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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
11 th. of December,
1. Which of the following is TRUE about orthodontic movement of
endodontically treated teeth:
a. Hyalinization occurs more often
b. They require more force due to a higher threshold
c. They move like natural teeth
d. Since they always ankylose, they are excellent anchorage units
e. None of the above
2. On average, girls' pubertal growth spurt is more intense than boys. On average,
girls complete their growth sooner than boys.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The first statement is true; the second is false.
The first statement is false; the second is true.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
3. Superimposition of tracings of the mandible on the mandibular plane registered
at menton from serial lateral cephalograms can give information regarding
which of the following:
a. An estimate of the amount and direction of condylar growth
b. Rotation of the mandible relative to the cranial base
c. a and b
d. None of the above
4. Working range of stainless steel cantilever spring is:
a. Proportional to its length.
b. Proportional to square of its length.
c. Proportional to cube of its length.
d. Inversely proportional to square of its length.
e. Inversely proportional to cube of its length.
5. A patient presents six years after finishing orthodontic treatment. She is very
upset about small rotations of her lower incisors and slight crowding. Otherwise,
she has Class I occlusion with normal overbite and overjet. What would be the best
way to correct the problem?
a. Lower fixed appliances without stripping
b. Stripping and lower spring aligner
c. Extract a lower incisor and close spaces with fixed appliances
d. Full upper and lower fixed appliances
e. None of the above
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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6. After six years of age, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs:
a. At the symphysis
b. Between canines
c. Along the lower border
d. Distal to first molars
e. A&B
7. In consideration of orthodontic tooth movement, all of the following are
associated with heavy, continuous forces EXCEPT:
a. Occlusion of the PDL blood vessels
b. Frontal resorption
c. Aseptic necrosis
d. Hyalinization
8. In consideration of orthodontic wires, what does the slope of the load-deflection
diagram represent?
a. Elastic limit
b. Stiffness
c. Strength
d. Yield point
e. Proportional limit
9. A couple of force is defined as :
a. A force with its line of action at a distance from the center of resistance of a body
b. Any force capable of causing a body to rotate
c. Two forces, equal in magnitude and similar in direction, acting on a body
d. Two noncolinear forces, equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, acting on
a body
e. None of the above
10. What type of adjustment can be made in a case where a canine has to be moved
into a congenitally missing lateral incisor position using pre-adjusted brackets?
a. Invert the canine bracket
b. Use lateral incisor bracket
c. Swap the bracket with the canine of other side
d. Any of the above procedures would be helpful
e. There is no need for any adjustment
11.
All the following statements are true about nickel titanium copper chromium
alloys EXCEPT:
a. They are a group of thermodynamic and pseudo elastic alloys
b. The addition of copper to NiTi alloys would reduce their strength
c. The Addition of copper would increase the transformation temperature to above
that of the oral cavity
d. The addition of copper would allow a greater precision in the setting of the
transformation temperature
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
11 th. of December,
12.
The ideal position of the lower incisors according to Ricketts concept is:
a. +1± 2mm to the A-pog line
b. +2± 2mm to the A-pog line
c. 0± 2mm to the A-pog line
d. -1± 2mm to the A-pog line
e. -2± 2mm to the A-pog line
13. In a normally growing patient, a series of lateral cephalometric superimpositions
will show all of the following EXCEPT:
a. In the overall superimposition, the face displaces in a downward and forward
direction
b. In the maxillary superimposition, one can observe eruption of the teeth with
facial growth.
c. In the mandibular superimposition, one can observe the amount of condylar
growth of the mandible
d. When superimposed on the SN line, with sella registered, the position of Nasion
will remain the same anteroposteriorly with growth
e. When superimposed on the SN line, registering on sella, the position of Nasion
might change anteroposteriorly with growth
14. A 13-year old male patient who has just finished a functional appliance phase
using twin-block appliance presented with a corrected anteroposterior skeletal and
dental relationship without crowding but with posterior open bite of about 5mm,
which statement is correct regarding his case?
a. It is due to unfavorable vertical growth pattern and nothing can be done at this
stage
b. It is due to unfavorable vertical growth pattern and can be treated by an
immediate fixed appliance associated with vertical through the bite elastics
c. It is normal and the occlusion will settle down gradually
d. It is normal but definitely needs a second stage of fixed appliance treatment
e. It is an unusual and unexpected finding
15. All of the following procedures can aid in the stability of the treated
malocclusion except:
a. Circumferential supra-crestal fiberotomy
b. Inter-proximal enamel reduction for the triangular teeth
c. Changing mandibular inter-canine width
d. Correction of rotation early in treatment
e. Enhanced interdigitation of the dentition
16.
All of the following are methods of correcting deep overbites except:
a. Class II elastics
b. Banding of the second molars
c. Anterior bite planes
d. High-pull headgears
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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e. Continuous archwires with reverse Curve of Spee
17. After premature loss of a Primary maxillary, 2nd molar, maxillary first
permanent molar is usually rotated:
a. Distally around their mesiobuccal root
b. Mesially around palatal root
c. Distally around palatal root
d. Mesially around mesiobuccal root
e. Mesially around distobuccal root
18. About space consideration during planning treatment where a pronounced
Curve of Spee is to be leveled, which statement is correct?
a. 0.5 mm of space is required to correct 1mm depth of Curve of Spee
b. 1 mm of space is required to correct 2mm depth of Curve of Spee
c. 2 mm of space is required to correct 1mm depth of Curve of Spee
d. 3 mm of space is required to correct 1mm depth of Curve of Spee
e. No extra space is required to correct deep Curve of Spee
19. The Tip-Edge brackets has a unique feature in its design that is characterized
by:
a. The center of the bracket slot is cut away
b. The ends of the slot are widened
c. Ripples and projections are added to the bracket slot
d. The bracket is narrow (single) and has two rotation wings
e. All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is correct about NiTi alloys?
a. Austenite phase is a high temperature metallurgical phase with a hexagonal
structure
b. Martensite phase is a low temperature metallurgical phase with a body-centered
structure
c. Phase transformation is a change in the microstructure of the alloy by a change in
the crystalline structure
d. All the above statements are correct
e. None of the above is correct
21. When compared to Andrews’ system, Roth prescription has all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Increased palatal root torque of the upper incisors
b. Reduced tip of the upper and lower canines.
c. Increased palatal crown torque of the upper molars.
d. Increased distal rotation of upper molars.
e. Reduced palatal crown torque of the upper canines.
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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22. Which of the following prescriptions has the highest anchorage-demanding
torque value of the upper incisors:
a. The standard edgewise system
b. The Andrews system.
c. The Roth system.
d. The MBT system.
23. In Lateral Cephalometric Analysis, Jarabak ratio is a measurement of :
a. Upper face height to lower face height
b. Lower face height to upper face height
c. Anterior face height to posterior face height
d. Posterior face height to anterior face height
e. Mandibular length to maxillary length
24. Lace backs in pre-adjusted appliance system may be used for the following
reasons:
a. To control mesial movement of canines during alignment and leveling
b. To retract canines in cases with labial segment crowding during alignment and
leveling
c. Protection of flexible arch-wires in extraction spaces
d. Both a&c
e. All of the above
25. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the long term facial
growth changes
a. Vertical facial growth ceases prior to Antero-posterior and transverse growth
b. Transverse facial growth continues after puberty
c. There is a continuous increase in all three dimensions after puberty
d. Antero-posterior growth continues for many years after puberty
e. None of the above
26. Which of the following is not a known feature of class II division 2 malocclusion?
a. Reduced lower face height
b.Reduced gonial angle
c. Low resting lower lip line
d.Reduced maxillary-mandibular plane angle
e. Increased inter-incisal angle
27. In diagnosis and treatment of an impacted permanent maxillary canine :
a. Standard occlusal radiograph should be made to confirm the position of the
impacted canine.
b. When positioning the impacted maxillary canine orthodontically, the maxilla is
usually avoided as a source of anchorage because of the potential for disrupting
the maxillary arch's level and alignment.
c. When crowding of teeth in the primary maxillary dentition is observed, this
usually implies a palatally impacted permanent maxillary canine.
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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d. Radiographs that indicate the unerupted canine crown is overlapping the distal
aspect of the maxillary lateral incisor are a strong predictor of impaction
28. In consideration of dental aesthetics the dental midlines (centerlines) should
coincide with the midline of the face which is defined as :
a. A line through Glabella and middle of the chin
b. A line through soft tissue Nasion and the tip of the nose
c. A line through Glabella and the tip of the nose
d. A line through Soft tissue Nasion and the middle of the philtrum of upper lip
e. A true vertical line passing through soft tissue Nasion
29. In surgical management of Dentofacial deformities, the use of Rigid Internal
Fixation of bony segments has the following advantages EXCEPT:
a. It reduces or eliminates maxillo-mandibular fixation and improves postoperative airway control and nutritional requirements.
b. More rapid bony healing whereby osteosynthesis is the result of secondary
bone healing process in which the first step is the formation of Callus.
c. Improved control of proximal bony segments particularly in counter-clockwise
mandibular osteotomies.
d. Bone appears to heal primarily, without an obvious endosteal or periosteal
Callus.
e. Immediate resumption of jaw function after surgery with gradual progression to
normal range of jaw movements.
30. Which of the following is closely associated with relapse of orthodontically
corrected deep overbite ?
a. Protrusion of mandibular incisors during treatment.
b. Horizontal mandibular growth
c. Increase in the cant of the mandibular plane
d. Change in the inter-incisal angle
e. None of the above
31. In extraction cases with increased Frankfort-Mandibular plane angle where it is
desired to control the degree of incisor overbite, the teeth of choice to be extracted
are:
a. The four first premolars
b. The four second premolars
c. Upper first and lower second premolars
d. Upper second and lower first premolars
e. Upper and lower second permanent molars
32. Considering the Bolton ratios in different malocclusions, several studies reported
a tendency to :
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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a. Maxillary tooth-size reduction in class II patients
b. Mandibular tooth-size reduction in class III patients
c. Maxillary tooth-size excess in class II patients
d. Mandibular tooth-size excess in class III patients
e. Both a and b
f. Both c and d
33. Arnett soft tissue analysis of facial aesthetics is based on:
a. Lateral and P-A cephalometric views in natural head posture
b. Photographic evaluation of the patient’s frontal and lateral views in natural
head posture and centric relation
c. Clinical visualization of the patient in three planes of space while the head is
in natural posture, centric relation, and relaxed lip position
d. a and c
e. b and c
34. Renewed emphasis on smile esthetics has refueled the debate regarding
premolar extraction versus non-extraction. Which of the following are true?
a. Intercanine width increases slightly, in both the maxilla and mandible, regardless
of which treatment mode is chosen
b. The reduction of arch widths in the premolar-to-premolar region due to extraction
treatment creates the appearance of dark triangles at the corner of the mouth,
resulting in an unappealing smile
c. Smiles judged as esthetically pleasing are not related to extraction or
nonextraction treatment.
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
35. Natural physiologic factors impact available space during the transition from the
primary to permanent dentition. Which of the following is true with respect to this
transition?
a. Baume Type I primary dentition transitions to the permanent dentition with
higher instances of mandibular incisor crowding
b. A mesial step terminal plane is the most frequent primary molar relationship and
the best predictor of a developing Class I occlusion
c. Leeway space, the average variation in tooth size between the primary molars
and succeeding premolars, is greater in the mandible than the maxilla
d. Incisor liability represents the total space difference between the primary incisors
and canines when compared to the permanent incisors and canines in each arch
e. Primate spaces exist mesial to the primary mandibular canine and distal to the
primary maxillary canine
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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36. The lip bumper is the device of choice to regain any loss of mandibular arch
perimeter. For the following which statement is true:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normally is worn only during the daytime.
Uprights mandibular molars by moving them bodily distally.
Expands mandibular transverse arch width but does not affect the anterior teeth.
Shields the dentition from normally applied soft tissue forces, eliminating the
effects of the labial musculature.
e. Uses the buccally directed forces of the tongue to re-shape the mandibular arch.
37. When entering the early mixed dentition stage, orthodontic staging for the cleft
lip and palate patient is critical to long-term esthetic and functional success. The
following diagnostic and treatment options are applicable at this stage EXCEPT:
a. Orthodontic intervention usually is not warranted until the permanent maxillary
incisors erupt
b. Rapid maxillary expansion with Hyrax Screw appliance is highly recommended
c. Posterior crossbites tend to occur on the ipsilateral side
d. Speech therapy is of prime importance at this stage
e. Maxillary incisors tend to be rotated and in crossbite upon eruption
38. Most young children engage in a type of nonnutritive sucking habit, such as
thumb or finger sucking or using a pacifier. Which of the following effects on the
hard tissues is true:
a. Flaring and infra-occlusion of the primary/permanent maxillary incisors
b. Labial displacement of the permanent mandibular incisors due to direct pressure
exerted by the object
c. Increased maxillary inter-arch dimensions caused by the thumb or offending
object placed against the palate
d. Bilateral scissor bite of the buccal segments
e. An anterior open bite extending as far as the first permanent molars bilaterally
39. Panoramic radiograph of an orthodontic patient showed that both maxillary
permanent lateral incisors have fully erupted, and root formation of other
permanent incisors and first molars is nearly complete. Root development of
permanent maxillary canines and all second premolars is just beginning, while
about 1/3 of the root formation of permanent mandibular canines and all first
premolars has been reached. The dental age of this patient is :
a. 7 years
b. 9 years
c. 11 years
d. 13 years
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
11 th. of December,
e. 14 years
40. What is the lateral cephalometric measurement that is used to evaluate the chin
position relative to the cranial base :
a. Sn-Basion
b. Sn- B point
c. Facial Axis
d. Facial Angle
e. FMPA
41. All of the following are true regarding the use of headgear to restrain the
maxillary growth EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The optimal force should be 500 – 1000 gm (total force)
Force direction should be slightly below the occlusal plane
Force duration should be 12 – 14 hrs/day with a minimum of 8 hrs
Treatment duration is usually 12 – 18 months
c and d
42. Growth of maxilla and mandible occurs in the 3 dimensions of space. The
sequence of growth completion is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Width is completed first followed by height followed by length
Width is completed first followed by length followed by height
Length is completed first followed by width followed by height
Height is completed first followed by length followed by width
Length is completed first followed by height followed by width
43. The pressure-tension theory relates tooth movement to cellular changes
produced by chemical messengers generated by alterations in blood flow through
the periodontal ligament. Four to six hours is considered as the shortest period of
force application to produce tooth movement.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both statements are correct
Both statements are False
First statement is correct, second is false
First statement is false, second is true
44. The best age to treat a skeletal III pattern in females using a Delaire facemask
and palatal expansion is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
6-7 years
8-9 years
10-11 years
12-13 years
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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e. 14-15 years
45. The main cause of relapse of orthodontic alignment of rotated teeth is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Principal fibers of periodontal ligaments
Collagen gingival fibers
Supracrestal gingival fibers
Interradicular periodontal fibers
Dento-alveolar crest periodontal fibers
46. Optimal orthodontic tooth movement is produced by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
High ,continuous force
Low, intermittent force
High ,intermittent force
Light, continuous force
None of the above
47. A successful bonding material must have the following criteria except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
It must be dimensionally stable
It must have a different thermal coefficient of expansion relative to enamel
It must be flowable
It must have excellent inherent strength
It must be simple to use clinically
48. In stage one tip-edge system, space closure is carried out using E-Links.
Torqueing of upper incisors is carried out using sidewinders using 0.021X0.028 S.S.
archwire.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both statements are true
Both statements are false
First statement is true, Second statement is false
First statement is false, Second statement is true
49. As compared with elastic power chain, NiTi coil spring:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Produced more space closure per unit of time
Has more rapid force decay
Poorly tolerated by patients
Produce heavy continuous force.
50. If the standard edgewise bracket is placed on the contra-lateral tooth:
a. The torque expression will be different
b. The tip will be different
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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c. Both the tip and the torque will be different
d. None of the above
51. Choose the ONE correct statement regarding anchorage:
a. Including second molars increases anchorage demand
b. Using semi-transverse forces (pushing canines rather than pulling distally)
minimizes anchorage loss
c. Extracting upper second premolars and lower first premolars in Class II cases
increases anchorage value in the upper arch
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
52. According to recent studies, the most significant factor determining the rate of
tooth movement is:
a. Anchorage level
b. Subject’s inherent metabolic factors
c. Force level
d. Force direction
e. Fixed appliance system used
53. Delay or failure of space closure in Class II division I cases using sliding
mechanics with Straight-Wire appliances usually occur in the following
circumstances except:
a. Space closure with full-size archwire which is active in the third order (i.e.: torque
is not fully expressed)
b. Space closure in high angle Class II cases
c. When arch leveling is not fully accomplished
d. When applying heavy forces that produce a ‘bowstring’ effect on the wire
e. None of the above
64. The most successful treatment outcome can be obtained by functional
appliances when used in :
a. Class II division 1 malocclusions with a moderate antero-posterior skeletal pattern
b. Class III malocclusions with a moderate antero-posterior skeletal pattern
c. High angle Class II malocclusions
d. Any of the above
55. Which of the following usually produces an asymmetrical anterior open bite
and increased overjet?
a. Tongue thrust
b. Thumb sucking habit
c. Posterior growth rotation of the mandible
d. Increased lower anterior face height
e. All of the above
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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56. The effect(s) of extraction of lower primary canines on the lower labial segment
is/are:
a. Relief lower labial segment crowding if present
b. Always causes midline shift if crowding is present
c. Retroclination of lower labial segment
d. a + c
e. All of the above
57. Choose the ONE correct statement regarding quadhelix (QH) and rapid
maxillary expansion screw (RME):
a. Both are removable appliances used for expansion of the maxillary arch
b. Both are activated by the practitioner (orthodontist) and not by the patient
c. The RME can produce skeletal expansion for patients in their early teens while
the QH can only produce skeletal expansion in young children
d. The quadhelix produces expansion anteriorly by opening the anterior coils
e. The rate of expansion for both is the same
58. A possible complication of an instanding upper central incisor (crossbite)
is/are:
a. Pushing the lower incisor labially leading eventually to compromised periodontal
support
b. Attrition of the instanding incisor
c. Displacement of the mandible which might lead to TMD
d. Increased mobility of the lower incisor with which it is in crossbite
e. All of the above
59. Choose the incorrect answer regarding unerupted maxillary central incisor:
a. Eruption is considered delayed if the contralateral incisor has erupted at least 6
months earlier
b. Eruption is considered delayed if the lateral incisor has erupted ahead of it
c. Quite often, removal of any physical obstruction results in its spontaneous
eruption
d. Surgical exposure is necessary for successful eruption after removal of any
obstruction
e. The most common cause for its impaction is a tuberculate supernumerary tooth
60. Bonded retainers following orthodontic treatment are indicated in the following
instances except:
a. Proclined lower incisors
b. Rotations
c. Median diastema
d. Cases with periodontal problems
e. None of the above
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61. Regarding Hawley retainers the following is/are true except:
a. Patient acceptance is less than bonded retainer
b. Better settling of the buccal segment than vacuum-formed retainers
c. Can be used as an active retainer
d. Better retention for arch expansion than vacuum-formed retainers
e. None of the above
62. The extraction pattern which is most helpful for decompensation for the
following orthognathic patients is:
a. Patient A; Class III malocclusion: extraction of upper first bicuspids
b. Patient B; Class III malocclusion: extraction of lower first bicuspids
c. Patient C; Skeletal open bite: extraction of lower second bicuspids
d. Patient D; Class II malocclusion: extraction of upper first bicuspids
e. Patient E; Class II malocclusion: extraction of lower second bicuspids
63. The surgical procedure indicated for the correction of a marked maxillary
retrognathism and nasal retrusion is:
a. Sagittal split osteotomy
b. Segmental surgery
c. Le Fort I osteotomy
d. Le Fort II osteotomy
e. Le fort III osteotomy
64. The following are true regarding the advantages of distraction osteogenesis
except:
a. It is a minor surgery compared to orthognathic surgery
b. Can be performed on growing patients
c. Can move segments of bone in any direction required
d. Ability to lengthen bone as desired
e. Usually obviates need for bone graft
65. Nickel-induced contact dermatitis is:
a. A type I hypersensitivity immune response occurring immediately (anaphylactic
reaction).
b. A type II hypersensitivity immune response (antibody-dependent
hypersensitivity).
c. A type III hypersensitivity immune response (formation of immune complexes).
d. A type IV delayed hypersensitivity immune response occurring at least 2-3 days
after exposure.
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66. Based on current best practice and in order to reduce white spot formation, It is
recommended that patients with fixed appliances:
a. Rinse daily with a 0.05% sodium fluoride mouth rinse
b. Rinse daily with a 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate mouth rinse
c. Rinse daily with a 0.2% sodium fluoride mouth rinse
d. Any of the above
67. To reduce upper incisors proclination while intruding them using Burstone
arch:
a. The intruding arch should be ligated mesial to the lateral incisors on the anterior
sectional wire
b. The intruding arch should be ligated distal to the lateral incisors gingival to the
anterior sectional wire
c. The intruding arch should be ligated between central incisors on the anterior
sectional wire
d. The intruding arch used should be made of 0.021X0.025 Stainless steel wire
68. Cleidocranial Dysostosis is characterized by the following except:
a. The skull is usually large and broad (a brachycephalic type)
b. Maxilla is hypoplastic and underdeveloped
c. Premature eruption of primary teeth and presence of multiple supernumerary teeth
d. Teeth are porous with high tendency for caries
69. Possible predisposing factors for upper incisor trauma include:
a. Increased overjet
b. Inadequate lip coverage
c. Class II division 1
d. All of the above
70. One advantage of steel ligatures over elastomeric ligatures is:
a. Rapid force loss
b. More microbial attachment
c. Less clinical time consuming
d. Less frictional resistance
71. Average smile line is usually defined as:
a. A smile that reveals 75% to 100% of the maxillary anterior teeth
b. A smile that displays less than 75% of the anterior teeth
c. A smile that reveals less than 50% of the maxillary anterior teeth
d. A smile that reveals a contiguous band of gingiva
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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72. Smile index is defined as:
a. The intercommissure width divided by the lip thickness
b. The relationship of the curvature of the incisor edges of the maxillary incisors and
canines to the curvature of the lower lip
c. The intercommissure width divided by the interlabial gap during smile
d. The maximum height of upper incisor tooth divided by its width
73. All the following are orthodontic indices that assess aesthetic need except:
a. Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN)
b. Peer Assessment Rating (PAR)
c. Dental Aesthetic Index (DAI)
d. Index of Complexity, Outcome and Need (ICON)
74. What is the cephalometric measurement used to evaluate the chin position
relative to the cranial base :
a. SNB
b. ANB
c. Facial Axis
d. Facial Angle
e. FMPA
75. Incompetent lips are defined as lips which:
a. Are separated by protruded maxillary incisors
b. Do not seal when the teeth are in occlusion
c. Contact the tongue during swallowing
d. Are flaccid and everted
e. Do not seal when the mandible is in the physiologic rest position
76. Speech articulation does not normally reach maturity until about the age of:
a. 3-4 years
b. 7-8 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 13-14 years
77. How much expansion is produced by the expansion screws employed in the
treatment of crossbites:
a. 0.2 mm per quarter turn
b. 0.5 mm per quarter turn
c. 1 mm per quarter turn
d. 2 mm per quarter turn
e. 4 mm per quarter turn
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78. In cephalometric analyses which 3 points determine the degree of skeletal
convexity:
a. Glabella – ANS – Menton
b. Nasion – Subnasale – Pogonion
c. Porion – Orbitale – Gnathion
d. Sella – Nasion – Pogonion
e. Articulare – point B – Menton
79. Premature spontaneous exfoliation of a lower deciduous canine usually
indicates:
a. Ectopic transposition of related successors.
b. Inadequate lower mandibular growth velocity
c. An arch length deficiency
d. Premature eruption of the permanent successor
e. Normal dental developmental stage
80. Maximum growth of the cranium occurs during the period:
a. 11 to 13 years in girls
b. 13 to 15 years in boys
c. 8 to 11 years in both sexes
d. 5 to 8 years in both sexes
e. Birth to 5 years in both sexes
81. All of the followings could be used for mandibular superimposition except
a. Lower border of the mandible
b. Contour of the inferior dental canal
c. Corpus axis
d. Lower border of calcified molar germ before root formation starts
82. Lace back should not be used in the lower arch in:
a. Class I malocclusion
b. Class II/1 malocclusion
c. Class II/2 malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
83. In subjects with gummy smile to be corrected by anterior differential surgical
maxillary impaction, the maxillary incisors should be
a. Proclined
b. Normally inclined
c. Retroclined
d. Spaced
84. Anchorage loss during retraction of maxillary canine with buccal canine
retractor is manifested by:
a. Increase in the overjet
b. Reduction in the overjet
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c. Increase in the overbite
d. Mesial movement of the maxillary molars
e. A and d
85. The center of resistance of a single-rooted tooth is usually located :
a. At the level of the alveolar crest
b. At a point that is four-tenth of the distance from the alveolar crest to the apex
c. At a point that is one-half of the distance from the alveolar crest to the apex
d. At a point that is six- tenth of the distance from the alveolar crest to the apex
e. 2 mm away from the root apex
86. In cases with deep overbite, lower arch spacing should be closed by protraction
of mandibular molars. It is easier to protract the mandibular molars in deep bite
cases than in reduced bite cases.
a. Both statement are correct
b. The first statement is correct while the second one is wrong
c. The first statement is wrong while the second one is correct
d. Both statement are wrong
87. Maxillary molar distalization is indicated in cases with:
a. deep overbite
b. normal overbite
c. reduced overbite
d. open bite
88. If the pre-adjusted bracket is inverted during bonding:
a. the tip and torque will not be reversed
b. only the tip will be reversed
c. only the torque will be reversed
d. both the tip and torque will be reversed
89. Secondary alveolar bone graft in cleft palate subjects should be performed:
a. after completion of the deciduous dentition
b. before eruption of permanent maxillary incisors
c. before the eruption of permanent maxillary canine
d. after completion of the permanent dentition
90. Upper arch expansion in cleft palate subjects is best accomplished by:
a. removable jack screw
b. Quadhelix appliance
c. Rapid maxillary expansion appliance
d. Surgically assisted expansion
e. Any of the above
91. The anchorage value of any tooth is roughly equivalent to:
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
It is half of root surface area
It is double the root surface area
It is the root surface area
It is one third the root surface area
None of the above
92. Closure of the first premolar extraction site usually occurs in a ratio of:
a. 60% by retraction of anterior teeth, 40% by forward movement of posterior
segments
b. 40% retraction of incisors, 60% forward movement of molar and second
premolar
c. 75% retraction of incisors, 25% forward movement of molar and second
premolar
d. 20% retraction of incisors, 80% forward movement of molar and second
premolar
e. None of the above
93. A successful bonding material must meet a set of criteria except:
a. It must be dimensionally stable
b. It must be thick
c. It must have excellent inherent strength
d. It must be easy to use clinically
e. All of the above
94. The final archwires for pre-surgical orthognathic preparation in 0.018-inch slot
appliance is:
a. 0.016 x 0.022 Stainless Steel archwire
b. 0.017 x 0.025 Stainless Steel archwire
c. 0.016 x 0.022 Nickel Titanium archwire
d. 0.017 x 0.025 Titanium Molebdenum Alloy
e. 0.017 x 0.025 braded multistrand SS
95. Retracting the protruding maxillary anterior teeth with J-hook headgear has
advantages:
a. Less root resorption
b. Symmetrical response is easily obtained
c. Strain on posterior teeth is totally avoided
d. The force is easily controlled
e. The extra-oral force is desirable and more tolerated by the patient
96. In combination headgear, if equal forces were used in all the attachments at the
same time, the resultant force would be directed:
a. At the level of occlusal plane
b. Above the level of occlusal plane but below the level created by occipital
attachment alone
c. Above the level of occlusal plane at the same level created by occipital pull alone
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Palestinian Medical Board : Orthodontics
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d. Below the level of occlusal plane but above the level created by cervical pull
alone
e. Below the level of occlusal plane at the same level created by cervical pull alone
97. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding arch leveling of
occlusal plane using Ricket’s utility arch:
a. Lingual root torque is usually applied to the anterior segment
b. An 0.016 x 0.022 Stainless Steel archwire is usually used
c. Significant molar extrusion may occur
d. All of the above
98. A good measure of the severity of sagittal skeletal problem is the A and B points
relative to:
a. Maxillary plane
b. Mandibular plane
c. Frankfort horizontal plane
d. Facial plane
e. Functional occlusal plane
99. Doubling the length of a given diameter of stainless steel wire will :
a. Decrease the amount of force by one-third.
b. Increase the deflection by 8 times.
c. Decrease the amount of force by one-eighth.
d. Increase the amount of force by one-eighth.
e. Decrease the range by one-third
100. Which of the followings Niti wires has thermo-superelastisity characteristics:
a. stabilized martensitic wire
b. stabilized austenitic wire
c. active martensitic wire
d. active austenitic wire
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