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INTERNATIONAL HEALTH OLYMPIAD
REFERENCE BOOK
Category 1: Super Senior
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MESSAGE
Dear Aspirants,
International Health Olympiad is a mission to figure out young blooming talents who has extra
ordinary potential in learning. International Health Olympiad is conceived as an international quiz
competition for students of class 5-12 on Science subjects including Physics, Chemistry, Biology
and Mathematics, giving special focus on health related topics so as to educate the young generation
about health and health related topics so as to create a generation well aware about Health issues and
importance of health care and hence the name International Health Olympiad.
International Health Olympiad has a syllabus that spreads across various fields of Science based on
the school academic syllabi of the three categories of the three categories of competition. We want
each of the participants to win in International Health Olympiad and this reference book is a
designed with a view of helping the participants in preparing for the competition.
The book contains a large number of questions that would enrich your knowledge in all areas covered
in the syllabus of IHO and also it will help you enlarge your knowledge bank. With this Reference
book, you can take your preparations for International Health Olympiad to the next level and thus
make yourself a strong competitor for all other participants. The book is so designed not just for
International Health Olympiad but to equip the participants to participate in many other
competitions as well.
I wish good luck to you all and may god almighty bless you to become the winner of International
Health Olympiad.
Fr. Davis Chiramel
Chairman, Kidney Federation of India
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MESSAGE
Dear Knowledge Seekers,
It gives me immense pleasure to wish success to all aspirants competing to win International Health
Olympiad. Let the thirst for knowledge in you take you all to heights of glory!
International Health Olympiad is a unique platform where the true talents gets rewarded for the
knowledge they have. Besides being a talent hunt for students and related fields, International Health
Olympiad keeps its primary focus on making the current generation aware about health and
importance of health care. As the new health issues are arising every day, it becomes a necessity to
educate the young generation about health care. This unique idea of spreading knowledge and
thereby making people healthy is the factor which connects VPS Lakeshore Hospital and
International Health Olympiad. VPS Lakeshore has been serving the society in health care since
more than a decade and we have always tried to be innovative on our own and VPS lakeshore is
proud to be the associating partner with International Health Olympiad for the same reason.
It’s really happy to know that International Health Olympiad is publishing a free reference book to
help the participants in preparing for the competition, covering the syllabus of the competition. I
hope this material could help you prepare better for the competition and be a good asset for you in
gathering knowledge.
With Best Wishes,
S.K. Abdulla
Chief Executive Officer, VPS Lakeshore Hospital
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MESSAGE
Dear Candidate,
I consider it a privilege to be addressing you through this book, which draws your attention to the
most important aspect of your growing years. The 'parent' generation have always been a worried
lot, since ages, either about the food intake of the children or about the sickness frequency. Later,
nutrition, exercise, posture etc. of the children started to attract the criticism of parents and
interested elders like teachers too. Now, pollution of air and water, adulteration of crops and food
and ill-health of the mind of the youngsters due to too much exposure to devices are all considered
to be aftermaths of technological development. Hence, I believe that engineering colleges should
own up the responsibility to not only change the perception but also actively be the change-makers
via awareness campaigns and education through such books and related programmes. Our
interactions with the students who come to us to study engineering, tell us that they want to clean
up not only such an image but also go for responsible engineering, which is more creative than,
destructive. It is our students, who have motivated us to be a part of this endeavour, to care for their
younger brothers and sisters to have a healthier life through a healthier and informed mind.
In this context, what does the book talk about? It engages with the natural curiosity the child is
blessed with. It substantiates the general understanding of life the young reader has already collected
from the environment. It kindles in the child, the desire to perform, and through such performances
in Olympiads to keep the flame of ambitions burning in his or her mind.
Please read the book carefully and prepare well and come to us, with good results and always get
back to us with any suggestions you wish to have in the book or in the contest or in this world!
Dr. Sudha Balagopalan
Principal, Vidya Academy of Science and Technology
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CONTENTS
SUBJECT
PAGE
General Science
07 - 50
Physics
51 - 69
Chemistry
70 - 140
Mathematics
141 - 194
Biology
195 - 340
Health Science
341 - 375
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GENERAL SCIENCE
1. If a secondary coil has 40 turns, and, a primary coil with 20 turns is charged with 50 V of
potential difference, then potential difference in secondary coil would be
Ans: 100 V in secondary coil
2. Generators at a power station produce electric power at voltage
Ans: 25 kW
3. Equation which measures alternating voltage is
Ans: Vo sinωt
4. In transformer, alternating current is induced in
Ans: secondary coil
5. High voltages lead to
Ans: less power loss
6. Graph of alternating current is a
Ans: sine wave
7. A component that allows only unidirectional current to pass through it is
Ans: diode
8. Average power dissipated in resistor if sinusoidal potential difference of peak value 25 V is
connected across a 20 Ω resistor is
Ans: 15.6 W
9. Amount of DC voltage as compare to Vo is
Ans: 70%
10. A well designed transformer loses power under
Ans: 0.1%
11. Ratio of voltages is equal to ratio of
Ans: number of turns in coil
12. Process in which A.C is converted in to D.C is called
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Ans: rectification
13. Steady DC voltage is also known as
Ans: root mean square velocity
14. Ratio of voltages is inverse ratio of the
Ans: current
15. If output voltage is greater than input voltage then transformer is
Ans: step up
16. Highest point on AC graph is known as
Ans: peak value
17. Only force acting on a bouncing ball is
Ans: Gravity and weight of ball
18. Accelerometer detects the
Ans: large acceleration and deceleration
19. If gradient of a graph is negative, then acceleration is
Ans: negative
20. If a student drops a stone from a cliff of height 30 m and time it takes to reach ground is 2.6 s,
then acceleration due to gravity is
Ans: 8.8 ms-2
21. Gradient of line of velocity-time graph is tells us the
Ans: Acceleration
22. A stone is thrown upwards with initial velocity of 20 ms-1, height that stone will reach would
be
Ans: 20mm
23. Projectile will attain its maximum range if it is fired at an angle of
Ans: 45°
24. Horizontal component of a bouncing ball is
Ans: unaffected by gravity
25. When ball having a projectile motion rising up, it
Ans: decelerates
26. Equation of motion can be used for
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Ans: straight line motion only
27. Acceleration of free fall depends on the
Ans: weight of object
28. If initial velocity of an object is zero, then distance covered by it in time t and acceleration of
9.8ms-2 would be
Ans: 4.9 t2
29. As ball falls towards ground, it's velocity
Ans: increases
30. Gradient of velocity-time graph tells us about object's
Ans: acceleration
31. An object whose velocity is changing is said to be in state of
Ans: acceleration
32. Acceleration of train when it is moving steadily from 4.0 ms-1 to 20 ms-1 in 100 s is
Ans: 0.16 ms-2
33. If we get a straight line with positive slope then its acceleration is
Ans: constant
34. If a spinster staring from rest has acceleration of 5 ms-2 during 1st 2.0 s of race then her
velocity after 2 s is
Ans: 10 ms-1
35. Horizontal distance travelled by a ball if it's thrown with initial velocity of 20 ms-1 at an angle
of 30°is
Ans: 35.3 m
36. If a car starting from rest reaches a velocity of 18 ms-1 after 6.0 s then its acceleration is
Ans: 3 ms-2
37. A train travelling at 20 ms-1 accelerates at 0.5 ms-2 for 30 s, distance travelled by train is
Ans: 825 m
38. Area under velocity-time graph tells us the
Ans: displacement
39. Kinetic friction is always
Ans: lesser than static friction
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40. Gravitational potential is always
Ans: negative
41. In order to keep a body moving in a circle, there exists a force on it that is directed toward
center of circle. This force is known as
Ans: Centripetal force
42. A rectangle-shaped open-to-sky tank of water has a length of 2 m and a width of 1 m. If
atmospheric pressure is assumed to be 100 kPa and thickness of tank walls is assumed to be
negligible, force exerted by atmosphere on surface of water is
Ans: 200 kN
43. If we have a positive and a negative charge, then force between them is
Ans: negative
44. Electrical force exerted by two point charges on each other is inversely proportional to
Ans: square of distance between them
45. Unit for pressure used in weather maps is millibar. 1 millibar is equal to
Ans: 100 Pa
46. Speed of stationary waves is
Ans: zero
47. If charge is placed at infinity, its potential is
Ans: zero
48. Most appropriate instrument for measurement of internal and external diameter of a tube is
Ans: Vernier calipers
49. When distance from center is doubled then electric field strength will
Ans: decrease by factor of four
50. Liquid A and liquid B exert same amount of pressure on each other, but density of A is twice
density of B. height of liquid B is 10cm, then height of liquid A would be
Ans: 5 cm
51. If we move a positive charge to a positive plate, then potential energy of charge is
Ans: Increased
52. An instrument commonly used for measurement of atmospheric pressure is known as
Ans: Barometer
53. Phase difference between two antinodes in adjacent loops and opposite sides is
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Ans: 180°
54. Our weight, as measured by spring weighing machine is equivalent of
Ans: The total gravitational force that earth exerts on us - The total centripetal force required to
keep us moving on earth's axis
55. Point where spring oscillates with maximum amplitude is called
Ans: antinode
56. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, any two particles of finite mass attract one
another with a force which is
Ans: Directly proportional to product of their masses and inversely proportional to square of their
distance apart
57. In a stationary wave, nodes are at
Ans: fixed points
58. In formation of stationary waves, at T⁄2 waves are
Ans: in phase
59. A vector quantity is one which has
Ans: direction as well as magnitude
60. Centripetal force is dependent on three factors, odd one out of these factors is
Ans: Volume of rotating object
61. Graph of potential energy against distance is
Ans: straight line
62. On all instruments like measuring cylinder, pipette and burette, readings are always taken at
bottom of meniscus of liquid. This is not true for liquids like
Ans: Mercury
63. In a weather map, lines joining all those regions with same atmospheric pressure are called
Ans: Isobars
64. For a given system, minimum frequency of a standing wave is in a
Ans: fundamental mode
65. In an electric field energy per unit positive charge is
Ans: Voltage
66. In Kundt's dust tube, dust accumulates at
Ans: nodes
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67. A node having twice frequency of fundamental is called
Ans: harmonic
68. If frequency of certain wave is 'f', then its velocity is
Ans: v = fλ
69. Origin of gravitational field is
Ans: masses
70. At separation between a node and antinode, wavelength becomes
Ans: λ⁄4
71. If plates of capacitor are oppositely charged then total charge is equal to
Ans: zero
72. Area under current-time graph represents
Ans: magnitude of charge
73. If charge stored on plates of capacitor is large, then capacitance will be
Ans: large
74. Insulator which is placed between 2 plates of capacitor is
Ans: dielectric
75. Combined capacitance is equal to the
Ans: sum of all capacitance of capacitors
76. Capacitance and charge on plates are
Ans: directly related
77. If capacitors are connected in parallel, then potential difference across each capacitor is
Ans: same
78. Total capacitance of 300 mF capacitor and a 600 mF in series is
Ans: 200 mF
79. Work done in charging a capacitor is given by
Ans: (1⁄2)QV
80. Device used to store energy in electrical circuits is
Ans: capacitor
81. Energy stored in a 2000 mF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 10 V is
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Ans: 0.10 J
82. Capacitor is fully charged if potential difference is equal to
Ans: e.m.f
83. An electron is travelling at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 1.2 mT
with a speed of 8 x 106 ms-1, radius of circular path followed by electron is
Ans: 3.8 cm
84. Hall voltage is directly proportional to
Ans: magnetic flux density
85. Force due to magnetic field and velocity is
Ans: at right angles to each other
86. Force on a moving charge in a uniform magnetic field depends upon
Ans: magnetic flux density, charge on particle, speed of particle
87. Electric field strength related to hall voltage is given by
Ans: VH⁄d
88. Hall probe is made up of
Ans: semiconductor
89. For an electron magnitude of force on it is
Ans: BeV
90. When current is parallel to magnetic fields force on conductor is
Ans: zero
91. Direction of conventional current is
Ans: direction of flow of positive charge
92. In Hall Effect, voltage across probe is known as
Ans: hall voltage
93. Angle through which an object has moved is called its
Ans: angular displacement
94. Angular velocity of second hand of clock is 0.105 rads-1 and length of hand is 1.8 cm, then
speed of tip of hand is
Ans: 0.189 cms-1
95. Object moving along a circular path is
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Ans: not in equilibrium
96. At fairground, force that balances out our weight is
Ans: friction
97. If an object moves a circular distance 's' of radius 'r', then its angular displacement is
Ans: s⁄r
98. Speed of an object travelling around a circle depends upon
Ans: angular velocity and radius
99. Number of degree a complete circle represents is
Ans: 360°
100. When a body is moving along a circular path, its velocity is directed towards
Ans: parallel to circle
101. Speed is unchanged because work done on an object is
Ans: zero
102. 180° is equal to
Ans: π rad
103. For minute hand of clock, angular velocity is equal to
0.00175 rad s-1
104. 105° in radians is equal to
Ans: 1.83 rad
105. 1 rad is equal to
Ans: 57.3°
106. According to Newton's 2nd law object's acceleration and centripetal force are
Ans: in same direction
107. A stone whirling in a horizontal circle on end of string depicts
Ans: conical pendulum
108. Centripetal force is directed towards the
Ans: center
109. Velocity required by an object to orbit around earth is
Ans: 8 kms-1
110. As compared to sound waves frequency of radio waves is
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Ans: higher
111. Decrease in strength of signal is known as
Ans: attenuation
112. If frequency of modulated wave is less than frequency of carrier wave, then input signal is
Ans: negative
113. At end of communication system, signal is converted from radio to
Ans: sound
114. Energy is lost in wires due to
Ans: Heating and resistance.
115. Voltage signal generated by a microphone is
Ans: analogue in nature
116. Phenomena in which signal transmitted in one circuit creates undesired effect in other circuit
is known as
Ans: crosslinking
117. Digital number 9 can be represented in binary number as
Ans: 1001
118. Geostationary satellite has period
Ans: same as earth
119. A digital quantity has
Ans: only 2 values
120. Frequency of sky waves is
Ans: more than 3 MHz
121. Each digit in a binary number is known as
Ans: bit
122.Value of sampled signal is used to produce a
Ans: binary number
123. Data in compact disc is stored in form of
Ans: digital signal
124. With a 30 m long coaxial cable, bandwidth can exceed
Ans: 100 MHz
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125. Amplitude of modulated wave is in phase with
Ans: signal
126. Variation in amplitude or frequency of carrier wave is called
Ans: modulation
127. In frequency modulation, amplitude of modulated wave is
Ans: constant
128. High quality music only needs frequencies up to
Ans: 15 kHz
129. Binary system has base
Ans: 2
130. In FM, frequency of modulated wave varies with
Ans: time
131. Unwanted signal that distorts a transmitted signal is called
Ans: noise
132. First communication satellites used frequencies of
Ans: 6 GHz for uplink
133. A wave of frequency 1 GHz has wavelength of
Ans: 0.3 m
134. Semiconductors have electron number density of order
Ans: 1023 m-3
135. A straight line symbol shows the
Ans: connecting lead
136. Rate of flow of electric charge is
Ans: electric current
137. Instrument which transfers energy to electric charges in a circuit is
Ans: battery
138. Electric power is related to
Ans: current in component and potential difference
139. If a current of 1 A passes through a point in 1 s then charge passes that point is
Ans: 1 C
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140. Energy transferred per unit charge is
Ans: potential difference
141. Current in a circuit when a charge of 180 C passes a point in a circuit in 2 minutes is
Ans: 1.5 A
142. Electrons which are free to move around are also called
Ans: conduction electrons
143. Number of conduction electrons per unit volume is
Ans: number density
144. Current in a circuit if resistance of 15 Ω and potential difference of 3.0 V is applied across its
ends is
Ans: 0.20 A
145. Number density for copper is
Ans: 1029 m-3
146. Mean drift velocity of electron in a copper wire having cross-sectional area 5.0 x 10-6 m2
carrying current of 1 A and having number density 8.5 x 1028 m3 is
Ans: 0.015 mms-1
147. Magnitude of charge is known as
Ans: elementary charge
148. 1 Ω is equal to
Ans: 1 V A-1
149. To protect wiring from excessive passing of current is
Ans: fuse
150. Current in a 60 W light bulb when it is connected to a 230 V power supply is
Ans: 0.26 A
151. Grid cables are 15 km long with a resistance of 0.20 Ω km-1, powers wasted as heat in these
cables are
Ans: 30 kW
152. Actual velocity of electrons between collisions is
Ans: 105 ms-1
153. By increasing current, drift velocity
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Ans: increases
154. Current in a circuit depends on
Ans: Resistance and potential difference
155. If direction of current is from positive to negative, then it is called
Ans: conventional current only
156. A voltmeter arranged across power supply measures
Ans: e.m.f
157. Particles involved in movement within material are
Ans: electrons
158. Phenomena in which a charged body attract uncharged body is called
Ans: electrostatic induction
159. An uncharged object has
Ans: equal electrons and protons
160. Fields that act on objects with masses are
Ans: gravitational fields
161. Where an electric charge experiences a force, there is an
Ans: electric field
162. A field that spreads outwards in all directions is
Ans: radial
163. At all points uniform fields have
Ans: same strength
164. Electric field strength on a dust particle having charge equal to 8x10-19 when plates are
separated by distance of 2 cm and have a potential difference of 5 kV is
Ans: 2.0x10-13 N
165. Electric field strength can be defined as
Ans: E = F⁄Q
166. When one material is rubbed against other, then it becomes electrically
Ans: charged
167. When an electron is moving horizontally between oppositely charged plates, it will move in
the
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Ans: curved path
168. A straight wire of length 0.20 m moves at a steady speed of 3.0 ms-1 at right angles to
magnetic field of flux density 0.10 T. emf induced across ends of wire is
Ans: 0.06 V
169. By accelerating magnet inside coil, current in it
Ans: increases
170. Consequence of motor effect is
Ans: electromagnetic induction
171. Total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is called
Ans: magnetic flux
172. Magnitude of induced e.m.f is proportional to
Ans: rate of change of magnetic flux linkage
173. In transformer, core is made up of soft iron in order to pass maximum
Ans: magnetic flux
174. For a straight wire, induced current depends upon
Ans: speed of movement of wire, length of wire, magnitude of magnetic flux density
175. In generators, rate of change of flux linkage is maximum when coil is moving through the
Ans: horizontal position
176. e.m.f for a coil depends upon
Ans: cross sectional area, no. of turns of wire, magnitude of magnetic flux density
177. Currents that flow in circles inside a disc are known as
Ans: eddy currents
178. When field is parallel to plane of area, magnetic flux through coil is
Ans: zero
179. Moving a coil in and out of magnetic field induces
Ans: e.m.f
180. Induced current in coil by a magnet turns it into an
Ans: electromagnet
181. Strength of magnetic field is known as
Ans: magnetic flux density
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182. Unit of luminous intensity is
Ans: cd
183. For a hydrogen atom electrical force as compared to gravitational force is
Ans: 1039 times
184. Weakest force in nature is
Ans: gravitational force
185. Magnetic field can be produced by using
Ans: permanent magnet and electric current
186. Whenever there is force on magnetic pole, there exists
Ans: magnetic field
187. If magnetic flux density and current are at right angles, then component of force acting on
conductor is
Ans: BIL sinθ
188. Unraveling an electromagnetic gives
Ans: weaker field
189. Force per meter on two wires carrying a current of 1 A placed 1 m apart is equal to
Ans: 2.0 x 10-7 N
190. F = BIL can only be used if magnetic field and electric current are
Ans: at right angles to each other
191. If we reverse direction of electric current, then direction of magnetic field will be
Ans: reversed
192. 1 Tesla is equal to
Ans: 1 N A-1m-1
193. Field which does not have magnetic poles is
Ans: circular
194. A flat coil and solenoid has
Ans: same fields
195. Flux density is defined by
Ans: F⁄(IL)
196. Strength of magnetic field of solenoid can be increased by adding core made of
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Ans: ferrous
197. In Fleming's left hand rule, thumb shows direction of
Ans: motion
198. If earth's magnetic field lines pass through Hall probe in opposite direction, then change in
reading of voltmeter is
Ans: twice earth's magnetic flux density
199. LED starts to conduct when voltage is about
Ans: 2 V
200. For non-inverting amplifier input and output is
Ans: in phase
201. A sensing device is also called
Ans: transducer
202. Op-amp can provide maximum output current of
Ans: 25 mA
203. Output resistance of an actual op-amp is
Ans: 75Ω
204. Impedance of ideal op-amp is
Ans: infinite
205.Change in length and cross sectional area of metal wire changes
Ans: resistance
206. Amplifier produces output with more
Ans: power and voltage
207. Number of power supplies requires to get output of op-amp is
Ans: two
208. A device used to avoid relay destroying op-amp is
Ans: reverse bias diode
209. As long as op-amp is not saturated, potential difference between inverting and non-inverting
inputs is
Ans: Zero
210. A light dependent resistor is made up of
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Ans: high resistance semiconductor
211. In inverting amplifier phase difference between input and output voltages must be
Ans: 180°
212. An infinite slew rate refers to
Ans: no time delay
213. To limit current in LED, resistor should be connected in
Ans: Series
214. A component whose property changes when there is a change in any physical quantity of a
device is
Ans: sensor
215. When temperature raises resistance of negative temperature coefficient thermistor
Ans: decreases
216. If current of 20 mA is passing through op-amp and voltage drop across series resistor is 10 V
then value of resistance is
Ans: 500Ω
217. Graph of resistance of thermistor to temperature is
Ans: exponential decrease
218. Output current from an LED is
Ans: 20 mA
219. In an inverting amplifier non-inverting input (+) is connected to
Ans: 0 V line
220. Actual op-amp may have an open loop gain of
Ans: 105
221. Coil of relay is connected to the
Ans: output of op-amp
222. Pair of forces that cause steering wheel of a car to rotate is called
Ans: couple
223. If principle of moments for any object holds then object is in state of
Ans: equilibrium
224.Combined effect of several forces is known as
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Ans: resultant force
225. Moment of force depends upon
Ans: magnitude of force and perpendicular distance of force from pivot
226. Object is in equilibrium if resultant force acting on it is
Ans: zero
227. Center of gravity of an irregular body lies on the
Ans: point of intersection of lines
228. Number of forces a falling tennis ball experiences is
Ans: 2
229. Point where all weight of object acts is called
Ans: center of gravity
230. If weight of a falling tennis ball is 1.0 N and drag force acting on it is 0.2 N then resultant
force is
Ans: 0.8 N
231. If resultant vector forms an angle of 45°, then two components are
Ans: perpendicular to each other
232. Mass of earth when its radius is 6400 km and gravitational field strength is 9.81 N kg-1 is
Ans: 6.0 x 1024 kg
233. On scale of building, gravitational field is
Ans: uniform
234. Decrease in field strength on top of Mount Everest is
Ans: 0.3%
235. Work done on an object to bring it to certain point in space is called
Ans: gravitational potential energy
236. Nkg-1 is equivalent to
Ans: m s-2
237. Mass of satellite orbiting earth is
Ans: irrelevant
238. Spacing between field lines indicates
Ans: strength of field lines
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239. Square of orbital period is proportional to
Ans: cube of radius
240. Number of satellites in geostationary orbits is
Ans: 300
241. Geostationary satellites have lifetime of nearly
Ans: 10 years
242. Time taken to complete a revolution around a planet is called
Ans: orbital period
243. As distance increases, value of gravitational field strength
Ans: decreases
244. All objects are attracted towards
Ans: center of earth
245. Satellite around earth follows a circular path because
Ans: gravitational force is perpendicular to velocity
246. Each 1 kg mass experiences force of
Ans: 9.81 N
247. Gravitational potential is always
Ans: negative
248. Closer satellite to earth speed should be
Ans: more fast
249. Normal force exerted per unit area by gas on walls of container is
Ans: pressure
250. Surface area of a typical person is about
Ans: 2 m2
251. If we double temperature of an ideal gas, then its average kinetic energy will be
Ans: doubled
252. Escape velocity for a particle is about
Ans: 11 kms-1
253. Force exerted on a person by atmosphere is
Ans: 200 000 N
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254. 10 mole of carbon contains
Ans: 6.02 x 1024 atoms
255. Space occupied by gas is
Ans: volume
256. At absolute zero, volume of gas is equal to
Ans: 0 m3
257. Number of moles in 1.6 kg of oxygen is
Ans: 50 mol
258. Quantity RNA defines
Ans: Boltzmann constant
259. Molar gas constant has value
Ans: 8.31 Jmol-1K-1
260. If average kinetic energy of molecules is higher than temperature of gas is
Ans: high
261. Ideal gas equation is
Ans: PV = nRT
262. Law which relates pressure and volume of gas is
Ans: boyle's law
263. As compared to volume occupied by gas, volume of particles is
Ans: negligible
264. Pressure of gas depends on the
Ans: density of gas and mean square speed of gas molecules
265. At standard pressure and temperature average speed of molecules is
Ans: 400 ms-1
266. Speed of sound in water is 1500 ms-1, depth of water when reflected sound waves are detected
after 0.40 s is
Ans: 600 m
267. If a snail crawls 12 cm in 60 secs then its average speed in mm.s-1 is
Ans: 2 mm s-1
268. Speed of a body in particular direction can be called
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Ans: velocity
269. If distance is increasing uniformly with time, then velocity is
Ans: constant
270. If slope of graph is zero and so displacement then velocity is
Ans: zero
271. If a river flows from west to east with constant velocity of 1.0 ms-1 and a boat leaves south
bank heading towards north with velocity of 2.40 ms-1 then resultant velocity of boat is
Ans: 2.6 ms-1
272. Two sides of a rectangular table are 0.8 m and 1.2 m, displacement of spider when it runs a
distance of 2.0 m is
Ans: 1.4 m
273. Current entering and leaving a point in a circuit should be
Ans: equal
274. Current through each resistor when they are connected in series is
Ans: same
275. If a billion electrons enter a point in 1 sec, then number of electrons leaving that point in 1 s
are
Ans: 1 billion
276. Three resistances 20 Ω, 30 Ω and 60 Ω are connected in parallel, their combined resistance is
given by
Ans: 10 Ω
277. Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is
Ans: 5 Ω
278. Kirchhoff's 2nd law is consequence of law of conservation of
Ans: energy
279. Ammeter should always have a
Ans: low resistance
280. MCQ: Density of water in kgm-3 is
Ans: 1000
281. Normal force acting per unit cross sectional area is called
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Ans: pressure
282. Ratio of tensile to strain is
Ans: Young's modulus
283. Gradient of force-extension graph is
Ans: force constant
284. Energy in deformed solid is called
Ans: strain energy
285. Units of stress are
Ans: Pascal
286. Concentration of matter in a material is
Ans: density
287. Units of strain are
Ans: no units
288. Stress is force applied on
Ans: cross sectional area
unit length
289. Larger spring constant, spring would be more
Ans: stiffer
290. Height of atmosphere, if atmospheric density is 1.29 kgm-3 and atmospheric pressure is 101
kPa, is
Ans: 7829.4 m
291. Pressure in fluid depends upon
Ans: density of fluid
292. As depth increases, pressure in a fluid
Ans: increases
293. If extension in spring is proportional to load applied then material obeys
Ans: Hooke's law
294. If a spring is squashed, then forces are
Ans: compressive
295. Fractional increase in original length is called
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Ans: strain
296. If a force of 50 N is applied across cross-sectional area of 5 x 10-7m2 then stress applied on it is
Ans: 1 x 108 Pa
297. Mass of steel sphere having density 7850 kgm-3 and radius 0.15 m is
Ans: 110.9 kg
298. In a force-extension graph, force is taken along horizontal axis because
Ans: force is independent variable
299. Extension and applied force are
Ans: directly proportional
300. 1 Pa is equal to
Ans: 1 N m-2
301. Spring constant of spring is also called
Ans: stiffness
302. Tensile strain is equal to
Ans: Extension per unit length
303. In elastic collisions,
Ans: both of momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved.
304. Total angular momentum of a body is given by
Ans: I × ω; where I: moment of inertia of body, ω: angular velocity
305. Force that acts on a mass of 1 g and gives it an acceleration of 1 cms-2 is defined as
Ans: 1 dyne
306. An object moving in a circle of radius 'r' with a constant speed 'v' has a constant acceleration
towards center equal to
Ans: v²⁄r
307. Einstein's mass-energy relationship states that if mass decreases by Δm, energy released ΔE is
given by
Ans: ΔE = Δm × c², where "c" denotes speed of light.
308. Bernoulli's principle states that, for streamline motion of an incompressible non-viscous fluid:
Ans: pressure at any part + kinetic energy per unit volume + potential energy per unit volume =
constant
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309. While Young's modulus 'E' relates to change in length and bulk modulus 'K' relates to
change in volume, modulus of rigidity 'G' relates to change in:
Ans: shape
310. Young's modulus is defined as
Ans: tensile stress⁄tensile strain
311. Velocity of escape is equal to
Ans: √(2gr); where r: radius of earth or any other planet for that matter, g: gravitational field
strength
312. Hooke's law states that
Ans: extension is proportional to load when elastic limit is not exceeded
313. Dimensions of strain are
Ans: It's a dimensionless quantity
314. Due to energy dissipation by viscous forces in air, if simple harmonic variations of a
pendulum die away after some time, then oscillation is said to be:
Ans: damped
315. At 'yield point' of a copper wire
Ans: load has already exceeded elastic limit and material has become plastic
316. Stationary waves are also called
Ans: standing waves
317. When work done in moving a particle round a closed loop in a field is zero, forces in field are
called
Ans: Conservative force
318. Substances that elongate considerably and undergo plastic deformation before they break are
known as
Ans: ductile substances
319. 1 torr is equal to
Ans: 1 mm Hg
320. Velocity of sound waves through any material depends on
Ans: material's density 'd' as well as its modulus of elasticity 'E'
321. Period of simple harmonic motion of a spiral spring or elastic thread is given by
Ans: T = 2π × √(extension produced⁄gravitational field strength)
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322. In order to slip one surface over another, maximum frictional force has to be overcome, this
maximum frictional force between two surfaces is also known as
Ans: limiting frictional force
323. Van der Waals derived an expression for 'pressure defect', if observed pressure is denoted as
'p' and volume is denoted as 'V', gas pressure in bulk of gas is equal to:
Ans: p + a⁄(V²); where a: constant for particular gas
324. "Upthrust = Weight of liquid displaced" is known as
Ans: Archimedes' Principle
325. Assuming uniform density of core, acceleration due to gravity below earth's surface is
Ans: directly proportional to distance from center of earth
326. When a gas or a liquid is subjected to an increased pressure, substance contracts, bulk strain is
defined as
Ans: change in volume ⁄ original volume
327. Tensile stress is equal to
Ans: Force per unit area
328. Dimensions of relative density are
Ans: It has no dimensions, since it
329. Dimensions of gravitational constant 'G' are:
Ans: [M]^-1 [L]³ [T]^-2
330. A person of mass 'm' kg jumps from a height of 'h' meters, he will land on ground with a
velocity equal to:
Ans: √(2 × g × h)
331. In linear motion, energy is given by 1⁄2mv2. Similarly, in rotational motion, rotational energy
is given by
Ans: 1⁄2 × I × ω²; where I: moment of inertia of body, ω: angular velocity
332. Boyle's law states that
Ans: pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume i.e. P × V = constant
333. Isothermal bulk modulus is equal to:
Ans: Pressure
334. Adiabatic bulk modulus is equal to:
Ans: Υ × P; where Υ: ratio of specific heat capacities of gas, P: pressure
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335. Bernoulli's principle shows that, at points in a moving fluid where potential energy change is
very small
Ans: pressure is low where velocity is high and conversely, pressure is high where velocity is low
336. 1 newton =
Ans: 105 dynes
337. Torricelli's theorem states that velocity 'v' of liquid emerging from bottom of wide tank is
given by √(2gh). In practice, this velocity is:
Ans: lesser than √(2gh)
338. Dimensions of Young's modulus are
Ans: [M] [L]^-1 [T]^-2
339. Kepler's 3rd law states that:
Ans: squares of periods of revolution of planets are inversely proportional to cube of their mean
distance from sun
340. Gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it passes through material is called
Ans: attenuation
341. Attenuation coefficient of bone is 600 m-1 for x-rays of energy 20 keV and intensity of beam
of x-rays is 20 Wm-2 then intensity of beam after passing through a bone of 4mm is
Ans: 1.8 Wm-2
342. For protons, gyromagnetic ratio has value
Ans: 2.68×108rads-1T-1
343. Energy passing through unit area is
Ans: intensity of x-ray
344. Speed of ultrasound depends upon
Ans: material
346. Bones look white in x-ray photograph because
Ans: they are good absorbers of x-rays
347. Larmor frequency depends upon the
Ans: individual nucleus and magnetic flux density
348. Acoustic impedance of human skin is
Ans: 1.71×106kgm-2s-1
349. In best piezo-electric substances, maximum value of strain is about
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Ans: 0.1 %
350. With gel between skin and transducer percentage of reflected intensity of ultrasonic is
Ans: 0.03%
351. Attenuation coefficient depends on
Ans: energy of x-ray photons
352. X-rays are filtered out of human body by using
Ans: aluminum absorbers
353. Wavelength of x-rays is in range
Ans: 10-8 to 10-13 m
354. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are
Ans: x-rays
355. As x-rays pass through matter, its intensity
Ans: decreases
356. Acoustic impedance is defined as
Ans: ρc
357. A sound wave which has frequency higher than upper limit of human hearing is
Ans: ultrasonic
358. Fatty tissues have
Ans: relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds
359. Angular frequency of precision is called
Ans: Larmor frequency
360. Scattered x-ray beams approach detector screen
Ans: at an angle
361. Maximum energy, x-ray photon can have is
Ans: eV
362. Soft x-rays have
Ans: low energies
363. Intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing
Ans: current
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364. Bone thickness is equal to
Ans: (cΔt)⁄2
365. Hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing
Ans: voltage
366. In x-ray production, kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is
Ans: 200 keV
367. Change in speed of ultrasound causes
Ans: refraction
368. Type of x-rays used to detect break in bone is
Ans: hard
369. Wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in tissue is
Ans: 7.5×10-4m
370. Intensifier screens reduces patient's exposure to x-rays by a factor of
Ans: 100-500
371. Contrast media consist of elements with
Ans: higher atomic number
372. Thickness of material which decreases intensity of x-ray material to half of original value is
Ans: half thickness
373. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and
Ans: parallel x-rays
374. Speed of earth when a rock of mass 60 kg falling towards earth with speed of 20 ms-1 is
Ans: −2.0x10-22 ms-1
375. Force exerted by bat on ball if it strikes a ball of mass 0.16 kg initially hits bat with speed of
25 ms-1 with time impact of 0.003 s is
Ans: 1333.33 N
376. Momentum of electron having mass 9.1 x 10-31 kg and velocity 2.0 x 107 is
Ans: 1.91x10-23
377. To replace a ball with another ball by collision, a snooker player must consider condition that
Ans: collision must be head on and the moving ball must not be given any spin
378. Direction of momentum is direction of object's
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Ans: velocity
379. In a springy collision if fast moving trolley collides with a slow one then fast one will bounce
back at speed of
Ans: slow one
380. An object travelling with constant velocity has
Ans: constant momentum
381. If a trolley collides with a stationary trolley of double mass, then they move off with
Ans: one third of original velocity
382. In a perfectly elastic collision, momentum and energy are
Ans: conserved
383. Mass and velocity are combined to give
Ans: linear momentum
384. If total kinetic energy and momentum of a system becomes zero after collision, then collision
is
Ans: inelastic
385. Momentum of two objects moving with same speed but in opposite direction upon collision
is
Ans: is zero
386. Forces on interacting bodies are
Ans: Equal and opposite
387. Resultant force acting on object and rate of change of linear momentum are
Ans: directly related
388. In a perfectly elastic collision, relative speed of approach and relative speed of separation are
Ans: equal
389. A white ball of mass 1.0 kg moving with initial speed u = 0.5 ms-1 collides with stationary red
ball of same mass, they move forward making angle of 90° between their paths. Their speed is
Ans: 0.354 ms-1
390. In fireworks momentum provided by chemicals is directed
Ans: downwards
391. Total momentum within a closed system is
Ans: constant
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392. Average force acting on 900 kg car if its velocity ranges from 5 ms-1 to 30 ms-1 in 12 s is
Ans: 1875 N
393. Interaction that causes an object's momentum to change is
Ans: force
394. Momentum possessed by spinning objects is called
Ans: angular momentum
395. In a perfectly inelastic collision, kinetic energy
Ans: totally disappears
396. Contact force always acts at
Ans: right angles to surface producing it
397. Combinations of base units are
Ans: derived units
398. Two forces which make up Newton's third law can
Ans: act on different objects
399. Rate of falling object in vacuum is
400. At terminal velocity the
Ans: air resistance and weight are equal
401. Vehicle will accelerate as long as
Ans: thrust is greater than air resistance and friction
402. 1 N is equal to
Ans: 1 kgms-2
403. Density of air is
Ans: 1⁄800 of water
404. Until a force acts on a body, it's velocity is
Ans: constant
405. If there is no net force acting on body then it's acceleration is
Ans: zero
406. Acceleration of a rocket having mass 5000 kg and resultant force acting on it is 200 000 N is
Ans: 40 ms-2
407. Force which makes it difficult to run through shallow water is called
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Ans: drag
408. Prefix for 10-9 is
Ans: Nano
409. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is
Ans: 1.6 ms-2
410. An object immersed in fluid experiences an upward force named
Ans: up thrust
411. If each term in an equation has same base units then equation is said to be
Ans: homogeneous
412. A force similar to friction is
Ans: drag force
413. Forces acting on an object are balanced if resultant force on object is
Ans: zero
414. The base unit among following is
Ans: candela
415. Force provided by breaking system of train if it is decelerating at rate of -3 ms-2 and having
mass 10,000 kg is
Ans: -30,000 N
416. Force applied on a body and it's acceleration are
Ans: directly related
417. At threshold voltage, resistance of diode
Ans: decreases
418. Resistance of a particular wire depends upon
Ans: size and shape
419. Resistance of metal is affected by
Ans: presence of impurities and temperature
420. If current and potential difference is directly related then object follows
Ans: Ohm's law
421. Effect of diffraction is greatest if waves pass through a gap with width equal to
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Ans: wavelength
422. Visible light has wavelength of
Ans: 5×10-7m
423. From double-slit experiment, quantities to be measured are
Ans: slit separation, slit-to-screen distance, fringe separation
424. For destructive interference, path difference is
Ans: odd number of half wavelengths
625. Constructive interference happens when two waves are
Ans: in phase
426. Two waves with phase difference 180° have resultant of amplitude
Ans: zero
427. If two waves are in phase and have same amplitude then resultant wave has
Ans: twice of amplitude of single wave
628. For listening radio in cars, external radio aerials are used because
Ans: radio waves have longer wavelength
429. When two waves meet, their displacements
Ans: add up
430. Splitting of white light in to constituent colors is called
Ans: dispersion
631. Grating element is equal to
Ans: nλ⁄sinθ
432. With diffraction grating, angles are
Ans: greater
633. Extra distance travelled by one of waves compared with other is called
Ans: path difference
434. Spreading of wave as it passes through a gap or around an edge is called
Ans: diffraction
435. Fringes are referred to as
Ans: maxima
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436. Coherent sources emit waves that have
Ans: constant phase difference
437. Interference pattern of light and dark bands on screen is called
Ans: fringes
438. Microwaves have wavelength of about
Ans: 10 cm
439. In young double slit experiment, wavelength of incident beams should be
Ans: same
440. Wavelength of a incident light when it is incident normally on a diffraction grating having
3000 lines per centimeter angular separation is 10° is
Ans: 580 nm
441. Supply of energy depends upon
Ans: mass of material, change in temperature, material itself
442. All substances have minimum internal energy at
Ans: absolute zero
443. Specific heat of aluminum when 26400 J of energy is supplied to 2 kg block and it's
temperature rises from 20 °C to 35 °C is
Ans: 880 J kg-1K-1
444. On compression, gat gets hotter due to
Ans: increase in kinetic energy
445. If there is no transfer of energy between two objects then their temperature is
Ans: same
446. Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to
Ans: thermodynamic temperature
447. Energy required per unit mass of substance to raise temperature of that substance by 1 Kelvin
is called
Ans: temperature
448. Measure of average kinetic energy of molecules is
Ans: temperature
449. Energy of molecules of any substance is known as
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Ans: internal energy
450. Another name for force of gravity acting on an object is
Ans: weight
451. When two objects are in contact, they exert forces in
Ans: opposite direction
452. Activity is proportional to number of
Ans: undecayed nuclei
453. Energy given to nucleus to dismantle it increases the
Ans: potential energy of individual nucleons
454. Radioactive decay is a
Ans: random process
455. 1 u is equal to
Ans: 1.660×10-27 kg
456. In gamma emission, change in nucleon number is
Ans: zero
457. At higher energy, bodies have
Ans: large mass
458. Time taken by a radioactive substance to decay half is called
Ans: half life
459. Most stable isotope in nature is of
Ans: iron-56
460. Activity of one decay per second is equal to
Ans: 1 Bq
461. Greater decay constant
Ans: greater activity
462. Total amount of mass and energy together in a system is
Ans: constant
463. Process by which energy is released in sun is
Ans: fusion
464. Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is called
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Ans: binding energy
465. Mass excess for U-235 is
Ans: 0.043 u
466. As compare to proton, mass of neutron is
Ans: 0.1% greater
467. If energy is released from a system, it's mass
Ans: decreases
468. New nucleus after alpha particle decay is called
Ans: daughter nucleus
469. If nucleus is formed from separate nucleons, then energy is
Ans: released
470. Maximum displacement from equilibrium position is
Ans: amplitude
471. Displacement-time graph depicting an oscillatory motion is
Ans: sine curve
472. In s.h.m, velocity at equilibrium position is
Ans: maximum
473. Natural frequency of a guitar string can be changed by changing it's
Ans: length
474. Over-damping results in
Ans: slower return to equilibrium
475. Our eyes detect oscillations up to
Ans: 5 Hz
476. For s.h.m maximum speed is proportional to
Ans: frequency
477. A force that acts to return mass to its equilibrium position is called
Ans: restoring force
478. In cars springs are damped by
Ans: shock absorbers
479. If time period of an oscillation is 0.40 s then it's frequency is
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Ans: 2.5 Hz
480. As amplitude of resonant vibrations decreases, degree of damping
Ans: decreases
481. Oscillations become damped due to
Ans: friction
482. In s.h.m, object's acceleration depends upon
Ans: displacement from equilibrium position and magnitude of restoring force
483. Angular frequency of s.h.m is equal to
Ans: 2πf
484. For a resonating system it should oscillate
Ans: freely
485. Velocity at equilibrium position is
Ans: maximum
486. If swing moves from right to left then velocity is
Ans: negative
487. Acceleration is directly related to
Ans: negative of displacement
488. Gradient of velocity-time graph gives
Ans: acceleration
489. Magnitude of gradient of a-x graph is
Ans: ω2
490. Potential energy of system is maximum at
Ans: extreme position
491. In s.h.m, acceleration is always directed toward the
Ans: equilibrium position
492. Number of oscillations per unit time is
Ans: frequency
493. When displacement x = 0 then kinetic energy of system is
Ans: maximum
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494. Energy of a system executing s.h.m is
Ans: constant
495. Oscillatory motion has a
Ans: sinusoidal graph
496. During one oscillation, phase of oscillation changes by
Ans: 2π rad
497. If an object moves back and forth repeatedly around a mean position it is called
Ans: oscillating
498. Terminal potential difference of battery depends on
Ans: resistance of external resistor
499. Systematic errors occur due to
Ans: overuse of instruments and careless usage of instruments
500. In cells, internal resistance is due to
Ans: lead blocks
501. Measurement which is close to true value is
Ans: accurate
502. A train with a whistle that emits a note of frequency 800 Hz is approaching an observer at
speed of 60 ms-1, frequency of note heard by observer is
Ans: 978 Hz
503. If two quantizes are inversely proportional then graph between y and 1/x gives
Ans: straight line through origin
504. Systematic errors can be removed by
Ans: recalibrating instrument
505. Least count of screw gauge is
Ans: 0.01 mm
506. Increase in kinetic energy of car having mass 800 kg and velocities ranging from 20 ms-1 to 30
ms-1 is
Ans: 200 KJ
507. Work done by a person having weight 600 N and he needs to climb up a mountain of height
2000 m is
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Ans: 1200 KJ
508. Internal resistance of cell when there is current of 0.40 A when a battery of 6.0 V is
connected to a resistor of 13.5 Ω is
Ans: 1.5 Ω
509. Barrel of screw gauge has
Ans: 50 divisions
510. A measurement which on repetition gives same or nearly same result is called
Ans: precise measurement
511. A motor of lift provides a force of 20 kN which rises it by 18 m in 10 s, output power of
motor is
Ans: 36 kW
512. Actual range of values around a measurement is called
Ans: uncertainty
513. Depth of water in a bottle is 24.3 cm and uncertainty is 0.2 cm, percentage uncertainty in
measurement is
Ans: 0.82%
514. While taking reading, line of sight should be
Ans: perpendicular to scale
515. Maximum current a battery of e.m.f 3.0 V and internal resistance 1.0 Ω is
Ans: 3.0 A
516. In potential dividers output voltage depends upon
Ans: relative values of all resistors
517. Calipers are used to measure the
Ans: diameter
518. Smallest division on stopwatch is
Ans: 0.01 s
519. Intensity of sun's radiation is about
Ans: 1.0 kW m-2
520. When light enters from vacuum in to glass, its velocity
Ans: decreases
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521. As wave travels, intensity
Ans: decreases
522. Waves that move through materials are called
Ans: progressive waves
523. Speed of sound in air is
Ans: 380 ms-1
524. Particles vibrate about their mean positions and transfer
Ans: energy
525. Speed of electromagnetic radiation is independent of
Ans: frequency
526. Mechanical waves include
Ans: sound
527. A complete cycle of wave is around
Ans: 360°
528. Changing magnetic field induces
Ans: current
529. Phase difference is measured in
Ans: degrees
530. Speed at which stars and galaxies are moving away from us is determined by phenomena of
Ans: red shift
531. Electric and magnetic fields vary at angle of
Ans: 90°
532. Unification of electromagnetic and weak nuclear forces was done by
Ans: Abdus salam
533. Frequency and time period are
Ans: inversely related
534. Amount by which one oscillation leads or lags behind another is called
Ans: phase difference
535. Number of oscillations per unit time is called
Ans: frequency
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536. If particles of medium vibrate at right angles to direction of velocity then wave is
Ans: transverse
537. Intensity of a wave is directly proportional to the
Ans: square of amplitude
538. Wave speed is directly proportional to
Ans: wavelength
539. Longitudinal waves give rise to
Ans: high and low pressure regions
540. Ranges of waves which overlap are
Ans: x-rays and gamma rays
541. In order to find internal structure of nucleus, electrons should be accelerated by voltages up
to
Ans: 109 V
542. High speed electrons have wavelength of order
Ans: 10-15 m
543. Wavelength of slow moving neutrons is about
Ans: 10-10 m
544. High speed electrons from particle detectors are used to determine
Ans: diameter of atomic nuclei
545. Energy of gamma photon is greater than
Ans: 10-13 J
546. Waves associated with electrons are referred to as
Ans: matter waves
547. Frequency below which no electrons are emitted from metal surface is
Ans: threshold frequency
548. Loss of energy of an electron results in
Ans: emission of photon
549. Wavelength of a 65 kg person running at a speed of 3 ms-1 through an opening of width 0.80
m is
Ans: 3.4 * 10-36 m
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550. According to Newton, light travels as
Ans: particles
551. In electron diffraction, rings behave as
Ans: waves
552. Diffraction of slow moving electrons is used to estimate
Ans: arrangement of atoms in metals
553. Energy of photon is directly related to the
Ans: frequency
554. When a charged particle is accelerated through a potential difference V, its kinetic energy
Ans: increases
555. Energy of an electron in an atom is
Ans: quantized
556. In dark, LDR has
Ans: high resistance
557. 1 eV is equal to
Ans: 1.60×10-19 J
558. Electrons show diffraction effects because their de Broglie wavelength is similar to
Ans: spacing between atomic layers
559. Characteristic properties of waves are
Ans: Reflection, refraction, interference
560. Plank's constant has units
Ans: Js
561. Gas atoms that exert negligible electrical forces on each other are
Ans: isolated atoms
562. Wavelength of red color is about
Ans: 7×10-7 m
563. Quantum of electromagnetic energy is called
Ans: photons
564. In photoelectric effect, electrons should be removed from the
Ans: surface
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565. Light interacts with matter as
Ans: particle
566. When white light is passed through cool gases, spectra observed is called
Ans: absorption line spectra
567. Wavelength of ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum is
Ans: 121 nm
568. In an insulator valence band is
Ans: fully occupied
569. Most energetic photons are
Ans: gamma
570. Radius of nucleus ranges from
Ans: 10-15m to 10-14m
571. Number of protons in an atom determines
Ans: chemical properties
572. β+ decay, an UP quark becomes
Ans: a down quark
573. Most of space in an atom is
Ans: empty
574. A proton is made up of
Ans: two up quarks and a down quark
575. Neutrinos have electric charge of
Ans: zero
576. β- radiations are simply
Ans: electrons
577. In a nuclear process, quantity conserved is
Ans: mass-energy
578. A specific combination of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called
Ans: nuclide
579. In β+ decay, nucleon number is
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Ans: conserved
580. Particles that are un affected by strong nuclear force are
Ans: leptons
581. Number of isotopes neon has is
Ans: 3
582. Phenomena of radioactivity was discovered by Henri Becquerel in
Ans: 1896
583. Radiations emitted by radioactive substances is
Ans: Alpha, beta, gamma
584. Elements undergo radioactive decay when proton number becomes greater than
Ans: 83
585. Process in which α and β rays pass close to atoms and knock electrons out is called
Ans: ionization
586. Alpha particles have relatively
Ans: high kinetic energy
587. Strongest ionizing radiation is
Ans: Alpha
588. Nucleon number consist of
Ans: Number of protons and neutrons
589. Gamma radiation is emitted in order to
Ans: release excess energy from atom
590. Electrons move around nucleus in form of
Ans: clouds
591. Particles like kaons and muons etc. were found out by
Ans: looking at cosmic rays and looking at particles in accelerators
592. Type of rays nucleus affects are
Ans: alpha
593. Force that acts on both quarks and leptons is
Ans: weak interaction
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594. Particles that experience strong force are
Ans: hadrons
595. Heavy nuclei have
Ans: more neutrons than protons
596. Strong nuclear force acts over distance
Ans: 10-14 m
597. A decay in which a proton decays in to neutron and an electron neutrino is
Ans: β598. Photon of electromagnetic radiation is
Ans: γ ray
599. Mass of alpha particle is
Ans: 1000 times mass of electron
600. Particle which explains about mass of matter is called
Ans: Higgs boson
601. Plum pudding model describes atom as
Ans: positive pudding with negative plums
602. Lepton among them is
Ans: Electrons and neutrinos
603. Density of proton is equal to density of
Ans: neutron
604. Resistivity of lead is
Ans: 20.8×10-8 Ωm
605. A filament lamp is
Ans: non-ohmic
606. In case of filament lamp at higher voltages, resistance of lamp
Ans: increases
607. If connections across resistor are reversed, then graph between current and potential
difference is
Ans: straight lined
608. In semiconductors upon increasing temperature, conductivity
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Ans: increases
609. In NTC thermistor on increasing temperature, resistance
Ans: decreases
610. A component that allows unidirectional current to pass through it is
Ans: diode
611. A rectifier converts
Ans: AC to DC
612. Threshold voltage at which LED emits light is
Ans: more than 0.6
613. Resistivity is measured in
Ans: ohm meter
614. Component which obeys ohm's law is called
Ans: ohmic component
615. At constant temperature resistance and cross-sectional area are
Ans: inversely related
616. Current and voltage are
Ans: directly related
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PHYSICS
1. At which temperature, the density of water is maximum?
Ans: 4 degrees C.
2. Loudness of sound depends upon ___________ of the sound wave.
Ans: Amplitude.
3. The reason behind decrease in the boiling point of water at higher altitude is:
Ans: Low atmospheric temperature.
4. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend upon its.
Ans: Angular velocity.
5. The instrument used to study the laws of vibrating string is:
Ans: Sonometer
6. Device used to measure the wavelength of X-ray?
Ans: Spectrometer.
7. Hydraulic press depends upon?
Ans: Pascal’s law.
8. The Newton’s first law is also referred to as:
Ans: Law of Inertia.
9. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric humidity?
Ans: Hygrometer.
10. Ocean depth can be measured by:
Ans: Fathometer
11. Which device is used to measure the intensity of light?
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Ans: Lux meter
12. Specific gravity of milk is measured by:
Ans: Lactometer.
13. A transformer works with:
Ans: Alternating current.
14. The unit of Planck’s constant:
Ans: JS.
15. SI unit of electric charge is:
Ans: Coulomb.
16. Which instrument is used to convert heat into electrical energy?
Ans: Thermoelectric generator.
17. The colors of stars depends upon:
Ans: Temperature.
18. How stationary waves are formed?
Ans: Two waves of same frequency travelling in opposite direction.
19. In a filament type light bulb most of electric power consumed appears as:
Ans: Infrared rays.
20. The purpose of using diode is:
Ans: Purification.
21. What is the minimum escape velocity of rocket to be launched into the space?
Ans: 11KM/Sec.
22. Who invented Electron Microscope?
Ans: Knoll and Ruska.
23. What is the wavelength of visible spectrum?
Ans: 390 to 700 nm.
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24. Decibel unit is used to measure:
Ans: Intensity of Sound.
25. Which atmospheric layer helps in radio transmission?
Ans: Ionosphere.
26. Kilowatt-hour (KWh) unit is used to measure.
Ans: Power.
27. Golden view of sea shell is due to:
Ans: Polarization.
28. The “Greenhouse effect” is mainly due to increase in atmospheric:
Ans: Carbon dioxide.
29. Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
Ans: Sphygmomanometer.
30. Which device is used to convert solar energy into electricity?
Ans: Solar cell.
31. According to special theory of relativity the mass of a particle increases with _____________
Ans: increase in velocity with respect to an observer.
32. The field produced by current carrying conductor is:
Ans: Magnetic field.
33. Cause of rainbow formation is:
Ans: Refraction and reflection.
34. The unit used to measure the distance between stars is:
Ans: Light year.
35. Tesla is a standard unit of:
Ans: Magnetic induction.
36. Which type of mirror is used in the head light of vehicles?
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Ans: Concave mirror.
37. Heavy water is used in the nuclear reactor as:
Ans: Moderator
38. Which metals are used in fuse wire?
Ans: An alloy of tin and lead.
39. Which device is used to convert sound energy into electrical energy?
Ans: Microphone.
40. The device dynamo is used to convert:
Ans: Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
41. Ball pen works on the principle of:
Ans: Surface tension.
42. Because of ______ red light is used for signals?
Ans: Long wavelength.
43. Light ray used for eliminating bacteria:
Ans: Ultraviolet radiation.
44. Which type of coal produces greatest energy?
Ans: Anthracite.
45. UV radiations of the sun do not reach the earth because of layer of:
Ans: Ozone.
46. Which metal is used for the manufacturing of heating elements used in electric iron ?
Ans: Nichrome.
47. Which device is used to measure the speed of wind?
Ans: Anemometer.
48. What is found in frequency modulation?
Ans: Fixed frequency.
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49. Color of light is related to its ________.
Ans: Frequency.
50. What principle/law explains the working of hydraulic brakes in automobiles?
Ans: Pascal’s law.
51. Longitudinal waves cannot travel through:
Ans: Vacuum.
52. Fourth state of matter is known as:
Ans: Plasma.
53. Cryogenics is a science dealing with:
Ans: Low temperature
54. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have
Ans: Polaroids.
55. The unit of noise pollution (level) is:
Ans: Decibel.
56. The pitch of sound depends on its:
Ans: Frequency.
57. Solar energy is due to.
Ans: Fusion reaction.
58. A body absorbs heat most if it is:
Ans: Black and rough
59. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents:
Ans: Acceleration.
60. A rear-view mirror for driving is:
Ans: Convex.
61. The audio signals of TV are:
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Ans: Frequency modulated.
62. Red is used as an emergency or danger signal as
Ans: its wavelength is longest.
63. Which color of light shows maximum deviation when passed through a prism?
Ans: Violet.
64. Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity because it is:
Ans: Feebly ionized.
65. The filament of electric bulb is made up of:
Ans: Tungsten.
67. The device which transfer the signal from low resistance region to high resistance region:
Ans: Transistor.
68. When a detergent is added to pure water, its surface tension:
Ans: Decrease.
69. ‘Therm’ is the unit of:
Ans: Heat.
70. Pond water appears less deep due to:
Ans: Refraction.
71. Heat from the Sun reaches the Earth by:
Ans: Radiation.
72. The mass of a star is two times the mass of the Sun. How it will come to an end:
Ans: Neutron star.
73. A boat will submerge when it displaces water equal to its own:
Ans: Weight.
74. Where are mesons found?
Ans: Cosmic rays.
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75. Tungsten is used for the manufacture of the filament of an electric bulb, because:
Ans: It has a very high melting point
76. The term ‘Isoneph’ indicates the lines of equal.
Ans: Cloudiness.
77. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is:
Ans: 24 hrs.
78. The time period of second’s pendulum is:
Ans: 2.
79. Lens is made up of:
Ans: Flint glass.
80. The head mirror used by ENT doctors is
Ans: Concave.
81. The word ‘insolation’ means:
Ans: Incoming solar radiation.
82. A NOT gate can be implemented by:
Ans: A single transistor.
83. True or False: The earth is a bad absorber and bad radiator of heat.
Ans: True
84. A light year is a unit of
Ans: Distance.
85. Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use.
Ans: Concave lens.
86. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is.
Ans: Sonar.
87. A device which is used to limit the current in an electrical circuit is called a
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Ans: Fuse.
88. A transformer:
Ans: is used to decrease or increase AC voltage.
89. Eclipses occur due to which optical phenomena?
Ans: Reflection.
90. The material used in the fabrication of a transistor is.
Ans: Silicon.
91. For a person having hyper-metropia, the near point is:
Ans: 50cm.
92. Angle of friction and angle of repose are.
Ans: Equal to each other.
93. Intensity of gravitational field of earth is maximum at:
Ans: Poles.
94. The sound production by a bat is:
Ans: Ultrasonic.
95. When a person sitting on a swing stands up the swing, the frequency of oscillation.
Ans: Increases.
96. Forged documents are detected by:
Ans: Ultraviolet rays.
97. When light passes from air to glass its speed:
Ans: Decreases.
98. A green leaf when seen in red light would appear to be:
Ans: Yellow.
99. The wave theory of light cannot explain the phenomenon of
Ans: Photoelectric effect.
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100. 1 Horse power equals:
Ans: 736 watt.
101. Rate of change of displacement is called:
Ans: Velocity.
102. Acceleration is a vector quantity, which indicates that, its value:
Ans: Can be positive, negative, zero.
103. Formula to find the average velocity of a body is given by:
Ans: Vav= (u + v)/2.
104. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is:
Ans: A body moving with constant speed in a circular path.
105. The acceleration of a body from a velocity –time graph is.
Ans: Equal to the slope of the graph.
106. Distance covered by a body from velocity-time graph is:
Ans: Area under the graph.
107. Inertia is a measure of:
Ans: Mass.
108. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of.
Ans: Momentum.
109. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls.
Ans: Behind him.
110. A bullet of mass 20gm is fired from a gun of mass 8kg with a velocity of 400 m/s, calculate
the recoil velocity of gun.
Ans: -1m/s.
111. Type of inertia that tends to resist the change in case of an “Athlete often jumps before taking
a long jump “.
Ans: Inertia of motion.
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112. Qualitative definition of Force is given by.
Ans: Newton’s first law of motion.
113. The action and reaction forces referred to in the third law.
Ans: Must act on different objects.
114. An object will continue to accelerate until the.
Ans: Resultant force on it is zero.
115. The value of acceleration due to gravity of the surface of the earth is.
Ans: 9.8 m/s2.
116. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles.
Ans: Is more than at the equator.
117. Weight of an object on the surface of the moon is.
Ans: 1/6 that on the surface of the earth.
118. The time of ascent when measured from the point of projection of a body projected upwards,
the.
Ans: Time of ascent=Time of descent.
119. The force which keeps the body to move in circular motion when accelerated is.
Ans: Centripetal force.
120. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called.
Ans: Thrust.
121. The weight of an object is:
Ans: Greater on earth and lesser on moon.
122. Work done by a body from Force-distance curve is.
Ans: Area under the curve.
123. A stone rubbed on a rough surface and placed on the skin will show heating sensation,
because.
Ans: Friction causes heat.
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124. On a rough surface a mass is (a) pulled,(b) pushed by a force acting at an angle with the
surface.
Ans: Pulling is easier.
125. When a spring is compressed work is done on it. Its elastic potential energy.
Ans: Decreases.
126. When force acts in opposite direction the work done is.
Ans: Negative.
127. When a body falls freely towards the earth then the total energy.
Ans: Remains constant.
128. Sound waves are.
Ans: Longitudinal in nature.
129. SI unit of frequency is.
Ans: Hertz.
130. Pitch of the wave is measured in terms of.
Ans: Frequency of the wave.
131. Speed of sound in vacuum is.
Ans: 340 m/s.
132. The time period of a simple pendulum in a spacecraft orbiting the earth is.
Ans: Infinity.
133. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish one sound from another having
the same pitch and loudness.
Ans: Timber.
134. In gases a sound wave is.
Ans: Both Transverse and Longitudinal.
135. The resultant of balanced forces is ________
Ans: Equal to zero.
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136. The physical quantity, which is the measure of inertia, is ________
Ans: Mass.
137. The sparks produced during sharpening of a knife against a grinding wheel leaves the rim of
the wheel tangentially. This is due to ________
Ans: Inertia of direction.
138. When a force of 1N acts on a mass of 1kg that is free to move, the object moves with.
Ans: an acceleration of 1 m/s2.
139. What is the force acting on an object of mass 10 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 10
m/s?
Ans: 0.
140. 1 newton = ________.
Ans: 1kgm/s2
141. The physical quantity, which is equal to change in momentum, is.
Ans: Impulse.
142. The two factors on which the momentum of a body depends are ______ and _________ .
Ans: Mass, Velocity.
143. The resultant of action and reaction forces is _______.
Ans: Greater than zero.
144. Coin placed in a bowl when seen from a place just disappears. When water is poured into the
bowl without disturbing the coin, the coin
Ans: Becomes visible again.
145. Nature of the image formed by a convex mirror is.
Ans: Virtual, erect, and diminished.
146. The power of a lens is -3.5D. The lens is
Ans: concave.
147. Formula to find the refractive index of a medium is
Ans: n=speed of light in the air/speed of light in the medium.
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148. In case of refraction through a glass slab
Ans: Incident ray is parallel to the emergent ray.
149. Mirror that can be chosen to view a tall building in a small mirror is
Ans: Convex mirror
150. Mirror formula is
Ans: 1/v+1/u =1/f
151. The mirror used by ENT specialists is
Ans: Concave mirror
152. A student obtained a blurred image of an illuminated distant tower on a screen by using a
convex lens
Ans: Away from the screen
153 An object AB is placed in front of a convex Lens at its principal focus the image will be
formed at _______.
Ans: Infinity
154 When an object moves closer to a concave lens, the Image formed by it shifts
Ans: Away from the lens
155 When a ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium which angle is greater
Ans: Angle of refraction
156. 30 electrons are flowing through a electric wire in a time of 3sec. Then the amount of current
flowing through the wire is
Ans: 1.6 X 10-18A
157. A current of 0.5A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. The amount of
electric charge flowing through the bulb is
Ans: 300C
158. The resistance of the wire when the length of the wire increases two times
Ans: Becomes 4 times
159. Resistance of the wire is given by
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Ans: R= V/I.
160. The resultant resistance when three resistances 2ohms, 4ohms, 5ohms, when connected in
series are
Ans: 11 ohms
161. Potential difference in a circuit in which components are connected in series
Ans: Gets divided across each component
162. Electric fuse is connected with:
Ans: parallel to the line wire
163. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors, when connected in series, the correct
way of connecting ammeter and voltmeter in the circuit is
Ans: Ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel
164. In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between 0 to 0.5 the least count of voltmeter is
Ans: 0.025.
165. SI unit of magnetic field strength is
Ans: Tesla
166. Inside the magnet the field lines run
Ans: From south to north
167. Strength of the magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is measured by
Ans: The number of lines crossing a given point
168. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is
Ans: same at all points
169. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit _____.
Ans: Increases heavily
170. Device used to test whether the current is flowing in a conductor or not is
Ans: Galvanometer
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171. The process of Inducing current in a coil of wire by placing it in a region of changing
magnetic field is
Ans: Electromagnetic induction
172. The frequency of power supply used in India is
Ans: 50Hz
173. Which of the following property of proton will change while it moves freely in a magnetic
field?
Ans: Velocity and momentum
174. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid is in the form of :
Ans: parallel straight lines
175. In case of Thermal power plant
Ans: Heat energy is converted into electrical energy
176. Tehri Dam is constructed on the river
Ans: Ganga
177. The largest wind energy farm is established in
Ans: Kanyakumari
178. The value of solar constant is
Ans: 1.4kW/m2
179. The device which converts solar energy into electricity is
Ans: Solar cell
180. More amount of heat energy can be produced in a solar cooker by using
Ans: A concave mirror
181. The working of atom bomb is based on the principle of
Ans: Release of energy in Nuclear fission
182. The energy from the hot water springs of the underground used to produce electrical energy
that is Geo-thermal energy is operational in
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Ans: New Zealand
183. What is the ultimate source of energy?
Ans: Sun.
184. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing
Ans: Dam.
185. The energy possessed by huge waves needed to generate electricity is:
Ans: Kinetic energy.
186. The most common material used for making solar cell is
Ans: Silicon
187. In alpha decay (α-decay) proton number of parent nucleus :
Ans: Decreases by 2
188. Times a proton is heavier than an electron is
Ans: 1836
189. In fission, mass of products is
Ans: less than original nucleus
190. Phenomenon in which radiations split matter in to ions is called
Ans: Ionization
191. Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is
Ans: Tracer.
192. Isotopes have same number of protons but different number of
Ans: neutrons
193. In beta decay nucleon number :
Ans: remains unchanged
194. Nucleons are collection of :
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Ans: protons and neutrons
195. Release of energy from sun is due to
Ans: nuclear fusion
197. Age of fossil when C-14: C-12 in bone is one fourth of ratio in bone of living animal and
half-life of C-14 is 5732 years is
Ans: 11460 years.
198. During second half-life original material is decayed :
Ans: Three quarter
199. Radiation emitted from uranium salt has ability to
Ans: Ionize the gas
200. Nuclei bombarded with protons, neutron or alpha particles are changed to
Ans: Radioisotopes
201. Alpha (α) particles are helium (He) nucleus with a charge of
Ans: 2e.
202. Radiation that causes redness and sores on skin is
Ans: Beta and gamma.
201. Mass doesn't stop at mean position due to
Ans: Inertia Answer A
202. In SHM of a simple pendulum, component of weight which is directed towards mean
position is
Ans: mg sinθ
203. Expression for Hooke's law is
Ans: F = -kx
Answer B
204. If waves are reflected back in first medium after falling on second medium then angle of
reflection and angle of incidence are
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Ans: equal
Answer A
205. If time period of simple pendulum is 2 s then its length is
Ans: 1.02m.
206. Characteristic of wave independent of others is :
Ans: Amplitude
207 If length of simple pendulum is doubled then its time period will be
Ans: 2.8π√(l⁄g)
208. If mass of bob is increased 3 times then it's time period
Ans: remains same
209. Maximum displacement of a body from its mean position is
Ans: amplitude
210. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have same :
Ans: Speed.
211. Motion of particles about their mean position in regular intervals of time is called
Ans: Wave
212. Velocity of bob in SHM becomes zero at
Ans: Extreme position
213. Velocity of wave with frequency 4Hz and wavelength 0.4m is
Ans: 1.6ms-1
214. Number of vibrations of a body in one sec is called
Ans: Frequency
215. Waves which doesn't require any medium for their propagation are
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Ans: Electromagnetic
216. Restoring force pushes or pulls oscillatory object
Ans: Towards mean position
217. If potential energies and kinetic energies are equal then displacement of an object in SHM is
Ans: 0
218. Kinetic energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is
Ans: Zero
219. Potential energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is
Ans: Maximum.
220. Least count of digital stopwatch is
Ans: 0.01 s
221. Least count of Vernier calipers is
Ans: 0.01 cm
222. Least count of physical balance is
Ans: 0.01 g
223. Least count of ruler is
Ans: 1 mm.
224. Flying speed of a falcon is
Ans: 200 kmh-1
225. Velocity with which a paratrooper comes to ground is called.
Ans: Translational motion.
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CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following is hydrogen bonded molecular crystal?
a) HCl
b) H2
c) CH4
d) ice
Ans: d)
2. Ice has three dimensional crystal structure in which _______ of total volume is unoccupied.
a) one half
b) one third
c) one fourth
d) one fifth
Ans: a))
3. Crystals which are good conductor of electricity and heat are known as _______ crystals.
a) ionic
b) covalent
c) metallic
d) molecular
Ans: c)
4. Which of the following is an example of metallic crystal solid?
a) C
b) Si
c) W
d) AgCl
Ans: c)
5. The number of lattice points in a face-centered tetragonal crystal is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 6
d) 14
Ans: d)
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6. Solid ‘A’ is very hard, electrical insulator in solid as well as in molten state and melts at
extremely high temperature, ‘A’ is?
a) NaCl
b) graphite
c) diamond
d) iodine
Ans: c)
7. Graphite is a _______.
a) molecular solid
b) covalent solid
c) ionic solid
d) metallic solid
Ans: b)
8. Due to Frenkel defect, the density of the ionic solid
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first increases, then decreases
Ans: c)
9. The number of atoms per unit cell in a bcc lattice is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b)
10. The total number of three dimensional primitive unit cells in crystals is equal to
a) 7
b) 14
c) 4
d) 10
Ans: a))
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11. Solids which do not show the same physical properties in different directions are called
a) pseudo solids
b) isotropic solids
c) polymorphic solids
d) anisotropic solids
Ans: d)
12. The one which is not an ionic solid
a) rock salt
b) zinc blend
c) fluorite
d) quartz
Ans: d)
13. Giant molecule among the following is
a) ice
b) sodium chloride
c) rhombic sulphur
d) graphite
Ans: d)
14. If a liquid is dispersed in solid medium, this is called
a) sol
b) emulsion
c) liquid aerosol
d) gel
Ans: d)
15. Which one of the following impurities present in colloidal solution cannot be remove by
electro dialysis?
a) sodium
b) potassium sulphate
c) urea
d) calcium chloride
Ans: b)
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16. The basic principle of Cottrell’s precipitator is
a) Le-Chatelir’s principle
b) peptisation
c) neutralization of charge of colloidal particles
d) scattering of light
Ans: c)
17. Which of the following is not correct?
a) milk is a naturally occuring emulsion
b) gold sol is a lyophilic sol
c) physical adsorption decreases with rise in temperature
d) chemical adsorption is unilayered
Ans: b)
18. The disperse phase, dispersion medium and nature of colloidal solution (lyophilic or
lyophobic) of ‘gold sol’ respectively are
a) solid, solid, lyophobic
b) liquid, liquid, lyophobic
c) solid, liquid, lyophobic
d) solid, liquid, lyophilic
Ans: c)
19. Which one of the following methods, does not give the sol?
a) electrophoresis
b) peptization
c) electrodispersion
d) solvent exchange
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Ans: a))
20. Which of the following is not an emulsion?
a) butter
b) aerosol
c) milk
d) clouds
Ans: d)
21. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as
a) foam
c) sol
b) aerosol
d) emulsion
Ans: a))
22. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid depends on
a) nature of the gas
b) pressure of the gas
c) temperature
d) all of these
Ans: d)
23.Which of the following can act as adsorbent?
a) metals
b) silica gel
c) colloids
d) all of these
Ans: d)
24. Dyeing of fiber involves the process of
a)adsorption
b) absorption
c) sorption
d) all of these
Ans: d)
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25. In adsorption of oxalic acid on charcoal is called as
a) adsorbent
b) adsorbate
c) adsorber
d) none of these
Ans: a))
26. In adsorption of acetic acid on charcoal, acetic acid is called
a) adsorption
b) absorber
c) adsorbent
d) adsorbate
Ans: d)
27. If the concentration of the adsorbate in the bulk is more than that in the surface, it is called
a) +ve adsorption
b) –ve adsorption
c) desorption
d) none
Ans: b)
28. Which statement is correct
a) physical adsorption is multilayer and non-specific
b) chemical adsorption is unilayer
c) chemical adsorption is more stronger than physical adsorption
d) all of these
Ans: d)
29. A catalyst in the finely divided form is most effective because
a) less surface area available
b) more active centres are formed
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c) more energy get stored in catalyst
d) none of the above
Ans: b)
30. Which is a poison for Pd in Lindlar’s catalyst?
a) H2SO4
b) CaCO3
c) Ni
d) all of these
Ans: b)
31. Negative catalyst or inhibitor for the oxidation of chloroform is
a) H2O
c) glycerol
b) C2H5OH
d) H2SO4
Ans: b)
32. A naturally occurring substance from which a metal can be profitably extracted is known as
a) mineral
b) gangue
c) ore
d) flux
Ans: c)
33. Iron is extracted from
a) magnesite
b) magnetite
c) iron pyrites
d) cerrusite
Ans: c)
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34. Argentite is a mineral of
a) Au
b) Cu
c) Mn
d) Ag
Ans: d)
35. Concentration of ores is done by
a) hydraulic washing
b) electromagnetic separation
c) froth floatation
d) leaching
e) all of these
Ans: e)
36. An ore of tin containing FeCr2O4 is concentrated by
a) magnetic separation
b) froth floatation
c) electrostatic method
d) gravity separation
Ans: a))
37. The ores that are concentrated by floatation method are
a) carbonates
b) sulphides
c) oxides
d) phosphates
Ans: b)
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38. Stabilizers are compounds added to floatation tanks to stabilize the froth:
Example for stabilizers are
a) cresol
b) aniline
c) sodium cyanide
d) all
e) all except c
Ans: e)
39. Leaching of alumina from bauxite is done by
a) air
b) NaOH
c) NaCl
d) HCl
e) KCN
Ans: b)
40. Leaching is done for
a) Al
b) Au
c) Ag
d) all the above
e) only b and c
Ans: d)
41. In the metallurgy of silver and gold, leaching is done with a solution of
a) NaOH
b) NaCN
c) KCN
d) pine oil
e) both b and c
Ans: e)
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42. The main function of roasting is
a) to remove volatile matter
b) oxidation
c) reduction
d) to make slag
Ans: b)
43. Which one of the following metals is extracted by thermal reduction process?
a) copper
b) iron
c) aluminum
d) magnesium
Ans: b)
44. Neutral refractory material used in furnaces is
a) graphite
b) CaO
c) SiO2
d) MgO
Ans: a))
45. In the manufacture of iron from hematite, limestone is added to act as
a) an oxidizing agent
b) a reducing agent
c) flux
d) slag
Ans: c)
46. In blast furnace iron oxide is reduced mainly by
a) carbon
b) silica
c) carbon monoxide
d) lime stone
Ans: c)
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47. The flux usually used to remove acidic impurities in metallurgical processes is
a) silica
b) lime stone
c) sodium chloride
d) potassium chloride
Ans: b)
48. Which of the following metal is obtained by self reduction?
a) silver
b) copper
c) nickel
d) lithium
Ans: b)
49. Blast furnace is usually employed for carrying out the metallurgical process known as
a) smelting
b) cupellation
c) roasting
d) calcination
Ans: a))
50. Gold is extracted using
a) amalgamation process
b) carbon reduction process
c) oxidation process
d) electrolytic process
Ans: a))
51. The approximate amount of carbon(in kg) which is burnt in the anode for each kg of
aluminum produced, in the Hall-Heroult process is
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
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d) 2.5
Ans: a))
52. In electro-refining the impure metal is made
a) anode
b) cathode
c) electrolyte
d) all
Ans: a))
53. Nickel is refined by the thermal decomposition of its
a) carbonate
b) oxide
c) carbonyl
d) sulphide
Ans: c)
54. The distillation method is used for the purification of
a) zinc
b) mercury
c) iron
d) both a and b
Ans: b)
55. Low melting metal like tin can be made to flow on a sloping surface and can be separated. This
method is known as
a) distillation
b) liquation
c) vapor phase refining d) zone refining
Ans: b)
56. Vapor phase refining includes
a) Van Arkel process
b) Mond’s process
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c) both a and b
d) only a
Ans: c)
57. Chrome steel is generally used for making
a) cutting tools
b) crushing machines
c) utensils
d) both a and b
Ans: d)
58. The purest form of iron is
a) wrought iron
b) spongy iron
c) pig iron
d) steel
Ans: b)
59. Baeyer’s process is used for purification of bauxite containing _______ as impurity
a) silica
b) rutile
c) Fe2O3
d) fluoride
Ans: c)
60. Copper used in several alloys, the correct combination/s
a) brass with zinc
b) bronze with tin
c) coinage alloy with nickel
d) all
Ans: d)
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61. Copper metal is refined by
a) liquation
b) cupellation
c) bessemerisation
d) poling
Ans: d)
62. The phenomenon of removing layers of basic oxides from metal surfaces before electroplating
is called
a) galvanizing
b) anodizing
c) pickling
d) poling
Ans: c)
63. Thermodynamically most stable state of carbon is?
a) diamond
b) charcoal
c) graphite
d) all
Ans: c)
64. Bleaching action of chlorine is due to
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) disproportionation
d) decomposition
e) rearrangement
Ans: a))
65. Which is thermally most stable?
a) IF
b) BrI
c) ClF
d) ICl
e) IBr
Ans: a))
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66. Interhalogen compounds
a) are less reactive than halogens
b) are as reactive as halogens
c) have negligible reactivity
d) more reactive than halogen(except fluorine)
Ans: d)
67. Poisonous gas obtained from chlorine
a) phosgene
b) mustard gas
c) tear gas
d) all
Ans: d)
68. Noble gases associated with minerals of radioactive origin are
a) He and Ar
b) Ar and Ne
c) He and Ne
d) Ar and Xe
e) Kr and Ar
Ans: c)
69. Which can diffuse through glass, rubber and plastics?
a) He
b) Ne
c) Kr
d) Ar
e) Xe
Ans: a))
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70. Which will not form compounds?
a) He
b) Ne
c) Ar
d) all
e) a and b
Ans: d)
71. Use of helium
a) in nuclear reactor
b) as cryogenic agent
c) for meteorological observation
d) to sustain powerful superconducting magnet
e) all
Ans: e)
72. Helium is used in diving apparatus because of its
a) very low solubility in blood
b) high solubility in blood
c) low density
d) a and c
Ans: a))
73. Air sensitive substances are handled in an atmosphere of
a) He
b) Ne
c) Ar
d) Kr
Ans: c)
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74. In the clathrates of xenon with water the nature of bonding between xenon and water molecule
is
a) covalent
b) hydrogen bonding
c) co-ordinate
d) dipole induced dipole interaction
Ans: d)
75. In the solid state, argon atoms are held by
a) ionic bonds
b) covalent bonds
c) hydrogen bonds
d) Van der Waals forces
Ans: d)
76. When conc.H2SO4 comes in contact with sugar, the sugar becomes black due to?
a) hydrolysis
b) hydration
c) decolourisation
d) dehydration
Ans: d)
77. Aqueous solution of ammonium chloride reacts with sodium nitrate to form
a) NaCl
b) N2
c) Cl2
d) a and b
e) a and c
Ans: d)
78. The characteristic part of oxoacids of phosphorous responsible for the reducing properties
a) O-H bond
b) P-O bond
c) P-H bond
d) P=O
e) O=O
Ans: c)
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79. The hydrolysis product of BrF5
a) HF
b) HOBr
c) HBrO3
d) a and b
e) a and c
Ans: d)
80. Hydrolysis of XeF4
a) XeO3
b) XeO2
c) XeOF2
d) Xe
e) both a and d
Ans: e)
81. Cryogenic reactions are conducted in presence of
a) liquid NH3
b) ice
c) liquid helium
d) dry ice
Ans: c)
82. The number of molecules of water needed to convert one molecule of P2O5 into orthophosphoric acid is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b)
83. SO2 is used
a) for refining of petroleum
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b) for bleaching of wool
c) as an antichlor
d) all the above
e) b and c
Ans: a))
84. Transition elements belong to
a) s-block
b) p-block
c) d-block
d) none
Ans: c)
85. The first transition element is
a) Cr
b) Sc
c) Ni
d) Cd
Ans: b)
86. Which of the following does not belong to 3d series?
a) Ni
b) Co
c) Cr
d) Cd
Ans: d)
87. Which of the following metals has the highest melting point?
a) Pt
b) W
c) Pd
d) Au
Ans: b)
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88. Which of the metals has the lowest melting point?
a) Au
b) Ag
c) Cu
d) Mn
Ans: b)
89. Of the elements of 3d series , the element with the highest first ionization enthalpy is
a) Cr
b) Mn
c) Fe
d) Zn
Ans: d)
90. Transition metals are colored due to
a) small size
b) metallic nature
c) unpaired electrons
d) none
Ans: c)
91. A metal ion from the first transition series has a magnetic moment calculated at 2.83 BM.
How many unpaired electrons are expected to be present in the ion?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b)
92. A metal in the transition series exhibit an oxidation state of +1 very frequently is
a) Ni
b) Co
c) Cu
d) Ag
Ans: d)
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93. In which state, the compounds of vanadium are diamagnetic?
a) V(IV)
b) V(V)
c) V(III)
d) V(II)
Ans: b)
94. Which of the following forms a stable +4 oxidation state?
a) La(Z=57)
b) Gd(Z=64)
c) Eu(Z=63)
d) Ce(Z=58)
Ans: d)
95. Which of the transition metal exhibits the highest oxidation state?
a) Pb
b) Os
c) Cr
d) Mn
Ans: b)
96. The principle oxidation state of lanthanides is?
a) +3
b) +2
c) +4
d) 0
Ans: a))
97. Highest (+7) oxidation state is shown by?
a) Co
b) Cr
c) V
d) Mn
Ans: d)
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98. A highly useful lanthanide metal is
a) cerium
b) lanthanium
c) neodymium
d) luticium
Ans: a))
99. In the first transition series, highest oxidation state is exhibited by
a) Mn
b) Ni
c) Fe
d) Cr
Ans: a))
100. The oxidation state of transition elements is influenced by the nature of the combing atom.
Vanadium is expected to show the highest oxidation state when it combines with
a) O and F
b) F and Cl
c) Br and I
d) O and Cl
Ans: a))
101. An acidified solution of KMnO4oxidises
a) sulphates and perdisulphates
b) sulphites and sulphates
c) nitrates and nitrites
d) all the above
Ans: b)
102. A stable oxidation state of +4 is shown by
a) La
b) Sm
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d) Ce
Ans: d)
103. Among the lanthanides, the one obtained by synthetic method is
a) Lu
b) Pt
c) Pm
d) Gd
Ans: c)
104. As the atomic number increases, the ionic radii of tripositive lanthanides ions
a) decreases
b) increases
c) first increases, then decreases
d) first decreases, then increases
Ans: a))
105. The lanthanide contraction relates to
a) the reduction in number of valence electrons
b) decrease in ionic radii
c) decrease in densities
d) all the above
Ans: b)
106. Across the lanthanide series, the basicity of the lanthanide hydroxides
a) increases
b) decreases
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c) increases then decreases
d)first decreases then increases
Ans: b)
107. Which of the following element involves gradual filling of 5f level?
a) lanthanides
b) actinides
c) transition metals
d) coinage metal
Ans: b)
108. The electronic configuration of actinides cannot be assigned with high degree of certainity
because of
a) small energy difference between 5f and 6d levels
b) overlapping of inner orbitals
c) free movement of electrons over all the orbitals
d) none of these
Ans: a))
109. Transuranic elements are the elements of actinide series, which follows
a) cerium
b) neptunium
c) plutonium
d) uranium
Ans: d)
110. An alloy of a transition metal with a non-transition metal is
a) bronze
b) solder
c) 22ct gold
d) all the above
Ans: a))
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111. The color of Sc3+(aq) ion is
a) green
b) orange
c) yellow
d) colorless
Ans: d)
112. The reaction between permanganate and manganese dioxide is catalysed by
a) copper sulphate
b) zinc sulphate
c) ferrous nitrate
d) cobalt chloride
Ans: b)
113. Which one the following characteristics of the transition metal are associated with their
catalytic activity?
a) high enthalpy of atomization
b) paramagnetic behavior
c) color of hydrated ion
d) variable oxidation states
Ans: d)
114. KMnO4 when heated at 513K gives
a) K2MnO4
b) MnO2
c) O2
d) all
Ans: d)
115. KMnO4 crystals are isostructural with
a) KClO
b) KClO4
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d) KCl
Ans: b)
116. A non-ferromagnetic compound among the following is
a) CrO2
b) Cr2O3
c) Fe2O3
d) Fe3O4
Ans: a))
117. The reaction of hydrogen bromide with propene in absence of peroxide is an example of a/an
a) free radical addition b) nucleophilic addition
c) electrophilic substitution
d) electrophilic addition
Ans: d)
118. When hydrochloric acid gas is treated with propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives
a) 2-Chloropropane
b) Allyl chloride
c) No reaction
d) n-Propyl chloride
Ans: a))
119. Addition of HBr gives same product in the presence or absence of peroxide when alkene is
a) 1-butene
b) 2-methylpropene
c) propene
d) 2-butene
Ans: d)
120. A compound is formed by substitution of two chlorine for two hydrogens in propane. The
number of possible isomeric compounds is
a) 4
b) 3
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d) 2
Ans: c)
121. Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesized in the laboratory
a) by heating phenol with HF and KF
b) from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF4
c) by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas
d) by reacting bromobenzenewith NaF solution
Ans: b)
122. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400oC, which of the following is formed
a) PVC
b) Allyl chloride
c) Vinyl chloride
d) 1, 2-Dichloroethane
Ans: b)
123. Which of the following possesses highest melting point?
a) Chlorobenzene
b) o-Dichlorobenzene
c) m-Dichlorobenzene
d) p-Dichlorobenzene
Ans: d)
124. Among the following the strongest nucleophile is
a) C2H5SH
b) CH3COO-
c) CH3NH2
d) NCCH2-
Ans: a))
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125. Which of the following events does not occur during SN2 reaction mechanism?
a) back side attack of nucleophile
b) formation of carbonium ion
c) one step continuous process
d) 100% inversion of configuration
Ans: b)
126. Which of the following is not chiral?
a) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
b) 2-Butanol
c) 2, 3-Dibromobutane
d) 3-Bromopentane
Ans: d)
127. Chlorobenzene on treatment with sodium in dry ether gives diphenyl. The name of the
reaction is
a) Fittig reaction
b) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
c) Sandmeyer reaction
d) Gatterman reaction
e) Wurtz reaction
Ans: a))
128. In one step ethyne can be obtained from
a) ethanol
b) ethanol
c) chloroform
d) ethyl bromide
Ans: c)
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129. The general molecular formula which represents the homologous series of alkanol is
a) CnH2n+2O
b) CnH2nO2
c) CnH2nO
d) CnH2n+1O
Ans: a))
130. Benzylamine reacts with nitrous acid to form
a) azobenzene
b) benzene
c) benzyl alcohol
d) phenol
Ans: c)
131. Phenol reacts with bromine in CS2 to give
a) o-bromophenol
b) m-bromophenol
c) o- and p-bromophenol
d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
Ans: c)
132. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with
a) ethanol
b) methanol
c) 2-propanol
d) 2-methyl-2-propanol
Ans: d)
133. When ethanol is heated with HI an red phosphorous, it gives
a) ethyl iodide
b) ethane
c) ethylene
d) ether
Ans: b)
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134. Products obtained when HI reacts with isopropyl methyl ether at 373K are
a) isopropyl iodide and methyl alcohol
b) isopropyl alcohol and methyl iodide
c) isopropyl iodide and water
d) methyl iodide and water
Ans: b)
135. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
b) dipolar character of ethers
c) alcohols having resonance structures
d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
Ans: a))
136. When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting
compound is
a) acetophenone
b) benzaldehyde
c) benzophenone
d) acetaldehyde
Ans: a))
137. The formation of cyanohydrins from acetone is which type of reaction
a) electrophilic substitution
b) electrophilic addition
c) nucleophilic addition
d) nucleophilic substitution
Ans: c)
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138. Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and Fehling’s test?
a) ethanol
b) propanone
c) ethanol
d) methanol
Ans: a))
139. The chemical that undergoes self-oxidation and self-reduction in the same reaction
a) benzyl alcohol
b) acetone
c) formaldehyde
d) acetic acid
Ans: c)
140. The compound that undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
a) formaldehyde
b) acetaldehyde
c) benzaldehyde
d) trimethylacetaldehyde
Ans: b)
141. Methyl ketones are characterized through
a) Tollen’s reagent
b) iodoform test
c) Schiff’s reagent
d) Fehling’s solution
Ans: b)
142. A drug classification not based on pharmacological effect is
a) analgesics
b) antipyretics
c) antiseptics
d) antihistamines
Ans: d)
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143. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
a) agonists
b) antagonists
c) messenger inhibitors
d) receptor poisons
Ans: b)
144. Aspirin is effective against
a) fever
b) body pain
c) the onset of heart attacks
d) all of these
Ans: d)
145. Diacetyl morphine is known as
a) codeine
b) thebaine
c) heroin
d) quinine
Ans: c)
146. Substances used for the treatment of mental diseases are known as
a) anti-inflammatory drugs
b) tranquilizers
c) psychedelic drugs
d) hallucinogens
Ans: b)
147. A narcotic drug often used in cough syrup preparations is
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a) morphine
b) quinine
c) codeine
d) reserpine
Ans: c)
148. Typhoid is best treated with the antibiotic
a) penicillin
b) phenacetin
c) choloromycetin
d) streptomycin
Ans: c)
149. Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soap in _______ as solvent and the evaporating off
the solvent
a) propanol
b) water
c) ethanol
d) isobutanol
Ans: c)
150. The number of moles of solute present in 1kg of a solvent is called its
a) molality
b) molarity
c) normality
d) formality
Ans: a))
151. The most electronegative element among the following is
a) sodium
b) fluorine
c) bromine
d) oxygen
Ans: b)
152. The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is
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a) Na
b) Hg
c) Ag
d) Fe
Ans: d)
153.Th metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called
a) smelting
b) roasting
c) calcinations
d) froth floatation
Ans: a))
154. The law which states that the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure is
a) Dalton's law
c) Henry's law
b) Gay Lussac's law
d) Raoult's law
Ans: c)
155. The gas present in the stratosphere which filters out some of the sun's ultra violet light and
provides an effective shield against radiation damage to living things is
a) He
b) Ozone
c) O2
d) Methane
Ans: b)
156. The most commonly used bleaching agent is
a) alcohol
b) carbon dioxide
c) chlorine
d) sodium chloride
Ans: c)
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157. The nucleus of a hydrogen atom consists of
a) 1 proton only
b) 1 proton + 2 neutrons
c) 1 neutron only
d) 1 electron only
Ans: a))
158. The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1K is called
a) specific heat
c) water equivalent
b) thermal capacity
d) none of the above
Ans: b)
159. The nuclear particles which are assumed to hold the nucleons together are
a) electrons
b) positrons
c) neutrons
d) mesons
Ans: d)
160. The octane number of zero is assigned to
a) 2-methyl octane
b) n-heptane
c) iso-octane
d) 3-methyl octane
Ans: b)
161. The metal that is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils is
a) Ni
b) Cu
c) Pb
d) Pt
Ans: a)
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162. The most abundant rare gas in the atmosphere is
a) He
b) Ar
c) Ne
d) Xe
Ans: b)
163. The ore which is found in abundance in India is
a) monazite
b) fluorspar
c) bauxite
d) magnetite
Ans: a))
164. The inherited traits of an organism are controlled by
a) RNA molecules
b) nucleotides
c) enzymes
d) DNA molecules
Ans: d)
165. The heat energy produced when the human body metabolizes 1 gram of fat is
a) 30 kJ
b) 1 kJ
c) 39 kJ
d) 29 kJ
Ans: c)
166. What is the number of moles of CO2 which contains 16g of Oxygen?
a) 0.5 mole
b) 0.4 mole
c) 0.2 mole
d) 0.25 mole
Ans: a))
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167. The monomer of polythene is
a) vinyl chloride
c) ethyl alcohol
b) ethylene
d) none of the above
Ans: b)
168. The luster of a metal is due to its
a) high density
b) high polishing
c) chemical inertness
d) presence of free electrons
Ans: d)
169. The most malleable metal is
a) Platinum
b) Silver
c) iron
d) gold
Ans: d)
170. The oil used in the froth floatation process is
a) coconut oil
b) olive oil
c) kerosene oil
d) pine oil
Ans: d)
171. The gas used in the manufacture of Vanaspati from vegetable oil is
a) hydrogen
b) oxygen
c) nitrogen
d) carbon dioxide
Ans: a))
172. The items amenable to detection by soft x-rays are
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a) contrabands
b) lead in bullets
c) narcotics
d) genuine coins from counterfeit coins
Ans: d)
173. The material which can be deformed permanently by heat and pressure is called a
a) thermoplastic
b) thermoset
c) chemical compound
d) polymer
Ans: b)
174. In 2-methyl-3-phenyl prop-2-en-ol,the –OH group is attached to
a)aryl carbon
c)allylic carbon
b)vinyl carbon
d)benzylic carbon
Ans: c)
175. The carbon – oxygen bond length is least in
a)H3C-O-H
b)C6H5-OH
c)CH3-O-CH3
d)C6H5-CH2-OH
e)CH2=CH-CH2OH
Ans: b)
176. The reaction between C2H5MgBr and a carbonyl compound A produces an alcohol which
does not give turbidity with Lucas reagent at room temperature. A is
a)ethanol
b)methanol
c)propanone
d)benzaldehyde
e)acetophenone
Ans: b)
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177. During oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde, which of the following takes place?
1)cleavage of C-H bond
2)cleavage of O-H bond
3)cleavage of C-O bond
4)formation of C=O bond
a)1 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1,2 and 4
e) 2,3 and 4
Ans: d)
178. The suitable reagent to convert a primary alcohol to corresponding aldehyde is
a)KMnO4
b)K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
c)P.C.C
d)con.HNO3
e)conc.H2SO4
Ans: c)
179. In Kolbe’s reaction, phenol is converted to phenoxide ion before treating with CO2 because
1)C6H5O,more reactive than phenol
2)C6H5O,less reactive than phenol
3)CO2 is a strong electrophile
4)CO2 is a weak electrophile
5)CO2 is acidic
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a)1 and 3
b)1and 4
c)2 and 3
d)2 and 4
e)5 only
Ans: b)
180. The enzyme which converts to alcohol is
a)carboxy peptidase
b)invertase
c)zymase
d)maltase
e)diastase
Ans: c)
181. Consider 3 alcohols A,B and C.A and B gives iodoform reaction while A and C gives an
aldehyde when passed over hot Cu .A,B and C are respectively
a)n-propanol,ethanol,isopropanol
b)isopropanol,n-propanol,ethanol
c)n-propanol,isopropanol,ethanol
d)ethanol,isopropanol,n-propanol
e)ethanol,n-propanol,isopropanol
Ans: d)
182. Which is not correct regarding phenol?
A) it is a weak acid
b) gives H2 with metallic sodium
c) soluble in aqueous Na2CO3
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d) inhalogenations,no Lewis acid is required
e) gives white precipitate with Br2 in polar solvent
Ans: c)
183. Which of the following cannot be used to distinguish phenol from ethanol?
a)FeCl3
b)Lucas reagent
c)NaOH
d)NaOH/I2
e)metallic Na
Ans: e)
184. Products obtained when benzyl phenyl ether is heated with HI in the molar ratio 1:1 are
(1)phenol
(2)benzyl alcohol
(3)benzyl iodide
(4)iodobenzene
a)1 and 2
b)1 and 3
c)2 and 3
d)2 and 4
e)1 and 4
Ans: b)
185. Which of the following alcohols gives the best yield of dialkyl ether on being heated with
H2SO4?
a)2-pentanol
b)cyclopentanol
c)2-methyl -2-butanol
d)2-propanol
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e)1-pentanol
Ans: e)
186. Phenol can be converted to o-hydroxybenzaldehyde by treating with
a)NaOH,CO2
b)NaOH,CHCl3
c)NaOH,CCl4
d)Zn dust
e)Na2Cr2O7,H2SO4
Ans: b)
187. Reaction between butanone and methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives
a) butanol-2
b) pentanol-2
c) 2,2-dimethyl butanol-1
d) 3-methyl butanol-2
e) 2-methyl butanol -1
Ans: e)
188. Which of the following is not cleaved by HI?
a) dicyclohexyl ether
b) phenetole
c) ditertiarybutyl ether
d) diphenyl ether
e) diethyl ether
Ans: d)
189. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of
a) electrophillic addition
b) electrophillic substitution
c) nucleophilic addition
d) nucleophillic substitution
e) free radical substitution
Ans: d)
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190. Which is not a polymer?
a) Sucrose
b) Enzyme
c) Starch
d) Teflon
Ans: a))
191. Which is not a macromolecule?
a) DNA
b) Starch
c) Palmitate
d) Insulin
Ans: c)
192. Which polymers occur naturally?
a) Starch and Nylon
b) Starch and Cellulose
c) Proteins and Nylon
d) Proteins and PVC
Ans: b)
193. Which of the following is a semi-synthetic polymer?
a) Starch
b) Natural rubber
c) Cellulose acetate
d) Polystyrene
Ans: c)
194. Rayon is
a) Natural silk
b) Artificial silk
c) Natural rubber
d) Synthetic plastic
Ans: b)
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195. Natural silk is a
a) Polypeptide
b) Polysaccharide
c) Polyvinyl chloride
d) Polyacrylonitrile
Ans: a))
196. Which of the following is a polyamide?
a) Teflon
b) Nylon-6,6
c) Terylene
d) Bakelite
Ans: b)
197. Which of the following is not a biopolymer?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleic acids
c) Cellulose
d) Neoprene
Ans: d)
198. Amongst the following, a homopolymer is
a) PMMA
b) Bakelite
c) Glyptal
d) Dacron
Ans: a))
199. Which of the following is a linear polymer?
a) Nylon
b) Bakelite
c) Alkyd resin
d) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer
Ans: a))
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200. The monomeric unit of orlon molecule is
a) CH2=CH–Cl
b) CH3COO–CH=CH2
c) CH2=CH‒CN
d) C6H5‒CH=CH2
Ans: c)
201. Plexiglass is the commercial name of
a) Glyptal
b) Polyacrylonitrile
c) Polymethyl methacrylate
d) Polyethyl acrylate
Ans: c)
202. Natural rubber is
a) polyvinyl chloride
b) cis-polyisoprene
c) trans-polyisoprene
d) polychloroprene
Ans: b)
203. A polymer which has better light transmission properties than even glass is
a) Perspex
b) Bakelite
c) buna-S
d) poly(ethyl acrylate)
Ans: a))
204. Which of the following polymers can be used for lubrication and as an insulator?
a) SBR
b) PVC
c) PTFE
d) PAN
Ans: c)
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205. Soft drinks and baby feeding bottles are generally made up of
a) Polyester
b) polyurethane
c) Polyamide
d) polystyrene
Ans: d)
206. Bakelite is a polymer of
a) benzaldehyde and phenol
b) formaldehyde and phenol
c) formaldehyde and benzyl alcohol
d) acetaldehyde and phenol
Ans: b)
207. The monomer/s of nylon 6 is/are
a) caprolactam
b) adipic acid
c)adipic acid and phthalic acid
d) glycine and glycerol
Ans: a))
208. Which of the following is currently used as a tyre cord?
a) terylene
b) polypropylene
c) Bakelite
d) Nylon-6
Ans: d)
209. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a) Cellulose
b) Polythene
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c) Polyvinyl chloride
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d) Nylon-6
Ans: a))
210. Artificial silk is a
a) polyester
b) polyamide
c) polysaccharide
d) polyethene
Ans: c)
211. Thermoplastics are
a) linear polymers
b) soften or melt on heating
c) molten polymer can be molded in desired shape
d) All the above is correct
Ans: d)
212. Which are true for elastomers?
a) They possess elasticity
b) They possess weak intermolecular forces of attraction between polymer chains
c) Vulcanized rubber is an example of elastomer
d) all are correct
Ans: d)
213. Low density polymer is prepared by
a) Free radical polymerization
b) cationic polymerization
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c) anionic polymerization
d) Ziegler-Natta polymerization
Ans: a))
214. The best way to prepare polyisobutylene is
a) coordination polymer
b) free radical polymerization
c) cationic polymerization
d) anionic polymerization
Ans: c)
215. A polymer which is used as a suture, i.e., for stitching of wounds after operations is
a) PHBV
b) Nylon-2-Nylon-6
c) Dextron
d) Dacron
Ans: b)
216. For the reaction A to B, when the concentration of A is increased by four times, the rate is
doubled. The order of the reaction is
a) 1/2
b)1/4
c) 1/8
d)1
Ans: a))
217. A zero order reaction is one whose rate is independent of
a) temperature of the reaction
b) concentration of the reactants
c) concentration of the products
d) material of the vessel in which reaction is carried out
Ans: b)
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218. Graph showing the variation of concentration of reactant with time for a zero order reaction
is
a) straight line parallel to time axis
b) straight line parallel to concentration axis
c) straight line with positive slope
d) straight line with negative slope
Ans: d)
219. The rate constant of first order reactions would depend on
a) temperature
b) concentration of reactant
c) nature of reactant
d) both a and c
Ans: d)
220. The unit of rate constant for zero order reaction is
a) liter per second
b) liter per mole second
c) mole per liter second
d) mole per second
Ans: c)
221. The rate of a gas phase reaction is halved when the volume of the vessel is doubled. The order
of the reaction is
a) 1
b) ½
c)1/4
d) 1/8
Ans: a))
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222. If the initial concentration of reactants in a certain reaction is doubled, the half life period of
the reaction doubles. The order of the reaction is
a) zero
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Ans: a))
223. What are the most diverse molecules in the cell?
a)lipids
b)proteins
c)carbohydrates
d)mineral salts
Ans: b)
224. Which of the following in a reducing sugar?
a)sucrose
b) galactose
c) methylgalactocidas
c) gluconic acid
Ans: b)
225. The four elements the make up 99% of all elements found in a living system are
a)C,H,O,P
c)C,H,O,S
c) C,H,O,N
d)C,N,O,P
Ans: c)
226. Glycogen is a polymer of
a)galactose
b)glucose
c)fructose
d)sucrose
Ans: b)
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227. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by
a) all bacteria, fungi, algae
b) viruses, fungi, bacteria
c) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
d) fungi, algae and green plants cells
Ans: c)
228. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
a) alanine
b) glycine
c) asparagines
d) tyrosine
Ans. b)
229. Which is wrong about nucleic acids?
a) DNA is single stranded in some viruses
b) one turn of Z DNA has 12 bases
c) RNA is double stranded occasionally
d) length of one helix is 45 degree in B-DNA
Ans: d)
230. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases, the total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is
a) 480
b) 240
c) 120
d) 60
Ans: a)
231. Minerals associated with cytochrome is
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a) Cu
b) Mg
c) Fe
d) Cu and Ag
Ans: c
232.Baeyer's reagent is
a)
Alkaline KMnO4
b)
c)
Ammonical CuSO4
d)
Amm. AgNO3
CaSO4Ca(OH)2
Ans: a)
233. Which of the following is produced when formldehyde and ammonia react?
a)
Formaline
c)
Urotropine
b)
d)
Formaldimine
Hexamethylenetriamine
Ans: c)
234. Which of the following compounds will react with ethanolic KCN?
a)
Ethane
b) Acetone
c)
Chlorobenzene
d) Benzaldehyde
Ans: d)
235. Aldehydes and ketone can be distinguished by
a)
Bromoform
c)
Tollen's test
b) Solubility in water
d)
Molisch’s test
Ans: c)
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236. Formalin is an aqueous solution of
a)
Furfural
b)
Fluorescein
c)
Formaldehyde d)
Formic acid
Ans: c)
237. Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment ?
a)
CH3F
b)
CH3Cl
c)
CH3Br
d)
CH3I
Ans:b)
238. Iodoethane reacts with sodium in ether, the product formed is
a)
Pentene
b)
Propyne
c)
Butene d)
Butane
Ans: d)
239. Gammexane is
a)
Chlorobenzene b)
Benzyl chloride
c)
Bromobenzene d)
Benzene hexachloride
Ans: d)
240. C-X bond is strongest in :
a)
CH3Cl
b)
CH3Br
c)
CH3F
d)
CH3I
Ans: c)
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241. Which of the following free radicals is the most stable?
a)
Methyl
b)
iso-propyl
c)
Vinyl
d)
Allyl
Ans: d)
242. Which of the following is an electrophile?
a)
H 2O
b)
NH3
c)
AlCl3
d)
C2H5NH2
Ans: d)
243. The C-H bond length is maximum in
a)
C 2H 2
b)
C 2H 6
c)
C 6H 6
d)
C 2H 4
Ans:b)
244. The first organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by
a)
Wohler
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b)
Kolbe
c)
Berzelius
d)
Neil bartlett
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Ans.A
245. Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature?
a)
V 2O 5
b)
Mn2O3
c)
Cr2O3
d)
MnO2
Ans.A
246. Heating mixture of Cu2Oand Cu2Swill give
a)
Cu2SO3
b)
CuO + CuS
c)
Cu+SO3
d)
Cu+SO2
Ans: d)
247. Oxidation state of chromium in chromic acid is
a)
0
b)
+7
c)
+3
d)
+6
Ans: d)
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248. Coinage metals are present in
a)
s-block
b)
d-block
c)
p-block
d)
f-block
Ans. B
249. The lanthanide contraction relates to
a)
Atomic radii
b)
Atomic as well as M3+ radii
c)
Valence electrons
d)
Oxidation states
Ans:b)
250. Guignet's green is known as
a)
Cr2O3.2H2O
b)
FeO3 2H2O
c)
FeCO3Cr2O3
d)
FeO.Cr2O3
Ans.A
251. A metal which does not liberate H2 (g) from acids is
a)
Cu
b)
Fe
c)
Mn
d)
Zn
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Ans: a)
252. The volume strength of 1.5 NH2O2 solutions is
a)
4.8
b)
5.2
c)
8.8
d)
8.4
Ans: d)
253. Which of the following is most basic in nature?
a)
NH3
b)
CH3NH2
c)
(CH3 )2NH
d)
C6H5N(CH3)2
Ans: c)
254. Hinsberg reagent is
a)
C6H5SO3H
b)
C2H5NO
c)
C6H5SO2Cl
d)
C6H5N2Cl
Ans: c)
255. In amines, the hybridisation state of N is
a)
sp
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b)
sp2
c)
sp3
d)
sp2d
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Ans: c)
256. Primary and secondary amines can be distinguished by
a)
Br2/KOH
b)
HClO
c)
HNO2
d)
NH3
Ans: c)
257. Which pair of polymers has similar properties?
a)
PAN, PTFE
b)
PCTFE, PTFE
c)
Nylon, PVC
d)
Bakelite, Alkyd resin
Ans. B
258. Orlon is a polymer of
a)
Styrene
b)
Tetrafluoroethylene
c)
Vinyl Chloride
d)
Acrylonitrile
Ans: d)
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259. The element that does not exhibit positive oxidation is
a)
Cl
b)
O
c)
N
d)
F
Ans: d)
260. Chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia to form
a)
NH4Cl
b)
N2+HCl
c)
N2NH4Cl
d)
N2NCl3
Ans: c)
261. Which of the following does not exist in free form ?
a)
BF3
b)
BCl3
c)
BBr3
d)
BH3
Ans: d)
262. The substance used in smoke screen is
a)
sodium chloride
b)
zinc phosphate
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c)
calcium phosphide
d)
calcium phosphate
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Ans: c)
263. Inorganic graphite is
a)
B3N3H6
b)
B3N3
c)
SiC
d)
FeCO5
Ans:b)
264. Galvanisation of iron sheets is done by
a)
Cu Plating
b)
Zn Plating
c)
Ag Plating
d)
Tin Plating
Ans.b)
265. Sulphuric acid has great affinity for water because
a)
It hydrolyses the acid
b)
It decomposes the acid
c)
Acid forms hydrates with water
d)
Acid decomposes water
Ans:c)
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266. Which of the following elements has the highest third ionization enthalpy?
a)
Sodium
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminium
d)
Silicon
Ans. B
267. To which block, 106th element belongs
a)
s-block
b)
p-block
c)
d-block
d)
f-block
Ans: c)
268. PtF6 is a
a)
Good oxidizing agent
b)
good reducing agent
c)
poor oxidizing agent
d)
poor reducing agent
Ans: a)
269. The collective name given to be elements of group 17 of periodic table is
a)
Chalcogens
b)
Halogens
c)
Pnicogens
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d)
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Ferrogens
Ans:b)
270. Diborane on hydrolysis yields
a)
B 2O 3
b)
H3BO3
c)
HBO2
d)
H 2B 4O 7
Ans:b)
271. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
a)
CaSO4
b)
SrSO4
c)
MgSO4
d)
BaSO4
Ans: c)
272. The carbonate that will have not decompose on heating is
a)
Na2CO3
b)
CaCO3
c)
BaCO3
d)
SrCO3
Ans.A
273. Dead burnt plaster is
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a)
CaSO4.2H2O
b)
MgSO4.7H2O
c)
CaSO4.H2O
d)
CaSO4
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Ans: d)
274. The effective component of bleaching powder is
a)
Cl2d
b)
[Ca (ClO)] d
c)
O2
d)
Cl
Ans:b)
275. Cupellation is used in the metallurgy of
a)
Cu
b)
Ag
c)
Zn
d)
Al
Ans. B
276. Nickel is purified by thermal decomposition of its
a)
Hydride
b)
Chloride
c)
Azide
d)
Carbonyl
Ans:d)
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277. Cassiterite is an ore of
a)
Mn
b)
Ni
c)
Sb
d)
Sn
Ans: d)
278. Which of the following is a hydrophobic sol?
a)
Starch solution
b)
Gun solution
c)
Protein solution
d)
Arsenious sulphide solution
Ans:d)
279. Which of the following is less than zero during adsoption?
a)
G
b)
S
c)
H
d)
All of the above
Ans:d)
280. Which one of the following is not a colloid?
a)
Milk
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b)
Blood
c)
Ice-cream
d)
urea solution
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Ans:d)
281. Which one of the following substances gives a positively charged sol?
a)
Gold
b)
A metal sulphide
c)
Ferric hydroxide
d)
An acidic dye
Ans: c)
282. Which of the following is an example of associated colloid?
a)
Polyethylene sol
b)
Rubber sol
c)
PVC sol
d)
Soap sol
Ans: d)
283. In coagulating the collodical solution of As2S3 which has the minimum coagulating value
a)
NaCl
b)
KCl
c)
BaCl2
d)
AlCl3
Ans: a)
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284. Which of the following is not true for physisorption?
a)
It is reversible
b)
It occurs in the form of multimolecular layers
c)
It needs activation energy
d)
It increases with increase in pressure
Ans:c)
285. Detergent action of soaps is due to
a)
Coagulation
b)
Emulsification properties
c)
Ionization
d)
High molecular mass
Ans. B
286. Smoke is an example of
a)
Gas dispersed in liquid
b)
Gas dispersed in solid
c)
Solid dispersed in gas
d)
none of these
Ans:c)
287. Which of the following is less than zero during absorption?
a)
G
b)
S
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c)
H
d)
All of the above
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Ans:d)
288. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in liquid is known as
a)
Foam
b)
Sol
c)
Aerosol
d)
Emulsion
Ans: a)
289. Internal energy of a given mass of an ideal depends upon
a)
Temperature
b)
Pressure
c)
Volume
d)
On all the above factors
Ans: a)
290. The value of R in calorie per degree per mole is
a)
0.0831
b)
8.31
c)
8.31107
d)
1.987
Ans:d)
291. In thermodynamics which one of the following is not an intensive property
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a)
Pressure
b)
Density
c)
Volume
d)
Temperature
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Ans:c)
292. For a process to occur under adiabatic conditions
a)
dT = 0
b)
dP = 0
c)
q =0
d)
w=0
Ans:c)
293. Which among the following has rate of effusion less than the moist air?
a)
He
b)
dry air
c)
NH3
d)
heavy hydrogen
Ans:d)
294. A Boyle's temperature, for a considerable range of pressure, the value of Z is
a)
=0
b)
>1
c)
=1
d)
<1
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Ans:c)
295. Which graph will not be straight line for ideal gas?
a)
PV vs P
b)
P/T vs T
c)
P vs T
d)
V vs T
Ans: c)
296. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
4
Ans:b)
297. A pressure of 0.101325 bar when expressed in atmospheres represents
a)
0.01 atm
b)
1 atm
c)
0.1 atm
d)
10 atm
Ans: c)
298. The density of N2 will be highest at
a)
S.T.P
b)
273 K, 2atm
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c)
545 K, 1 atm
d)
500 K, 1.5 atm
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Ans:b)
299. The one which is not present in DNA is
a)
Uracil
b)
thymine
c)
adenine
d)
guanine
Ans: a)
300. The drug used for treatment of typhoid is
a)
Chloromycetin
b)
Novalgin
c)
Paracetamol
d)
Quinine
Ans.A
301. Glyptal polymer is obtained from glycerol on reacting with
a)
Malonic acid
b)
Phthalic acid
c)
Malecic acid
d)
Acetic acid
Ans. B
302. Which of the following have 1,2-ethanediol as starting material?
a)
Nylon 6
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b)
PMMA
c)
PTEE
d)
Dacron
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Ans:d)
303. Which of the following is obtained as a useful by-product in the manufacture of phenol from
cumene?
a)ethanol
b)ethanol
c)propanal
d)proponone
e)propan-2-ol
Ans: d)
304. The mixing of gases is generally accompanied by
a)
Decrease in entropy
b)
decrease in free energy
c)
change in heat content
d)
increase in free energy
Ans:b)
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MATHEMATICS
1.The rational number for recurring decimal 0.125125.... is:
A.
63
487
B.
119
993
C.
125
999
D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
0.125125... = 0.125 =
125
999
2. Which of the following fractions is greater than
3
5
and less than ?
4
6
A.
1
2
B.
2
3
C.
4
5
D.
9
10
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
3
= 0.75,
4
5
= 0.833,
6
1
= 0.5,
2
2
= 0.66,
3
4
= 0.8,
5
Clearly, 0.8 lies between 0.75 and 0.833.
141
9
= 0.9.
10
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4
3
5
lies between and .
5
4
6
3. The value of
489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956
is closet to:
0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749
A. 0.006
B.
0.06
C. 0.6
D. 6
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956
0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749
489
=
9 x 93 x 10
163 1
=
x
279 10
0.58
=
10
= 0.058
489 x 0.05 x 2
0.09 x 93 x 100
0.06.
4. 5 x 1.6 - 2 x 1.4
=?
1.3
A. 0.4
B.
C. 1.4
D. 4
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Given Expression =
8 - 2.8 5.2 52
=
=
= 4.
1.3
1.3 13
142
1.2
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5. If
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144
14.4
=
, then the value of x is:
x
0.144
A. 0.0144
B.
1.44
C. 14.4
D. 144
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
144
14.4
=
x
0.144
144 x 1000 14.4
=
x
144
14.4
x=
= 0.0144
1000
6. Which of the following are in descending order of their value ?
A.
1 2 3 4 5 6
, , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
B.
1 2 3 4 5 6
, , , , ,
3 5 5 7 6 7
C.
1 2 3 4 5 6
, , , , ,
3 5 5 6 7 7
D.
6 5 4 3 2 1
, , , , ,
7 6 5 7 5 3
Answer: Option D
7. Which of the following Statement is false?
A. Zero has a reciprocal
B. The product of two negative rational numbers is always positive.
C. The reciprocal of a positive rational number is positive.
D. The product of two positive rational numbers is always positive.
Answer: Option A
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8. If 24 trousers of equal size can be prepared in 54 meters of cloth, what length of cloth is
required for each trousers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Every fraction is a rational number.
B. Every rational number is a fraction.
C. Every integer is a rational number.
D. All of these.
Answer: Option B
10. The sum of the additive inverse and multiplicative inverse of 2 is ____ .
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
11.
If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number is:
A. 35
B.
C. 45
D. 54
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
144
36
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Let the number be x.
1
Then,
1
of
3
of x = 15
x = 15 x 12 = 180.
4
3
So, required number =
x 180 = 54.
12. Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third
integer is:
A. 9
B.
11
C. 13
D. 15
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4.
Then, 3x = 2(x + 4) + 3
x = 11.
Third integer = x + 4 = 15.
13. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the
positions of its digits is 36. What is the difference between the two digits of that number?
A. 3
B.
C. 9
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the ten's digit be x and unit's digit be y.
145
4
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Then, (10x + y) - (10y + x) = 36
9(x - y) = 36
x - y = 4.
14. Find a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the reciprocal of the
number.
A. 3
B.
C. 17
D.
10
20
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Let the number be x.
60
Then, x + 17 =
x
x2 + 17x - 60 = 0
(x + 20)(x - 3) = 0
x = 3.
15. The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product.
A. 104
B.
C. 315
D. 325
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
146
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Let the numbers be x and y.
Then, x + y = 25 and x - y = 13.
4xy = (x + y)2 - (x- y)2
= (25)2 - (13)2
= (625 - 169)
= 456
xy = 114.
16. Solution of the equation 6(3x+2)-5(6x-1) = 6(x-3)-5(7x-6)+12x is ___.
A. -1
B. 1
C. 0
D. 2
Answer: Option A
17. There were only two candidates in an election. One got 62% votes and was elected by a
margin of 144 votes. The total number of voters was _____?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 700
D. 800
Answer: Option B
18. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4, then the difference between the greatest and
smallest angles is _____.
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer: Option D
19.Father is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would be two and a half
times of Ronit's age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Ronit's age?
1
A. 2 times
B.
147
2
times
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3
C.
2
times
D. 3 times
4
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Let Ronit's present age be x years. Then, father's present age =(x + 3x) years = 4x years.
5
(4x + 8) = (x + 8)
2
8x + 16 = 5x + 40
3x = 24
x = 8.
(4x + 16)
Hence, required ratio =
48
=
(x + 16)
= 2.
24
20.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age
of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B.
8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Let the ages of children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6), (x + 9) and (x + 12) years.
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Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50
5x = 20
x = 4.
Age of the youngest child = x = 4 years.
21. If a pair of opposite sides of a quadrilateral are equal and parallel, it is ____ .
A. Kite
B. Trapezium
C. Parallelogram
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
22. The given quadrilateral EFGH is _____.
A. A Parallelogram
B. A concave quadrilateral
C. A convex quadrilateral
D. A trapezium
Answer: Option B
23. Which of the following statement is not true in case of rectangle?
A. It has two pairs of equal sides
B. It has all its sides of equal length
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C. Its diagonals are equal
D. Its diagonals bisects each other
Answer: Option B
24. Four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 : 9. The greatest angle is ____ .
B. 75°
A. 125°
C. 135°
D. 120°
Answer: Option C
25. Diagonals of a rhombus bisects each other at ____ .
A. Acute angle
B. Obtuse angle
C. Right angle
D. right angle
Answer: Option C
26. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown. Then the angles x and y are related as______ .
A. x=y
C. x>y
B. x<y
D. Cannot be determined from given data
Answer: Option A
27. ABCD is rhombus. If <ACB= 40°, then <ADB is _______ .
A. 40°
B. 45°
C. 50°
D. 60°
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Answer: Option C
162
x
28.What should come in place of both x in the equation
=
128
A. 12
B.
C. 144
D. 196
.
x
14
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
162
x
Let
=
128
x
Then x2 = 128 x 162
= 64 x 2 x 18 x 9
= 82 x 62 x 32
=8x6x3
= 144.
x = 144 = 12.
29. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
A. 213444
B.
C. 214434
D. 231444
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
L.C.M. of 21, 36, 66 = 2772.
151
214344
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Now, 2772 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7 x 11
To make it a perfect square, it must be multiplied by 7 x 11.
So, required number = 22 x 32 x 72 x 112 = 213444
30.
A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as is the number
of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the member is the group
is:
A. 57
B.
67
C. 77
D. 87
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Money collected = (59.29 x 100) paisa = 5929 paisa.
Number of members = 5929 = 77.
31. The square root of (7 + 35) (7 - 35) is
A. 5
B.
2
C. 4
D. 35
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(7 + 35)(7 - 35) = (7)2 - (35)2 = 49 - 45 = 4 = 2.
625
32.
14
x
11
A. 5
11
x
25
is equal to:
196
B.
152
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C. 8
D. 11
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
25
Given Expression =
14
x
11
11
x
5
= 5.
14
33.0.0169 x ? = 1.3
A. 10
B.
100
C. 1000
D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let 0.0169 x x = 1.3.
Then, 0.0169x = (1.3)2 = 1.69
1.69
x=
= 100
0.0169
1 2
34.
3-
simplifies to:
3
3
A.
C.
4
4
4
B.
3
D. None of these
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3
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1 2
3-
1 2
= (3) +
3
1
-2x3x
2
3
3
1
=3+
-2
3
1
=1+
3
4
=
3
35. The greatest six – digit number, which is a perfect square is ____ .
A. 998001
B. 995001
C. 997001
D. 996001
Answer: Option A
36. Without doing any calculation, find the numbers which are surely not perfect squares.
A. 153 B. 257 C. 408 D. 441
Answer: Option A
Explanation: can be a perfect square, others can’t be perfect squares because the unit digit of a
perfect square can be only from 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 9
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37. The squares of which of the following would be odd numbers?
A. 432 B. 2826 C. 7779 D. 82004
Answer: Option B
Explanation: B will have odd numbers as their square, because an odd number multiplied by another
odd number always results in an odd number.
38. The least perfect square number divisible by 3,4,5,6,8 is _____ .
A. 900
B. 1200
C. 2500
D. 3600
Answer: Option D
39. The Value of √99 X √396 is _____.
A. 208
B. 198
C. 254
D. 205
Answer: Option B
40. The square root of 390625 is _____.
A. 645
B. 225
C. 735
D. 625
Answer: Option D
41. The cube root of .000216 is:
A. .6
B.
C. 77
D. 87
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(.000216)1/3 = 216 1/3
155
.06
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106
6x6x6
1/3
=
102 x 102 x 102
6
=
102
6
=
100
= 0.06
42. What is the cube root of -64?
A 4
B -4
C 8 D -8
Answer: option B
Explanation: (-4) × (-4) × (-4) = -64
Therefore the cube root of -64 = -4
43. What is the cube root of 7=46656?
A -36
B 36 C -66 D 34
Answer: option B
44. Between which of the following pairs of numbers does the cube root of 20 lie?
A. Between 2.5 and 2.6
B. Between 2.6 and 2.7
C. Between 2.7 and 2.8
D. Between 2.8 and 2.9
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Answer: option C
Explanation:
2.73 = 2.7 × 2.7 × 2.7 = 19.683
2.83 = 2.8 × 2.8 × 2.8 = 21.952
19.683 < 20 < 21.952
So the cube root of 20 must be between 2.7 and 2.8
45. What is the cube root of -4,096?
A . 64
B .16
C.16
D. 64
Answer: option B
46. The Cube root of 272 is ___?
A. 27
B. 9
C. 3
D. none of these
Answer: option B
47. Which of the following numbers is not a perfect cube?
A. 46656
B. 13825 C. 3375 D. 74088
Answer: option B
48. If 36a3 = a6, then a3 is equal to ____.
A. a6
B. 6 a4 C. a2
D. 6 a2
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Answer: option D
49. The cube of a two-digit number may not have ____.
A. Four digits
B. Five digits C. Six digits D. Seven digits
Answer: option D
50. The value of 453 _ 653 _203 is ____.
A. 175500
B. -191500 C. 170000 D. -170000
Answer: option B
51. A man got a 10% increase in his salary. If his new salary is Rs 1,54,000, find his original
salary.
A. 110000
B. 120000
C. 140000
D.150000
Answer: option C
Answer: Let us assume the initial salary =x
So, salary after hike = x+ 10% of x= 154000. Now solve for x.
52. On Sunday 845 people went to the Zoo. On Monday only 169 people went. What is the per
cent decrease in the people visiting the Zoo on Monday?
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 40%
Answer: option A
Answer: Actual decrease in number of visits
= 845-169=676
158
D.20%
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53. I purchased a hair-dryer for Rs 5,400 including 8% VAT. Find the price before VAT was added.
A. 80
B. 5000
C. 50
D.8000
Answer: option B
54. 8 % expressed as a fraction is _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: option C
55. x% of 130 = 10.4, then the value of x is ___.
A. 80
B. 8
C. 0.8
D.0.08
Answer: option B
56. What is 25% of 25%?
A. 6.25
B. 0.625
C. 0.0625
D.0.00625
Answer & Explanation
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Answer: Option C
Explanation: .25 ×25/100=.0625
57.
Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two
numbers is:
A. 2 : 5
B.
3:5
C. 4 : 5
D. 6 : 7
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the third number be x.
120x
Then, first number = 120% of x =
6x
=
100
150x
Second number = 150% of x =
5
3x
=
100
2
6x 3x
Ratio of first two numbers =
:
= 12x : 15x = 4 : 5.
5 2
58. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number
to the second number?
A. 2 : 5
B.
C. 5 : 3
D. 7 : 3
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
160
3:7
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2
Let 40% of A =
B
3
40A
Then,
2B
=
100
2A
3
2B
=
5
3
A
2
=
5
x
B
3
5
=
2
3
A : B = 5 : 3.
59. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the
number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
A. 8 : 9
B.
17 : 18
C. 21 : 22
D. Cannot be determined
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Originally, let the number of boys and girls in the college be 7x and 8x respectively.
Their increased number is (120% of 7x) and (110% of 8x).
120
110
x 7x and
100
42x
x 8x
100
44x
and
5
5
The required ratio = 42x : 44x = 21 : 22.
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2
2
60. If a merchant estimates his profit as 20% of the selling price, what is his profit percent?
A. 25%
B. 20%
C.22%
Answer: Option A
61. The degree of constant polynomial is ____.
A. 1
B. 2
C.0
D.3
Answer: Option C
62.
A.
B.
C
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
We can get the answer by cross-multiplying:
⇒ 3 × 8 = 27x × 2x
⇒ 24 = 54x2
Swap sides:
⇒ 54x2 = 24
162
D.30%
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Divide both sides by 54:
63. Factor completely: 12y2 - 3y + 15
A. 3y(4y - 1) + 15
B. 12y2 - 3(y - 5)
C. 3(4y2 - 3y + 5)
D. 3(4y2 - y + 5)
Answer: option D
Explanation: The GCF of 12y2, 3y and 15 is 3.
12y2 = 3 × 4y2, 3y = 3 × y and 15 = 3 × 5
∴ 12y2 - 3y + 15 = 3(4y2 - y + 5).
64.
A. y = -4 or 4
B. y = -4√2 or 4√2
C. y = -8 or 8
D. y = -16 or 16
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
We can get the answer by cross-multiplying:
⇒ y2 × y2 = 4 × 64
⇒ y4 = 256
⇒ y2 = √256 = ±16
But a square number cannot be negative
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⇒ y2 = 16
⇒ y = √16 = ±4
65.
A. x = 9 or -9
B. x = √35 + 1
C. x = ¼(√35 + 1)
D. x = 3 or -3
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
We can get the answer by cross-multiplying:
⇒ (2x - 1) × (2x + 1) = 5 × 7 = 35
You can multiply (2x - 1)(2x + 1) the normal way, but it is quicker to use the "difference of two
squares", either way you get this result:
(2x - 1)(2x + 1) = 4x2 - 1
Now to solve for x:
Start with ⇒ 4x2 - 1 = 35
Add 1 to both sides ⇒ 4x2 = 36
Divide both sides by 4 ⇒ x2 = 9
Square root on both sides ⇒ x = ±√9 = 3 or -3c
66. The degree of the polynomial 5 x3-6 x3 y+4 y2-8 is _____.
A. 3
B. 4
C.2
D. cannot be determined
Answer: Option B
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67. If 2x+y=5, then 4x+2y is equal to ____.
A. 5
B. 8
C.9
D. 10
Answer: Option D
68. The product of x2y and x3 y3 is ___.
A. x y3
B. x5 y4
C. x6 y3
D. x5 y3
Answer: Option B
69. If x-
= √6, then x2+
A. 2
B. 4
is ___.
C.6
D. 8
Answer: Option D
70. On dividing 8 x2 y3 by -2xy, we get quotient ____.
A. -4 x y2
B. 4xy2
C. 4 x2 y3
D. 4 x y
Answer: Option A
71.
A square and a rectangular field with measurements as given in the figure have the same
perimeter. Which field has a larger area?
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A. Square
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B. Rectangle C. Both has same area
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Perimeter of Square = 4 x side = 4 x 60 = 240 sq metres
Area of Square = Side² = 60² = 3600 square metre
Perimeter of Rectangle = 2(length + breadth)
Or, 240 = 2(80 + breadth)
Or, 80 + breadth = 120
Or, breadth = 120-80 = 40 metres
Area of rectangle = length x breadth = 80 x 40 = 3200 square metres
Now it is clear that the area of the square field is greater than the area of the rectangular field.
72. Mrs. Kaushik has a square plot with the measurement as shown in the figure. She wants to
construct a house in the middle of the plot. A garden is developed around the house. Find the total
cost of developing a garden around the house at the rate of Rs 55 per m².
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A. 16400 rupees
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B. 17500 rupees
C. 16500 rupees D. 16520 rupees
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Area of the square plot = Side² = 25² = 625 square metre
Area of the house construction part = length x breadth
= 20 x 15 = 300 sq m
So, area of the garden = 625-300=325 square metre
Cost of developing the garden = Area x Rate
= 300 x 55 = 16500 rupees
73. The shape of a garden is rectangular in the middle and semi circular at the ends as shown in the
diagram. Find the area and the perimeter of this garden [Length of rectangle is 20 – (3.5 + 3.5)
metres].
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A. Area = 176.5 square meters & Perimeter : 62 meters
B. Area = 177.5 square meters & Perimeter : 60 meters
C. Area = 177.5 square meters & Perimeter : 62 meters
D. Area = 160.5 square meters & Perimeter : 170 meters
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Area of the rectangular part = length x breadth
= 20 x 7 = 140 sq m
Area of Semicircular portions: = п x r2
Perimeter of the shape = 22 + 20 + 20 = 62 meters
74. A flooring tile has the shape of a parallelogram whose base is 24 cm and the corresponding height
is 10 cm. How many such tiles are required to cover a floor of area 1080 m2? (If required you can
split the tiles in whatever way you want to fill up the corners).
A. 44000
B. 45000
C. 16500
D. 16520
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Area of the Parallelogram = base x height
= 24 x 10 = 240 sq cm
(area of floor is converted into square cms)
75. An ant is moving around a few food pieces of different shapes scattered on the floor. For which
food-piece would the ant have to take a longer round? Remember, circumference of a circle can be
obtained by using the expression c = 2πr, where r is the radius of the circle.
A. fig a
B. fig b
C. fig c
Answer: Option B
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D. None
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So, the food shape in (b) requires the ant to cover most distance.
76. The volume of a cube is 512 cm3. Its surface area is _____.
A. 64cm2
B. 256cm2
C. 384cm2
D. 512cm2
Answer: Option C
77. An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in
the calculated area of the square is:
A. 2%
B.
C. 4%
D. 4.04%
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
100 cm is read as 102 cm.
A1 = (100 x 100) cm2 and A2 (102 x 102) cm2.
(A2 - A1) = [(102)2 - (100)2]
= (102 + 100) x (102 - 100)
170
2.02%
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= 404 cm2.
404
Percentage error =
x 100
100 x 100
%
= 4.04%
78.
The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in
area?
A. 25% increase
B.
C. 50% decrease
D.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let original length = x and original breadth = y.
Original area = xy.
x
New length = .
2
New breadth = 3y.
3
x
New area =
x 3y = xy.
2
2
1
Increase % =
1
xy x
2
x 100
xy
%
= 50%.
171
50% increase
75% decrease
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79. The radius of a cylinder, whose lateral surface area is 704 cm2 and height 8 cm, is ___.
B. 4 cm
A. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 14 cm
Answer: Option D
80. The radius of a cylinder is doubled but its lateral surface area is unchanged. Then its height
must be ______.
A. Doubled
B. Halved
C. Trebled
D. Constant
Answer: Option B
81. Evaluate 3–2
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
82. Simplify and express the result in power notation with positive exponent.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
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83. Evaluate
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0
D. none
Answer: Option B
Explanation: (3-4)-1 = (-1)-1 =-1
84.
A. 4a6
B. 2a6
C. 2a5
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
85.
A. 8x
B. 8x-5
C. 8x-6
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
86. The expression
is equivalent to:
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A. 3x(1-3x)
B. 3x(1-3x2)
C. 3x(1-9x5)
D. 9x3(1-x)
Answer: Option B
87. Which of the following values are equal?
(1) 14
(2) 40
A. 1 and 2
(3) 04
(5) 41
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: Option A
88. The value of √13+23+33 is____.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: Option B
89. If
= , then (X2+Y2/ X2-Y2) is _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
90. The value of (1024)-4/5 is _____.
A. ( )3
B. ( )2
C.
D.
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Answer: Option C
91. A car takes 2 hours to reach a destination by travelling at the speed of 60 km/h. How long will
it take when the car travels at the speed of 80 km/h?
A. 2.5 hours
B. 0.5 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 1.5 hours
Answer: Option D
92. A and B together have Rs. 1210. If
amount does B have?
of A's amount is equal to
A. Rs. 460
B.
C. Rs. 550
D. Rs. 664
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4
2
A=
15
B
5
2
A=
15
x
5
4
B
175
Rs. 484
of B's amount, how much
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3
A=
B
2
A
3
=
B
2
A : B = 3 : 2.
2
B's share = Rs.
1210 x
= Rs. 484.
5
93. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two
numbers is:
A. 2 : 5
B.
3:5
C. 4 : 5
D. 6 : 7
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the third number be x.
120x
Then, first number = 120% of x =
6x
=
100
150x
Second number = 150% of x =
3x
=
100
Ratio of first two numbers =
5
2
6x 3x
:
= 12x : 15x = 4 : 5.
5 2
94. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C
gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B's share?
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A. Rs. 500
B.
Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 2000
D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x - 3x = 1000
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.
95.Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a
proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of
increased seats?
A. 2 : 3 : 4
B.
6:7:8
C. 6 : 8 : 9
D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Originally, let the number of seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology be 5x, 7xand
8x respectively.
Number of increased seats are (140% of 5x), (150% of 7x) and (175% of 8x).
140
150
x 5x ,
100
175
x 7x and
100
x 8x
100
21x
7x,
and 14x.
2
The required ratio = 7x : 21x : 14x
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2
14x : 21x : 28x
2 : 3 : 4.
96. If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to:
A. 1.12
B.
1.2
C. 1.25
D. 1.30
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
6
(x x 5) = (0.75 x 8)
x=
= 1.20
5
97. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is:
A. 18
B.
C. 19
D. 20
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 be x.
Then, 5 : 8 : 15 : x
5x = (8 x 15)
(8 x 15)
x=
= 24.
5
178
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98. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30 in all,
how many 5 p coins are there?
A. 50
B.
100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the number of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p coins be x, 2x, 3x respectively.
25x
Then, sum of their values = Rs.
60x
10 x 2x 5 x 3x
60x
+
+
= Rs.
100
100
100
100
30 x 100
= 30
x=
100
= 50.
60
Hence, the number of 5 p coins = (3 x 50) = 150.
99. Two number are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the
ratio 12 : 23. The smaller number is:
A. 27
B.
C. 49
D. 55
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the numbers be 3x and 5x.
3x - 9
Then,
12
=
5x - 9
23
23(3x - 9) = 12(5x - 9)
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9x = 99
x = 11.
The smaller number = (3 x 11) = 33.
100. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the
number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
A. 8 : 9
B.
17 : 18
C. 21 : 22
D. Cannot be determined
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Originally, let the number of boys and girls in the college be 7x and 8x respectively.
Their increased number is (120% of 7x) and (110% of 8x).
120
110
x 7x and
100
42x
x 8x
100
44x
and
5
5
The required ratio =
42x 44x
:
= 21 : 22.
5
5
101. Factorise,
4p² – 9q²
A. (2p+3q)(2p+3q)
B. (2p+3q)(2p-3q)
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D. (3p+2q)(3p-2q)
Answer: Option B
102. Factorise the following expression.
p² + 6p + 8
A. p(p-5)+6
B. p(p+8)+6
B. p(p+6)+8
D. p(p+6)-8
Answer: Option C
Asnwer: p²+6p+8
=p(p+6)+8
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103. Factorise,
p² – 10 p + 25
A. (p-5)2
B. (p-6)2
B. .(p+6)2
D. (p+5)2
Answer: Option C
104. Factorise
49y² + 84yz + 36z²
A. (6y-7z)2
C. (7y-6z)2
B. (7y+6z)2
D. (6y+7z)2
Answer: Option B
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105. Factorise
A. 3(m2+7)(m2-5)
C. 3(m2+5)(m2-5)
B. 7(m2+3)(m2-5)
D. 3(m2+7)(m2-7)
Answer: Option C
Explanation :
106. (582 - 422/16) = _____.
A. 90
B. 100
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: Option B
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107. Factorise,
A. -8z(4z-1)(z-2)
C. -2z(4z+1)(z+2)
B. -2z(4z+2)(z+1)
D. -4z(4z-1)(z+2)
Answer: Option C
108. Evaluation of (8.6)2 – (1.4)2 is ____.
A. 70
B. 72
C. 60
D. 40
Answer: Option B
109. Factorise
A. 4(z2+4)(z+2)(z-2)
C. 4(z2+4)(z+4)(z-2)
B. 4(z2+4)(z-4)(z-2)
D. 4(z2-4)(z+2)(z-2)
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
110. Factorise
A. (x4+y4)(x2-y) (x2-y)
C. (x4+y4)(x2+y) (x2-y)
B. (x4-y4)(x2+y) (x2-y)
D. (x4-y4)(x2+y) (x2+y)
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
111. A die is thrown. The probability that the number comes up even is ______.
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A.
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B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a
publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.
112. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4
for both years?
A. 2:3
B.
C. 4:5
D. 7:9
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(75 + 65)
Required ratio =
140
=
(85 + 95)
7
= .
180 9
186
3:5
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113. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branches B3
for both the years?
A. 68.54%
B.
71.11%
C. 73.17%
D. 75.55%
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(70 + 80)
Required percentage =
x 100 %
(95 + 110)
150
=
x 100 %
205
= 73.17%.
114. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000?
A. 73
B.
80
C. 83
D. 88
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Average sales of all the six branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000
1
=
x [80 + 75 + 95 + 85 + 75 + 70]
6
= 80.
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115. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is?
A. 250
B.
310
C. 435
D. 560
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 for both the years (in thousand numbers)
= (80 + 105) + (95 + 110) + (75 + 95)
= 560.
116.What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of
branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
A. 75%
B.
77.5%
C. 82.5%
D. 87.5%
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000
1
=
245
x (80 + 95 + 70) =
3
.
3
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001
1
=
280
x (105 + 65 + 110) =
3
.
3
245/3
Required percentage =
245
x 100 % =
x 100 % = 87.5%.
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The circle-graph given here shows the spending of a country on various sports during a particular
year. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
117. What percent of total spending is spent on Tennis?
1
A.
1
12 %
2
B.
C. 25%
22 %
2
D. 45%
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
45
Percentage of money spend on Tennis =
1
x 100 % = 12 %.
360
2
118.
How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?
A. 27%
B.
C. 37.5%
D. 75%
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
189
35%
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Explanation:
Let the total spending on sports be Rs. x. Then,
36
x
Amount spent on Golf = Rs.
x x = Rs.
360
.
10
63
7x
Amount spent on Hockey = Rs
x x = Rs.
360
7x
Difference = Rs.
-
40
3x
x
40
.
= Rs
10
.
40
3x/40
Required percentage = Rs.
x 100 % = 75%.
x/10
119. If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 1,80,00,000 , the amount spent on
Basketball exceeds on Tennis by:
A. Rs. 2,50,000
B.
Rs. 3,60,000
C. Rs. 3,75,000
D. Rs. 4,10,000
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Amount spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by:
(50 - 45)
Rs.
x 1,80,00,000
= Rs. 2,50,000.
360
120. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 2 crores, the amount spent on
Cricket and Hockey together was:
A. Rs. 8,00,000
B.
190
Rs. 80,00,000
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C. Rs. 1,20,00,000
D. Rs. 1,60,00,000
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(81 + 63)
Amount spent on Cricket and Hockey together = Rs.
x2
crores
360
= Rs. 0.8 crores
= Rs. 80,00,000.
121. 21436587 is divisible by _____.
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: Option D
122. If the 3-digit number 24x is divisible by 9, then the value of x is ____.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 12
Answer: Option C
123. The number which is exactly divisible by 99 is ____.
A. 3572404
B. 135792
C. 913464
D. 114345
Answer: Option D
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124. The largest natural number by which the product of three consecutive even natural numbers
is always divisible is ____.
A. 16
B. 24
C. 48
D. 96
Answer: Option C
125. Mohit has to take his medication every four days. If he takes it next Sunday, how many days
will it be before he takes his medication on another Sunday?
A. 23
B. 25
C. 28
D. 20
Answer: Option C
126. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower
is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 149 m
B.
C. 173 m
D. 200 m
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let AB be the tower.
Then,
APB = 30º and AB = 100 m.
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1
= tan 30º =
AP
3
AP = (AB x 3) m
= 1003 m
= (100 x 1.73) m
= 173 m.
127. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi. The
number of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is:
A. 15
B.
16
C. 18
D. 25
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by Sakshi and Tanya = 125 : 100 = 5 : 4.
Suppose Tanya takes x days to do the work.
4 x 20
5 : 4 :: 20 : x
x=
5
x = 16 days.
Hence, Tanya takes 16 days to complete the work.
128. Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ... What number should come next?
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A. 20
B.
25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
This is an alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 10 is subtracted from
each number to arrive at the next. In the second, 5 is added to each number to arrive at the next
129. 0,2,8,14,(….),34
A. 16
B. 22
C. 17
D.28
Answer: Option B
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BIOLOGY
1 A microorganism, when viewed under a compound microscope with an objective lens of 40 X
and eye piece of 10 X magnification measured 4000 μ in length. The same microorganism when
observed under a dissection microscope with a lens of 10 X magnification, would measure..
a) 10 μ
b) 40 μ
c) 100 μ
d) 400 μ
Answer : c
2. Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding an institute and its location?
a) National institute of Virology- Pune
b) National Institute of Communicable Diseases- Lucknow
c) Central Drug Research Institute- Kasauli
d) National Institute of Nutrition- Mumbai
Answer : a
3. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
a) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
b) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
c) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
d) 4 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
Answer : b
4. Employment of hereditary principles in the improvement of human race is
a) Euthenics
b) euphenics
c) Eugenics
d) ethology
Answer : c
5. Otorhinolaryngology is the study of
a) Brain cells
b) ENT
c) birds anatomy
d) larynx system
Answer : b
6. The branch of botany which deals with the study of algae is called
a) taxonomy
b) pathology
c) phycology
d) mycology
Answer : c
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7. Which one of the following discoveries resulted in a Nobel Prize?
a) Cytoplasmic inheritance
b) Recombination of linked genes
c) X rays induce sex linked recessive lethal mutations
d) Genetic Engineering
Answer : c
8. Government of India has followed mixing of alcohol in Petrol. What is the amount of alcohol
permitted for mixing in petrol?
a) 2.5%
b) 5%
c) 10-15%
d) 20%
Answer : b
9. Photosynthetically active radiation represents the following range of wavelength:
a) 500-600 nm
b) 450-650 nm
c) 400-700 nm
d) 340-450 nm
Answer : c
10. The system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial because
a) It was based on evolutionary relationship of plants
b) It was based on similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only
c) It took into account the physiological facts along with the morphological characters
d) None of the above
Answer : d
11. Linnaeus is credited with introducing
a) The concept of inheritance
b) Law of limiting factor
c) Theory of heredity
d) Binomial nomenclature
Answer : d
12. Out of the 4 widely known systems of classification
one remains less phylogenetic and more natural and that is of
a) Engler and Prantl
b) Hutchinson
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c) Bentham and Hooker
d) Rendle
Answer : c
13. The chief merit of Bentham and Hookers classification is that
a) it is a natural system of classification of all group of plants
b) a system based on evolutionary concept
c) it also considered the phylogenetic aspect
d) The description of taxa are based on actual examination of the specimens
Answer: d
14. ‘Systema Naturae’ written by Linnaeus contains a list of
a) 4000 species of plants
b) 2000 species of plants
c) 4200 species of plants
d) 4200 species of animals
Answer : d
15. Natural system of classification of plants differs from artificial system of classification in
a) taking into account only one vegetative character
b) taking into account only one floral character
c) taking into account all the similarities between plants
d) all of these
Answer:
c
16. One of the best methods for understanding general relationships of plants is
a) Cytotaxonomy
b) Experimental Taxonomy
c) Numerical Taxonomy
d) Chemotaxonomy
Answer : d
17. Systematics deals with
a) Identification of Organism
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b) Classification of organisms
c) the kinds and diversity of all organisms and the existing relationships amongst themselves
d) identification, naming and classification of both plants and animals
Answer c
18. Carbon monoxide poisoning is due to the formation of
a) carbamino haemoglobin
b) Methane
c) Carbonic acid
d) Carboxyhaemoglobin
Answer :
d
19. Classical taxonomy is also termed
a) β taxonomy
b) systematics
c) descriptive taxonomy
d) experimental taxonomy
Answer:
c
20. The advantage of Systematics is that it
a) gives an idea of organic diversity, its origin and evolution in the plant and animal kingdom
b) is complementary to other branches of biology
c) provides correct information needed in agriculture, medical, veterinary sciences etc
d) All of these
Answer :
d
Answer :
d
21. Syngenesious anthers and epipetalous stamens are found in
a) Liliaceae
b) Malvaceae
c) Solanaceae
d) Compositae
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22. Indefinite stamens are characteristic of family
a) Malvaceae
b) Gramineae
c) Labiatae
d) Cruciferae
Answer: a
23. Synandrous condition is common in the family
a) Umbelliferae
b) Rosaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Cucurbitaceae
Answer : d
24. Polyadelphous condition is found in
a) Leguminosae
b) Rutaceae
c) Compositae
d) Liliaceae
Answer : b
25. The group of similar plants which breed freely among themselves constitute
1. a) Species
2. b) Family
3. c) Order
4. d) Genus
Answer : a
26. The five kingdom arrangements of organisms was proposed by
a) Robert Whittakar
b) John Ray
c) Leuwenhoek
Answer : a
27. Which of the following definitions covers a greater number of organisms?
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a) Class
b) Genus
c) Order
d) Family
Answer :
d
28. Basic taxonomy unit is
a) Kingdom
b) Genus
c) Species
d) Order
Answr :
c
29. The replacement of two kingdom classification by five
kingdom classification was proposed by the year
a) 1853
b) 1859
c) 1969
d) 1863
Answer:
c
Answer :
b
30. An example for the artificial system of classification
a) Bentham and Hooker
b) Linnaeus system
c) Engler and Prantl
d) Hutichson
31. First step in taxonomy
a) naming
b) description
c) identification
d) classification
Answer : c
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32. Binomial nomenclature means writing the name of plant in two words which designate
a) Order and family
b) Family and genus
c) Species and variety
d) Genus and species
Answer:
d
33. What is the correct descending sequence of taxonomic categories?
a) Division class order family tribe genus
b) Class order division family species tribe
c) tribe genus class division family order
d) Family order genus order division class
Answer : a
34. The term systematic was proposed by
a) John Ray
b) Adanson
c) DeVries
d) Julian Huxley
Answer : a
35. Modern classification is based on
a) Physiology
b) Fossils
c) Phylogeny
d) Morphology
Answer:
c
36. A small group of individuals or organisms which resemble closely in structure as well as
function is called
a) Phylum
b) Family
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c) Species
d) Genus
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
37. Taxon is
a) a genus
b) a species
c) a taxonomic unit
d) a taxonomic category of any rank
38 ‘System naturae’ was written by
a) Linneaus
b) Charles Darwin
c) Aristole
d) Wallace
Answer : a
39. A system of classification based on all important morphologically characters is termed as
a) Artificial system
b) Natural system
c) Genetic system
d) Both and b
Answer:
b
40. Kingdom Monera consist of
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaebacteria
d) None of these
Answer : a
41. Some bacteria thrive extreme environment conditions
such as absence of oxygen, high salt concentration, high temperature and acidic pH. Name them.
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a) Cyanobacteria
b) Eubacteria
c) Archaebacteria
d) None of these
Answer : c
42. A common character found in cyanobacteria and eubacteria is
a) Cell wall being composed of Peptidoglycan
b) Occurrence of oxygenic photosynthesis
c) Presence of photosynthetic lamellae
d) Presence of gas vacuoles
Answer : a
43. The bacteria were first observed in the year 1675 by
a) Carolus Linnaeus
b)Alexander Fleming
c) Anton Von Leuwenhoek
d) Robert Brown
Answer:
c
44. Bacteria are classified on the basis of
a) Method of reproduction
b) Nucleus
c) Cell wall
d) pigments
Answer : c
45. Bacteria without flagella are known as
a) Atrichous
b) Peritrichous
c) Lophotrichous
d) Monotrichous
Answer:
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46. The cells of cyanobacteria and bacteria exhibit similarly in having
a) Plastids
b) Nuclei
c) DNA
d) Centrosome
c
Answer :
47. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because
a) They prepare their food without the help of light
b) They do not like sunlight brightness
c) Due to the absence of chlorophyll they are incapable of manufacture their own food
d) They use other kinds of light for manufacturing their own food
Answer :
c
Answer:
c
Answer:
b
48. Organism a regarded as “Joker’s in microbiological park”
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Mycoplasma
d) Prions
49. Who discovered conjugation in bacteria?
a) Arber and Smith
b) Lederberg,Hayes and Woolman
c) Jacob and Monad
d) Zinder and Lederberg
50. Bacteria used as biogas fermenters are
a) Halophiles
b) Methanogens
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c) Cyanobacteria
d) Vibrio bacteria
Answer : b
51. The gram negative bacteria detect and respond to chemicals in their surroundings by
a) Volutin granules
b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) muramic acid
d) Porins
Answer :
d
Answer:
d
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
52. Which of the following is not present in Bacteria?
a) RNA
b) Cell wall
c) Flagella
d) Mitochondria
53. The cyanobacteria of great nutritional value being marketed today is
a) Serytonema
b) Spirogyra
c) Spirulina
d) Stigonema
54. The amino acid found only in bacteria and blue green algae is
a) Methionine
b) Diaminopimelic acid
c) aspartic acid
d) glutamic acid
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55. All the bacteria fix nitrogen except
a) Rhizobium
b) E.coli
c) Azotobacter
d) cyanobacteria
Answer :
b
56. Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to
a) difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b) difference in the cell structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c) difference in the mode of nutrition of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
d) none of the above
Answer : a
57. The iodine used in Gram staining serves as a
a) chelator
b) catalyst
c) mordant
d) cofactor
Answer :
58. Which among the following is called as filamentous bacteria
a) Mycoplasmas
b) Spirochetes
c) Actinomycetes
d) Vibrios
Answer : c
59. Which of the following group of bacteria is considered as a link between bacteria and virus
a) Mycoplasmas
b) Spirochaetes
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c) Actinomycetes
d) Vibrios
Answer : a
60. Corkscrew shaped forms of bacteria are
a) bacilli
b) stalked bacteria
c) spirochaetes
d) actinomycetes
Answer :
c
61. The ability of bacteria to change their morphological form frequently is termed as
a) lysogeny
b) pleomorphism
c) alteromorphism
d) none of these
Answer :
b
62. Bacterial cell wall is made up of
a) chitin
b) cellulose
c) dextran
d) peptidoglycan
Answer : d
63. Bacterial flagella is made up of
a) microtubules
b) tubulin
c) flagellin
d) spinin
Answer :
64. Surface appendage of bacteria meant for cell attachment during conjugation is
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a) pili
b) flagella
c) spinae
d) cilia
Answer :
a
65. Spinae is rigid tubular appendages in
a) Gram positive bacteria
b) Gram negative bacteria
c) both a and b
d) actinomycetes
Answer :
a
66. The region where bacterial genome resides is termed as
a) nucleus
b) cytoplasm
c) nucleoid
d) ribosome free region
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
67. Bacterial chromosome is
a) single stranded and circular
b) double stranded and circular
c) single stranded and linear
d) double stranded and linear
68. Extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded, selfreplicating
DNA molecule in bacteria is called
a) cosmid
b) plasmid
c) phagemid
d) phasmid
Answer :
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69. Membraneous infolding in bacteria that initiate DNA replication is
a) mesosomes
b) carboxysome
c) magnetosome
d) nulcleosome
Answer :
a
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
Answer :
d
70. Bacteria reproduce vegetatively by
a) Fission only
b) Fission and fragmentation
c) Fission, fragmentation and budding
d) None of the above
71. Bacteria reproduce asexually by
a) Conjugation
b) Amitosis
c) Meiosis
d) Transformation
72. Binary fission in bacteria involves all except
a) Cell elongation
b) Cytokinesis
c) DNA duplication
d) Spindle formation
73. Minute bodies that are formed during fragmentation in bacteria are called
a) Conidia
b) Gonidia
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c) Microconidia
d) Oospore
Answer :
b
74. Endospore formation is a method to tide over unfavorable condition which is generally seen in
a) Gram positive bacteria
b) Gram negative bacteria
c) Gram positive bacteria and Gram negative bacteria
d) Streptomycetes
Answer :
a
75. Which of the following favors endospore formation
a) High concentration of nitrogenous nutrients
b) Low concentration of nitrogenous nutrients
c) Low concentration of oxygen
d) None of these
Answer : b
76. The partial diploids formed as a result of sexual reproduction n bacteria is termed as
a) Zygotes
b) haplo zygotes
c) prozygote
d) merozygote
Answer :
d
77. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another via virus is called
a) Transformation
b) Conjugation
c) Recombination
d) Transduction
Answer :
78. The uptake of DNA fragments from surroundings by a bacterium is termed as
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a) Transformation
b) Conjugation
c) Recombination
d) Transduction
Answer :
a
79. The unidirectional transfer of genetic material from adonor bacterium to recipient bacterium b
y cell to cell contact is termed as
a) Transformation
b) Conjugation
c) Recombination
d) Transduction
Answer :
b
80. The ability of a cell to take up DNA fragments from the surroundings is called as
a) Fitness
b) Fecundity
c) Competence
Answer:
c
81. Conjugation between F+ and F cell results in
a) Two F cells
b) F cell becomes F+
c) F cell remains F cell with a little DNA from F+ cell
d) remains same without ant change
Answer : b
82. If the F factor is attached to the bacterial genome the donor is called as
a) F +
b) F++
c) F+ super strains
d) Hfr strains
Answer : d
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83. Specialized transduction is mediated by
a) lytic phages
b) lysogenic phages
c) Both lytic and lysogenic phages
d) T4 phages
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
Answer :
a
Answer :
a
84. Transduction was discovered by
a) Griffith
b) Zinder and Lederberg
c) Lederberg, Hayes and Woolman
d) Iwanowsky
85. Protozoa which completely lack trophic organelles are classified under
a) Ciliophora
b) Sporozoa
c) Rhizopoda
d) Flagellata
86. Highest degree of differentiation of the body is reached in
a) Parameceium
b) Euglena
c) Trypanosoma
d) Amoeba
87. The primary grouping of protozoa is based upon their
a) Feeding habits
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b) Mode of reproduction
c) Mode of locomotion
d) Mode of nutrition
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
88. African sleeping sickness is caused by
a) Giardia intestinalis
b) Leishmania donovani
c) Trypanosoma gambiense
d) Entamoeba histolytica
5. An example of a dimorphic protozoan is
a) Amoeba proteus
b) Parameceium
c) Polystomella
d) Plasmodium
89. Besides erythrocytes, the plasmodium attacks one more type of cells in our body; these are
a) Muscle cells
b) Nerve cells
c) Kidney cells
d) Hepatocytes
Answer :
d
Answer :
b
90. Contractile vacuole is present in
a) Marine protozoa
b) Fresh water protozoans
c) Both a and b
d) Parasitic protozoa
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91. In Paramecium, the trichocysts are used for
a) Offence
b) Defense
c) Fight or flight response
d) None of these
Answer :
b
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
Answer :
d
92. The intermediate host of malarial parasite is
a) man
b) culex
c) female anopheles
d) monkeys
93. The most widely accepted theory of locomotion in
a) Rolling movement theory
b) Surface tension theory
c) Contraction hydraulic theory
d) Mast’s solgel theory
94. Locomotor organelles in the parasitic protozoa of class protozoa are
a) Cilia
b) Flagella
c) Pseudopodia
d) Absent
95. Entamoeba can be identified from amoeba due to the absence of
a) Pseudopodia
b) Nucleus
c) Food vacuoles
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d) Contractile vacuole
Answer :
d
96. The mode of nutrition in Paramecium
a) Saprozoic
b) Saprophytic
c) Halophytic
d) Holozoic
Answer :
d
97. A major evolutionary advance exhibited by protozoan cell as contrasted with a bacterium
a) Formation of permeable cell membrane
b) Presence a nucleus
c) Presence of extensive system of cytoplasmic organelles
d) Both (b)and (c)
Answer :
d
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
98. Sleeping sickness in man is caused by trypanosome by the bite of the infective
a) male tsetse fly
b) female tsetse fly
c) both male and female tsetse fly
d) male and female Aedes mosquito
99 Fungi can be stained by
a) Safranin
b) Cotton blue
c) Glycerin
d) Lacto phenol
100. Fungi usually store the reserve food material in the form of
a) Starch
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b) Lipid
c) Glycogen
d) protein
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
Answer :
b
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
101. Fungi can be distinguished from algae in fact that
a) Cell wall is cellulosic cell wall and chlorophyll is absent
b) Nucleus is present
c) Mitochondria are absent
d) Cell wall is continuous and chlorophyll is absent
102. Ergot is obtained from
a) Rhizopus
b) Claviceps
c) Albugo
d) Phytomonas
103. One of the following is a predatory fungus
a) Arthrobotrys
b) Puccinia
c) Fusarium
d) Alternaria
104. Fungi producing usually eight spores in a sac like structure belong to
a) Phycomycetous
b) Ascomycetes
c) Basidiomycetes
d) Deuteromycetes
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105. One of the following is a heteroceous fungus?
a) Albugo
b) Phytophora
c) Puccinia
d) Ustilago
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
106. In some parasitic fungi a globular or hook like structure is
formed at the point of contact with the host. This is known as
a) Haustoria
b) Aspersorium
c) Hold fast
d) Hook
107. Fungi which grow on dung are termed as
a) Coprophilous
b) Terricolous
c) Sacxicolous
d) Saxiphilous
Answer : a
108. The fruiting body of Aspergillus is called
a) Apothecium
b)Perithecium
c) Cleistothecium
d) Hypanthodium
Answer : c
109. All fungi are
a) autrophs
b) Saprophytes
c) Parasites
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d) Heterotrophs
Answer : d
110. One of the common fungal diseases of man is
a) Cholera
b) Plague
c) Ringworm
d) Typhoid
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
Answer :
c
111. Aflatoxin is produced by
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Fungi
d) Nematode
112. Yeast is unlike bacteria in being
a) Unicellular
b) Multicellular
c) Prokaryotic
d) Eukaryotic
113. “Perfect stage” of a fungus means
a) When the fungus is perfectly healthy
b) When it reproduces asexually
c) When it forms perfect sexual spores
d) None of these
114. Kingdom Monera consist of
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a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaebacteria
d) None of these
Answer :
a
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
Answer :
d
115. Which one is the excretory organ among the following?
a) archeocyte
b) choanocyte
c) solenocyte
d) pinacocyte
116. In urecotelic animals, urea are removed by
a) kreb’s cycle
b) cori cycle
c) Ornithine cycle
d) cori cycle
117 Anaerobic respirations in animals produces
a) CO2 and
b) Lactic acid and H2O
c) Glucose and O2
d) C2H5OH and CO2
118. In Nereis, gaseous exchange takes place through
a) Skin
b) Gills
c) Book lungs
d) Parapodia
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119. Oxygen carrying blood pigment in certain annelids is
a) hemoglobin
b) hemocyanin
c) Chlorocruorin
d) haemoerythrin
Answer : c
120. Lining of trachea is made up of
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Stratified epithelium
c) Pseudostratified epithelium
d) Simple cuboidal epithelium
Answer :
c
121. The volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is referred to as
a) Vital volume
b) Tidal volume
c) Vital capacity
d) Ideal volume
Answer :
122. The volume of air breathed in and out during normal breathing is called
a) Vital capacity
b) Tidal volume
c) Inspiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume
Answer: b
123. Respiratory center is located in
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a) Hypothalamus
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla oblongata
Answer : d
124. In Adult man the total alveolar surface area in the lungs is
a) 10m
b) 50 m
c) 100 m
d) 125 m
Answer :
c
125. In the lungs, the air is separated from the venous blood through
a) squamous epithelium + endothelium of blood vessel
b) squamous epithelium + tunica media of blood vessel
c) Transitional epithelium + tunica externa of blood vessel
d) None of these
Answer : a
126. The movement of chloride ions into erythrocytes from
the plasma to maintain osmotic balance during transport of gases is known as
a) Chlorination
b) CO transport
c) Hamburger phenomenon
d) Passive transport
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
127. Mountain sickness is due to
a) Low PO
b) Low PCO
c) High PCO
d) High PO
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128. Tracheoles are found in
a) Insects
b) Fish gill
c) Yeast cells
d) Diaphragm
Answer :
a
129 .The discovery that led to the development of first antibiotic was made by
a) Jenner
b) Pasteur
c) Fleming
d) Pauling
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
130. Spirulina is a
a) edible fungus
b) bio fertilizer
c) bio pesticide
d) single cell protein
131. Biogas is
a) Methane rich fuel
b) ecofriendly and pollution free source
c) Propane rich fuel
d) Both a and c
Answer : d
132. High value of B O D (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) shows
a) water is normal
b) water is highly polluted
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c) water is less polluted
d) none of these
Answer :
b
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
133. Which of the following is fermentation process?
a) batch process
b) continuous process
c) both a and b
d) none of these
134. Who showed that Saccharomyces cerevisiae causes
fermentation forming products such as beer and buttermilk?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Alexander Fleming
c) Selman Waksman
d) Schatz
135. Rennet is used in
a) bread making
b) fermentation
c) cheese making
d) antibiotics synthesis
Answer : c
136. Tissue plasminogen activator is
a) a vitamin
b) an Enzyme
c)a chemical that stimulates tissue differentiation
d) amino acid
Answer :
137. A bioreactor is
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a) hybridoma
b) Culture containing radioactive isotopes
c) Culture for synthesis of new chemicals
d) Fermentation tank
Answer :
d
138. Humulin is
a) carbohydrat
b) protein
c) fat
d) antibiotics
Answer : b
139. Which of the following can be application of fermentation?
a) tanning of leather
b) curing of tea
c) production of vine
d) all of these
Answer :
140. Enzyme immobilization is
a) conversion of an active enzyme into inactive form
b) providing enzyme with protective covering
c) changing a soluble enzyme into insoluble state
d) changing pH so that enzyme is not able to carry out its function
141. Biogas is produced by
a) aeobic breakdown of biomass
b) anaerobic break down of biomass
c) with the help of methanogenic bacteria
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d) both b and c
Answer :
d
Answer :
b
142. Name the first organic acid produced by microbial fermentation
a) citric acid
b) lactic acid
c) acetic acid
d) none of the above
143. Vinegar is obtained from molasses with the help of
a) Rhizopus
b) Acetobacter
c) Yeast
d) both b and c
Answer :
d
Answer:
b
144. The major pollutant from automobile exhaust is
a) NO
b) CO
c) SO2
145. The green house gases, otherwise called radioactively active gases includes
a) Carbon dioxide
b) CH4
c) N2O
d) All of these
Answer: a
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146. Algal bloom results in
a) Global warming
b) Salination
c) Eutrophication
d) Biomagnification
Answer:
c
147. A high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOd) indicates that:
a) water is pure
b) absence of microbial action
c) Low level of microbial pollution
d) High level of microbial pollution
Answer:
d
148. The effects of radioactive pollutants depends upon
a) Rate of diffusion
b) energy releasing capacity c) rate of deposition of the contaminant
d) all of these
Answer:
d
149The range of normal human hearing is in the range of
a) 10 Hz to 80 Hz
b) 50 Hz to 80 Hz
c) 50Hz to 15000 Hz
d) 15000 Hz and above
Answer: c
150. The pollution which does not persistent harm to life supporting system is
a) Noise pollution
b) Radiation pollution
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c) Organochlorine pollution
d) All of these
Answer:
a
151. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like:
a) glycerol
b) polyphosphates
c) sulphonated hydrocarbons
d) all of these
Answer :
d
152. Growing agricultural crops between rows of planted trees is known as
a) Social forestry
b) Jhum
c) Taungya system
d) Agroforestry
Answer:
c
Answer:
a
Answer :
c
153. The main atmospheric layer near the surface of earth is
a) troposphere
b) mesosphere
c) ionosphere
d) stratospere
154. Populations are said to be sympatric when _______.
a) two populations are physically isolated by natural barriers.
b) two populations live together and freely interbreed to produce sterile offspring.
c) two populations share the same environment but cannot interbreed)
d) two populations are isolated but occassionally come together to interbreed)
155. Populations are said to be allopatric when ________.
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a) they are physically isolated by natural barriers
b) they live together and breed freely to produce viable offspring
c) they are isolated but often come together for breeding
d) none of the above
Answer: a
156. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
a) Autopolyploid
b) Triploid
c) Allopolyploid
d) Monoploid
Answer : c
157. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n = 28 are cultured to get callus by tissue culture method)
What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the callus?
a) 21
b) I4
c) 56
d) 28
Answer : b
158. Pinus belongs to the class ________.
a) Gentopsida
b) Cycadopsida
c) Coniferopsida
d) Sphenopsida
Answer : c
159. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
a) Explant
b) Somaclone
c) Inoculant
d) Clone
Answer : a
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160. Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull during excavation. A small fragment of the scalp
tissue was still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted from it. lf the genes of the
ancient man need to be analysed, the best way of getting sufficient amount of DNA from this
extract is
a) Subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction
b) Subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
c) Treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases
d) Hybridising the DNA with a DNA probe
Answer : a
161. Ovule integument gets transformed into
a) seed
b) fruit wall
c) seed coat
d) cotyledons
Answer : c
162. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
a) Infants due to protein energy malnutrition
b) Adults due to protein energy malnutrition
c) Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency
d) Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency
Answer : c
163. Nosema bombycis which causes pebrine in silk worms is a
a) Virus
b) Bacterium
c) Protozoan
d) Fungus
Answer : c
164. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
a) LH
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b) FSH
c) GH
d) TSH
Answer : c
165. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
a) Myoglobin
b) Prophase II
c) Anaphase I
d) Metaphase II
Answer : a
166 Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) hypoglossal nerve
d) vagus nerve
Answer : c
167. Pick the mammal with true placenta
a) Kangaroo
b) Echidna
c) Platypus
d) Mongoose
Answer : d
168. Most of the endangered species are the victims of
a) Habitat destruction
b) Overhunting
c) Acid rain
d) Competition with introduced species
Answer : a
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169. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is a disease caused by prions in a _______.
a) cow
b) sheep
c) man
d) potato
Answer : a
170. Blood stains are found at the site of a murder. lf DNA profiling technique is to be used for
identifying the criminal, which of the following is ideal for use?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leucocytes
c) Platelets
Answer : b
171. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this, BT refers to
a) Bacillus tuberculosis
b) Biotechnology
c) Betacarotene
d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer :
d
172. BY the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that ________.
a) The strongest of all species survives
b) The most intelligent of the species survives
c) The cleverest of the species survives
d) The most adaptable of the species to changes survives
Answer : d
173. Casparian strips are present in the ________ of the root.
a) epiblema
b) cortex
c) perycycle
d) endodermis
Answer : d
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744 2n = l6 in a primary spermatocyte which is in metaphase of first meiotic division. What shall
be the total number of chromatids in each of the secondary spermatocyte?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a) 8
b) l6
c) 24
d) 32
Answer : b
175. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
a) Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
b) Proboscis long and palpi short
c) Proboscis short and palpi long
d) Both proboscis and palpi are short
Answer : a
176. Which one of the following pairs is an example for lateral meristem?
a) Interfascicular cambium and phellem
b) Procambium and phelloderm
c) Phellogen and fascicular cambium
d) Phellogen and phelloderm
Answer : c
177. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?
a) Homo habilis
b) Australopithecus
c) Rampithecus punjabicus
d) Homo neanderthalensis
Answer : c
178. Which one of the following is polysaccharide?
a) Glycogen
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
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d) Maltose
Answer : a
179. Which one of the following is NOT the reason for very high load of bilirubin in a
newborn?
a) The liver of the newborn is too young to cope up with the heavy load of bilirubin.
b) Excessive red blood corpuscles in the newborn burst, releasing the bilirubin.
c) Insoluble bilirubin in the intestine is reabsorbed by the blood)
d) Mother’s milk contains a high amount of bilirubin.
Answer : d
180. Which one of the following is NOT the function of insulin?
a) Increase the oxidation of glucose in the cells.
b) Increases the permeability of cell membrane to glucose.
c) Initiates the formation of hepatic glycogen from excess of glucose.
d) Initiates the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
Answer : d
181. Which one of the following is not related to guttation?
a) Water is given out in the form of droplets
b) Water given out is impure
c) Water is given out during daytime
d) none of the above
Answer : c
182. Which one of the following is NOT an antitranspirant?
a) PMA
b) BAP
c) Silicon oil
d) Low viscosity
Answer : b
183. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?
a) Calcium
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b) Sodium
c) cAMP
d) cGMP
Answer : b
184. Which one of the following is NOT a method of soil conservation?
a) Overgrazing
b) Mulching
c) Crop rotation
d) Strip cropping
Answer : a
185. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect?
a) SO2
b) CO2
c) CO
d) O2
Answer : b
186. Which one of the following is correct?
a) Introns are present in mRNA and exons are present in tRNA
b) Codons are present in mRNA and anticodons in tRNA
c) Every intron is a set of three terminator codons
d) Exons are present in eukaryotes while introns are present in prokaryotes
Answer : b
187. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species?
a) Barbus stigma
b) Cyprinus carpio
c) Labeo bata
d) Cirrhinus mrigala
Answer : b
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188. Which one of the following is an example of chlorophyllous thallophyte?
a) Volvarialla
b) Spirogyra
c) Nephrolepis
d) Gnetum
Answer : b
189 Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria?
a) Nerve cell
b) Red blood cell
c) Liver cell
d) White blood cell
Answer : b
190. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?
a) Tlymphocyte
b) Blymphocyte
c) Ilymphocyte
d) Plymphocyte
Answer : b
191. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area?
a) Sibling species
b) Allopatric species
c) Sympatric species
d) Endemic species
Answer : d
192 . Which of the following prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in an
undamaged blood vessel?
a) Calcium ions
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b) Thromboplastin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Heparin
Answer : d
193. Which one of the following is a unicellular, nonmotile desmid?
a) Clostridium
b) Chlorobium
c) Cosmarium
d) Chromatium
Answer : c
194. Which one of the following is a driving force for the process of ‘passive absorption of
water in roots’?
a) Root pressure
b) The increase in imbibitional pressure in root cells.
c) Transpiration in leaves
d) Activity of aquaporins
Answer : c
195. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
Answer : b
196. Which one of the following diseases is caused by Nosema bombycis in mulberry
silkworm?
a) Pebrine
b) Muscadine
c) Flacherie
d) Grasserie
Answer : a
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197. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell?
a) Macrophage
b) Monocyte
c) Neutrophil
d) Basophil
Answer : d
198. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants
a) Escherichia coli
b) Bacillus thuringiensis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer : d
199. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom?
a) Platyhelminthes
b) Annelida
c) Mollusca
d) Echinodermata
Answer : a
200. Which one is amino acid?
a) Pepsin
b) Proline
c) Cysteine
d) Renin.
Answer: b
201. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap?
a) Nitrates
b) Phosphates
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c) Water
d) Sugar
Answer : d
202. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson’s disease?
a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Dopamine
d) Glutamic acid
Answer : c
203. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?
a) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
b) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers
c) SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → Bundle of His
d) Purkinje fibers → AV node → SA node → Bundle of His
Answer: a
204. Which of following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
a) TSH and ACTH
b) Oestrogen and progesterone
c) FSH and LH
d) Vassopressin and oxytocin
Answer: c
205. When red blood corpuscles containing both A and B antigens are mixed with your blood
serum, they agglutinate. Hence your blood group is _______ type.
a) O
b) AB
c) B
d) A
Answer: a
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206. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
a) Dyspnea
b) Hypoxia
c) Asphyxia
d) Apnea
Answer : b
207. Which of the following is properly matched?
a) Echinodermata Asteroidea Star fish
b) Arthropoda Insecta Spider
c) Mollusca Cephalopoda Unio
d) Platyhelminthes Trematoda Planaria
Answer : a
208. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a) Sycon – Canal system
b) Star fish – Radial symmetry
c) Ascaris – Flame cell
d) Prawn – Haemocoel
Answer : c
209. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Methane
c) Oxygen
d) Water vapour
Answer : c
210. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid?
a) Testosterone
b) Progesterone
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c) Adrenalin
d) Aldosterone
Answer : d
211 Which of the following hormones is a steroid?
a) Estrogen
b) Insulin
c) Glucagon
d) Thyroxine
Answer : a
212. Which of the following hormones does not naturally occur in plants?
a) IAA
b) GA
c) ABA
d) 2, 4 D
Answer : d
213. Which of the following hormones does not contain a polypeptide?
a) Oxytocin
b) Insulin
c) Antidiuretic hormone
d) Prostaglandin
Answer : d
214. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
a) Hearing
b) Speech
c) Vision
d) Memory
Answer : c
215. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature
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a) Anterior hypothalamus
b) Posterior hypothalamus
c) Limbic system
d) Red nucleus
Answer : a
216. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
a) Habitat
b) Niche
c) Ecotone
d) Ecotype
Answer : c
217. When the blood contains a high percentage of CO2 and a very low percentage of O2, the
breathing stops and the person becomes unconscious. This condition is known as
a) suffocation
b) asphyxia
c) emphycema
d) eupnoea
Answer : b
218. When DNA replication starts
a) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break.
b) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break.
c) The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break.
d) The leading strand produces okazaki fragments.
219. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water________.
a) the contractile vacuole disappears
b) the contractile vacuole increases in size
c) a number of contractile vacuoles appear
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d) the contractile vacuole remains unchanged
Answer : a
220. A dorsal horn is present on the ________ of mulberry silk worm (caterpillar).
a) 8 th abdominal segment
b) 5 th abdominal segment
c) 2 nd thoracic segment
d) Head
Answer : a
221. A balanced diet does NOT include ________.
a) Carbohydrates and fats
b) Nucleic acids and enzymes
c) Proteins and vitamins
d) Minerals and salts
Answer : b
222. To meet the demands of the society, in vitro production of a large number of plantlets in a
short duration is practiced in floriculture and horticulture industry today. This is called
_______.
a) Soma clonal variation
b) Hybridoma technology
c) Micropropagation
d) Somatic hybridization
Answer : c
223. The term genetic RNA refers to
a) the RNA that carries genetic message
b) the RNA that helps gene regulation in lacoperon
c) the RNA present in mitochondria
d) none of the above
Answer : a
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224. When 2 to 3 drops of Benedicts reagent are added to a urine sample and heated gently, it
turns yellow. This colour change indicates that ________.
a) Urine contains 1.5% glucose
b) Urine contains 2% glucose
c) Urine contains 0.5 th glucose
d) Urine contains 1% glucose
Answer : d
225. What will be the codons in mRNA if the DNA codes are ATGCAG?
a) TAC – GTC
b) UAC – GUC
c) UCA – TUA
d) TCA – GTC
Answer : b
226. What is a genophore?
a) DNA in prokaryotes
b) DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
c) DNA and protein in prokaryotes
d) RNA in prokaryotes
Answer : b
227. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of
a) Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
b) Ootid in the fallopian tube
c) Secondary Oocyte in the fallopian tube
d) Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle
Answer : d
228. Tyloses are found in _______.
a) secondary xylem
b) secondary phloem
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c) sclerenchyma fibres
d) sclereids
Answer : a
229. Transpiration facilitates
a) Opening of stomata
b) Absorption of water by roots
c) Excretion of minerals
d) Electrolyte balance
Ansswer : b
230. The World Intellectual Property Day is observed on ________.
a) February, 29t th
b) June, 30 th
c) April, 26 th
d) September, 5 th
Ansswer : c
231. The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are ________.
a) 100 S
b) 80 S
c) 60 S
d) 70 S
Answer : d
232. The term, ‘southern blotting’ refers to
a) transfer of DNA fragments from invitro cellulose membrane to electrophoresis gel
b) attachment of probes to DNA fragments
c) transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoresis gel to nitrocellulose sheet.
d) comparison of DNA fragments from two sources
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233: The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the nonliving things on the
basis of their ability for
(a) responsiveness to touch
(b) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
(c) reproduction
(d) growth and movement
Answer :
c
234: There is no life on the moon due to the absence of
(a) oxygen
(b) water
(c) light
(d) temperature
Answer : a
235: Praying Mantis is the example of
(a) warning coloration
(b) social insects
(c) camouflage
(d) Mullerian mimicry
Answer :
b
236: More than 70% of world's fresh water is contained in
(a) Antartica
(b) Greenland
(c) Glaciers and Mountains
(d) Polar Ice
Answer :
237 Biosystematics aims at
(a) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
(b) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
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(c) classifying organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny
based on parameters from all fields of studies
(d) identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis
of their cytological characteristics
Answer :
c
238 Homeostasis is
(a) tendency to change with change in environment
(b) tendency to resist change
(c) disturbance in regulatory control
(d) plants and animals extracts used in homeopathy
Answer :
b
239 Branch of biology that studies organisms that grow in environments with certain specific
germs.
(a) Mycologist
(b) Exobiologist
(c) Gnotobioticist
(d) Parasitologist
Answer :
c
239 .A electron microscope has higher resolution as compared to the light microscope. This is
because:
a) The wavelength of an electron is longer than the wavelength of light
b) The wavelength of an electron is shorter than the wavelength of light
c) The electrons can penetrate the sample better
d) They use different stains.
Answer : b
240. Nucleolus is involved in the synthesis of:
a) rRNA
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b) tRNA
c) DNA
d) mRNA
Answer : a
241. When changes in the phenotype or gene expression occur without changes in the underlying
DNA sequence, the phenomenon is called:
a) Mutation
b) Eugenics
c) Epigenetics
d) Epistasis
Answer : c
242. Which of the following is commonly known as the Complex II of electron transport system
of mitochondria?
a)
NADH dehydrogenase
b)
Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Cytochrome c reductase
d) Cytochrome c oxidase
Answer : b
243. From the perspective of developmental origin. Which of the following structures is
homologous to a tortoise shell?
a) Exoskeleton of a lobster
b) Bones of a fish
c) Skull of humans
d) Feathers of birds
Answer : b
244. Acoelomates are characterized by:
a) The absence of cavity surrounding the internal organs
b) The presence of huge body cavity, as in case of terrestrial animals
c) The presence of air sacs, as in case of birds
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d) The absence of brain in a group of extinct species.
Answer : a
245. Identify the phylum that is characterized by the animals that have segmented appendages.
a) Cnideria
b) Porifera
c) Arthropoda
d) Mollusca
Answer : c
246. Which one of the following is the smallest biological unit capable of evolving over time?
a) A cell
b) An individual organism
c) A population
d) A species
Answer : c
247. In case of parasites that require multiple hosts to complete their life cycle, what does
definitive host mean?
a) It is the host that harbors the sexual stages of the parasite
b) It is the host in which the parasite reproduces sexually
c) It is the host in which the parasite feeds
d) It is the host in which the parasite remain in dormant stage
248. Which one of the following is NOT a plant hormone?
a) Polyamines
b) Brassinosteroid
c) Nitric oxide
d) Karrikins
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e. Jasmonates
Answer : d
249. Arabidopsis and rice have diploid chromosome number of 10 and 24, respectively. Assuming
no crossing over taking place, genetic variation among F2 individuals in a genetic cross is likely to
be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Same in both species but not zero
More in Arabidopsis
More in rice
Zero in both the species
Answer : c
250. In tryptophan operon, tryptophan acts as:
a) Repressor
b) Activator
c) Co-repressor
d) Co-activator
Answer : c
251. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Plants adapted to cold environment have higher ratio of ‘unsaturated to saturated’ fatty acids in
their membrane compared to those adapted to hot environment
b) Plants adapted to cold environment have lower ratio of ‘unsaturated to saturated’ fatty acids in
their membrane compared to those adapted to hot environment
c) Plants adapted to cold environment have same ratio of ‘unsaturated to saturated fatty acids in
their membrane compared to those adapted to hot environment
d) Plants do not have any unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane
252. The recombination frequencies between three genes x, y, and z are as follows:
x – y = 2.6%, y – z = 1.4% and x – z = 1.2%. Then the gene order is:
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a) x – z – y
b) x – y – z
c) y – x – z
d) z – x – y
Answer : a
253. A mutant phenotype due to a nonsense mutation can be rescued by a mutation in tRNA
gene. This rescue is an example of:
a) Induced mutation
b) Suppressor mutation
c) Spontaneous mutation
d) Deletion mutation
Answer : b
254. Ames test is performed to detect:
a) Mutagen
b) pH
c) nutrient stress
d) salinity.
Answer : a
255. Positive selection of T cells ensures:
a) MHC restriction
b) Self-tolerance
c) TCR engagements
d) Activation by co-stimulatory signals
Answer : a
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256. A DNA binding motif is:
a) Helix-loop-helix
b) Helix-turn-helix
c) Helical wheel
d) Loop-helix-loop
Answer : b
257. Bacterial cell lysis by lysozyme is due to the:
a) Hydrolysis of α-1,4-glycosidic bonds between the N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic
acid
b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c) Hydrolysis of Penta peptide bridges
d) Hydrolysis of β-1,4-glcosidic bonds between the N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic
acid
Answer: d
258. Amino acids responsible for N-linked and O-linked glycosylation of proteins are:
a) Asparagine and Aspartic acid
b) Glutamine and Serine
c) Glutamic acid and Serine
d) Asparagine and Threonine
Answer : d
259. Which of the following cell organelle can be viewed by a light microscope?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
c)
Golgi
d)
Mitochondria
Answer : d
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260. Which of the following statement about mitochondria is NOT true?
a)
Size and shape of mitochondria varies in a cell
b)
Mitochondria in the cell can fuse with one another
c)
Large mitochondria in the call can split into two
d)
In all cells, one mitochondria will be exceptionally larger than others
Answer : d
261. Nebenkern of insect sperm cells is a modified _________.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Centrosome
Answer : c
262. Mitochondria in the human sperm cell are occupied at _________.
a)
Sperm head
b)
Mid piece
c)
Sperm tail
d)
No mitochondria in the sperms
Answer : b
263. Which of the following statement is true regarding the membrane system of mitochondria?
a) Chemical composition of both inner and outer membrane of mitochondria are same
b) Outer membrane contain more proteins/lipid ratio (by weight) than inner membrane
c) Inner membrane contain more proteins/lipid ratio (by weight) than outer membrane
d) Phospholipids are completely absent on the outer membrane of mitochondria
Answer : c
264. Which of the following membrane lipid constituent can be considered as the lipid marker of
inner mitochondrial membrane?
a) Lecithin
b) Cardiolipin
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c) Ceramide
d) Sphingo-ceramide
Answer : b
265. The only other place where cardiolipin can be found naturally other than mitochondrial
inner membrane is________.
a) Inner membrane of Golgi apparatus
b) Apoptosome
c) Bacterial plasma membrane
d) Membrane of glyoxysome
Answer : c
266. Which of the following statement regarding the distribution of cholesterol is true in the
membrane system of mitochondria?
a) Cholesterol is completely absent in mitochondrial membrane
b) Cholesterol is absent in the inner membrane
c) Cholesterol is present only in the inner membrane
d) Cholesterol is present in both inner and outer membrane
Answer : b
267. Mitochondrial membrane system processes a variety of porin proteins which allow the passage
of selective molecules. Which of the following statement is true regarding the porin protein in the
mitochondrial membrane system?
a) Mitochondrial outer membrane possess porins but they lack the usual beta barrel structure of
the usual porins
b) Both inner and outer mitochondrial membrane possess porin proteins
c) Only the inner mitochondrial membrane possess porin proteins
d) Many porin proteins which are structurally similar to the porins of bacterial cells are present in
the outer membrane of mitochondria
Answer : d
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268. ATP, NAD and CoA can be ___________.
a) Freely transported through both outer and inner membrane of mitochondria
b) Freely transported through the outer membrane of mitochondria
c) Freely transported through the inner membrane of mitochondria
d) Cannot be transported freely through outer and inner membrane of mitochondria
Answer: b
269. Cellular organelle involved in the regulation of Ca2+ level in the cell ________.
a Mitochondria
b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Mitochondria
d) Mitochondria and vesicles
Answer : c
270. The only enzyme in citric acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) which is attached to the inner
mitochondrial membrane is:
a) Succinate dehydrogenase
b) NADPH dehydrogenase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
Answer : a
271. Which of the following can be used as an enzyme marker for inner mitochondrial
membrane?
a) Succinate dehydrogenase
b) ATP synthase
c) Succinyl Co-A synthase
d) Cardiolipin
Answer : a
272. Which of the following is a mobile electron carrier in the mitochondrial electron transport
system?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
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b) FADH Dehydrogenase
c) Ubiquinone
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
Answer : c
273. Which of the following cellular event is NOT directly involved with mitochondria?
a) Apoptosis
b) ATP synthesis
c) Controlling cell cycle
d) Protein degradation
Answer : d
274. Which of the following statement is NOT true about mitochondria?
a) Hepatocytes have more than 2000 mitochondria per cell
b) RBC completely lack mitochondria
c) Sperm cells of Insects completely lack mitochondria
d) Mitochondrial number may change in each cell of a species
Answer : c
275. Example for autonomous organelle(s):
a) Mitochondria
b) Chloroplast
c) Mitochondria and chloroplast
d) Chloroplast, mitochondria and Golgi
Answer : c
276. Pick-out the odd one:
a) Kearns-Sayre syndrome
b) Tay-sach syndrome
c) MELAS syndrome
d) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
Answer : b
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277. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNa) is considered as one of the best marker tool for population
biologists and evolutionary biologists. The reason for this is:
a) Mitochondrial DNA undergo spontaneous mutation
b) Mitochondrial DNA can be easy isolated
c) Mitochondrial genes are specific to mtDNA
d) Absence of genetic recombination in mtDNA
Answer : d
278. Cyanide is a mitochondrial toxin. The mechanism of action of cyanide is by inhibiting:
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Cytochrome c oxidase
d) ATP synthase
Answer : c
279. The average thickness of plasma membrane of a eukaryotic cell is:
a)
5 to 10 nm
b)
5 to 10 Å
c)
5 to 10 µm
d)
5 to 10 pµm
Answer : a
280. Which of the following is NOT the function of plasma membrane?
a)
Intercellular interactions
b)
Responding to external stimuli
c)
Energy transduction
d)
Assisting in chromosome segregation
Answer : d
281. Which of the following statement is true regarding the surface tension of plasma membrane?
a)
Surface tension of plasma membrane is more than pure lipid structures
b)
Surface tension of plasma membrane is less than pure lipid structures
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c)
Surface tension of plasma membrane and pure lipid structures are same
d)
Plasma membrane do not have surface tension
Answer : b
282. Which of the following statements best describes the chemical composition of plasma
membrane?
a)
Plasma membrane is composed of two layers—one layer of phospholipids and one layer of
proteins.
b)
Plasma membrane is composed of equal numbers of phospholipids, proteins, and
carbohydrates.
c)
Plasma membrane is bilayers of proteins with associated lipids and carbohydrates.
d)
Plasma membrane is bilayers of phospholipids with associated proteins and carbohydrates.
Answer : d
283. Biochemical analysis of a plasma membrane sample showed about 20 -25% cardiolipin
content (a type of membrane lipid). Most probably the sample is from:
a)
Human erythrocytes cell membrane
b)
Myelin sheath of nerve cells
c)
Mitochondrial inner membrane
d)
Mitochondrial outer membrane
Answer : d
284. Glycolipids in plasma membrane are usually located at:
a)
Outer leaflet of plasma membrane
b)
Inner leaflet of plasma membrane
c)
Evenly distributed in both inner and outer leaves of plasma membrane
d)
Cannot be predicted, it varies according to cell types
Answer : a
285. Which of the following events in a biological membrane would not be energetically favorable
and therefore not occur spontaneously?
a)
the rotation of membrane proteins
b)
the rotation of phospholipids
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c)
the lateral movement of phospholipids
d)
the flip-flop of phospholipids to the opposite leaflet .
Answer : d
286. Malarial parasite uses ________ on the plasma membrane of RBC as receptor to enter in the
cell
a) band 3 protein
b)
Glycophorins
c)
Spectrin protein
d)
Ankyrin proteins
Answer : b
287. The carbohydrate content of plasma membrane in eukaryotes is:
a)
2 – 10 % by weight
b)
20 – 25% by weight
c)
30 – 50 % by weight
d)
60 – 70% by weight
Answer : a
288. Carbohydrates in the plasma membrane:
a)
Always face inward to the non-polar portion of membrane
b)
Always face outward to extracellular space
c)
Always face to the lumen of cells
d)
Directed to all sides in the membrane randomly
Answer : b
289. Muscular dystrophy, a devastating disease that cripple and kills children are caused by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mutation in dystrophin
Mutation in band 3 protein
Mutation in glycophorin A
Mutation in Ankyrin
Answer : a
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290. Enzymes such as desaturase, phospholipase and acetyltransferase are very essential for
maintaining the integrity of plasma membranes. These enzymes are involved in:
a)
Maintaining the bilayer nature of membrane
b)
Maintains the semi-permeability of membrane
c)
Maintaining the fluidity of membrane
d)
Maintain the position of trans-membrane proteins in the membrane
Answer : c
291. A person having the enzyme which adds N-acetylgalactosamine to the end of glycolipids
which determine the blood group. The blood group of the person will be
a)
A
b) b
c)
AB
d)
O
Answer : a
292. A person having the enzyme which adds galactose to the end of glycolipids which determine
the blood group. The blood group of the person will be
a) A
b) b
c) AB
d) O
Answer : b
293. Red blood cells in the blood repel each other due to:
a)
The concave shape of RBC
b)
c)
d)
They lack nucleus and other membrane structures
Carbohydrates moieties of glycophorin A in RBC membrane contain sialic acid residues
Amino acids in the peripheral portion of glycophorin A are negatively charged
Answer : c
294. The main role of carbohydrates in the cell membrane is
a)
Adhesion
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b)
Recognition
c)
Locomotion
d)
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Answer : b
295. The best method to study the properties of integral membrane proteins in the plasma
membrane is
a)
Cryo-sectioning and electron microscopy
b)
Freeze fracture analysis and electron microscopy
c)
Atomic force microscopy
d)
All of these methods
Answer : b
296. GPI anchored proteins are:
a)
Peripheral proteins of plasma membrane
b)
Integral proteins of plasma membrane
c)
Proteins which randomly binds to the lipids of plasma membrane
d)
Proteins which binds to ion gated channels in the plasma membrane.
Answer: a
267. The fluidity of plasma membrane increase with
a)
Increase in saturated fatty acids in the membrane
b)
Increase in unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane
c)
Increase in phospholipid content in the membrane
d)
Increase in glycolipid content in the membrane
268. Skeletal muscle fibre is
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a) Multinucleated
b) uninucleated
c) binucleated
d) anucleated
Answer: a
269. Muscle of heart is known as
a) Striated
b) Cardiac
c) voluntary
d) Non striated
Answer:
b
270. The number of bones in their
a) 206
b) 80
c) 120
d) 126
Answer : d
271. Total number of bones in man
a) 206
b) 205
c) 204
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d) 201
Answer: a
272. Number of vertebrae in man is
a) 32
b) 33
c) 26
d) 28
Answer : c
273 Alternative source of energy for muscle contraction is
a) ATP
b) creatine phosphate
c) glycolysis
d) all of these
Answer: c
274. Muscles are connected to the bones by
a) ligament
b) Tendons
c) Cartilage
d) Bone
.
Answer: b
275. Where do you find osteocytes
a) Cartilage
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b) Blood
c) Bone
Answer: c
276. Which of the following is a freely movable joint?
a) Ball and socket
b) Fibrous joint
c) cartilagous joint
d) both a and b
.
Answer: a
278 Elbow joint is a
a) Saddle joint
b) Ball and socket joint
c) Pivot joint
d) Hinge joint
.
Answer: d
279. Injection of antivenom to a patient for snake bite is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer : d
280. Newborns get their antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
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d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: c
281. Vaccination is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer : b
282. Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox
once infected. This immunity is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: a
283. Skin is the largest organ in the body and protects us by
preventing pathogen entry. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired innate immunity
b) Artificially acquired adaptive immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: a
284. All the following comes under nonspecific defence mechanism except
a) fever
b) phagocytes
c) cell mediated immunity
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d) complement system
Answer: c
285. Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?
a) Bone marrow
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Appendix
Answer:
b
286. Which of the following immune mechanism is responsible
for protecting us from diseases of other species?
a) Active immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Innate immunity
d) Adaptive immunity
Answer: c
287. Primary lymphoid organs include
a) Thymus and spleen
b) Thymus and bone marrow
c) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen
d) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes
Answer: b
289. Activation of B cell receptor by the binding of an epitope result in the formation of
a) plasma cells and T cytotoxic cells
b) memory cells and T cytotoxic cells
c) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for primary response
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d) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for secondary response
Answer : d
290: Which one of following is true about chloroplast
a) It is underground part
b) It helps in pollination
c) Self replicating organelle
d) Involve in Lipid synthesis
Answer: c
291: One of the following is not double membranous structure
a) Mitochondrion
b) Vacuole
c) Chloroplast
d) Nucleus
Answer :b
292: Tay Sach’s disease is because of
a) Accumulation of proteins
b) Accumulation of glycogen
c) Accumulation of lipids
d) Accumulation of vitamins
Answer: C
293: Modification of proteins and lipids as glycopeptides and lipo-proteins occur in
a) Ribosomes
b) Golgi apparatus
c) SER
d) All A, B and C
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Answer :b
294: Ribosomes are chemically composed of
a) Protein
b) Only DNA
c) RNA
d) Both A + C
Answer:
d
295: Detoxification of harmful drugs is the function
a) RER
b) SER
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer :b
296 Which type of cell would probably be most appropriate to study chloroplasts
a) Conducting cell
b) Photosynthetic cell
c) Pericycle cell
d) All options are correct
Answer: b
297 Cell wall consist of
a) One main layer
b) Two main layers
c) Three main layers
d) Four main layers
Answer : c
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298 Leucoplast are found
a) Petals
b) Ripened fruits
c) Underground parts
d) Leaves
`
Answer: c
299 : The intake of solid food by infloding of cell membrane is called
a) Exocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Phagocytosis
d) Both B and C
Answer: c
300: The structure within a cell that distinguishes the cell as being eukaryotic, and prokaryotic is
a) Ribosomes
b) Cell membrane
c) Cell wall
d) Nucleus
Answer:
d
Answer:
d
301 Microtubules consist of helically stacked molecules of the protein
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Keratin
d) Tubulin
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302: The microfilaments composed of
a) Actin protein
b) Gelatin protein
c) Keratin protein
d) Tubulin protein
Answer:
a
303: Lysosomes have
a) Single-layered membrane
b) Double-layered membrane
c) Three-layered membrane
d) No membrane
Answer: a
304: Which of the following are regularly assembled and disassembled during cell cycle.
a) Microtubules
b) Intermediate filaments
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
305: Plant cell wall
a) Provide rigidity to the cell
b) Maintains cell shape
c) Prevents expansion of cell
d) All A, B and C
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Answer:
a
306 In which organelle following reaction takes place
6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy (from sunlight) ---------> C6H12O6 + 6 O2
a) Mitochondrion
b) Peroxisome
c) Chloroplast
d) Glyoxysome
Answer: c
307: SER is abundant in cells that are involved in
a) Lipid metabolism
b) Protein metabolism
c) Glucose metabolism
d) Calcium metabolism
Answer: a
308: The transport vesicles from the Endoplasmic Reticulum(ER) fuse with the ____of the Golgi
apparatus.
a) Cis face
b) Trans face
c) Coated face
d) Both A and B
Answer : a
309: The door to your house is like the __________________ of a cell membrane?
a) Phospholipid bilayer
b) Integral protein
c) Recognition protein
d) Peripheral protein
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Answer: a
310: A semi permeable membrane is stretched across a chamber filled with water. The membrane
is only permeable to water. 60 mg of salt is added to the left side of the chamber. Which of the
following will happen?
a) Water will move toward the right side
b) salt will move toward the right side
c) Water will move toward the left side
d) salt will move toward the left side
Answer: a
311: Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a
a) Tight junction
b) Microtubule
c) Desmosome
d) Plasmodesma
Answer:
a
312: What are the two faces of the Golgi body?
a) Funny face and goofy face
b) Coated face and non-coated face
c) Saving face and loosing face
d) Cis face and Trans face
Answer: d
313: Adjacent plant cells are “cemented” together by
a) Their primary walls
b) Their secondary walls
c) A middle lamella
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d) Plasmodesmata
Answer : c
314: What is a microscope's ability to distinguish between separate objects that are close together?
a) Magnification
b) Contrast
c) Resolving power
d) Scanning power
Answer : c
315: What is the power of the objective lens of a microscope if an eyepiece of power 10x is used
and the total magnification of the object is 40x?
a) 4
b) 10
c) 40
d) 400
Answer : a
316: Within chloroplasts, light is captured by
a) Grana within cisternae
b) Thylakoids within grana
c) Cisternae within grana
d) Grana within thylakoids
Answer :b
317: If a gene mutation prevents formation of an enzyme normally used by a lysosomes, a disease
may result known as
a) Lysosomal abstracted disease
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b) Lysosomal secretory disease
c) Lysosomal storage disease
d) All A, B and C
Answer: c
318: Sodium ions are "pumped" from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher
concentration in the nerve cells of humans. This process is an example of
a) Diffusion
b) Passive transport
c) Osmosis
d) Active transport
Answer : d
319: The diagram below shows the structure of chloroplast. The structure labeled as x is
a) Granum
b) Stroma
c) Frets
d) Lamella
Answer : a
320: Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?
a) Mitochondrion . . . photosynthesis
b) Nucleus . . . cellular respiration
c) Ribosome . . . manufacture of lipids
d) Central vacuole . . . storage
Answer : d
321: By which of the following can movement of materials across animal cell membranes be
accomplished? I Active transport, II Diffusion, III Pinocytosis
a) I only
b) II only
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c) I and II only
d) All I, II, and III
Answer: d
322: Hydrogen peroxide degradation in a cell is a function of
a) Ribosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Peroxisomes
d) Glyoxisomes
Answer : c
323: Cells are commonly studied in the lab) If you were examining various unlabeled slides of
cells under the microscope, you could tell if the cell was from a plant by the presence of
a) A nucleus
b) A cell membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) A cell wall
Answer : d
324: Ribosomes are constructed in the
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Nucleoid
c) Nucleolus
d) Nuclear pore
Answer : c
325: Each chloroplast encloses a system of flattened, membranous sacs called
a) Cristae
b) Thylakoids
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c) Plastids
d) Cisternae
Answer :b
326: Which one of the following is an exception to cell theory
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protists
d) Protozoans
Answer: b
327: The site of enzymes directing the metabolic oxidation (respiration), ATP synthesis and
considered as power house of cell are
a) Lysosomes
b) Microsomes
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus
Answer : c
328: Dictyosome is also known as
a) Golgi body
b) Ribosome
c) Lysosome
d) Peroxisome
Answer: a
329: Biochemically the ribosome consists of _______________ and some 50 structural .
a) mRNA, Carbohydrates
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b) tRNA, lipids
c) mRNA, Proteins
d) rRNA, Proteins
Answer : d
330: It is a mesh of interconnected membranes that serve a function involving protein synthesis
and transport.
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Cytoskeleton
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Both A and B
Answer: a
331: Plant cells contain the following 3 things not found in animal cells _________,
_____________ and ______________.
a) Plastids / Chlorophyll / Membrane
b) Chloroplast / Cell wall / Golgi body
c) Plastids / Cell wall / Chlorophyll
d) Mitochondria / Cell wall /
Answer:
c
332: The largest organelle in a mature living plant cell is the
a) Chloroplast
b) Nucleus
c) Central vacuole
d) Dictyosomes
Answer : c
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333: Which of the following structure-function pairs is mismatched?
a) Lysosome-intracellular digestion
b) Golgi body-secretion of cell products
c) Ribosome-protein synthesis
d) Glyoxysome-detoxification
Answer : d
334: The three-dimensional network of protein filaments within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
is called the
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Cytoskeleton
d) None of these
Anwers: c
335: Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?
a) Lysosomes
b) Peroxisomes
c) Centrioles
d) Mitochondria
Answer:
336: A cell that is missing lysosomes would have difficulty doing what?
a) Digesting food
b) Storing energy
c) Packaging proteins
d) Moving cytoplasm
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Answer : a
337: Which of the following cell part is described as a "fluid mosaic"?
a) Chloroplast
b) Vacuole
c) Cell membrane
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : c
338 What part of the cell serves as the intracellular highway?
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Cell membrane
d) Mitochondria
Answer : a
339 Which of the following would you NOT find in a bacterial cell
a) DNA
b) Cell membrane
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Ribosomes
Answer : c
340: Somatic cells of a human have ____ chromosomes and are called
a) 10, haploid
b) 92, diploid
c) 23, haploid
d) 46, diploid
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Answer : d
341 Each chromosome consists of two identical
a) Genes
b) Nuclei
c) Chromatids
d) Bases
Answer:
c
342 An animal has 80 chromosomes in its gametes, how many chromosomes would you expect
to find in this animal's brain cells?
a) 120
b) 240
c) 40
d) 160
Anwers : d
343 The length of each mitochondrion is about
a) 1.0 μm
b) 0.2 μm
c) 10 μm
d) 2.0 μm
Answer :c
344: Isolation of cellular components to determine their chemical composition is called
a) Cell differentiation
b) Chromatography
c) Cell fractionation
d) All of these
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Answer : c
345 According to mosaic model by Singer and Nicholson plasma membrane is composed of
a) Phospholipids
b) Extrinsic proteins
c) Intrinsic proteins
d) All of these
Answer :d
346 : Robert Brown is well known for his discovery of
a) Chloroplast
b) Photometer
c) Nucleus
d) Nucleolus
Answer:
c
347 Which organelle releases oxygen
a) Mitochondrion
b) Chloroplast
c) Glyoxysome
d) Both A and B
Answer :b
348 : Endoskeleton of a cell is made up of
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
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c) Intermediate filaments
d) All of these
Answer : d
349: Ribosomes are attached with ER by
a) Larger subunit
b) Smaller subunit
c) Na+ ions
d) None of these
Answer: a
350: The outer most layer of cell wall is
a) Primary wall
b) Secondary wall
c) Middle lamella
d) Plasma membrane
Answer:
c
351: Infoldings of inner membrane in mitochondria are called
a) Grana
b) Thyallkoids
c) Cristae
d) Frets
Answer : c
352: Chromosome with equal arms is called
a) Metacentric
b) Sub-metacentric
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c) Acrocentric
d) Telocentric
Answer:
a
353 A chromosome with the centromere located very close to one end so that the shorter arm is
very small is termed as
a) Telocentric
b) Sub-telocentric
c) Acrocentric
d) Both B and C
Answer:
d
354 The matrix surrounding the grana in the inner membrane of chloroplasts is
a) Cytosol
b) Frets
c) Stroma
d) Inter-granal lamellae
Answer : c
355: A chromosome whose centromere lies at one end)
a) Sum-metacentric
b) Metacentric
c) Telocentric
d) Acrocentric
Answer:
356: Lysosomes arise from,
a) Nucleus
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
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c) Golgi apparatus
d) Cell membrane
Answer : c
357 The primary structural component(s) of centrioles is (are):
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Intermediate filaments
d) Basal bodies
Answer : a
358 The process of self-digestion of selective non-functional organelles by a cell through the
action of enzymes originating within the cell is referred to as
a) Pinocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Autophagy
d) Cytotoxicity
Answer : c
359: :″Proteins icebergs in a sea of lipids” is stated by
a) Lamellar Model
b) Unit-membrane Model
c) Fluid-Mosaic model
d) Micellar Model
Answer:
283
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360: The chloroplast develop from
a) ER
b) Golgi complex
c) Nuclear membrane
d) Proplastids
Answer : d
361: Peroxisomes and Glyoxisomes are
a) Energy transducers
b) Membrane-less organelles
c) Micro bodies
d) Basal bodies
Answer : c
362: These are involved in conversion of fats to carbohydrates by oxidation of fats
. a) Peroxisomes
b) Microsomes
c) Glyoxisomes
d) Phagosomes
Answer : c
363: Xanthophyll is a pigment having
a) Yellow colour
b) Green colour
c) Red colour
d) Blue colour
Answer : a
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364: The covering of vacuole is known as
a) Chromoplast
b) Chloroplast
c) Amyloplast
d) Tonoplast
Answer : d
365 : Insulin is secreted from cells in this way
a) Endocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Phagocytosis
d) Exocytosis
Answer: d
366: ________________ increases size of an object.
a) Magnification
b) Resolution
c) Resolving power
d) Contrast
Answer : a
367: The chromosome " B " in this diagram is
a) Metacentric
b) Sub-metacentric
c) Acrocentric
d) Telocentric
Answer: b
368: Which of the following organelles or structures is found in both plant and animal cells?
a) Central vacuole
b) Tonoplast
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c) Cell wall
d) Peroxisomes
Answer : d
369. Among the biotic components of the ecosystem, the producer system is ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sea
Rivers
Green Plants
Animals
Answer : c
370. Which of has following group of gases contribute to the 'Green House Effect' ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Carbon tetrafluoride and Nitrous oxide
Carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide
Ammonia and Ozone
Carbon dioxide and Methane
Answer : d
371. Which one of the following disease is not transmitted by tiger mosquitoes ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dengue
Chikungunya
Japanese Encephalitis
Yellow fever
Answer: : c
372. Which one of the following air pollution can affect blood stream leading to death ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cadmium
Asbestos dust
Carbon monodioxide
Lead
Answer : c
373. What is Pollination ?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
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germination of pollen grains
growth of pollen tube in ovule
transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
visiting flowers by insects
Answer : c
374 Plants receive their nutrients mainly from ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
atmosphere
chlorophyll
light
soil
Answer : d
375 What is movement of cell against concentration gradient is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
osmosis
active transport
diffusion
passive transport
Answer : b
376. The disease caused by deficiency of protein in children is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pellagra
Marasmus
Beri-Beri
Rickets
Answer : b
377. Bamboo is classified as
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bush
Tree
Grass
Weed
Answer : c
378. Photosynthesis generally takes place in which parts of the plant?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
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Steam and leaf
Leaf and other chloroplast bearing plants
Bark and leaf
Roots and chloroplast bearing plants
Answer : b
379. Plants synthesis protein from
a.
b.
c.
d.
Starch
Sugar
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Answer : d
380. Plants absorb dissolved nitrates from soil and convert them into :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Free nitrogen
Urea
Proteins
Ammonia
Answer : a
381. Which of the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Carbon monoxide
Methane
Oxygen
Nitrogen dioxide
Answer : a
382. Human blood is a viscous fluid due to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Platelets in plasma
Proteins in blood
RBC and WBC in blood
Sodium in serum
Answer : b
383. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic ?
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IHO Super Seniors
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is increase
Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is decrease
Will remain same
Will be unpredictable
Answer : b
384. The richest source of vitamin D is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cheese
Milk
Spinach
Cod liver oil
Answer : d
385. Which of the following tests helps in diagnosis of cancer ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Urine test
Neuro Test
Blood test
Biopsy test
Answer : d
386. The compound used in anti-malarial drug is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chloroquin
Aspirin
Neoprene
Isoprene
Answer : a
387. Which of the following is a skin disease ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rickets
Osteomalacia
Anaemia
Pellagra
Answer : d
388. Which one of the following is an enzyme ?
a. Somatotropin
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b. Trypsin
c. Glucagon
d. Insulin
Answer : b
389. The deficiency of which of the following leads to dental caries ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Iron
Fluorine
Copper
Zinc
Answer : b
390. Healing of wounds is hastened by vitamin ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
C
A
E
D
Answer : a
391. Carotene in Indian cow's milk causes ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
deep yellow colour
Creamish white colour
white colour
yellow colour
Answer : d
392. Which is responsible for the process of cell division ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
mitosis
heterosis
fusion
fission
Answer : a
393. Most highly intelligent mammals are :
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a.
b.
c.
d.
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elephants
whales
dolphins
kangaroos
Answer : c
394 Milk is poor source of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Calcium
Iron
Copper
Sodium
Answer : b
395. Photosynthesis takes place faster in ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
yellow light
red light
darkness
white light
Answer : d
396. Plants that grow in saline water are known as :
a.
b.
c.
d.
hydrophytes
thallophytes
halophytes
mesophytes
Answer : c
397. Breeding and management of bees is known as :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sericulture
Apiculture
Cuniculture
Pisciculture
Answer : b
398. Pyorrhoea is a disease of the
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a.
b.
c.
d.
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nose
gums
heart
lungs
Answer : b
399. Placenta is the structure formed :
a.
b.
c.
d.
by fusion of germ layers
by foetus only
by the union of foetal and uterine tissue
by uterine only
Answer : c
400. Who is known as father of Genetics ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Morgan
Henry
G.J. Mandel
F.b Morrison
Answer : c
401. Rafflesia is the biggest flower of the world ?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer : a
402 Normal human blood is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Neutral
Acidic
Alkaline
None of above
Answer : c
403. Phloem tissue is found in ?
a. Plants
b. Insects
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c. Mammals
d. All of above
Answer : a
404 Which of the following does not occur within mitochondria?
a) Krebs cycle
b) Glycolysis
c) Electron transport system
d) ATP synthesis
Answer :
b
405. Which of the following is possessed only by some bacteria, not by eukaryotes?
a)Cilia
b)Flagella
c) Capsule
d)Centriole
Answer : c
406. A major function of Golgi bodies or Dictyosomes is
a) in modification of proteins
b) in fermentation
c) in light independent photosynthesis
d) for isolation of electron transport systems
Answer : a
407 Which of the following does not surrounded by a double membrane in eukaryotes?
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a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Chloroplasts
d) the cell
Answer :
d
Answer:
b
408. The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is called
a) variation
b) heridity
c) inheritance
d) resemblance
409. The tendency of offspring to differ from parents is called
a) variation
b) heredity
c) inheritance
d) resemblance
answer:
a
answer:
c
410 Who is regarded as the father of genetics?
a) Bateson
b) Morgan
c) Mendel
d) Watson
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411. Mendel’s experimental material was
a) Pisum sativum
b) Lathyrus odaratus
c) Oryza sativa
d) Mirabilis jalappa
answer:
a
412. Mendel presented his works in
a) Natural History Society in Russia
b) Natural History Society in America
c) Natural History Society in Brunn
d) Natural History Society in Germany
answer: c
413. Mendel’s findings were rediscovered by
a) Devries
b) Correns
c) tschermak
d) all of the above
answer: d
414. The physical expression or appearance of a character is called as
a) morphology
b) geneoype
c) phenotype
d) ecotype
Answer :
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415 Genotype is the
a) genetic constitution
b) genetic constitution of the phenotype
c) trait expressed
d) expressed genes
Answer:
b
416. The alternate forms of a gene is called
a) recessive character
b) dominant character
c) alleles
d) alternative gene
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
417 If the genotype consists of only one type of allele. It is called
a) homozygous
b) hetreozygous
c) momoallelic
d) uniallelic
418. The number of types of gametes produced by a homozygous individual is
a) 1
b) 2
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c) 3
d) many
Answer :
a
419. If different alleles are present in the same genotype then it is called
a) homozygous
b) hetreozygous
c) diallelic
d) polyallelic
Answer:
b
420. During his experiments, Mendel called genes by the term
a) factors
b) traits
c) characters
d) qualities
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
421. The number of types of gametes produced by a heterozygous individual is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) many
422. Mendel was a
a) Austrian biology teacher
b) Austrian monk
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c) Austrian scientist
d) Austrian mathematician
Answer:
b
423 The water readily available to plants for absorption by roots is
a) Gravitational water
b) Capillary water
c) Rain water
d) Hygroscopic water
Answer:
d
424 The water potential of pure water at atmospheric pressure is
a) 2.3 bar
b) +2.3 bar
c) Zero bar
d) One bar
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
425. Loss of water from the stomata of leaves are known as
a) Guttation
b) Exudation
c) Transpiration
d) Evaporation
426 During rainy season wooden doors are difficult to open or closure because of
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a) Plasmolysis
b) Imbibition
c) Osmosis
d) Diffusion
Answer :
b
Answer:
d
Answer:
b
Answer :
c
427. Plasmolysis occurs due to
a) Absorption
b) Osmosis
c) Endoosmosis
d) Exosmosis
428. The marine animals that kept in fresh water burst. It shows the process of
a) Exosmosis
b) Endoosmosis
c) Plasmolysis
d) Deplasmolysis
429 Cooling of plants is caused by
a) Guttation
b) Photorespiration
c) Transpiration
d) Assimilation
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430 Active uptake of minerals by roots mainly depends on the
a) Availability of oxygen
b) Temperature
c) Light
d) Availability of CO
Answer :
a
Answer :
d
Answer :
c
431. The hormone which signals the closure of stomata is
a) Auxins
b) Cytokinine
c) Gibberelline
d) Abscisic acid
432. Water absorption takes place through
a) Lateral roots
b) Root cap
c) Root hairs
d) Tap root
433. Which of the following is an antitranspirant
a) PMA
b) PAN
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c) IAA
d) AUG
Answer:
a
434 What is the action spectrum of transpiration?
a) Orange and red
b) Green and ultraviolet
c) Blue and red
d) None of these
Answer: c
435. Which one of the following is used for measuring the rate of transpiration?
a) Porometer
b) Osmometer
c) Moll’s experiment
d) Potometer
Answer:
d
Answer:
a
436 . Transpiration is least in
a) High atmospheric humidity
b) good soil moisture
c) high wind velocity
d) dry environment
437. Stomata open at night and close during day time in
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a) Xerophytes
b) Mesophytes
c) Succulents
d) Hydrophytes
Answer: c
438 The process of respiration in green plants occurs
a) only when stomata are open
b) only when photosynthe sis ceases
c) only when photosynthesis is in progress
d) At all times
Answer : d
439. Respiratory enzymes are located in
a) mitochondrial matrix
b) cristae
c) per mitochondrial space
d) outer membrane
Answer:
b
Answer :
c
440. The site of glycolysis in a cell is
a) chloroplast
b) nucleus
c) cytoplasm
d) mitochondria
441. Respiration is
a) Anabolic process
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b) Exothermic process
c) Endothermic process
d) Endergonic process
Answer :
b
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
442. The annual plant exchange of gases takes place mainly through
a) Leaf scars
b) lenticels
c) stomata
d) stem
443 Krebs’s cycle take place in
a) vesicles of ER
b) Mitochondrial matrix
c) lysosomes
d) cytoplasm
444. Common immediate source of energy in cellular activity:
a) NAD
b) ATP
c) DNA
d) RNA
445. Photorespiration involves
a) Glycolate cycle
b) kreb’s cycle
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c) calvin cycle
d) CAM cycle
Answer : a
446. In succulent xerophytes the R.Q is :
a) Zero
b) unity
c) less than one
d) more than one
Answer:
a
Answer:
d
Answer:
d
447 R.Q. of fatty substances is generally:
a) unity
b) Zero
c) more than one
d) less than one
448 Conversion of pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol is facilitated by the enzymes:
a) carboxylase
b)phosphatase
c) dehygrogenase
d) carboxylase and dehygrogenase
449. During respiration yeast converts glucose to
a) ethanol and water
b) ethanol and oxygen
c) ethanol and CO
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d) lactic acid and CO2
Answer:
c
450. The net gain of ATP produced during the oxidation of one glucose molecule in a plant cell
a) 38 ATP molecules
b) 30 ATP molecules
c) 36 ATP molecules
d) 24 ATP molecules
Answer :
c
Answer:
b
Answer:
c
451. The final acceptor of electrons in the electron transport chain is
a) Water
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Cytochrome b
452 In plant cell, digestion of fats occurs with the help
Of
a) lysosomes
b) Peroxisomes
c) glyoxisomes
d) microtubules
453. The term auxin was coined by
a) Skoog
b) Haberlandt
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c) Miescher
d) F.W. Went
Answer: d
454. Precursor of Indole acetic acid (natural auxin) is
a) Glycine
b) Methionine
c) Isopentynyl pyrophosphate
d) Tryptophan
Answer:
d
455. All the following hormones are growth inhibitors except
a) Absiccic acid
b) dormin
c) ethylene
d) IAA
d
Ansewer:
456. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone?
a) IBA
b) NAA
c) Abscisic acid
d) Ethylene
Answer:
457. Which of the following is widely used as a rooting hormone
a) NAA
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b) 2,4, D
c) 2,4,5T
d) cytokine
Answer:
a
Answer:
b
Answer:
a
Answer:
b
458 “Agent orange” the leaf defoliator used by USA in Vietnam war was
a) ethylene
b) 2,4,D and 2,4,5T
c) 2,4,D and NAA
d) 2,4,5T, NAA and ethylene
459. All the following inhibits auxin transport (antiauxins) except
a) Cytokinnin
b) α naphthyl thalamic acid
c) 2,3,5tri iodo benzoic acid
d) ethylene
460 Which of the following auxin is widely used as a selective weedicide
a) IBA
b) 2,4,D
c) NAA
d) 2,4,5T
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461. All are synthetic auxins except
a) NAA
b) IAA
c) 2,4,D
d) 2,4,5T
Answer:
b
Answer:
a
Answer:
c
Answer:
a
462. Auxin transport is
a) polar
b) nonpolar
c) symplast
d) apoplast
463. Which of the following bioassays are used to detect the presence of auxin
a) Avena curvature test and tobacco pith culture
b) Split pea stem curvature test and tobacco pith culture
c) Avena curvature test and Split pea stem curvature test
d) tobacco pith culture only
464. Which of the following is not a function of auxin
a) inducing dormancy
b) enhancing cell division
c) inducing callus formation
d) maintaining apical dominance
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465. Nodule formation is induced by
a) IBA
b) IAA
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) NAA
Answer:
b
Answer:
d
Answer:
c
466. All are natural auxins except
a) IAA
b) Phenoxy acetic acid
c) Indoleacetic acid
d) NAA
467. Which of the following is an auxin receptor?
a) ETR1
b) CBP1
c) ABP1
d) GRE
468 Who is the father of tissue culture?
a) Bonner
b) Haberland
c) Laibach
d) Gautheret
Answer: b
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469 The production of secondary metabolites require the use of
a) protoplast
b) cell suspension
c) meristem
d) auxiliary buds
b
Answer:
470. Synthetic seed is produced by encapsulating somatic embryo with
a) sodium chloride
b) sodium alginate
c) sodium acetate
d) sodium nitrate
Answer:
b
471 Hormone pair required for a callus to differentiate are
a) auxin and cytokine
b) auxin and ethylene
c) auxin and abscisic acid
d) cytokines and gibberellin
Answer:
a
472. DMSO (Dimethyl sulfoxide) is used as
a) Gelling agent
b) alkylating agent
c) Chelating agent
d) Cryoprotectant
Answer:
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473 The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is
a) Manitol
b) Sorbitol
c) Mannol
d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)
Answer:
d
Answer:
c
Answer:
d
Answer :
b
474 Cybrids are produced by
a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
d) None of the above
475. Callus is
a) Tissue that forms embryo
b) An insoluble carbohydrate
c) Tissue that grows to form embryoid
d) Un organised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in cultured
476. Part of plant used for culturing is called
a) Scion
b) Explant
c) Stock
d) Callus
77. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is
a) Auxin
b) Gibberellin
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c) Ethylene
d) Cytokinin
Answer :
a
Answer:
b
Answer:
a
Answer:
b
478. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is called
a) Natural media
b) Synthetic media
c) Artificial media
d) None of these
479 To obtain haploid plant, we culture
a) Entire anther
b) Nucleus
c) Embryo
d) Apical bud
480. Somaclonal variations are the ones
a) Caused by mutagens
b) Produce during tissue culture
c) Caused by gamma rays
d) Induced during sexual embryogeny
481. Which of the following plant cell will show totipotency?
a) Xylem vessels
b) Sieve tube
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c) Meristem
d) Cork cells
Answer: c
482. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?
a) Plasmid
b) Cosmid
c) Phasmid
d) Agrobacterium
Answer:
d
483Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?
a) manures
b) biofertilizers
c) resistant varieties
d) all of these
Answer: d
484. Pyrethrin is got from
a) Azardirachta indica
b) Urtica dioca
c) Tagetus erect
d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium
Answer:
485. Which one is green manure/ biofertilizer
a) Sesbania
b) Rice
c) Oat
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d) Maize
Answer:
a
486. who discoverer virus
a) Dimitry Iwanowsky
b)MOP Iyengar
c)Lederberg
d)Robert Brown
answer: a
487. The most quickly available source of nitrogen to plants are
a) amide fertilizers
b) ammonia fertilizers
c) nitrate fertilizers
d) ammonia nitrate fertilizer
Answer:
c
Answer:
b
Answer :
d
488. Most effective pesticide is
a) carbamates
b) Organophosphates
c) organochlorines
d) All of these
489 Which is true for DDT? It is
a) not a pollutant
b) an antibiotic
c) an antiseptic agent
d) a non degradable pollutant
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490. Which is major component of Bordeaux Mixture?
a) copper sulphate
b) sodium chloride
c) calcium chloride
d) magnesium sulphate
Answer :
a
Answer :
d
Answer :
d
Answer :
b
491 Which one is correctly matched?
a) carbamates malathion
b) organophosphates carbofuran
c) carbamates malathion
d) organochloride endosulphan
492. IPM stands for
a) integrated pest manufacture
b) integrated plant management
c) integrated plant management
d) integrated pest management
493. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has
a) Rhizobium
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Mycorrhiza
d) large quantity of humus
494. Green manuring increases the crop yield by
a) 510%
b) 1525%
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c) 3050%
d) 8090%
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
495. Insecticides generally attack
a) respiratory system
b) nervous system
c) muscular system
d) circulatory system
496. Organisms associated with sorghum and cotton, which provide nutrition to them are
a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter
b) Azotobacter, Azospirillum
c) Anabaena, Rhizobium
d) Rhizobium, Azotobacter
Answer : a
497 Azolla as biofertilizer, increases the yield of rice fields by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%
Answer :
d
Answer:
d
498.Cancer cells are
a) BHK
b) Veo
c) HL8
d) Hela cells
499. Cancer is caused by
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a) uncontrolled mitosis
b) uncontrolled meiosis
c) rupturing of cells
d) loss of immunity of the cells
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
500. Cancer cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to
a) fast mutation
b) rapid cell division
c) lack of mutation
d) lack of oxygen
501. Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes in the cells but
they do not express usually. This is because of the presence of
a) proto oncogenes
b) tumor promoters
c) tumor suppressor genes
d) transposons or jumping genes
502. Cancer of β lymphocytes is called
a) Sarcoma
b) Melanoma
c) myeloma
d) carcinoma
503. The basic difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is
a) cancer cells divide continuously but normal cells do not divide
b) normal cell is bigger than cancer cells
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c) normal cells are immortal but cancer cells are mortal
d) cancer cells divide do not differentiate like normal cells
Answer :
504. Diethylstibetorol (DES) is a carcinogen. Which organ of the body does it effect?
a) vagina
b) hear
c) lung
d) kidney
Answer :
a
Answer :
a
505 Reason of lung cancer is
a) coal mining
b) cement factory
c) calcium fluorde
d) bauxite mining
506. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue
a) bones
b) connective tissue
c) epithelial cells
d) embryonic tissue
Answer : d
507. Which one of the following is used in treatment of thyroid cancer?
a) U238
b) I131
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c) C14
d) rA240
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
508. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to
other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called
a) diapedesis
b) metastasis
c) proliferation
d) none of these
509. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What
type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer
a) blood test
b) pap test
c) CT scan
d) mammography
Answer: d
510. Which one of the following genes is involved in the conversion of proto
oncogenes into oncogenes causing cancer?
a) metastasis genes
b) angiogenesis genes
c) transposons
d) tumor suppressor genes
Answer :
511. Which one of the following therapies will involve only
the cancerous cells not the normal cells in treatment
a) immunotherapy
b) surgery
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c) aromatherapy
d) chemotherapy
Answer :
a
512. Which one of the following cancers does not form a solid neoplasm
a) leukemia
b) lymphoma
c) lipoma
d) sarcoma
Answer : a
513 Reduced number and size of RBCs and decreased amount of hemoglobin is a characteristic of
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Megalobla stic anemia
c) microcytic anemia
d) all of these
Answer : c
514 Bleeding diseases is due to the deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K
Answer :
d
Answer :
d
515 All are nutritional disorders associated with over nutrition except
a) hyper vitaminosis
b) obesity
c) fluorosis
d) Osteomalacia
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516. Vitamin D deficiencies is the reason for
a) Rickets
b) Anaemia
c) Pellagra
d) Goitre
answer :
a
517. Enlargement of thyroid gland is due to the deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Potassium
c) Iodine
d) Vitamin D
Answer : c
518. All are vitamin deficiency diseases except
a) Marasmus
b) Rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Cheilitis
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
519. Fluorosis is due to
a) deficiency of fluorine
b) excess of fluorine
c) deficiency of calcium and fluorine
d) none of these
520. Cyanocobalamine deficiency is the reason of
a) Pernicious anemia
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b) Microcytic anaemia
c) macrocytic anemia
d) Pellagra
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
521. The condition of inflammation and cracking of skin at corners of mouth is
a) Pellagra
b) Cheilitis
c) Scurvy
d) Rickets
522. Calcium deposition in soft tissues is due to
a) deficiency of vitamin D
b) excess of vitamin D
c) excess of vitamin C
d) deficiency of vitamin C
523. Deficiency of Calcium may lead to a condition called
a) Giotre
b) Anaemia
c) Tetany
d) Scurvy
Answer : c
524. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of
a) vitamin D
b) vitamin A
c) vitamin B1
d) vitamin C
Answer :
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525Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding ER
a) The adipose tissue has both SER and RER
b) Plasma cells has RER only
c) RBC lacks both RER and SER
d) Hepatocytes has both RER and SER
Answer : a
526. The term ‘endoplasmic reticulum’ was coined by
a) Reinert
b) Porter
c) Pomaret
d) Johnson
Answer :
b
527 Which of the following organelles has a continuous connection with nuclear membrane?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) Lysosome
c) RER
d) SER
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
528 In RER, ribosomes are located on
a) the cytoplasmic side
b) on the luminal side
c) both a and b
d) all throughout
529. SER is involved in
a) Phospholipid biosynthesis and detoxification reaction
b) Phospholipid biosynthesis and protein synthesis
c) Protein synthesis
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d) Phospholipid biosynthesis
Answer :
a
Answer :
c
Answer :
c
Answer :
d
530 SER in the retinal cells are called as
a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) Retinal reticulum
c) Myeloid bodies
d) Amyloid bodies
531. The functions of RER include
a) Protein synthesis and detoxification
b) Protein synthesis and post translational modification
c) Protein synthesis and phospholipid biosynthesis
d) Protein synthesis only
532. Which of the following statements are true regarding endoplasmic reticulum
a) ER provides structural framework to the cell
b) ER acts as an intracellular transporting system
c) SER is involved in synthesis of lipids
d) All of these
533 The transport of secretory proteins takes place trough organelles in the order
a) RER>SER>Golgi> secretory vesicles
b) SER>RER>Golgi> secretory vesicles
c) RER>SER> secretory vesicles > Golgi
d) RER>Golgi>SER> secretory vesicles
Ans:
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534. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is called ‘rough’ because
a) rough texture of the surface
b) surface is studded with membrane proteins
c) surface is studded with ribosomes
d) All of these
Answer :
c
Answer :
a
Answer :
c
Answer :
b
535. RER is involved in the synthesis of
a) Membrane proteins and secretory proteins
b) Different proteins of the cell
c) Membrane proteins, secretory proteins and lysosomal proteins
d) Membrane proteins and secretory proteins and nuclear proteins
536. Which of the following organelle is involved in xenobiotic detoxification
a) Golgi
b) Lysosome
c) SER
d) RER
537. Protein glycosylation occurs in the
a) lumen of mitochondria
b) lumen of rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) lumen of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) lumen of lysosomes
538. Which of the following sequence functions as signals for N linked Glycosylation?
a) AsnXSer and AsnXThr
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b) AsnXSer and AsnXPro
c) AsnXThr and AsnXGly
Ans:
a
539. Ribophorins are
a) transmembrane glycoprotein on RER
b) transmembrane glycoprotein on SER
c) luminal proteins on RER
d) luminal proteins on SER
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
540 The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive parent is called
a) back cross
b) test cross
c) F1 cross
d) all of these
541 The test cross is used to determine the
a) genotype of the plant
b) phenotype of the plant
c) both a and b
d)none of these
Answer : a
542 Monohybrid test cross ratio is
a) 3:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
Answer : c
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543 The cross in which parents differ in two pairs of contrasting characters is called
a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) trihybrid cross
d) tetra hybrid cross
Answer :
b
544. The phenotypic dihybrid ratio is
a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
Answer :
d
545. In Mendels Dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio of F2 for a single character is
a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 3:1
d) 9:3:3:1
Answer :
c
546. Which of the following statements is true regarding the ‘law of independent assortment’
a) factors assort independent of each other when more than one pair
of characters are present together
b) independent assortment leads to variation
c) independent assortment leads to formation of new combinations of characters
d) all of these
Answer : d
547 The Dihybrid test cross ratio is
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a) 9:3:2:1
b) 9:3:2:2
c) 1:1:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
Answer :
c
548 . Each gametes carry
a) only recessive allele
b) only dominant allele
c) only one of the alleles
d) all of these
Answer :
c
549 Which of the following terms represent a pair of contrasting characters
a) homozygous
b) heterozygous
c) allelomorphs
d) codominant genes
Ans:
c
550 . The best method to determine the genotype of dominant parent
is by crossing it with the hybrid. This cross is called
a) Back cross
b) test cross
c) selfing
d) cross fertilization
Answer:
a
551 The best method to determine the homozygosity and heterozygosity of an individual is
a) self fertilization
b) back cross
c) test cross
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d) inbreeding
Ans:
b
552 . All of this obeys Mendel’s laws except
a) Linkage
b) independent assortment
c) dominanace
d) purity of gametes
Answer :
a
553 The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible
combinations of male and female gametes is called
a) Punnett square
b) Bateson square
c) Mendel square
d) Morgan square
Answer :
a
554 The title of Mendel’s paper while presenting at Brunn Natural History Society in 1865
was
a) Laws of inheritance
b) Laws of heredity
c) Experiments on pea plants
d) Experiments in plant hybridization
Answer :
d
555. The experimental material garden pea used by Mendel is a
a) cross fertilized crop
b) both self and cross fertilized
c) self fertilized crop
d) may vary with ecotype
Answer :
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556 Mendel emasculated garden pea plant. Emasculation is the
a) removal of flower buds
b) removal of anthers before dehiscence
c) removal of carpels before dehiscence
d) removal of mature flowers
Answer : b
557 Mendel’s hybridization strategy was use of two plants with :
a) differing in a pair of contrasting character
b) differing in two pairs of contrasting character
c) differing in many pairs of contrasting character
Answer :
a
558. A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called
a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) trihybrid cross
d) tetrahybrid cross
Answer :
a
Answer :
b
559 The hybrid progeny in the first generation is called as
a) F0
b) F1
c) F2
d) F’
560.The major reason for the success of Mendelian experiments was
a) Garden pea was true breeding
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b) Garden pea was cross breeding
c) Garden pea was heterozygous
d) Garden pea was easily available
Answer :
a
561. When alleles of two contrasting characters are present together, one of the character express
and the other remains hidden. This is the
a) law of purity of gametes
b) law of segregation
c) law of dominance
d) law of independent assortment
Answer : c
562. The character that is express in the F1 is called the
a) recessive character
b) dominant character
c) co dominant character
d) none of these
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
563 The recessive character will express in
a) F1
b) F2
c) both a and b
d) F3 only
564. Monohybrid ratio is
a) 9:3:3:1
b) 9:1
c) 9:3:1
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d) 3:1
Answer :
d
Answer :
a
565. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 2:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
566. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1`
c) 2:1:1
d) 9:3:3:1
Answer :
b
567. Which of the following statements are true regarding Law of segregation
a) alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis?
b) The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
c) Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
d) all of the above
Answer :
568. F3 generation is obtained by
a) selfing of F1
b) selfing of F2
c) crossing of F1 and F2
d) none of these
Ans:
569. The crossing of F1 to any one of the parents is called
a) back cross
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b) test cross
c) F1 crosses
d) all of these
Answer :
a
Answer :
a
Answer :
d
Answer :
c
570. Histamine secreting cells are found in
a) Connective tissues
b) Nervous tissue
c) Lungs
d) Muscular tissue
571. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is termed as
a) Stratum compactum
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratum lucidium
d) Stratum malpighii/ Stratum germinativum
572. Characteristic of simple epithelium is that they
a) are arranged indiscriminately
b) continue to divide and help in organ function
c) Make a definite layer
d) None of above
573. Collagen is
a) lipid
b) Fibrous protein
c) Globular protein
d) Carbohydrate
Answer :
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574. Aerolar connective tissue joins
a) Haemoglobin
b) Hirudin
c) Myoglobin
d) Histamine
Answer:
d
Answer :
d
575 Lamina propria is connected with
a) Acini
b) Liver
c) Graffian follicle
d) Intenstine
576. Humans are
a) oviparous
b) viviparious
c) ovoviviparious
answer: b
577. Hair present in the skin are
a) Epidermal in origin and made of dead cells
b) Epidermal in origin and made of living cells
c) Dermal in origin and made of living cells
d) Dermal in origin and made of dead cells
Answer :
578. Basement membrane is made up of
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a) No cell product of epithelial cell
b) Epidermal cell only
c) endodermal cell
d) Both b and c
Answer:
a
Answer :
a
579. Characteristic of smooth muscle fibres are
a) Spindle shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
b) Spindle shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, multinucleate and involuntary
c) Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary
d) Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary
580. Pollination is best defined as
a) Germination of pollen grains
b) Visiting flowers by insects
c) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
d) Growth of pollen tube in ovule
Answer : c
581. Pollinia are sac like structures
a) In which anther lobes are present
b) Which are present in megasporangia
c) in which pollen grains are present in mass
d) which secrete yellow substance called pollenkit material
582. Intine of pollen grain composed of
a) Lipid and protein
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b) Cellulose and pectin
c) pectin and lignin
d) lignin and cutin
Answer:
a
583. The exine of a pollen grain is made of
a) Pectin and cellulose
b) sporopollenin
c) pollenkit
d) lignocellulose
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
Answer :
b
584. Pollination which occurs in closed flower is known as
a) Allogamy
b) Cleistogamy
c) Protogyny
d) None of the above
585 Insect pollinated flowers usually possess
a) Dry pollens with smooth surface
b) Sticky pollens with rough surface
c) Large quantities of pollen
d) Brightly colored pollens
586 Pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects or wind are not
a) Large and showy
b) Rough and sticky
c) Smooth and dry
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d) Rough and dry
Answer :
a
587. The deposition of pollen on the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known as
a) Homogamy
b) Dichogamy
c) Geitonogamy
d) Xenogamy
Answer :
c
888. Self pollination occurs between stamens and carpels of the
a) Same flower
b) Different flowers
c) Same flower or the different flowers of the same plant
d) Different flowers of the same plant
Answer : c
589. If a pollen of a flower falls on the stigma of another flower belonging to the same plant it is
a) Genetically self pollination and ecologically cross pollination
b) Ecologically cross pollination
c) Genetically and ecologically cross pollination
d) None of these
Answer :
590. A typical example of self pollination is
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Cotton
d) Maize
Answer : d
591. Pollenkit is present in the pollen wall of
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a) Anemophilous flowers
b)Entomophilous flowers
c) Zoophilous flowers
d) Malacophilous flowers
Answer :
592. Wind pollinated plants differ from insect pollinated plants in having
a) small petals and sticky pollen
b) small coloured petals and heavy pollen
c) Coloured petal and large pollens
d) No petals and light pollen
Answer: d
593 Pollination by bats is called
a) Ornithophily
b) Entomophily
c) Malacophily
d) chiropterophily
Answer :
594. Pollination is characteristic of
a) Gymnosperms
b) Fungi
c) Angiospems
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d) Pteridophytes
Answer : c
595. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous wastes in
a) frog
b) Birds
c) Fishes
d) Man
Answer : b
596. In Cockroach, excretion is performed by
a) Renette cells
b) Flame cells
c) Nephridia
d) Malpighian tubules
Answer: d
597. Guano refers to
a) Ureotetlic flightless bird
b) Bird droppings rich in guanine
c) Extinct species of bird
d) Uric acid
Answer :
598. The excretory organs of annelids
a) Nephridia
b) Flame cells
c) Malpighian cells
d) Green glands
Answer: a
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699. The following is the ammonotelic animal
a) Whales
b) Seals
c) Lizard
d) Salamander
Answer :
d
Answer :
b
Answer :
c
600 Flame cells are excretory organs of
a) Prawn
b) Tape worm
c) Insects
d) Birds
601. Ammonia is the chief nitrogen waste in
a) Cartilaginous fishes
b) Bony fishes
c) Semi aquatic reptiles
d) None of these
602. Ammonia produced during protein catabolism is converted to uric acid in the liver of
a) ureotelic animals
b) ammonotelic animals
c) uricotelic animals
d) ornithinotelic animals
Answer :
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HEALTH SCIENCE
1. An exercise performing daily 30 minutes at the rate of one kcal/minute for 5days a week is
considered as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Short term exercise
Midterm exercise
Long term exercise
Specific exercise
Ans: C
2. Anaerobic endurance training related with
A.
B.
C.
D.
ATP-CP energy systems
ATP energy systems
PC energy systems
ADP energy systems
Ans: A
3. The flexometer test is to measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dynamic flexibility
Static flexibility
Agility
Validity
Ans: B
4. The total volume of air that can be voluntarily moved in one breath from full inspiration to
maximum expiration is called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Vital capacity
Total lung volume
Ans: C
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5. The amount of oxygen consumed during recovery from an exercise, above that ordinarily
consumed at rest in the same period is referred as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fatigue
Excess post exercise oxygen consumption (epoc)
Second wind
Lung volume
Ans: B
6. A stretch or tear of a ligament, the fibrous band of connective tissue that joins the one bone
with another
A.
B.
C.
D.
Strain
Stretch
Sprain
Fracture
Ans: C
7. If the skin breaks and bleeds, the injury is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abrasion
Contusion
Bruise
Dislocation
Ans: C
8. What is the reason for drying your hands after washing them?
A. So that you don’t drip water everywhere
B. Because germs and bacteria are more easily spread with wet hands
C. Your hands are slippery when wet, and you will not be able to hold kitchen utensils
properly
D. None of these
Ans: B
9. Which of the following is true about bacteria?
A. A bacterium multiplies and grows faster in warm environments.
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B. A bacterium needs air to survive.
C. Every type of bacteria can give people food poisoning.
D. By freezing food you can kill bacteria.
Ans: A
10. The lateral epicondylitis is a common sports injury to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Football players
Chess players
Ball and racquet players
Athletes
Ans: C
11. Motor qualities are the foundation for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Behavior
Habits.
Sports skills
Communication skills
Ans: C
12. The Olympic motto “Fortius “means
A. higher
B. faster
C. stronger
D. slower
Ans: C
13. How can you tell if food has enough bacteria to cause food poisoning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It will smell.
You can’t, it will appear normal.
It will have a different colour.
It will taste different.
Ans: B
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14. Which of the following powers do environmental health officers not have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Authority to close down premises.
The power of arrest.
Authority to enter premises without appointment.
The power to seize foods.
Ans: B
15. It is important to prepare food safely because;
A.
B.
C.
It helps to prevent food poisoning.
Prepared food looks better.
Prepared food tastes better.
Ans: A
16. Which of the following does bacteria need to assist it to grow and multiply?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Water.
Food.
Warm temperatures.
All of the above.
Ans: D
17. High altitude (over1524 meters) sports training mainly effects the performance of
A. Endurance athletes
B. Speed athletes
C. Middle distance athletes
D. Throwers
Ans: A
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18. If an athlete wishes to run faster, he should
A.
B.
C.
D.
Move his arms faster
Keep his head bent forward
Raise the knee higher
Run on toes
Ans: C
19.pushing against
A. isometric
B. isotonic
C. isokinetic
D. polymetric
Ans: A
20. How much calories intake recommended by scientists for an average man at rest
A. 2000 kcl/day
B. 1800kcl/day
C. 1500 kcl/day
D. 1000 kcl/day
Ans: A
21. Chronological age of an individual determined by
A. Intelligence test
B. Ossification of bones
C. Calendar years and months
D. Sign of puberty
Ans: C
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22. The instrument to measure percentage of body fat is called
A. Spreading caliper
B. Vernier caliper
Skinfold caliper
D. Dynamometer
Ans: C
23. A protein that speeds up chemical reactions
A. Glycogen
B. Enzyme
C. Myoglobin
D. None
Ans: B
24. The amount of air inspired or expired per breath is called
A. Lung volume
B. Tidal volume
C. Vital capacity
D. None
Ans: B
25. Aerobic capacity contributes to
A. Endurance development
B. Strength development
C. Agility development
D. Power development
Ans. A
26. White or pink muscle fiber has
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A. High aerobic capacity
B. High anaerobic capacity
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None
Ans: B
27. Athlete’s is foot is a disease caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus
D. Protozoa
Ans. B
28. Name the scheme launched by the Indian railways under which hot milk, hot water and baby
food will be available at railway stations?
A. Jan Seva
B. Swachbarath
C. Janani Sewa
D. Swachatha
Ans. C
29. The primary source of energy for brain is from?
A. Glucose
B. Vitamins
C. Minerals
D. None of these
Ans. A
30. Ice massage in treatment commonly known as
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A. Hydrotherapy
B. Electro therapy
C. Cryotherapy
D. Thermo therapy
Ans. C
31. A sprain is an injury involving
A. Muscle
B. Bone
C. Spine
D. Ligament
Ans. D
32. Who’s concept of health focuses on
A. Freedom from diseases
B. Physical health
C. Mental health
D. Health as a sense of total well being
Ans. D
33. Living things consume food for
A. Oxygen
B. Water
C. Energy
D. Organic matter
Ans. C
34. The shape of the body is largely determined by
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A. Muscles
B. Skeleton
C. Skin
D. Organs
Ans. B
35. The condition of painful muscular contraction caused by prolonged exposure of environmental
heat is called
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Heat cramps
D. Muscle cramp
Ans. C
36. The ability to maintain equilibrium while moving is called
A. Dynamic balance
B. Static
C. Potential ability
D. Kinetic ability
Ans . A
37. The fastest period of growth in human being is during
A. Childhood
B. Infancy
C. Adolescence
D. Puberty
Ans . C
38. The period of growth and development from 11-14 years of age is known as
A. Adolescence
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B. Childhood
C. Puberty
D. Youth
Ans. C
39. Factors influencing growth are
A. Heredity
B. Nutrition
C. Exercise
D. All the above
Ans . D
40. Psychology deals with
A. functions of the body
B. construction of the body
C. behavior of man
D. structure of the body
Ans. C
41. Which disease is known as Christmas disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hemophilia
Multiple sclerosis
Scleroderma
Lupus
Ans: A
42. The seat of memory in the human brain is located in the _______?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Thymus
Ans: A
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43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Which hormone is known as emergency hormone?
Adrenalin
Cortisol
Calcitonin
Corticotrophin
Answer: A
44. . Total number of bones in human body ?
A. 206
B. 187
C. 199
D. 207
Answer: A
45. Total number of muscles in human body ?
A. 639
B. 640
C. 641
D. 638
Answer: A
46. What is the enzyme present in saliva ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trypsin
Ribo nuclease
Sucrose
Ptyalin
Answer: D
47. Covering of brain is called as __________ ?
A. Meninges
B. Pericardium
C. Pleura
D. Tunica
Answer: A
48. Covering of lungs is called as __________ ?
A. Meninges
B. Pericardium
C. Pleura
D. Tunica
Answer: C
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49. Covering of heart is called as __________ ?
a. Meninges
b. Pericardium
c. Pleura
d. Tunica
Ans: B
50. Who prepared the first cholera vaccine?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Michael faraday
D. Albert Einstein
Ans: A
51. Who discovered rabies vaccine?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Michael faraday
D. Albert Einstein
Ans: A
52. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of ________ ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vein
Artery
Organs
Heart
Answer: b
52. Most spoilage bacteria grow at
a. Acidic pH
b. Alkaline pH
c. Neutral pH
d. Any of the pH
Ans: C
53. Which of the following acid will have higher bacteriostatic effect at a given ph?
a. Acetic acid
b. Tartaric acid
c. Citric acid
d. Maleic acid
Ans: A
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54. Which of the following is not true for the thermal resistance of the bacterial cells?
a. Cocci are usually more resistant than rods
b. Higher the optimal and maximal temperatures for growth, higher the resistance
c. Bacteria that clump considerably or form capsules are difficult to kill
d. Cells low in lipid content are harder to kill than other cells
Ans: D
55. What is known as building blocks of the body?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Minerals
c. Protein
d. Fat
Ans: C
56. Name the vitamins which can be made by our body?
a. Vitamin d & k
b. Vitamin e & k
c. Vitamin a & b
d. Vitamin & k
Ans: A
57.
The principal energy source of our body?
A. fat
B. carbohydrate
C. proteins
D. minerals
Ans. B
58. The science of food is called?
A. bio technology
B. food science
C. nutrition
D. physiology
Ans: C
59. The energy value of food is measured in?
A. gram
B. kilogram
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C. litre
D. kilocalorie
Ans: D
60. Which is sunshine vitamin?
A. Vitamin D.
B. Vitamin a
C. Vitamin e
D. Vitamin k
Ans: A
61. Deficiency of vitamin d causes
A. Rickets
B. Bery bery
C. Scurvy
D. Goiter
Ans: A
62. Scoliosis is an abnormal ---------curvature of the spine
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Posterior
D. Anterior
Ans: A
63. The major cause of hypokinetic diseases?
A. Junk food
B. Insufficient activity and lack of regular exercise
C. Over consumption of food
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D. Heredity
Ans: A
64. The removal and examination of tissue from the living cell is called?
A. Biopsy
B. M R I
C. X ray
D. C T scan
Ans: A
65. The smallest functional unit of muscle
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Sarcoplasm
D. H zone
Ans: A
66. The amount of air inspired or expired per breath
A. Tidal volume
B. Lung volume
C. Vital capacity
D. None
Ans: A
67. Finger stick blood glucose test is to diagnose?
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hepatitis
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D. Blood group
Ans: B
68. A person with blood pressure ranging from 140/90 or above is called
A. Low pressure
B. Pre hyper tension
C. Hypertension
Ans: C
69. Pedograph is used to measure
A. Flat foot
B. Kyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Lordosis
Ans A
70. The method of estimation of body fat
A. Densitometry
B. Skin fold caliper
C. Bmi
D. Waist hip ratio
Ans: A
71. Body mass index is found by
A. Body weight (kg)/height 2
B. Height /weight
C. Weight2/height
D. Waist circumference/hip circumference
Ans:A
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72. Osteoporosis is a condition in which
A. Increase in bone density
B. Decrease in bone density
C. Stagnation of excess calcium
D. Presence of fracture
Ans: B
78. An individual is said to be obese when his body mass index falls in
A. > 30
B. < 30
C. Below 18.5
D. 18.5 – 24.9
Ans: A
79. Which of the following is known as the voice box?
A. Trachea
B. Pharynx
C. Epiglottis
D. Larynx
Ans: D
80. The contractile proteins in a muscle are
A. Actin and myosin
B. Actin and tropomyosin
C. Myosin and troponin
D. Troponin and tropomyosin
Ans: A
81. Compared to warm air, cool air can hold
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A. More water vapour
B. Less water vapour
C. The same amount of water vapour
D. Temperature is unimportant here
Ans: B
82. The contribution of water while determining the body weight
A. 70%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Ans: A
83. Caloric value of a boiled egg.
A. 80 kcl
B. 100 kcl
C. 150 kcl
D. 120 kcl
Ans: A
84. To stay healthy we need how many litres of water everyday?
A. 3 l
B. 8 l
C. 6 l
D. 2.5 l
Ans: D
85. Find out the vitamin which helps in recovery of muscle cramps?
A. Vitamin a
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B. Vitamin b
C. Vitamin d
D. Vitamin e
Ans: D
86. Name the essential mineral which is needed for muscle and nerve function
A. Chloride
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorous
D. Fluoride
Ans: A
87. The recommended fat percentage for men for optimum health
A. 30% of total body weight
B. 20% of total body weight
C. 10% of total body weight
D. 80% of total body weight
Ans: A
88. Pyorrhea affects which part of the body
A. Ear
B. Eyes
C. Tongue
D. Teeth
Ans: D
89. Radiant is the main physical hazard in __________ industries
A. Jute & cotton
B. Glass & steel
C. Mining
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D. Petroleum
Ans: B
90. The common disease due to prolonged exposure to polluted air
A. Asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Skin diseases
D. Chest pain
Ans: B
91. Deficiency of vitamin b1 causes?
A. Beriberi
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Jaundice
Ans: A
92. Strongest muscles of man found in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wrist
Finger
Jaw
Leg
Ans: C
93. Hepatitis a virus attacks which organ of the human body?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidney
Ans: C
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94. What element is added to water to prevent tooth decay?
A. Chlorine
B. Fluoride
C. Sugar
D. None of these
Ans: B
95. Hydrophobia effects which part of the human body
A. Cardio vascular system
B. Central nervous system
C. Skeletal system
D. Respiratory system
Ans: B
96. The amount of blood pumped by the left or right ventricle of the heart per beat is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Blood flow
Stroke volume
Blood volume
Cardiac out put
Ans: B
97. Study of science of human motion
A. Bio mechanics
B. Kinesiology
C. Physiology
D. Psychology
Ans: B
98. Which of the following does not relate with muscle function
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Stabilizer
D. Activator
Ans: D
99. Which part of the brain controls respiration?
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. Cerebrum
Ans: B
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100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of
Pyruvic acid
Lactic acid
Oxalic acid
Uric acid
Ans: B
101. Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kidney
Skin
Spleen
Salivary glands
Ans: A
102. Metabolism is the term used to indicate
A. the exchange of gases in the lungs
B. the store of oxygen in the muscles
C. the chemical changes take place in the body
D. internal respiration
Ans:C
103. Heart failure is due to
A. excess of cardiac output
B. lack of cardiac output
C. both a&b
D. none of these
Ans: B
104. Fast twitch muscle fibers are
A. white muscle fibers
B. red muscle fibers
C. both a & b
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D. black muscle fibers
Ans: A
105. The fuel food of human body are
A. fat & protein
B. fat & carbohydrate
C. protein & carbohydrate
D. vitamins & minerals
Ans: B
106. A rich source of carbohydrate is
A. cereals
B. pulse
C. wheat
D. milk
Ans: A
107. The shape of the heart is
A. round
B. cone
C. triangular
D. shapeless
Ans: C
108. The deficiency of vitamin k causes
A. rickets
B. anemia
C. prolonged blood clotting time
D. none of these
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Ans: C
109. Veins carry blood
A. from the heart
B. in to the heart
C. both a& b
D. none of these
Ans: B
110. The study of joints is called
A. osteology
B. arthrology
C. myology
D. neurology
Ans: B
111. The study of the functions of the normal human body is called
A. physiology
B. botany
C. anatomy
D. zoology
Ans: A
112. Biceps muscles are situated at
A. upper limb
B. lowerlimb
C. back
D. neck
Ans: A
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113.Cerebellum is a part of
A. Digestive system
B. Muscular system
C. Brain
D. Endocrine system
Ans: C
114.The strongest muscle of the human body is
A. rectus femoris
B. soleus
C. biceps
D. triceps
Ans: A
115. Diarthosis is
A. freely movable joint
B. slightly movable joint
C. immovable joint
D. sliding joints
Ans: A
116. It has been observed that the astronauts lose substantial quantity of calcium through urine
during space flight. This is due to
A. Hyper gravity
B. Microgravity
C. Intake of dehydrated food tablet
D. Low temperature in cosmos
Ans: B
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117. Cutting and peeling of onion bring tears to the eyes because of the presence of
A. Sulfur in the cell
B. Carbon in the cell
C. Fat in the cell
D. Amino acid in the cell
Ans: A
118.the contractile proteins in a muscle are
A. Actin and myosin
B. Actin and tropomyosin
C. Myosin and troponin
D. Troponin and tropomyosin
Ans: A
119. Which of the following is not an enzyme?
A. Amylase
B. Pepsin
C. Somatotropin
D. Trypsin
Ans: C
110. Cartilage present in body is
A. A muscular tissue
B. An epithelial tissue
C. A connective tissue
D. A germinal tissue
Ans: C
112. Which one of the glands in human body produces the growth hormone (somatotropin)?
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A. Adrenal
B. Pancreases
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid
Ans: C
113. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as
A. Neutrophilia
B. Nephrosis
C. Necrosis
D. Neoplasia
Ans: C
114. Sweating during exercise indicates operation of which one of the following processes in the
human body?
A. Enthalpy
B. homeostasis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Osmoregulation
Ans: B
115. In which part of the human body is the smallest bone found?
A. Wrist
B. Palm
C. Nose
D. Ear
Ans :D
116. The other name for knee cap is A. Clavicle
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B. Patella
C. Radius
D. Femur
Ans: B
117. If bilirubin is high in human body, which of the following organs is affected?
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Small intestine
Ans: B
118. About how many bones does a newborn baby have?
A. 206
B. 270
C. 225
D. 190
Ans: B
119. The function of trypsin is to
A. Break down fats
B. Synthesize proteins
C. Break down proteins
D. Break down carbohydrates
Ans: C
120. Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of
A. Pyruvic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Oxalic acid
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D. Uric acid
Ans: B
121. Dehydration in human body is caused due to the loss of A. Vitamins
B. Salts
C. Hormones
D. Water
Ans: D
122. The least distance of distinct vision (near point) of normal human eye is
A. 25 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 40 cm
Ans: A
123. In which of the following are antibodies formed?
A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. Plasma cells
D. Donnan's membrane
Ans: C
124. Headquarters of world health organization?
A. Geneva,
B. Vienna,
C. Newyork
D. Washington
Ans: A
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125. World health day?
A. April 7
B. May 7
C. Aril 8
D. May 8
Ans: A
126. Theme of world health day 2016?
A. Beat diabetes
B. Beat cancer
C. Prevent hepatitis
D. beat polio
Ans: A
127. When was first world health day celebrated?
A. 1950
B. 1960
C. 1955
D. 1948
Ans: D
128. The common disease due to prolonged exposure to polluted air?
A. Lung cancer
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cough
Ans: B
129. Which is the first asian country to eliminate mother – to – child hiv transmission?
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A. India
B. Thailand
C. Japan
D. Singapore
Ans: B
130. Most polluted country in the world?
A. China
B. USA
C. Brazil
D. Indonesia
Ans:A
131. Day against child labor?
A. June 12
B. April 1
C. July 1
D. May 12
Ans:A
132. Cleanest country in the world?
A. Iceland
B. Sweden
C. Singapore
D. Malaysia
Ans: A
133. Hepatitis a disease caused by
A. Bacteria
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B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Amoeba
Ans: B
134. The term rabies is related to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Hepatitis
Hydrophobia
Ans: D
135. Monovalent vaccination is to prevent
A. HIV
B. Tetanus,
C. Chickenpox,
D. Diphtheria
Ans: B
136. Vitamin b1 is also known as
A. Calcium,
B. Phosphorous
C. Potassium
D. Thiamine
Ans:D
137. Fetal alcoholic syndrome is associated with which of the following
A. Leukemia,
B. Hepatitis,
C. Tetanus,
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D. Developmental disabilities
Ans: D
138. Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquitoes are also vectors of
A. Dengue fever
B. Filariasis
C. Encephalitis
D. Yellow fever
Ans: B
139. Pyorrhea is a disease of the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nose,
Gums,
Heart,
Lungs
Ans: B
140. Normal adult human male has
A. 10 gram of hemoglobin/100 gram of blood,
B. 14 gram of hemoglobin/100 gram of blood,
C. 18 gram of hemoglobin/100 gram of blood,
D. 24 gram of hemoglobin/100 gram of blood
Ans: B
141. Night blindness is cause by lack of which vitamin?
A. Vitamin a,
B. Vitamin b,
C. Vitamin c,
D. Vitamin d
Ans:A
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142. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named
A. Hemoglobin,
B. Keratin,
C. Collagen,
D. Myoglobin
Ans:A
143. The project 'sankalp' is associated with the elimination of
A. Polio,
B. HIV, AIDS,
C. Tetanus
D. Malaria
Ans: B
144. Clotting of blood required for which vitamin?
A. Vitamin b,
B. Vitamin c,
C. Vitamin d,
D. Vitamin k
Ans:D
145. The longest bone in the human body isA.
B.
C.
D.
Femur
Humerus
Radius
Tibia
Ans:A
146. Which of the following virus is responsible for diarrhea among infants and young children?
A. Zika virus,
B. Junin virus,
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C. Rota virus,
D. Mega virus
Ans:C
147. The smallest bones in the human body are found in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ear
Eyes,
Stomach,
Leg
Ans:A
148. What is the approximate time required for a heart-beat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5 second,
0.8 second,
0.5 minute
1 minute
Ans: B
149. Barbell curl muscle exercises mainly effects
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. full biceps/fore arms muscles
B. inner biceps muscles
C. Triceps muscles
D. hamstrings muscles.
Ans: A
150. During the warmer days, heat is absorbed by the body through
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. conduction
B. evaporation
C. radiation
D. convection
Ans: C
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