Download Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a h

SAMPLE EMT-B
TESTING
EXAM QUESTIONS
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
INTRODUCTION EXAM QUESTIONS
1. During the 1960s which federal agency was charged with the development of a
modern Emergency Medical Services system?
A. The American Red Cross
B. Department of Transportation (DOT)
C. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
D. Federal Food And Drug Administration (FDA)
2. The chief concern of an EMT-B at all times can be described as –
A. Personal Safety.
B. The safety of the patient.
C. Knowing how to get to the hospital.
D. Writing an accurate run form.
3. There are four levels of EMT training and certification. Which level would not be
considered part of the National series of levels?
A. First Responder
B. EMT – Intermediate
C. EMT- Advanced
D. EMT - Paramedic
4. Which of the following would, under normal circumstances not be considered one of
the roles and responsibilities of the EMT-B?
A. Patient Care.
B. Patient Assessment.
C. Transport of the patient.
D. Making the scene safe.
5. Patient Advocacy basically means the following –
A. You legally represent the patient.
B. You speak for the patient when he can not do so for himself.
C. Make judgment calls such as whether a patient was driving drunk or whether
they were responsible for child abuse.
D. Nothing to an EMT-B. It is illegal in most states.
6. Quality Improvement (QI) is
A. A continuous self review, by identifying aspects of that system that need improvement.
B. A way to identify problems so the same problem does not occur again.
C. Often conducted by a committee who evaluates a service's run forms.
D. All of the above.
7. One of the best personal traits an EMT-B can possess is –
A. A neat and clean appearance.
B. The ability to listen to others.
C. A good sense of humor.
D. A good moral character
8. To keep abreast of the latest information about emergency care, an EMT-B should A. Run on the ambulance as often as possible.
B. Reread the text book regularly.
C. Attend area EMS conferences and lectures.
D. Watch emergency care reenactment shows on television.
9. Good personal traits are an asset to the EMT-B. These would include the following –
A. Sincere, resourceful, and cooperative.
B. Inventive, sly, and forceful.
C. Strong willed, and condescending.
D. None of the above.
10. Participation in QI (Quality Improvement) by way of continuing education and
accurate documentation is the responsibility of the –
A. EMT-B.
B. Chief.
C. QI committee
D. None of the above
11. A communication system that has the capability of automatically identifying a
caller's phone number and location is known as –
A. 911.
B. Enhanced 911.
C. 911 Caller ID.
D. There is no such technology to date.
12. The categories and standards set forth by NHTSA include all but whichA. Regulation and Policy
B. Resource Management and Medical Direction
C. Human Resources and Training
D. Computerization and Finances
13. An EMT can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by –
A. Appearing and acting professionally.
B. Telling the patient that everything will be all right.
C. Providing necessary patient care without regard to his own personal safety.
D. Simply carrying the victim from the scene to a place where medical care is available.
14. The Physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical direction, or
oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system is known as –
A. Designated Agent
B. Medical Director
C. Medical Agent
D. Standing Orders Physician
15. An EMT-B or higher level provider is operating as a __________ of the
____________.
A. Designated Agent / Medical Director
B. Medical Director / Designated Agent
C. First Responder / Paramedic Unit
D. None of the above.
16. _________ medical direction consists of standing orders issued by the Medical
Director that allows EMT-Bs to give certain medications or perform certain procedures
without speaking to the Medical Director or other physician.
A. On-line
B. Off-line
C. Remote
D. Standard
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
Musculoskeletal
Section- 1
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a
fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this
fracture is called:
A) closed
B) open
C) simple
D) spinal
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful,
swollen, deformed injury is to:
A) cover any external injuries
B) prevent it from becoming an open injury
C) allow the patient to move the injured extremity without pain
D) make transporting the patient easier and more comfortable
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include
A) attempting to push protruding bones back into place
B) splinting of all injuries individually prior to transport
C) not using extra padding, as this may decrease the effectiveness of
the splint
D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after
splinting
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will
immobilize the
A) injury site, only
B) adjacent joints and bone ends
C) entire extremity
D) injury site and one joint below
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go"
transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing
A) the injured limb to the torso
B) the injured limb to an uninjured limb
C) the entire body to a spine board
D) each site individually to a rigid splint
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a
swollen and deformed extremity is:
A) opening and maintaining the airway
B) splinting the swollen, deformed extremities
C) applying direct pressure to open injuries
D) assessing circulation in injured extremities.
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while
rock climbing. During your assessment you find a deformed right lower leg. The
distal extremity is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency
treatment for this injury should include
A) splinting the extremity as it is
B) attempting to realign the injured extremity
C) applying a traction splint
D) moving the patient to your ambulance before splinting
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Traction splints are specifically designed to splint
injuries to the
A) upper arm
B) lower arm
C) upper leg
D) lower leg
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your
patient also
A) has a knee injury
B) has a back injury
C) has a femur fracture
D) has no distal pulse in the injured extremity
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following splinting devices would
NOT be appropriate for the management of a fractured tibia?
A) air inflated splint
B) two rigid board splints
C) traction splint
D) single rigid splint
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Your 64-year-old female patient has slipped on
the ice and you suspect a pelvic fracture. This type of injury is very serious,
because
A) a pelvic injury is very painful
B) internal organs, blood vessels, and nerves may be injured
C) a pelvic injury is difficult to stabilize
D) the patient cannot be log rolled
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) You may consider using the PASG for splinting
injuries to the
A) knee
B) ankle
C) pelvis
D) all of the above
Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) "Splinting someone to death" means:
A) splinting too tightly, compressing blood vessels and nerves
B) splinting too loosely, permitting movement and further tissue
damage
C) splinting without first applying traction or realignment, causing
further tissue damage
D) spending too much time splinting, neglecting care for lifethreatening conditions, and unnecessarily delaying transport
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal
structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone
fractures to occur is called a(n):
A) crush injury
B) concussion
C) contusion
D) avulsion
Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) To properly apply a pressure dressing and
bandage to an open wound it is important that you:
A) apply a tourniquet to control bleeding
B) replace any dressings that become blood-soaked
C) apply an antiseptic solution to the wound
D) expose the entire wound, cutting away clothing as needed
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her
index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way
to transport the amputated finger is by:
A) placing the finger directly on ice
B) wrapping the finger well in an occlusive dressing
C) placing the finger directly in sterile saline
D) d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and
keeping it cool
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a
fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this
fracture is called:
Answer: (B) open
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful,
swollen, deformed injury is to:
Answer: (B) prevent it from becoming an open
injury
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include
Answer: (D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after
splinting
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will
immobilize the
Answer: (B) adjacent joints and bone ends
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go"
transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing
Answer: (C) the entire body to a spine board
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a
swollen and deformed extremity is:
Answer: (A) opening and maintaining the airway
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while
rock climbing. During your assessment you find a deformed right lower leg. The
distal extremity is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency
treatment for this injury should include
Answer: (B) attempting to realign the injured extremity
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Traction splints are specifically designed to splint
injuries to the
Answer: (C) upper leg
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your
patient also
Answer: (A) has a knee injury
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following splinting devices would
NOT be appropriate for the management of a fractured tibia?
Answer: (C) traction splint
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Your 64-year-old female patient has slipped on
the ice and you suspect a pelvic fracture. This type of injury is very serious,
because
Answer: (B) internal organs, blood vessels, and nerves may be injured
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) You may consider using the PASG for splinting
injuries to the
Answer: (C) pelvis
Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) "Splinting someone to death" means:
Answer: (D) spending too much time splinting, neglecting care for life-threatening
conditions, and unnecessarily delaying transport
Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal
structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone
fractures to occur is called a(n):
Answer: (A) crush injury
Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) To properly apply a pressure dressing and
bandage to an open wound it is important that you:
Answer: (D) expose the entire wound, cutting away clothing as needed
Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her
index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way
to transport the amputated finger is by:
Answer: (D) d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and
keeping it cool
Respiratory
Emergencies
Section
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
1. The muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is
called the –
A. Intercostal muscles
B. Alveoli
C. Bronchi
D. Diaphragm
2.The passive process in which the rib muscles and the diaphragm relax causing the rib
muscles to move downward and inward and the diaphragm to rise is known as
A. Expiration
B. Exhalation
C. Inspiration
D. A and B
3. The active process that uses the constriction of several muscles to increase the size of
the chest cavity where the intercostal muscles contract and the diaphragm lowers is called
A. Expiration
B. Exhalation
C. Inspiration
D. A and B
4.The average breathing rate of an adult is A. 5 - 8 breaths per minute
B. 12 - 20 breaths per minute
C. 20 - 26 breaths per minute
D. 60 - 100 breaths per minute
5. An infant will breathe approximately –
A. 6 - 8 breaths per minute
B. 12 -20 breaths per minute
C. 15 - 30 breaths per minute
D. 25 - 50 breaths per minute
6. A child will breathe approximately
A. 5 - 8 breaths per minute
B. 12 -20 breaths per minute
C. 15 - 30 breaths per minute
D. 25 - 50 breaths per minute
7. Normal breathing is determined by all of the following except –
A. Rate
B. Rhythm
C. Sound
D. Quality
8. Signs of inadequate breathing in infants and children are –
A. Nasal flaring
B. Seesaw breathing or grunting
C. Retractions
D. All of the above
9. In infants and children with respiratory difficulties an EMT-B may observe –
A. A slight decrease in pulse early, but soon the pulse will rise significantly
B. A slight increase in pulse early, but soon the pulse will drop significantly
C. A significant increase in pulse that does not change
D. An increase in pulse early, but soon the pulse returns to normal
10. For any patient, whether he be an adult, child or infant, if the chest does not rise and
fall with each artificial ventilation, or the pulse does not return to normal, the EMT-B
should –
A. Increase the force of ventilations
B. Decrease the force of ventilations
C. Decrease the volume of ventilations
D. Increase the volume of ventilations
11. If you observe a pulse rate below the expected rates for infants and children, the
EMT-B should –
A. Make sure that the airway is open
B. Make sure that the chest rises and falls with each ventilation
C. Check to make sure that the oxygen tank has not run out or that there is not a kink
in the airline.
D. All of the above
12. When ventilating an infant or a child where the chest does not rise and fall with each
ventilation, do all of the following except –
A. Check to make sure you have an open airway
B. Insert an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway as needed
C. Suction fluids and foreign matter from airway as needed
D. Perform blind fingers sweeps to detect airway blockages
13. An EMT-B must not place anything in the mouth of an infant or child if she suspects
a(n) _______. Doing this may set off spasms in the airway.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Upper respiratory disease
Lower respiratory disease
Upper respiratory blockage
None of the above
14. An infant or child suffering from a lower respiratory problem may exhibit all of the
following signs except –
A. Rapid breathing with stridor (a harsh, high-pitched sound)
B. Wheezing
C. Breathing effort on exhalation
D. Rapid breathing without strider (a harsh, high-pitched sound)
15. The skin color of a patient who is having difficulty breathing is often –
A. Bright red
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Blue, pale, or flushed
16. A patient who is having difficulty breathing often positions himself in what is called
the "tripod position" Which of the following best describes this position?
A. Sitting with feet dangling, leaning forward
B. Patient lying lateral recumbent with hand supporting head
C. Patient is leaning forward with his hands resting on his knees or another surface
D. Patient lying supine with one knee raised
17. Which of the following is a symptom of breathing difficulties?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Pale, cyanotic skin
C. Restlessness or anxiety
D. All of the above
18. A patient with breathing difficulties, but is breathing adequately, should receive –
A. Nasal cannula at 4 - 6 liters/minute oxygen
B. If the patient is breathing adequately no oxygen is needed
C. Nonrebreather mask at 12 - 15 liters/minute oxygen
D. Assistance in using his inhaler
19. A patient who is having difficulty breathing, but breathing adequately should be
positioned in the following manner –
A. Supine
B. Lateral recumbent
C. Prone
D. Position of comfort, but preferably sitting up
20. When confronted with a patient who has hypoxic drive and who is having trouble
breathing, the EMT-B should –
A. Withhold oxygen from the patient
B. Give oxygen sparingly
C. Give the patient the oxygen he needs, but closely monitor the respirations of the
patient
D. Consult with the patient's physician before administering any oxygen
21. Since the chest wall is softer in infants and children, they tend to –
A. Depend more heavily on their diaphragms for respirations
B. Breathe through their noses more
C. Must breathe in more air than adults
D. None of the above
22. All of the following criteria are examples of when you can assist a patient with his
prescribed inhaler except –
A. Patient exhibits signs and symptoms of a respiratory emergency
B. Patient has a physician prescribed hand-held inhaler
C. Medical direction gives you specific authorization to use
D. Patient is unconscious
23. All of the following are potential side effects of inhalers except –
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Tremors
C. Increased pulse rate
D. Nervousness
24. Which of the following respiratory disorders will NOT produce hypoxic drive?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Asthma
C. Emphysema
D. All of the above
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
D
D
C
B
D
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
Heart Section
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
HEART QUESTIONS
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) You arrive at the Big Cement Block store to find a 62 year old
female sitting in the laxative aisle complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her blood
pressure is 80/48, pulse 160. your initial treatment should be to
A) have your partner perform a vagal maneuver
B) defibrillate her at 200 joules
C) replace her electrolyte loss with LR
D) perform a synchronized cardioversion
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) History and exam indicates your 77 year old female patient has
digitalis toxicity. Which drugs are contraindicated in this case?
A) lidocaine and atropine
B) adenosine and amiodarone
C) magnesium sulfate and sodium bicarbonate
D) bretylium and verapamil
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the initial attempt to defibrillate
an 80-kg, 56 year old female in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the
second defibrillation should be
A) 50 joules
B) 100 joules
C) 200 joules
D) 300 joules
Question # 4 (True/False) The most important step in the treatment of acidosis during cardiac
arrest should be to increase ventilation
A) True
B) False
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Your 62 year old female is hypotensive. Your dopamine infusion
should be kept at less than 20ug/kg/min or it could result in
A) increased renal arterial vasodilation
B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction
C) cardiac depression and increased stroke volume
D) further depressing myocardial contractility
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the second attempt to defibrillate
the 80-kg, 56 year old female and she remains in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate
energy level for the next defibrillation should be
A) 100 joules
B) 150 joules
C) 260 joules
D) 360 joules
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) A 23 year old dancer has collapsed at a club. You find her with no
pulse and your monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. You should immediately of treatment would
you use initially for the patient with ventricular fibrillation?
A) begin CPR and intubate
B) start an IV and push epinephrine
C) start an IV and push atropine
D) defibrillate at 200 joules
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) A 43 year old female electrician has been accidentally shocked
with an AC current. The arrhythmia you would most likely see from the effects of this is
A) PEA (pulseless electrical activity)
B) ventricular tachycardia
C) asystole
D) ventricular fibrillation
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Atropine may be harmful and should not be given to patients with
A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex
B) sinus rhythms with frequent PJC's
C) sinus tachycardia with hypertension
D) asystole following ventricular fibrillation
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to
A) cardiac stroke volume
B) alveoli gas exchange
C) peripheral vessel radius
D) baroreceptors
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Heart - Answer Key
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) perform a synchronized cardioversion
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) bretylium and verapamil
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) 300 joules
Question # 4 (True/False)
Answer: True
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) 360 joules
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) defibrillate at 200 joules
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (D) ventricular fibrillation
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice)
Answer: (A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to
Answer: (A) cardiac stroke volume
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Spinal Section
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Spinal Testing Questions
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to
injury?
A) cervical and sacral
B) thoracic and thoracic
C) cervical and lumbar
D) cervical and coccyx
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Applying an improperly sized rigid cervical collar
might result in
A) A too-large collar will hyperextend the neck
B) A too-small collar will hyperextend the neck
C) A too-small collar will hyperflex the neck
D) all of the above
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) The components of the central nervous system
are the
A) brain and spinal cord
B) arteries and veins
C) muscles and tendons
D) cranium and vertebrae
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) A short spine board is appropriate to use in
immobilizing a patient who is
A) seated in a vehicle
B) lying on a soft surface
C) lying on a hard surface
D) standing
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) When using a short spine board to immobilize a
patient, the patient's head should be secured
A) last, after the body
B) first, before the body
C) after the patient is removed from the vehicle
D) as soon as the patient is placed on a long spine board
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 52-year-old unconscious female
patient who was the driver in a vehicle struck by a milk delivery truck. She has
an open head wound, and bruising to the chest and abdomen. Respiration's are
28 per minute, pulse is 140 per minute. Her skin is cool and clammy. Your
choice for extricating this patient is
A) full immobilization with a short spine board
B) full immobilization with a KED
C) rapid extrication
D) long board only
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) When log-rolling a patient onto a long spine
board, the EMT-B in charge of the move is the person at the
A) head
B) chest
C) feet
D) pelvis
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Bone fragments, blood clots, vomit or broken
teeth are all potential
A) causes for shock
B) contraindications for a non rebreather mask
C) indications for full immobilization
D) airway obstructions
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) You should open the airway of a trauma patient
by using the
A) jaw-thrust method
B) jaw-thrust, head-tilt method
C) head-tilt, chin-lift method
D) head-tilt, neck-lift method
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The brain is protected by the
A) mandible
B) cranium
C) cerebrum
D) calcaneous
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 36-year-old, conscious,
male patient involved in an altercation in a bar. His face was beaten with a
pipe and he has an open soft tissue injury to the left side of his face. It would
be save to assume from this injury that the patient also has a
A) pelvic injury
B) lower extremity injury
C) neck injury
D) lumbar injury
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Tenderness anywhere along the vertebrae may
indicate a possible
A) head injury
B) spine injury
C) abdominal injury
D) kidney injury
Spine - Correct Answers
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to
injury?
Answer: (C) cervical and lumbar
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Applying an improperly sized rigid cervical collar
might result in
Answer: (A) A too-large collar will hyperextend the neck
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) The components of the central nervous system
are the
Answer: (A) brain and spinal cord
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) A short spine board is appropriate to use in
immobilizing a patient
who is
Answer: (A) seated in a vehicle
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) When using a short spine board to immobilize a
patient, the patient's head should be secured
Answer: (A) last, after the body
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 52-year-old unconscious female
patient who was the driver in a vehicle struck by a milk delivery truck. She has
an open head wound, and bruising to the chest and abdomen. Respiration's are
28 per minute, pulse is 140 per minute. Her skin is cool and clammy. Your
choice for extricating this patient is
Answer: (C) rapid extrication
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) When log-rolling a patient onto a long spine
board, the EMT-B in charge of the move is the person at the
Answer: (A) head
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Bone fragments, blood clots, vomit or broken
teeth are all potential
Answer: (D) airway obstructions
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) You should open the airway of a trauma patient
by using the
Answer: (A) jaw-thrust method
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The brain is protected by the
Answer: (B) cranium
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 36-year-old, conscious,
male patient involved in an altercation in a bar. His face was beaten with a
pipe and he has an open soft tissue injury to the left side of his face. It would
be save to assume from this injury that the patient also has a
Answer: (C) neck injury
Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Tenderness anywhere along the vertebrae may
indicate a possible
Answer: (B) spine injury
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Triage Section
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
TRIAGE TESTING QUESTIONS
Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following would be considered a
major incident?
1-Situations involving more patients than can be handled by responding units
2-Situations in which mutual aid is required from outside agencies
3-Situations involving hazardous or radioactive materials or chemicals
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2 only
C) 1, 3 only
D) 2, 3 only
E) 1, 2, 3
Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Using the START method of triage, a victim with
a respiratory rate of 36, no palpable radial pulse, and an altered level of
consciousness is categorized as
A) delayed
B) less critically injured
C) critical/immediate
D) dead/nonsalvageable
Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Evaluation of a victim of a major incident
reveals a respiratory rate of 44 per minute. Using the START method of triage,
your
A) evaluate the patient's mental status
B) evaluate the patient's capillary refill
C) evaluate the patient's pulse and blood pressure
D) stop further evaluation and categorize the patient as critical/immediate
Question # 4 (True/False) The START method of triage is used to classify
victims as immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead
A) True
B) False
Question # 5 (True/False) As soon as possible after arrival at the scene of a
major incident, a detailed patient assessment should be performed on each
victim and the information relayed to Incident Command
A) True
B) False
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging
patients. When using this system, a black tag identifies a patient who is:
A) dead or unexpected survival.
B) non-life or limb-threatening.
C) less critically injured.
D) the most critically injured.
Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Responsibilities of the incident commander
include:
A) working with the communication center and hospitals to obtain medical
facility status and treatment capabilities.
B) evaluating the resources required for patient treatment and providing
suitable "immediate" and "delayed" treatment areas.
C) determining the resources necessary to extricate trapped patients and
delivering them to the treatment sector.
D) rapidly assessing the situation, requesting additional resources as necessary,
and developing a plan of action for management of the incident.
Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage uses a 60-second
assessment that evaluates:
A) pulses, motor, sensation
B) airway, breathing, circulation
C) ventilation, perfusion, mental status
D) level of consciousness, tenderness, crepitation
Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging
patients. When using this system, a green tag identifies a patient who is:
A) dead or unexpected survival.
B) non-life or limb-threatening.
C) less critically injured.
D) the most critically injured.
Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) The sector responsible for directing emergency
vehicles at the scene of a major incident is the:
A) staging sector
B) treatment sector
C) extrication sector
D) transportation sector
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006
Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage classifies victims
as:
A) immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead
B) delayed, non-life or limb-threatening, dead
C) the most critically injured, walking wounded, dead
D) walking wounded, nonsalvageable, the most critically injured
Triage Answers
1. E
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. b
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. a
Part of compilation training cd by Strictly Business Services
Copyright 2000-2006