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FINAL EXAM IN MEDICAL CHEMISTRY Name: NEPTUN code: Group#: Test #: Modules: Score: 1 2 3 Final Average Mark Percent % : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. THERE IS ALWAYS JUST 1 CORRECT ANSWER. USE BLUE PEN BUT NO PENCIL. USE „X” TO INDICATE THE CORRECT ANSWERS ON THIS SHEET. ONLY ANSWERS GIVEN ON THIS SHEET ARE CONSIDERED FINAL ANSWERS. NO CORRECTIONS ARE ALLOWED ON THIS SHEET. Medical chemistry-Module 1 1. Which one of the following electron configurations represents the ground state of an element in Group 4? A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 B. 1s22s22p4 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p2 E. 1s22s2 2. Which statement is WRONG? A. The atomic mass of carbon is about 12. B. The most stable ion of lithium is Li+. C. A sodium atom (Z=11) is larger than a chlorine (Z=17) atom. D. Fluorine has higher electronegativity than oxygen. E. The radius of a sodium atom is smaller than that of a sodium cation. 3. What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of carbon dioxide? A. 16 B. 8 C. 4 D. 12 E. 10 4. Which of the following molecules does NOT have a net dipole moment? A. H2O B. CF4 C. NH3 D. SO2 E. CH2Cl2 5. A sample of nitrogen occupies 5 liters under a pressure of 0.1 MPa at 25oC. At what temperature will it occupy 10 liters at the same pressure? A. 323oC B. 596oC C. 50oC D. 269oC E. 12.5oC 6. Considering the phase diagram on the right, the normal boiling point of this unknown compound is most likely: A. 78°C B. 29°C C. 90°C D. 21°C E. 50°C 7. How can one increase the yield of carbon dioxide in the following reaction? 2 CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 CO2(g) A. decreasing the concentration of CO(g) B. decreasing pressure C. increasing the volume of the container D. decreasing temperature E. application of a catalyst ΔH = -564 kJ 8. Which of the followings is TRUE about a 0.10 M solution of a weak acid, HX? A. pH = 1 B. [X-] = 0.10 M C. [HX] > [H+] D. [H+] = 0.10 M E. [X-] > [H+] 9. According to the Lewis theory, a base: A. is a proton acceptor B. is an electron pair donor C. is a proton donor D. produces OH- ions in aqueous solution E. is an electron pair acceptor 10. What ratio of [CH3COO-] / [CH3COOH] is needed to make a sodium acetate-acetic acid buffer solution of pH 5.06. For acetic acid Ka = 1.75 x 10-5. A. 2:1 B. 3:1 C. 1:2 D. 5:1 E. 5:3 11. Which statement is WRONG? A. Free enthalpy change in a spontaneous reaction is positive. B. At constant pressure, H = E + PV C. Gibbs free energy is a state function. D. For an exothermic process, H is negative. E. Work is negative if the system expands. 12. What is the rate equation for the following elementary reaction: A + B → C A. v = [A] [B] B. v = k[A] [B] / [C] C. v = [C] / [A] [B] D. v = k[A] [B] E. v = - k[C] 13. Which of the following statements is WRONG for the galvanic cell: Zn|Zn2+ || Ag+|Ag A. Oxidation occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates. B. Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the silver electrode. C. The mass of the zinc electrode will decrease as the cell operates. D. The zinc electrode is the cathode. E. The concentration of Ag+ will decrease as the cell operates. 14. Which of the following is TRUE for an operating voltaic cell? A. G > 0 ; E = 0 B. G < 0 ; E > 0 C. G < 0 ; E < 0 D. G = 0 ; E > 0 E. G = 0 ; E = 0 Medical chemistry-Module 2 15. Which of the following compounds has two chiral centers? A. B. C. D. 16. Which statement is NOT correct for the molecule on the right? A. contains sp3 hybridized carbon atoms B. both methyl groups are axial C. it has a chair conformation D. it is a trans isomer E. it is a nonpolar compound 17. Which of the followings is NOT an aromatic compound? A. piperidine B. indole C. purine D. serotonin E. thiophene 18. Which of the following compounds does NOT contain alcoholic –OH group? A. glycerol B. naphthol C. salicyl alcohol D. myoinositol E. glucose 19. Which of the following compounds can form a disulfide? A. benzenesulfonic acid B. 2-mercaptoethanol C. dimethyl sulfoxide D. dimethyl sulfide E. dimethyl sulfone 20. The picture on the right depicts: A. pyrogallol B. catechol C. picric acid D. resorcinol E. hydroxyhydroquinone 21. Hydration of aldehydes produces: A. acetals B. enols C. aldols D. alkanes E. diols E. 22. Choose the quaternary amine. A. ethanolamine B. choline C. diethylamine D. sphingosine E. aniline 23. Which statement is WRONG for amines? A. Among isomeric amines, primary amines have the highest boiling points. B. Primary amines produce nitrogen gas when reacted with nitrous acid. C. Primary aliphatic amines are stronger bases than ammonia. D. Acylation of primary amines produces Schiff’s bases. E. Amines can be prepared by the reaction of alkyl halides with ammonia. 24. The structure on the right depicts: A. tartaric acid B. maleinic acid C. malic acid D. succinic acid E. fumaric acid 25. Which statement is WRONG for oleic acid? A. unsaturated fatty acid B. contains 18 carbon atoms C. it has a cis double bond D. it has higher melting point than stearic acid E. it can form an ester with glycerol 26. Which of the following reactions proceeds through nucleophilic addition mechanism? A. dehydration of alcohols B. chlorination of benzene C. dimerization of acetaldehyde D. hydrogenation of ethene E. reaction of ethylchloride with ammonia 27. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A. n-pentane B. 1-butanol C. 1-butylamine D. diethylether E. 1-propanethiol 28. Vitamin A is a(n): A. quinone B. steroid C. heteroaromatic compound D. terpene E. alkaloid Medical chemistry-Modul 3 29. Which molecule is NOT an intermediate of the tricaboxylic acid cycle? A. B. C D. E 30. Which of the following statements is NOT true about glycolysis? A. stage two of glycolysis leads from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to pyruvate B. the second stage of glycolysis produces 4 molecules of ATP per glucose molecule C. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is an intermediate with a high energy bond D. all the sugar derivatives in glycolysis are D-isomers E. coenzymes FMN, coenzyme A and pyrydoxal are reduced in the course of glycolysis 31. Which amino acid has a basic side chain? A. lysine B. proline C. tryptophan D. tyrosine E. asparagine 32. What is FALSE about glutathione? A. it is a tripeptide B. it can be used in removing peroxides and free radicals C. it can dimerize upon oxidative disulfide formation D. glutathione peroxidase together with glutathion functions as an antioxidant E. it’s name is -glutamyl-cysteinyl-lysine 33. Select the WRONG statement about monosaccharides. A. Cyclization of monosaccharides creates a new stereocenter. B. A monosaccharide in the form of a five-membered ring hemiacetal is called as pyranose. C. A monosaccharide is a member of the D-series if the hydroxyl group on the highest-numbered chiral carbon has the same configuration as D-glyceraldehyde. D. Both aldoses and ketoses can be reduced to polyalcohols. E. Oxidation of monosaccharides may result in aldaric acid. 34. Select the WRONG statement about the molecule on the right. A. It is obtained by the partial hydolysis of starch. B. It is the isomer of cellobiose. C. It contains a β1→4 glycosidic linkage. D. It is a reducing disaccharide. E. It consists of two D-glucose molecules. 35. Which molecule is NOT a glycerophospholipid? A. lecithin B. cardiolipin C. cephalin D. ceramid E. platelet-activating factor (PAF) 36. Select the statement that is NOT true about bile acids. A. they are formed in the liver B. they are often conjugated via an amide bond C. most bile acids are derivatives of cholic acid D. the primary bile acids are called linolenic acid and litocholic acid E. secondary bile acids are formed in the gut by bacteria 37. Select the WRONG statement about GTP. A. it contains three phosphates B. it contains an O-glycosidic bond C. it contains a purine base D. it contains two high energy bonds E. it can be converted into a cyclic nucleotide 38. The DNA molecule is a polymer. Its monomer units are: A. nucleotides B. nucleic acids C. amino acids D. nucleosides E. purine and pyrimidine bases 39. Which of the following ions has the highest concentration in the human blood plasma? A. K+ B. ClC. Na+ D. Ca2+ E. Mg2+ 40. Which of the followings is NOT a Ca2+-binding protein? A. calmodulin B. troponin C. parvalbumin D. calsequestrin E. myoglobin 41. Select the statement that is NOT related to copper ion. A. essential component of cuproenzymes B. copper containing proteins regulate gene expression by acting as transcription factors C. can be found in cytochrome c oxidase D. disturbance of its intracellular transport can cause Wilson disease E. copper shifts between the cuprous (Cu+) and the cupric (Cu2+) forms in the body 42. Which enzyme catalyses the following reaction: 2O2·⁻+ 2H⁺ H2O2 + O2 A. glutathione peroxidase B. catalase C. superoxide dismutase D. cytochrome P450 E. carboanhydrase