Download Summer School Biology Final Exam

Summer School Biology Final Exam
Multiple Choice Each questions is worth 2points each for a total of 200 total points.
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Please email all answers to me by 9am
7/26
____
1. Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a. a species plan.
c. genes.
b. organ codes.
d. natural selections.
____
2. Homeostasis means
a. a change over long periods of time.
b. keeping things the same.
c. rapid change.
d. the same thing as evolution.
____
3. Ecology
a. refers to change in species over time.
b. refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.
c. is inconsistent with evolution.
d. is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.
____
4. The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a. molecules.
c. organelles.
b. cells.
d. species.
____
5. All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of
a. growth.
c. homeostasis.
b. development.
d. evolution.
____
6. A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a. hypothesis.
c. observation.
b. theory.
d. control.
____
7. Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a. observation—a number of people in a certain place dying of a disease outbreak
b. measurement—a record of the number of people with symptoms of a disease and the
number of people who had died from the disease
c. analysis of data—comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing
blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey
cells
d. inference making—identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of a disease by taking
electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
____
8. The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr.
Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was
a
a. prediction.
c. theory.
b. hypothesis.
d. scientific ―truth.‖
____
9. A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a. hypothesis.
c. prediction.
b. theory.
d. controlled experiment.
____ 10. Scientists usually design experiments
a. with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b. based on wild guesses.
c. in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d. All of the above
____ 11. The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a. a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b. a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c. an absolute scientific certainty.
d. None of the above
____ 12. observation : hypothesis ::
a. theory : observation
b. guess : hypothesis
c. hypothesis : experiment
d. theory : control
____ 13. Atoms are composed of
a. protons with a positive charge.
b. neutrons with no charge.
c. electrons with a negative charge.
d. All of the above
____ 14. The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a. a carbon molecule.
b. a carbon macromolecule.
c. a carbon atom.
d. the nucleus of a carbon atom.
____ 15. Atoms that have gained energy
a. have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b. lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c. have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d. absorb electrons into the nucleus.
____ 16. Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a. it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b. these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c. it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d. it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
____ 17. Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a. results in the formation of an ion.
b. results in the formation of a compound.
c. results in the formation of noble gases.
d. results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
____ 18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a
covalent bond?
a. Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held
together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b. Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together
atoms of the same type.
c. Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are
shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d. Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form
between uncharged atoms.
____ 19. Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a. is an energy-storing reaction.
b. requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c. may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d. All of the above
____ 20. Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a. Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than
reaction 3.
b. The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in
the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c. Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after
the reaction.
d. All of the above
____ 21. A single organism may contain
a. thousands of different enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
b. one enzyme that plays a role in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c. approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
d. one enzyme that is specific to photosynthesis and one enzyme that is specific to cellular
respiration.
____ 22. The concentration of a solution is
a. the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b. the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c. the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d. the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
____ 23. A neutral solution has an equal number of
a. hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b. hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c. hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d. oxygen and hydrogen ions.
____ 24. The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a. contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b. contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c. contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d. contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
____ 25. A solution with a pH of 11 is
a. acidic.
b. alkaline.
c. neutral.
d. a buffer.
____ 26. A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a. both lose electrons.
b. become ions.
c. both gain electrons.
d. do not share the electrons equally.
____ 27. Polar molecules such as water have
a. no negative or positive poles.
b. both negative and positive poles.
c. only a negative pole.
d. only a positive pole.
____ 28. Water is a polar molecule because
a. it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b. it has a charge.
c. different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d. it does not have a charge.
____ 29. Water molecules break up other polar substances
a. such as salts.
b. because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c. thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d. All of the above
____ 30. Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a. adhesive strength
b. capillarity
c. cohesive strength
d. All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.
____ 31. All organic compounds contain the element
a. C.
b. N.
c. Ca.
d. Na.
____ 32. Carbon is different from many other elements in that
a. it has four electrons in its outermost energy level.
b. it readily bonds with other carbon atoms.
c. it can form single, double, or triple bonds with other atoms.
d. All of the above
____ 33. Which of the following is not true of alcohols?
a. They contain a hydroxyl group (–OH).
b. They are polar molecules.
c. They can affect processes in living things, either positively or negatively.
d. They are the only kind of functional group in organic molecules that contains oxygen.
____ 34. Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a. DNA
b. insulin
c. wax
d. sucrose
____ 35. Which organic molecule below is classified as a carbohydrate?
a. amino acid
c. nucleotide
b. CH2 chain
d. sugar
____ 36. Animals store glucose in the form of
a. cellulose.
b. glycogen.
c. wax.
d. lipids.
____ 37. Polysaccharides are
a. carbohydrates.
b. lipids.
c. proteins.
d. unsaturated fats.
____ 38. All of the following are examples of carbohydrates except
a. sugar.
c. steroids.
b. cellulose.
d. glycogen.
____ 39. Amino acids are monomers of
a. disaccharides.
b. proteins.
c. nucleotides.
d. steroids.
____ 40. Which organic molecule below is most closely related to nucleic acids?
a. amino acids
c. nucleotides
b. CH2 chains
d. sugars
____ 41. All of the following are functional groups except
a. a hydroxyl group.
c. a carboxyl group.
b. an amino group.
d. a carbonate group.
____ 42. Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in the body would
a. happen too fast.
b. occur at much the same rate as they do with enzymes.
c. require a different pH.
d. occur too slowly to support life processes.
____ 43. Carbon atoms can bond together to form all of the following except
a. ring structures.
c. straight chain structures.
b. inorganic structures.
d. branched structures.
____ 44. When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a. increases at the same rate.
b. remains the same.
c. increases at a faster rate.
d. increases at a slower rate.
____ 45. Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a. the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b. materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large.
c. the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d. waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small.
____ 46. The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a. location.
c. function.
b. structure.
d. surface area.
____ 47. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a. nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b. mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c. the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d. prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
____ 48. Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a. an amoeba
c. a bacterium
b. a virus
d. a liver cell
____ 49. Only eukaryotic cells have
a. DNA.
b. membrane-bound organelles.
c. ribosomes.
d. cytoplasm.
____ 50. Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no
mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably
from a(n)
a. animal.
c. prokaryote.
b. plant.
d. extinct organism.
____ 51. The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a. nucleus.
c. nuclear membrane.
b. cell wall.
d. plasma membrane.
____ 52. The plasma membrane
a. encloses the contents of a cell.
b. allows material to enter and leave the cell.
c. is selectively permeable.
d. All of the above
____ 53. A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a. organelle.
c. tissue.
b. organ tissue.
d. biocenter.
____ 54. A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a. chromosomes.
c. mitochondria.
b. vacuoles.
d. walls.
____ 55. The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a. receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b. labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their
destination.
c. releases molecules in vesicles.
d. All of the above
____ 56. One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the
other is the
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
c. nucleus.
b. mitochondrion.
d. cytoplasm.
____ 57. Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called
a. flagella.
c. actin filaments.
b. microtubules.
d. cilia.
____ 58. Proteins are made on the
a. mitochondria.
b. ribosomes.
c. nucleus.
d. plasma membrane.
____ 59. The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a. nucleus.
c. central vacuole.
b. Golgi apparatus.
d. nuclear envelope.
____ 60. All cells have
a. a covering called a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what
information and materials enter and leave it.
b. an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.
c. either a central zone or a nucleus that contains the cell’s genes.
d. All of the above
____ 61. Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3
a. to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b. to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c. as a receptor.
d. to transfer energy from organic molecules to ATP.
____ 62. Refer to the illustration above. This cell’s chromosomes are found in
a. structure 1.
c. structure 3.
b. structure 2.
d. structure 5.
____ 63. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a. it has mitochondria.
b. it does not have a cell wall.
c. it has a plasma membrane.
d. it does not have a nucleus.
____ 64. All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a. a cell wall.
c. mitochondria.
b. a plasma membrane.
d. the endoplasmic reticulum.
____ 65. How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
a. They can both use energy from sunlight.
b. They look alike.
c. They both contain DNA.
d. They are both found in animal cells.
____ 66. Plant cells
a. do not contain mitochondria.
b. have a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane.
c. have a large central vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.
d. have chloroplasts and a cell wall.
____ 67. Diffusion takes place
a. only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b. from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c. only in liquids.
d. from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
____ 68. Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?
a. from 1 to 2
c. from 4 to 3
b. from 2 to 4
d. from 3 to 1
____ 69. heavy rains : flooding ::
a. osmosis : plasmolysis
b. high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c. active transport : ATP
d. concentration difference : osmosis
____ 70. Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a. exocytosis.
c. osmosis.
b. facilitated diffusion.
d. ion pumps.
____ 71. Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a. It requires a carrier protein.
b. It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c. It requires no energy input.
d. It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
____ 72. Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a. The ―gates‖ for ion channels are always open.
b. Ion channels always allow any type of ion to pass through them.
c. Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d. Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires
energy input.
____ 73. Which of the following does not expend energy?
a. diffusion
c. active transport
b. endocytosis
d. a sodium-potassium pump
____ 74. Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a. glucose
c. lactose
b. water
d. potassium ion
____ 75. The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a. solubility.
c. selective transport.
b. osmosis.
d. endocytosis.
____ 76. Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a. diffusion.
c. lipid carriers.
b. exocytosis.
d. osmosis.
____ 77. endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a. phagocytosis : bacteria
b. secrete : exocytosis
c. cold : hot
d. white blood cell : bacteria
____ 78. Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a. cause turgor pressure to increase.
b. cause the plant to take in water.
c. have no effect.
d. cause turgor pressure to decrease.
____ 79. A calcium ion channel will allow
a. any kind of ion to pass through it.
b. only calcium ions to pass through it.
c. positive ions to pass through it.
d. None of the above
____ 80. The X and Y chromosomes are called the
a. extra chromosomes.
b. phenotypes.
c. sex chromosomes.
d. All of the above
____ 81. Down syndrome : nondisjunction ::
a. chromatids : centromere
b. male : XY chromosomes
c. haploid : mitosis
d. meiosis : diploid
____ 82. In a mating between two parental types, one of which is homozygous dominant for two linked traits and one
of which is homozygous recessive for the same two linked traits, evidence of crossing-over would be apparent
in which of the following generations?
a. parents
c. F2
b. F1
d. All of the above
____ 83. A mutation caused by a piece of DNA breaking away from its chromosome and becoming attached to a
nonhomologous chromosome is called
a. deletion.
c. inversion.
b. duplication.
d. translocation.
____ 84. A change in a gene due to damage or incorrect copying is called
a. evolution.
c. segregation.
b. meiosis.
d. a mutation.
____ 85. The effects of a mutation can be
a. helpful.
b. harmful.
c. neutral.
d. All of the above
____ 86. Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a. sickle cell anemia
c. hemophilia
b. blood type
d. pattern baldness
____ 87. What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the
other?
a. type A
c. type AB
b. type B
d. type O
____ 88. While studying several generations of a particular family, a geneticist observed that a certain disease was
found equally in males and females and that all children who had the disease had parents who also had the
disease. The gene coding for this disease is probably
a. sex-linked recessive.
b. sex-linked dominant.
c. autosomal recessive.
d. autosomal dominant.
____ 89. If both parents carry the recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis, the chance that their child will develop the
disease is
a. one in two.
c. two in five.
b. one in four.
d. 100%.
____ 90. If a characteristic is sex-linked, it
a. occurs most commonly in males.
b. occurs only in females.
c. can never occur in females.
d. is always fatal.
____ 91. People with Down syndrome have
a. 45 chromosomes.
b. 46 chromosomes.
c. 47 chromosomes.
d. no X chromosomes.
____ 92. Major ecosystems that occur over wide areas of land are called
a. communities.
c. biomes.
b. habitats.
d. food chains.
Biome
Average Yearly
Temperature Range
Vegetation
1
-10°C–14°C
2
0°C–25°C
3
24°C–34°C
Succulent plants, scattered grasses
4
25°C–27°C
Broad-leaved evergreen trees and shrubs
5
10°C–20°C
Giant needle-leaved evergreen trees
Needle-leaved evergreen trees
Tall grasses in moist areas, short grasses in
drier areas
____ 93. Refer to the table above. Which biome probably has the lowest average yearly precipitation?
a. Biome 2
c. Biome 4
b. Biome 3
d. Biome 5
____ 94. Refer to the table above. Biome 1 is best described as
a. temperate deciduous forest.
b. tropical rain forest.
c. taiga.
d. tundra.
____ 95. Which of the following biomes is characterized by evergreen trees that are adapted to long winters, short
summers, and nutrient-poor soil?
a. taiga
c. temperate forest
b. tropical forest
d. tundra
____ 96. Large herds of grazing animals are most likely to be found in a
a. savanna.
b. tropical rain forest.
c. temperate deciduous forest.
d. desert.
____ 97. Which of the following is not an adaptation for water conservation found in desert organisms?
a. nocturnal lifestyle
b. leaves growing on the branches of tall trees
c. waxy leaf coatings
d. burrowing in the ground
____ 98. Plankton are
a. attached to the ocean bottom.
b. found only in the deep-water zone of most lakes and oceans.
c. consumed by many aquatic animals.
d. the top predators in many ecosystems.
____ 99. Organisms with light-producing body parts would most likely be found in
a. estuaries.
b. shallow ocean waters.
c. the intertidal zone.
d. the aphotic zone.
____ 100. The greatest diversity and abundance of life in the ocean is found in
a. the neritic zone.
b. the pelagic zone.
c. the oceanic zone.
d. the intertidal zone.