5. An infant will breathe approximately – A. 6 - 8 breaths per minute B. 12 -20 breaths per minute C. 15 - 30 breaths per minute D. 25 - 50 breaths per minute 6. A child will breathe approximately A. 5 - 8 breaths per minute B. 12 -20 breaths per minute C. 15 - 30 breaths per minute D. 25 - 50 breaths per minute 7. Normal breathing is determined by all of the following except – A. Rate B. Rhythm C. Sound D. Quality 8. Signs of inadequate breathing in infants and children are – A. Nasal flaring B. Seesaw breathing or grunting C. Retractions D. All of the above 9. In infants and children with respiratory difficulties an EMT-B may observe – A. A slight decrease in pulse early, but soon the pulse will rise significantly B. A slight increase in pulse early, but soon the pulse will drop significantly C. A significant increase in pulse that does not change D. An increase in pulse early, but soon the pulse returns to normal 10. For any patient, whether he be an adult, child or infant, if the chest does not rise and fall with each artificial ventilation, or the pulse does not return to normal, the EMT-B should – A. Increase the force of ventilations B. Decrease the force of ventilations C. Decrease the volume of ventilations D. Increase the volume of ventilations 11. If you observe a pulse rate below the expected rates for infants and children, the EMT-B should – A. Make sure that the airway is open B. Make sure that the chest rises and falls with each ventilation C. Check to make sure that the oxygen tank has not run out or that there is not a kink in the airline. D. All of the above 12. When ventilating an infant or a child where the chest does not rise and fall with each ventilation, do all of the following except – A. Check to make sure you have an open airway B. Insert an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway as needed C. Suction fluids and foreign matter from airway as needed D. Perform blind fingers sweeps to detect airway blockages 13. An EMT-B must not place anything in the mouth of an infant or child if she suspects a(n) _______. Doing this may set off spasms in the airway. A. B. C. D. Upper respiratory disease Lower respiratory disease Upper respiratory blockage None of the above 14. An infant or child suffering from a lower respiratory problem may exhibit all of the following signs except – A. Rapid breathing with stridor (a harsh, high-pitched sound) B. Wheezing C. Breathing effort on exhalation D. Rapid breathing without strider (a harsh, high-pitched sound) 15. The skin color of a patient who is having difficulty breathing is often – A. Bright red B. Red C. Yellow D. Blue, pale, or flushed 16. A patient who is having difficulty breathing often positions himself in what is called the "tripod position" Which of the following best describes this position? A. Sitting with feet dangling, leaning forward B. Patient lying lateral recumbent with hand supporting head C. Patient is leaning forward with his hands resting on his knees or another surface D. Patient lying supine with one knee raised 17. Which of the following is a symptom of breathing difficulties? A. Increased pulse rate B. Pale, cyanotic skin C. Restlessness or anxiety D. All of the above 18. A patient with breathing difficulties, but is breathing adequately, should receive – A. Nasal cannula at 4 - 6 liters/minute oxygen B. If the patient is breathing adequately no oxygen is needed C. Nonrebreather mask at 12 - 15 liters/minute oxygen D. Assistance in using his inhaler 19. A patient who is having difficulty breathing, but breathing adequately should be positioned in the following manner – A. Supine B. Lateral recumbent C. Prone D. Position of comfort, but preferably sitting up 20. When confronted with a patient who has hypoxic drive and who is having trouble breathing, the EMT-B should – A. Withhold oxygen from the patient B. Give oxygen sparingly C. Give the patient the oxygen he needs, but closely monitor the respirations of the patient D. Consult with the patient's physician before administering any oxygen 21. Since the chest wall is softer in infants and children, they tend to – A. Depend more heavily on their diaphragms for respirations B. Breathe through their noses more C. Must breathe in more air than adults D. None of the above 22. All of the following criteria are examples of when you can assist a patient with his prescribed inhaler except – A. Patient exhibits signs and symptoms of a respiratory emergency B. Patient has a physician prescribed hand-held inhaler C. Medical direction gives you specific authorization to use D. Patient is unconscious 23. All of the following are potential side effects of inhalers except – A. Decreased pulse rate B. Tremors C. Increased pulse rate D. Nervousness 24. Which of the following respiratory disorders will NOT produce hypoxic drive? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Asthma C. Emphysema D. All of the above 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. D D C B D 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B Heart Section Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 HEART QUESTIONS Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) You arrive at the Big Cement Block store to find a 62 year old female sitting in the laxative aisle complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 80/48, pulse 160. your initial treatment should be to A) have your partner perform a vagal maneuver B) defibrillate her at 200 joules C) replace her electrolyte loss with LR D) perform a synchronized cardioversion Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) History and exam indicates your 77 year old female patient has digitalis toxicity. Which drugs are contraindicated in this case? A) lidocaine and atropine B) adenosine and amiodarone C) magnesium sulfate and sodium bicarbonate D) bretylium and verapamil Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the initial attempt to defibrillate an 80-kg, 56 year old female in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the second defibrillation should be A) 50 joules B) 100 joules C) 200 joules D) 300 joules Question # 4 (True/False) The most important step in the treatment of acidosis during cardiac arrest should be to increase ventilation A) True B) False Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Your 62 year old female is hypotensive. Your dopamine infusion should be kept at less than 20ug/kg/min or it could result in A) increased renal arterial vasodilation B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction C) cardiac depression and increased stroke volume D) further depressing myocardial contractility Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the second attempt to defibrillate the 80-kg, 56 year old female and she remains in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the next defibrillation should be A) 100 joules B) 150 joules C) 260 joules D) 360 joules Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) A 23 year old dancer has collapsed at a club. You find her with no pulse and your monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. You should immediately of treatment would you use initially for the patient with ventricular fibrillation? A) begin CPR and intubate B) start an IV and push epinephrine C) start an IV and push atropine D) defibrillate at 200 joules Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) A 43 year old female electrician has been accidentally shocked with an AC current. The arrhythmia you would most likely see from the effects of this is A) PEA (pulseless electrical activity) B) ventricular tachycardia C) asystole D) ventricular fibrillation Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Atropine may be harmful and should not be given to patients with A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex B) sinus rhythms with frequent PJC's C) sinus tachycardia with hypertension D) asystole following ventricular fibrillation Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to A) cardiac stroke volume B) alveoli gas exchange C) peripheral vessel radius D) baroreceptors Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Heart - Answer Key Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) perform a synchronized cardioversion Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) bretylium and verapamil Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) 300 joules Question # 4 (True/False) Answer: True Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) 360 joules Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) defibrillate at 200 joules Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (D) ventricular fibrillation Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Answer: (A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to Answer: (A) cardiac stroke volume Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Spinal Section Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Spinal Testing Questions Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to injury? A) cervical and sacral B) thoracic and thoracic C) cervical and lumbar D) cervical and coccyx Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Applying an improperly sized rigid cervical collar might result in A) A too-large collar will hyperextend the neck B) A too-small collar will hyperextend the neck C) A too-small collar will hyperflex the neck D) all of the above Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) The components of the central nervous system are the A) brain and spinal cord B) arteries and veins C) muscles and tendons D) cranium and vertebrae Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) A short spine board is appropriate to use in immobilizing a patient who is A) seated in a vehicle B) lying on a soft surface C) lying on a hard surface D) standing Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) When using a short spine board to immobilize a patient, the patient's head should be secured A) last, after the body B) first, before the body C) after the patient is removed from the vehicle D) as soon as the patient is placed on a long spine board Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 52-year-old unconscious female patient who was the driver in a vehicle struck by a milk delivery truck. She has an open head wound, and bruising to the chest and abdomen. Respiration's are 28 per minute, pulse is 140 per minute. Her skin is cool and clammy. Your choice for extricating this patient is A) full immobilization with a short spine board B) full immobilization with a KED C) rapid extrication D) long board only Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) When log-rolling a patient onto a long spine board, the EMT-B in charge of the move is the person at the A) head B) chest C) feet D) pelvis Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Bone fragments, blood clots, vomit or broken teeth are all potential A) causes for shock B) contraindications for a non rebreather mask C) indications for full immobilization D) airway obstructions Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) You should open the airway of a trauma patient by using the A) jaw-thrust method B) jaw-thrust, head-tilt method C) head-tilt, chin-lift method D) head-tilt, neck-lift method Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The brain is protected by the A) mandible B) cranium C) cerebrum D) calcaneous Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 36-year-old, conscious, male patient involved in an altercation in a bar. His face was beaten with a pipe and he has an open soft tissue injury to the left side of his face. It would be save to assume from this injury that the patient also has a A) pelvic injury B) lower extremity injury C) neck injury D) lumbar injury Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Tenderness anywhere along the vertebrae may indicate a possible A) head injury B) spine injury C) abdominal injury D) kidney injury Spine - Correct Answers Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to injury? Answer: (C) cervical and lumbar Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Applying an improperly sized rigid cervical collar might result in Answer: (A) A too-large collar will hyperextend the neck Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) The components of the central nervous system are the Answer: (A) brain and spinal cord Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) A short spine board is appropriate to use in immobilizing a patient who is Answer: (A) seated in a vehicle Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) When using a short spine board to immobilize a patient, the patient's head should be secured Answer: (A) last, after the body Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 52-year-old unconscious female patient who was the driver in a vehicle struck by a milk delivery truck. She has an open head wound, and bruising to the chest and abdomen. Respiration's are 28 per minute, pulse is 140 per minute. Her skin is cool and clammy. Your choice for extricating this patient is Answer: (C) rapid extrication Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) When log-rolling a patient onto a long spine board, the EMT-B in charge of the move is the person at the Answer: (A) head Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Bone fragments, blood clots, vomit or broken teeth are all potential Answer: (D) airway obstructions Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) You should open the airway of a trauma patient by using the Answer: (A) jaw-thrust method Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The brain is protected by the Answer: (B) cranium Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 36-year-old, conscious, male patient involved in an altercation in a bar. His face was beaten with a pipe and he has an open soft tissue injury to the left side of his face. It would be save to assume from this injury that the patient also has a Answer: (C) neck injury Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Tenderness anywhere along the vertebrae may indicate a possible Answer: (B) spine injury Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Triage Section Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 TRIAGE TESTING QUESTIONS Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following would be considered a major incident? 1-Situations involving more patients than can be handled by responding units 2-Situations in which mutual aid is required from outside agencies 3-Situations involving hazardous or radioactive materials or chemicals A) 1 only B) 1, 2 only C) 1, 3 only D) 2, 3 only E) 1, 2, 3 Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Using the START method of triage, a victim with a respiratory rate of 36, no palpable radial pulse, and an altered level of consciousness is categorized as A) delayed B) less critically injured C) critical/immediate D) dead/nonsalvageable Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Evaluation of a victim of a major incident reveals a respiratory rate of 44 per minute. Using the START method of triage, your A) evaluate the patient's mental status B) evaluate the patient's capillary refill C) evaluate the patient's pulse and blood pressure D) stop further evaluation and categorize the patient as critical/immediate Question # 4 (True/False) The START method of triage is used to classify victims as immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead A) True B) False Question # 5 (True/False) As soon as possible after arrival at the scene of a major incident, a detailed patient assessment should be performed on each victim and the information relayed to Incident Command A) True B) False Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging patients. When using this system, a black tag identifies a patient who is: A) dead or unexpected survival. B) non-life or limb-threatening. C) less critically injured. D) the most critically injured. Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Responsibilities of the incident commander include: A) working with the communication center and hospitals to obtain medical facility status and treatment capabilities. B) evaluating the resources required for patient treatment and providing suitable "immediate" and "delayed" treatment areas. C) determining the resources necessary to extricate trapped patients and delivering them to the treatment sector. D) rapidly assessing the situation, requesting additional resources as necessary, and developing a plan of action for management of the incident. Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage uses a 60-second assessment that evaluates: A) pulses, motor, sensation B) airway, breathing, circulation C) ventilation, perfusion, mental status D) level of consciousness, tenderness, crepitation Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging patients. When using this system, a green tag identifies a patient who is: A) dead or unexpected survival. B) non-life or limb-threatening. C) less critically injured. D) the most critically injured. Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The sector responsible for directing emergency vehicles at the scene of a major incident is the: A) staging sector B) treatment sector C) extrication sector D) transportation sector Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006 Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage classifies victims as: A) immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead B) delayed, non-life or limb-threatening, dead C) the most critically injured, walking wounded, dead D) walking wounded, nonsalvageable, the most critically injured Triage Answers 1. E 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. a Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services Copyright 2000-2006