Download File practice exam

Earth Space Final Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. By understanding how natural forces affect the environment, Earth scientists can
a. better predict natural disasters.
c. change human nature.
b. prevent natural disasters.
d. change the course of history.
____
2. Earth science assumes that the causes of natural phenomena
a. can never be fully understood.
b. can be understood by studying supernatural phenomena.
c. can be understood by studying ancient Greek culture.
d. can be understood through careful observation.
____
3. The study of meteorology involves the study of
a. meteors.
c. outer space.
b. climate.
d. animals.
____
4. Space exploration technology has been used to improve
a. computers, cars, and medical equipment.
b. air quality standards.
c. athletic training.
d. the Alaskan pipeline.
____
5. Earth scientists help us better understand the world around us by studying how
a. animals interact with humans.
b. natural forces shape our environment.
c. war impacts society.
d. genealogy and astrology impact society.
____
6. Earth scientists assume that the causes of natural events or phenomena can be determined by
a. careful observation and experimentation.
b. risking human life.
c. using SI units.
d. formulating incorrect theories.
____
7. What are the four main branches of Earth science?
a. chemistry, physics, biology, zoology
b. geography, astrology, phrenology, psychology
c. geology, oceanography, astronomy, meteorology
d. sophistry, philosophy, anthropology, neurology
____
8. Earth’s circumference is about 40,000 km, and its shape is
a. an oval.
c. a perfect sphere.
b. an oblate spheroid.
d. a perfect circle.
____
9. According to the law of gravitation, the force of attraction between two objects depends on the masses of the
objects and the
a. distance between them.
c. size of each object.
b. composition of each object.
d. magnetic field of each object.
____ 10. The solid, plastic layer of the mantle is called the
a. core.
c. lithosphere.
b. mesosphere.
d. asthenosphere.
____ 11. Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are part of
a. the water cycle.
c. the geosphere.
b. transpiration.
d. the atmosphere.
____ 12. Anything that has mass and takes up space is known as
a. protons.
c. energy.
b. newtons.
d. matter.
____ 13. A closed system is a system in which the only thing exchanged with the surroundings is
a. energy
c. mass
b. matter
d. water
____ 14. The force of attraction that exists among all matter in the universe is called
a. magnetism.
c. the magnetosphere.
b. weight.
d. gravity.
____ 15. Where does a compass needle point?
a. to the North Pole
b. to the geomagnetic north pole
c. to the South Pole
d. to the equator
____ 16. What symbol is used to show the cardinal directions?
a. compass point
c. compass needle
b. compass rose
d. compass legend
____ 17. Who is most likely to find soil maps useful?
a. farmers, agricultural engineers, conservationists
b. landlords, realtors, bankers
c. engineers, builders, carpenters
d. map collectors, cartographers, Earth scientists
____ 18. What is latitude?
a. the angular distance north or south from the equator
b. the linear distance north or south from the equator
c. the angular distance east or west from the prime meridian
d. the linear distance north or south from the prime meridian
____ 19. What is longitude?
a. the linear distance north or south from the prime meridian
b. the angular distance east or west from the prime meridian
c. the angular distance north or south from the equator
d. the linear distance east or west from the equator
____ 20. The science of making maps is called
a. mapography.
b. cartography.
c. geology.
d. geography.
____ 21. A mineral is described as fluorescent when it
a. glows under fluorescent light.
b. grows under fluorescent light.
c. glows under ultraviolet light.
d. grows when electrically charged.
____ 22. What is chatoyancy?
a. mineral shows metallic luster
b. mineral shows a cat’s-eye effect
c. mineral shows nonmetallic luster
d. buoyancy
____ 23. What is asterism?
a. a cat’s eye shape appears when a mineral reflects light
b. a six-sided star shape appears when a mineral reflects light
c. a circular shape appears when a mineral reflects light
d. a square shape appears when a mineral reflects light
____ 24. The color of a mineral in powdered form is called the mineral’s
a. luster.
c. cleavage.
b. streak.
d. fracture.
____ 25. The hardest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is
a. talc.
c. gypsum.
b. diamond.
d. flourite.
____ 26. Light that is reflected from a mineral’s surface is called
a. luster.
c. radioactivity.
b. steak.
d. refraction.
____ 27. Which of the following does NOT change the form of existing rock?
a. tremendous pressure
c. chemical processes
b. extreme heat
d. light
____ 28. The name for this type of rock means “from fire” in Latin.
a. igneous
c. metamorphic
b. sedimentary
d. sandstone
____ 29. The name for this type of rock means “changed form.”
a. igneous
c. metamorphic
b. sedimentary
d. sandstone
____ 30. Three factors that determine whether rock melts are temperature, the presence of fluid in the rock, and
a. the crystal content.
c. pressure.
b. air density.
d. surrounding rock.
____ 31. The melting of rock does NOT depend on which of the following?
a. the presence of fluid
c. pressure
b. the rock’s color
d. temperature
____ 32. Three factors that determine whether rock melts are
a. heat, pressure, and the presence of fluid.
b. pressure, the presence of fluid, and crystallization.
c. the presence of fluid, crystallization, and heat.
d. crystallization, heat, and pressure.
____ 33. The principle that Earth’s history can be explained by current geologic processes is
a. unconformity.
c. superposition.
b. uniformitarianism.
d. evolution.
____ 34. Younger layers of undisturbed sedimentary rock are above older layers according to
a. the principle of uniformitarianism.
c. law of superposition.
b. the principle of sedimentarianism.
d. angular unconformity.
____ 35. The age of an object in relation to the ages of other objects is
a. absolute age.
c. relative age.
b. comparative age.
d. relational age.
____ 36. A fault or body of rock is younger than any other body of rock it cuts through according to the law of
a. crosscutting relationships.
c. uniformitarianism.
b. superposition.
d. averages.
____ 37. The numeric age of an object is called
a. relational age.
b. comparative age.
c. relative age.
d. absolute age.
____ 38. Index fossils found in rock layers in different areas of the world indicate that the rock layers
a. formed during the same period of time.
b. formed during different periods of time.
c. are still forming.
d. never fully formed.
____ 39. Almost all fossils are discovered in
a. volcanic rock.
b. metamorphic rock.
c. igneous rock.
d. sedimentary rock.
____ 40. Amber is
a. petroleum that oozes from bogs.
b. hardened tree sap.
c. yellow rock that retains heat.
d. dried organic remains.
____ 41. A varve is most like a(n)
a. igneous deposit.
b. fossil plant.
c. tree ring.
d. glacial lake.
____ 42. The way fossils are formed in very dry places is called
a. mummification.
c. imprinting.
b. petrification.
d. sedimentation.
____ 43. What is a coprolite?
a. fossilized fish
b. fossilized dung or waste
c. fossilized rocks
d. fossilized imprints of animals
____ 44. If the Cretaceous Period began about 146 Ma, this means it began
a. 146 billion years ago.
c. 146 thousand years ago.
b. 146 million years ago.
d. in the year 146.
____ 45. Precambrian time consists of
a. the first eon of Earth’s history.
b. the last eon of Earth’s history.
c. the first three eons of Earth’s history.
d. 4 billion years between the first eon and the last eon.
____ 46. The division of geologic time that makes up about 88% of Earth’s history is called
a. the Paleozoic Era.
c. Precambrian time.
b. the Cambrian Period.
d. the Permian Period.
____ 47. The Devonian Period is also known as the
a. Age of Mammals.
b. Age of Fishes.
c. Age of Reptiles.
d. Carboniferous Period.
____ 48. The Cenozoic Era is known as the
a. Age of Reptiles.
b. Age of Fishes.
c. Age of Evolution.
d. Age of Mammals.
____ 49. The first period of the Mesozoic Era was called the
a. Cretaceous Period.
c. Tertiary Period.
b. Quaternary Period.
d. Triassic Period.
____ 50. On a geologic column, the oldest rocks
a. are on the bottom.
b. are on the top.
c. are in the middle.
d. contain fossils of modern-day animals.
____ 51. The universe began about
a. 10 million years ago.
b. 1 billion years ago.
c. 14 billion years ago.
d. 50 billion years ago.
____ 52. Which is NOT part of our solar system?
a. the sun
b. the Milky Way
c. Jupiter
d. comets and asteroids
____ 53. A constellation’s change in position over several hours is caused by
a. Earth’s revolution around the sun.
c. Earth’s rotation on its axis.
b. the tilt of Earth’s axis.
d. the movement of stars.
____ 54. The Northern Hemisphere has the most hours of daylight at the
a. vernal equinox.
c. winter solstice.
b. autumnal equinox.
d. summer solstice.
____ 55. Which telescope detects invisible electromagnetic radiation?
a. radio telescope
c. refracting telescope
b. optical telescope
d. reflecting telescope
____ 56. The period between successive full moons is
a. 24 hours.
b. 29.5 days.
c. 31 days.
d. 365 days.
____ 57. The early oceans became salty when
a. dissolved solids were carried from land into the oceans.
b. salt dropped from the atmosphere into the oceans.
c. sea creatures left salty deposits in their remains.
d. the heavy atmosphere did not allow salt particles to dissipate.
____ 58. About 99% of all matter contained in the solar nebula now exists in
a. planets.
c. asteroids.
b. space.
d. the sun.
____ 59. Which of the following planets do scientists NOT consider a major planet?
a. Saturn
c. Pluto
b. Mercury
d. Neptune
____ 60. The law that describes how a planet orbits the sun is called the
a. law of orbital periods.
c. law of ellipses.
b. law of equal areas.
d. law of periods.
____ 61. Mars’s volcanoes are larger than those of Earth because Mars
a. is so close to the sun.
b. is a much older planet.
c. has a thicker lava flow.
d. has no moving tectonic plates.
____ 62. Impact craters are caused by
a. solar bursts.
b. atmospheric changes.
c. exploding volcanoes.
d. collisions with objects in space.
____ 63. The least dense planet in the solar system is
a. Jupiter.
b. Neptune.
c. Saturn.
d. Uranus.
____ 64. Young Earth formed a core, mantle, and crust in a process called
a. layering.
c. dispersion.
b. settling.
d. differentiation.
____ 65. The two inner planets most alike in size, mass, and density are
a. Mercury and Venus.
c. Venus and Earth.
b. Earth and Mars.
d. Mars and Mercury.
____ 66. A rotating cloud of gas and dust from which Earth’s solar system formed is called a(n)
a. solar nebula.
c. solar eclipse.
b. supernova.
d. astronomical explosion.
____ 67. Jupiter’s Great Red Spot is a
a. vast canyon.
b. raging storm.
c. frozen ocean.
d. massive volcano.
____ 68. Uranus’s axis
a. moves in a predictable manner.
b. is perpendicular to its plane of orbit.
c. is almost parallel to its plane of orbit.
d. flips once per orbit around the sun.
____ 69. Planets that circle stars other than Earth’s sun are called
a. nebulas.
c. planetesimals.
b. moons.
d. exoplanets.
____ 70. The small, iron, center of the moon is called the
a. crust.
c. mantle.
b. core.
d. surface.
____ 71. New, full, gibbous, quarter, and crescent describe
a. the moon’s orbit.
c. phases of the moon.
b. the moon’s rotation.
d. stages of a lunar eclipse.
____ 72. The inner, cone-shaped area of an eclipse’s shadow is called the
a. diamond-ring effect.
c. penumbra.
b. umbra.
d. deep shadow.
____ 73. The sun converts matter into energy in the
a. corona.
b. convective zone.
c. radiative zone.
d. core.
____ 74. Most of the sun’s energy is a result of
a. nuclear fusion.
b. nuclear fission.
c. atomic reactions.
d. coronal mass ejection.
____ 75. In the sun’s radiative zone, energy moves
a. by convection.
b. by radiation.
c. by solar wind.
d. by solar ejection.
____ 76. Auroras are frequently seen
a. near the equator.
b. after solar flares.
c. before a sunspot cycle.
d. every 11 years.
____ 77. What temperature can a solar flare reach?
a. 15,000,000°C
b. 1,000,000°C
c. 20,000,000°C
d. 2,000,000°C
____ 78. Which of the following is NOT a solar ejection?
a. solar flare
c. prominence
b. coronal mass ejection
d. sunspot
____ 79. Sunspots vary in a cycle that lasts about
a. 100,000 years.
b. 1,100 years.
c. 110 years.
d. 11 years.
____ 80. What is the hottest layer of the sun’s atmosphere called?
a. convective zone
c. radiative zone
b. corona
d. photosphere
____ 81. The temperature of the sun’s core is approximately
a. 15,000,000°C.
c. 4,000°C.
b. 20,000,000°C.
d. 150,000°C.
____ 82. How do sunspots form?
a. Magnetic fields increase energy transfer in the convective zone.
b. Magnetic fields reduce energy transfer in the convective zone.
c. The radiative zone reduces energy transfer to the core.
d. The core shuts down and reduces energy transfer.
____ 83. What elements make up most of the sun’s mass?
a. carbon and oxygen
c. helium and nitrogen
b. carbon and hydrogen
d. hydrogen and helium
____ 84. Which of the following are all part of the sun’s atmosphere?
a. photosphere, aurora, corona
c. photosphere, corona, chromosphere
b. chromosphere, aurora, photosphere
d. convective zone, photosphere, corona
____ 85. What are northern lights?
a. coronas
b. prominences
c. solar flares
d. auroras
____ 86. What color are the coolest stars?
a. orange
b. blue
c. white
d. red
____ 87. Stars appear to move in the sky because
a. the sky is rotating.
b. Earth is moving.
c. the universe is expanding.
d. galaxies are forming.
____ 88. A star moving away from the Earth has a spectrum that is
a. losing its color.
b. shifted toward blue.
c. shifted toward red.
d. unchanged.
____ 89. About how many stars are visible from Earth without a telescope?
a. 6,000
c. 3 billion
b. many billions
d. a million
____ 90. Scientists determine the composition and temperature of stars
a. by sampling matter on the surface of stars.
b. by analyzing the vibrations that stars emit.
c. through magnetic testing.
d. by analyzing the spectra of the light that stars emit.
____ 91. A small, hot, extremely dense core left after a star collapses is a
a. red giant.
c. black dwarf.
b. pulsar.
d. white dwarf.
____ 92. During the main sequence stage, how is energy generated in a star’s core?
a. Hydrogen fuses into helium.
c. Helium fuses into hydrogen.
b. Carbon fuses into hydrogen.
d. Carbon fuses into oxygen.
____ 93. How long would a star with the sun’s mass stay on the main sequence?
a. a million years
c. 10 trillion years
b. a billion years
d. 10 billion years
____ 94. A large, bright star whose hot core has used most of its hydrogen is a
a. nova.
c. giant.
b. supernova.
d. pulsar.
____ 95. What is a galaxy?
a. stars, dust, and gas bound together by gravity
b. debris, dirt, and trash bound together by gravity
c. air, gas, and rock in the universe
d. planets, moons, and stars bound together by magnetism
____ 96. What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?
a. elliptical
b. spherical
c. irregular
d. spiral
Earth Space Final Exam
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
OBJ:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
21. ANS:
OBJ:
22. ANS:
A
3
D
3
B
2
A
4
B
3
A
3
C
2
B
1
A
4
D
2
A
4
D
3
A
1
D
3
B
3
B
3
A
3
A
1
B
1
B
1
C
2
B
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
OBJ:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
24. ANS:
OBJ:
25. ANS:
OBJ:
26. ANS:
OBJ:
27. ANS:
OBJ:
28. ANS:
OBJ:
29. ANS:
OBJ:
30. ANS:
OBJ:
31. ANS:
OBJ:
32. ANS:
OBJ:
33. ANS:
OBJ:
34. ANS:
OBJ:
35. ANS:
OBJ:
36. ANS:
OBJ:
37. ANS:
OBJ:
38. ANS:
OBJ:
39. ANS:
OBJ:
40. ANS:
OBJ:
41. ANS:
OBJ:
42. ANS:
OBJ:
43. ANS:
OBJ:
44. ANS:
OBJ:
45. ANS:
OBJ:
46. ANS:
2
B
2
B
2
B
2
A
1
D
1
A
1
C
1
C
1
B
1
A
1
B
1
C
2
C
2
A
4
D
3
A
3
D
1
B
1
C
2
A
1
B
2
B
2
C
2
C
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
OBJ:
47. ANS:
OBJ:
48. ANS:
OBJ:
49. ANS:
OBJ:
50. ANS:
OBJ:
51. ANS:
OBJ:
52. ANS:
OBJ:
53. ANS:
OBJ:
54. ANS:
OBJ:
55. ANS:
OBJ:
56. ANS:
OBJ:
57. ANS:
OBJ:
58. ANS:
OBJ:
59. ANS:
OBJ:
60. ANS:
OBJ:
61. ANS:
OBJ:
62. ANS:
OBJ:
63. ANS:
OBJ:
64. ANS:
OBJ:
65. ANS:
OBJ:
66. ANS:
OBJ:
67. ANS:
OBJ:
68. ANS:
OBJ:
69. ANS:
OBJ:
70. ANS:
2
B
3
D
3
D
1
A
1
C
1
B
1
A
2
D
4
A
4
B
3
A
3
D
1
C
2
C
2
D
2
D
1
C
2
D
3
C
3
A
1
B
2
C
1
D
3
B
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 4
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 4
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
OBJ:
71. ANS:
OBJ:
72. ANS:
OBJ:
73. ANS:
OBJ:
74. ANS:
OBJ:
75. ANS:
OBJ:
76. ANS:
OBJ:
77. ANS:
OBJ:
78. ANS:
OBJ:
79. ANS:
OBJ:
80. ANS:
OBJ:
81. ANS:
OBJ:
82. ANS:
OBJ:
83. ANS:
OBJ:
84. ANS:
OBJ:
85. ANS:
OBJ:
86. ANS:
OBJ:
87. ANS:
OBJ:
88. ANS:
OBJ:
89. ANS:
OBJ:
90. ANS:
OBJ:
91. ANS:
OBJ:
92. ANS:
OBJ:
93. ANS:
OBJ:
94. ANS:
2
C
3
B
2
D
1
A
1
B
2
B
1
C
2
D
2
D
1
B
3
A
1
B
1
D
1
C
3
D
3
D
1
B
2
C
2
A
4
D
1
D
3
A
2
D
2
C
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 2
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 2
OBJ:
95. ANS:
OBJ:
96. ANS:
OBJ:
2
A
2
D
2
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: 1
REF: 3