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Chapter-1: Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. The study of organizational behavior includes an understanding of which of the following:
a. the process of management.
b. interactions with the external environment.
c.
organizational processes and the execution of work.
d. all of the above.
2. When the needs of the individual and the organization are ________________, conflict and
frustration can arise.
a. consistent
b. compatible
c.
similar
d. incompatible
3. There are many aspects to management in work organizations, but the one essential ingredient of
any successful manager is:
a. the ability to adapt to technological change.
b. the ability to deal with people effectively.
c.
the ability to make calculated decisions.
d. the ability to implement the policies of the organization.
4. The style of management adopted by managers can be seen as a function of the manager’s:
a. attitudes towards people.
b. assumptions about human nature and behavior.
c.
both of the above.
d. neither of the above.
5. The psychological contract is:
a. a signed document stating mutual explicit needs.
b. a listing of statutory requirements.
c.
a formal contract of employment.
d. a series of implicit mutual expectations.
6. According to Patching, __________________ is organization development.
a. Strategic thinking
b. Business strategy
c.
Participative management
d. Management development
7. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation,
often called intervention strategies, these include:
a. T-groups
b. grid training
c.
team building
d. all of the above
8. A definition of organizational culture is that it is “the collection of _______________________ and
attitudes that constitute a pervasive context for everything we think and do in an organization”.
a. Traditions, values
b. Policies, practices, behaviors
c.
Traditions, values, policies, beliefs
d. Values, styles, processes, activities
9. Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order, they
are:
a. History, artefacts, beliefs
b. Assumptions, artefacts, values
c.
History, values, activities
d. Artefacts, values, assumptions
10. Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organization which is structured like a matrix
and based on expert power as a __________ culture.
a. Power
b. Person
c.
Task
d. Role
11. According to Deal and Kennedy, an organization of individualists who take high risks and
receive quick feedback, and where internal competition and conflict are normal, the type of culture
can be described as:
a. bet-your-company culture
b. work-hard/play-hard culture
c.
process culture
d. tough-guy, macho culture
12. The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect:
a. group behavior
b. decision-making
c.
motivation and job satisfaction
d. all three of these
13. The Peters and Waterman study revealed that there was a particular factor that led to these
organizations effectiveness. What was that factor?
a. Having a clear and rigidly defined organizational structure
b. Dominance and coherence of culture
c.
Being decentralized and organic
d. Being a large multinational organization
14. Organizational climate is based on the ____________ of members towards the organization.
a. commitment
b. perceptions
c.
loyalty
d. none of the above
15. Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of WHAT, companies need other strategies to
encourage commitment?
a. Job security
b. Career paths
c.
Pension plans
d. Promotion opportunities
16. Resistance to change can be caused by:
a. Selective perception
b. Inconvenience
c.
Habit
d. All three of the above
17. It is Cunningham’s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally
a. Prefer stability
b. Love change
c.
Dislike change
d. Like being controlled
18. Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen’s series of steps for successful
management of large-scale change?
a. Unfreezing
b. Empowering action
c.
Creating visions
d. Producing short-term wins
19. Emotions which can cause a negative attitude and resistance to change include:
a. Over-excitement
b. Frustration
c.
Both of these
d. Neither of these
20. According to Hooper and Potter’s study of 25 chief executives, which of the following were
crucial to the successful management of organizational change?
a. Effective communication
b. Self-pacing
c.
Setting a good personal example
d. All three of the above
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(b)
3.(d)
6. (a)
7.(a)
8.(b)
11. (c)
12.(a)
13.(a)
16. (c)
17.(a)
18.(d)
4.(a)
9.(c)
14.(d)
19.(c)
5.(c)
10.(a)
15.(b)
20.(d)
Chapter-2: Planning
Self Assessment Questions
1. Identify the best definition of planning.
a. The core activity of planners and planning departments.
b. Setting an organization’s objectives and the means of reaching them.
c.
An integrated process, in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled.
d. Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organization.
2. Which of these statements best summarizes the meanings of management?
a. Only people in formal organizations act as managers
b. Only a few experienced people in an organization are managers
c.
Management is both a general human activity and a specialized occupation
d. Management is a job conducted by those with special training
3. The head of a division in a company who is responsible for the production, marketing and finance
of this division and for generally ensuring its profitability is known as what type of manager?
a. First-line manager
b. Functional manager
c.
Supervisor
d. General manager
4. A staff manager is someone who performs which of these functions?
a. Is responsible for recruiting and selecting new staff
b. Manages the staff of the organization
c.
Deals with customer complaints
d. Is in charge of support functions such as finance, personnel or legal matters
5. A supervisor in a car production plant is an example of what kind of manager?
a. Support manager
b. Middle manager
c.
Top manager
d. First-line manager
6. The function of arranging the work to be done and assigning tasks, authority and resources to
people so that they can work to support the purposes of the organization is known as:
a. Planning
b. Controlling
c.
Leading
d. Organizing
7. When a marketing manager tells a subordinate that she did an excellent job when she made a
presentation to senior management, what function is that manager performing?
a. Organizing
b. Leading
c.
Controlling
d. Planning
8. Rosemary Stewart studied the pattern of managers' work. Which of these statements best
represents the main conclusion of her research?
a. Most managers spent a lot of time thinking and carefully analyzing problems
b. Most managers spent a lot of time working alone
c.
Managers typically work in a fragmented way, with many interruptions
d. There was little variation between managers in their working patterns
9. According to Mintzberg, all of the following are examples of the interpersonal roles of a manager,
except:
a. Leading
b. Acting as a liaison
c.
Acting as a symbol
d. Negotiating
10. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is an example of the decisional roles which a
manager plays?
a. Monitoring progress
b. Acting as a spokesperson for the organization
c.
Leading
d. Allocating some of the resources of the organization
11. Which of these statements best describes the idea of the context within which managers work?
a. It represents factors both inside and outside the organization which influence the manager,
and which the manager can also try to influence
b. It is outside the organization, and therefore beyond the manager's control
c.
Managers can easily act without referring to vague external things like the context
d. The context determines what the manager can do
12. We identify three levels of planning. What are they?
a. Strategic, administrative and functional
b. Top, middle and bottom
c.
Operational, intermediate and strategic
d. Headquarters, divisional and local
13. What is the planning horizon?
a. The time period within which uncertainty is very low.
b. The maximum time for which managers can make plans.
c.
The time ahead for which there is no information.
d. The time between making a plan and putting it into effect.
14. We identified several internal benefits of objectives, goals and a sense of mission. Which is not
included?
a. Basis of control
b. Motivation
c.
Basis of plans and decisions
d. Basis to resolve disputes
15. A good objective should clarify the desired result; i) enable achievement to be measured; and iii)
need not specify a time scale. Which of these statements is true?
a.
(ii) only
b. (ii) and (iii)
c.
(iii) only
d. and (ii)
16. What is measurement ship?
a. Trying to agree low objectives so as to look good later
b. Surveying by naval architects.
c.
Concentrating on measurable targets at the expense of others
d. Collecting too much performance data
17. What three problems commonly hindering successful planning did we identify?
a. Lack of planning expertise; little top management support; misuse of planning specialists.
b. Conflict among objectives; impossibility of measuring outcomes; confusion between means
and ends.
c.
Procedures unsuited to change; negative organizational culture; poor interpersonal
relationships.
d. An oversized planning department; poor co-operation between managers and planners;
managers with little time to gather information.
18. What is the more formal term for what is known as 'Plan B'?
a. A contingency plan
b. A convergence plan
c.
A catastrophe plan
d. A circumstantial plan
19. Good crisis management involves immediately decentralizing control to a number of welltrained teams. They concentrate on speedy resolution of the crisis.
a. True
b. False
20. Planning is an intellectual process, the conscious determination of courses of action, the basing of
decisions on purpose, acts and considered estimates.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(c)
3.(d)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6. (d)
7.(b)
8.(c)
9.(d)
10.(d)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(a)
18.(b)
19.(b)
20.(a)
Chapter-3: Business Forecasting
Self Assessment Questions
1. The first step in the human resource planning process is:
a. forecasting.
b. goal setting.
program implementation.
d. program evaluation.
2. An advantage of statistical forecasting methods is that:
a. under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than judgmental
methods.
b. they are particularly useful in dynamic environments.
.they are particularly useful if important events that occur in the labor market have no historical
precedent.
d. in the event of a legal dispute, they are easily understood by juries or a judge.
3. The process of determining whether there are any subgroups, whose proportion in a given job
category within a company is substantially different from their proportion in the relevant labor
market is called:
a. adverse treatment analysis.
b. workforce utilization review.
c. subgroup reconciliation.
d. discrimination analyses.
4. In a survey of large well-known businesses, about one-third of open job positions were filled by:
a. insiders.
b. referrals.
c. on campus recruitment.
d. direct applicants.
5. An organization seeking to reduce a projected labor surplus must select from a number of possible
options aimed at obtaining that objective. This occurs at what step in the human resource planning
process?
a. Goal setting and strategic planning
b. Program evaluation
c. Forecasting
d. Program implementation
6. In personnel forecasting, the HR professional tries to:
a. predict the number and types of legal challenges the company is likely to face within the year.
b. develop HR policies and practices in response to anticipated moves by major competitors.
c. determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources.
d. anticipate trends within the HR field which are most likely to impact the success of current
company operations.
7. Why is hiring new employees for every labor shortage not preferable?
a. The process is fast and can result in high human suffering.
b. It forces older employees to retire, though they may not want to retire soon.
c. Selecting new employee’s results in too many discrimination law suits.
d. When the shortage becomes a surplus, the organization may have to lay off employees.
8. What is a phased-retirement program?
a. Laying off older employees in small batches.
b. Giving lucrative incentives to a large number of older employees so that they voluntarily retire.
c. Reducing the number of hours the older employees work.
d. Giving older employees a certain time limit to voluntarily retire.
9. Forecasts …………….
a. become more accurate with longer time horizons
b. are rarely perfect
c. are more accurate for individual items than for groups of items
d. all of the above
10. One purpose of short-range forecasts is to determine
a. production planning
b. inventory budgets
c. research and development plans
d. job assignments
11. Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories
a. short-range, medium-range, and long-range
b. finance/accounting, marketing, and operations
c. strategic, tactical, and operational
d. exponential smoothing, regression, and time series
12. A forecast with a time horizon of about 3 months to 3 years is typically called a
a. long-range forecast
b. medium-range forecast
c. short-range forecast
d. weather forecast
13. Forecasts used for new product planning, capital expenditures, facility location or expansion,
and R&D
typically utilize a
a. short-range time horizon
b. medium-range time horizon
c. long-range time horizon
d. naive method, because there is no data history
14. The three major types of forecasts used by business organizations are
a. strategic, tactical, and operational
b. economic, technological, and demand
c. exponential smoothing, Delphi, and regression
d. causal, time-series, and seasonal
15. Which of the following is not a step in the forecasting process?
a. determine the use of the forecast
b. eliminate any assumptions
c. determine the time horizon
d. select a forecasting model(s)
16. The two general approaches to forecasting are
a. qualitative and quantitative
b. mathematical and statistical
c. judgmental and qualitative
d. historical and associative
17. Which of the following uses three types of participants: decision makers, staff personnel, and
respondents?
a. executive opinions
b. sales force composites
c. the Delphi method
d. consumer surveys
18. Which of the following is not a type of qualitative forecasting?
a. executive opinions
b. sales force composites
c. consumer surveys
d. moving average
19. The forecasting model that pools the opinions of a group of experts or managers is known as the
a. sales force composition model
b. multiple regression
c. jury of executive opinion model
d. consumer market survey model
20. Which of the following techniques uses variables such as price and promotional expenditures,
which are
related to product demand, to predict demand?
a. associative models
b. exponential smoothing
c. weighted moving average
d. simple moving average
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(a)
3.(b)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6. (c)
7.(d)
8.(c)
9.(b)
10.(d)
11. (a)
12.(b)
13.(c)
14.(b)
15.(b)
16. (a)
17.(c)
18.(d)
19.(c)
20.(a)
Chapter-4: Organizing
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which approach recognizes that there is no optimal organizational design?
a. Contingency
b. Boundless organizations
c.
Flexible organizations
d. Virtual organizations
2. According to Burns and Stalker, which of the following is a feature of organic organizations?
a. A specific hierarchical structure
b. Prestige drawn from personal contribution
c.
Emphasis on vertical communication channels
d. Knowledge requirement based on job
3. How did Lawrence and Lorsch refer to problems of trying to cope with varied environmental
demands from the same department or the same demands from different departments?
a. Integration failure
b. Differentiation errors
c.
Insufficient collaboration
d. Cognitive and emotional conflict
4. Which key skill was not mentioned by Kanter as needed by managers of innovative
organizations?
a. Communicating
b. Team leading
c.
Political
d. Coping
5. Which of the following is not true of span of control?
a. The technical content of jobs has little effect on the required span of control of supervisors.
b. High spans of control were found in supervision of line production.
c.
It is the number of subordinates who report directly to a supervisor
d. The average span of control affects the number of managers.
6. How did Woodward come to suggest a normative theory about production organization?
a. Because different groups of firms had different organizational characteristics.
b. Because those with leaner, shorter hierarchies performed best.
c.
Because the best-performing firms in each technological group had organizational
characteristics that were similar to each other.
d. Because it became clear that firms should adapt their organization to match process
technology.
7. Structure is the pattern of relationships among positions in the organization and among members
of the organization. Which of the following does structure make possible?
a. The planning, organizing, directing and controlling of the activities of the organization.
b. The application of the process of management.
c.
The creation of a framework of order and command.
d. All of the above.
8. Which of the following functions may be described as 'task' functions?
a. Production.
b. Quality control.
c.
Personnel.
d. All of the above.
9. Which of the following might be classified as functions of the ‘staff organization’ as opposed to
functions of the ‘line organization?
a. Computer support services.
b. Public relations.
c.
Personnel.
d. All of the above.
10. Which three of the following terms best describe the three levels in a hierarchical structure?
a. Missionary level.
b. Co-ordination level, Objective level.
c.
Technical level, Community level.
d. Managerial level, Community level, Technical level.
11. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these
elements?
a. co-ordination
b. chain of command
c.
decentralization
d. centralization
12. When jobs are grouped together based on a particular type of customer, this is known as:
a. centralization.
b. departmentalization.
c.
work specialization.
d. job structuring.
13. Centralization refers to:
a. the decision-making process.
b. team decision-making.
c.
the geographic dispersion of an organization.
d. the degree to which decision-making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.
14. In an organization that has high centralization:
a. all top-level officials are located within the same geographic area.
b. problems can be quickly and efficiently solved.
c.
decision discretion is widely dispersed throughout the organization.
d. top managers make all the decisions-lower-level managers merely carry out directions.
15. The degree to which jobs within an organization are standardized is referred to as:
a. centralization.
b. job variation.
c.
job classification.
d. formalization.
16. In a highly formalized organization, job behaviors are relatively:
a. programmed.
b. non-existent.
c.
nonprogramed.
d. discretionary.
17. Employee discretion is inversely related to:
a. complexity.
b. standardization.
c.
technology.
d. centralization.
18. Which of the following structures is characterized by centralization, high formalization, extensive
departmentalization, and a limited information network?
a. mechanistic model
b. organic model
c.
job structure model
d. job satisfaction model
19. If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network and high participation in
decision-making, one would expect:
a. a typical government organization.
b. an organic structure.
c.
a stable structure.
d. a bureaucracy.
20. Which of the following is characterized by wide spans of control, little formalization, a low
degree of departmentalization, and authority centralized in a single person?
a. bureaucracy
b. simple structure
c.
matrix organization
d. team structure
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(b)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6. (c)
7.(d)
8.(a)
9.(d)
10.(d)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(a)
Chapter-5: Coordination
Self Assessment Questions
1. Flatter structures generally enhance
a. decision making and coordination.
b. vertical communication and coordination.
c.
horizontal and vertical communication.
d. vertical communication and coordination.
2. Co-ordination is not a function of management.
a. True
b. False
3. Mutual adjustment relies on _______ to coordinate tasks.
a. downward communication
b. formal communication
c.
horizontal communication
d. informal communication
4. Co-ordination is the “Plus value of the group”.
a. True
b. False
5. Which method of coordination provides the most amount of worker discretion?
a. Standardization of work processes
b. Mutual adjustment
c.
Standardization of outputs
d. Standardization of skills
6. Coordination can be achieved more easily in early stages of planning and policy-making.
a. True
b. False
7. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, the new innovative unit often
requires
a. a more mechanistic structure.
b. coordination.
c.
a more organic structure.
d. mutual influence.
8. Coordination must start at an early stage in the management process.
a. True
b. False
9. All of the following are disadvantages of functional departmentation except
a. poor communication within departments.
b. slow responses to organizational problems.
c.
over-specialization.
d. poor coordination.
10. Integration is an activity by companies that specialize in bringing different manufacturers’
products together into a smoothly working system.
a. companies
b. task
c. organization
d. None of these
11. Functional departmentation works best in
a. medium to large sized firms that offer relatively few product lines or services.
b. small to medium sized firms that offer many product lines or services.
c.
medium to large sized firms that offer many product lines or services.
d. small to medium sized firms that offer relatively few product lines or services.
12. Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of downsizing?
a. It does not result in cost reductions in the long-run or improvements in productivity.
b. It does result in cost reductions in the long-run and improvements in productivity.
c.
It does result in cost reductions in the long-run but not improvements in productivity.
d. It does not result in cost reductions in the short-run or improvements in productivity.
13. A price-skimming strategy involves charging high prices for a product, particularly during the
introductory phase.
a. True
b. False
14. When faced with serious decline, organizations have a tendency to become
a. less organic.
b. more mechanistic.
c.
more organic.
d. less mechanistic.
15. A question for business level strategy would be:
a) Which industries do we want to be in?
b) How should the businesses be related?
c) How should the business compete in its market?
d) How should resources be shared amongst the businesses?
16. Which of Porter's generic strategies is Easyjet following?
a) Differentiation
b) Cost leadership
c) Cost focus
d) Hybrid
17. A differentiation strategy offers:
a) A broad segment something unique
b) A narrow segment something unique
c) A broad segment something more expensive
d) A narrow segment something more expensive
18. Kim and Mauborgne (2005) argue that organizations should try to capture uncontested market
space. These uncontested markets are known as:
a) Blue skies
b) Blue oceans
c) White skies
d) Fresh snows
19. ………………is the process in which several steps in the production and/or distribution of a
product or service are controlled by a single company or entity, in order to increase that company’s
or entity’s power in the marketplace.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Organization
d. None of these
20. …………………… simply means a strategy to increase your market share by taking over a similar
company.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Organization
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(d)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6. (a)
7.(c)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(d)
13.(a)
14.(b)
15.(c)
16. (b)
17.(a)
18.(b)
19.(b)
20.(a)
Chapter-6: Organizational Behavior
Self Assessment Questions
1. Concerning organizational cultures,
a. a strong culture is a more productive environment
b. a weak culture is a more productive environment
c. the specific culture that contributes to positive effectiveness is well known
d. the stronger the culture, the more influential it is on employee behavior
2. Shared organizational values are
a. unconscious, affective desires or wants that guide society's behavior
b. influenced by international values
c. different for the various components of a diverse work force
d. a myth
3. Which of the following best explains why an employee behaves as s/he does?
a. The environment is the most important consideration in understanding individual employee
behavior.
b. Both the environment and individual differences are important considerations in understanding
individual employee behavior.
c. Neither the environment nor individual differences are important considerations in
understanding individual employee behavior.
d. Employee personality and attitudes are primarily dictated by the environment.
4. Motivation is important to managers because
a. it is a significant contributor to high performance
b. it does not explain the differences in intensity of behavior
c. it explains the differences in attitude and personality
d. not all employees know how to use it effectively
5. Considering extrinsic rewards,
a. money modifies behavior irrespective of the perceptions and preferences of the person being
rewarded
b. recognition is a powerful motivating reward for everyone
c. upper management compensation is a strong incentive for lower-level employees to work harder
d. benefits are usually based on longevity, not performance
6. In order from lowest to highest, what are Maslow's five classes of needs?
a. Social-esteem-physiological-safety-self-actualization
b. Physiological-safety-social-self-actualization-esteem
c. Physiological-safety-social-esteem-self-actualization
d. Self-actualization-esteem-safety-social-physiological
7. A lack of clarity concerning what will happen is referred to as
a. temporal
b. predisposition
c. uncertainty
d. negation
8. Employees with relatively weak higher-order needs are _______ concerned with variety and
autonomy.
a. less
b. more
c. very
d. extremely
9. Which of the following is a strategy of job design that increases job depth by meeting employees
needs for psychological growth?
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Job enrichment and job enlargement
10. What is the key word in understanding organization structure?
a. Control
b. Change
c. Process
d. Delegation
11. Organization structures
a. affect group behavior more than individual behavior
b. change rapidly to meet environmental and market changes
c. contribute positively to organizational performance
d. can be defined simply as activities that occur regularly
12. Groups created by managerial decision in order to accomplish stated goals of the organization
are called
a. formal groups
b. informal groups
c. task groups
d. interest groups
13. Continued membership in a group will usually require
a. supporting the group leader
b. conforming to group norms
c. encouraging cohesiveness in the group
d. developing a status system
14. Which of the following is true of managers in relationship to conflict?
a. Managers generally encourage low levels of conflict because it improves performance, up to a
certain point.
b. Managers generally ignore conflict.
c. Managers attempt to eliminate conflict because the organization rewards them for keeping conflict
out of their area of responsibility.
d. Managers show no consistent attitude toward conflict.
15. It appears that
a. successful leaders tend to be more intelligent than followers
b. there is no link between intelligence of the leader and success
c. intelligence is the most important "ability" trait in leaders
d. persons with creativity make the best leaders
16. Concerning leadership concepts,
a. leader roles are unnecessary in organizations like Gore-Tex, where a self-leadership approach is
used
b. it is likely that a particular set of leader characteristics and behaviors do suit specific situations
and groups
c. it is likely that the need for leaders will decline in the 21st century due to more decentralized
structures
d. the military model of leadership will become more popular in the 21st century
17. The definition of communication implies that
a. communication is mostly verbal
b. communication is mostly written
c. most communication is in a vertical direction
d. understanding must occur to have communication
18. The LEAST-used communication channel in an organization is usually
a. upward
b. downward
c. diagonal
d. horizontal
19. Specific procedures developed for repetitive and routine problems are
a. autocratic decisions
b. programmed decisions
c. easy decisions
d. non-programmed decisions
20. An important potential environmental source of change is
a. a new competitive product
b. dissatisfied employee attitudes
c. employee grievances
d. a wildcat strike
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(c)
3.(b)
4.(a)
5.(d)
6. (c)
7.(c)
8.(a)
9.(b)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(a)
13.(b)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16. (b)
17.(d)
18.(d)
19.(b)
20.(a)
Chapter-7: Formal and Informal Organization
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which is not an example of a type of interpersonal power?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Knowledge power
Legitimate power
Expert power
Reward power
2. Formal organization is not a fixed set of rules of intra-organization procedures and structures.
a. True
b. False
3. Informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together
in practice.
a. True
b. False
4. A person's ability to impose an unpleasant action on another refers to which type of power?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decision-making power
Network power
Coercive power
Referent power
5. Disadvantage of informal Groups……….
a. Resistance to change
b. Role conflict
c.
Rumor
d. All of above
6. Key characteristics of the formal organization………
a. enduring, unless deliberately altered
b. top-down
c.
static
d. All of above
7. Which of these is not listed as type of situational or structural power?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Knowledge power
Reward power
Network power
Decision-making power
8. The process by which alliances and contacts are established both inside and outside the
organization is known as?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Expert power
Decision-making power
Networking.
Reward power
9. Power is the ability to influence the behavior of others
a. True
b. False
10. Referent power refers to a person's capacity to influence others owing to specific skills and
abilities.
a. True
b. False
11. Knowledge power is a type of situational and structural power.
a. True
b. False
12. When used effectively, empowerment strategies can lead to increased employee motivation and
job satisfaction.
a. True
b. False
13. Which of the following strategic contingencies refers to the extent to which you perform a
function that is vital to the organization?
a. Nonsubstitutability
b. A high degree of centrality
c. The ability to cope with uncertainty
d. None of the above
14. Which empowerment strategy is defined as being appealing to personal values and ideas?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ingratiation
Inspirational appeal
Rational persuasion
Assertiveness
15. Which type of conflict occurs when two or more people perceive goals, attitudes, values, and
behavior differently?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intrapersonal
Interorganizational
Intragroup
Interpersonal
16. Interpersonal conflict occurs when a person is confronted with several mutually exclusive
options and has difficulty making a decision.
a. True
b. False
17. Intraorganizational conflict occurs when there is disagreement in an organization, either within
or between levels.
a. True
b. False
18. Which is not a structural factor of organizational conflict?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Goal differences
Status differences
Specialization
Skills and abilities
19. Which conflict management technique focusses on satisfying mutual interests?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Collaborating
Compromising
Avoiding
Forcing
20. Difficult people who constantly criticize, yet rarely take action to improve things would be in
which category?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Negativists
Clams
Indecisive stallers
Complainers
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(c)
5.(d)
6. (d)
7.(b)
8.(c)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11. (a)
12.(a)
13.(a)
14.(b)
15.(d)
16. (b)
17.(a)
18.(d)
19.(a)
20.(d)
Chapter-8: Individual Behavior
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which answer best describes an example of an environmental factor that effects personality traits
individuals develop?
a. Group Membership
b. Family
c.
Culture
d. All of the above
2. Which is not an example of a personality trait associated with political behavior?
a. Need for Power
b. Machiavellianism
c.
Willingness to take risks
d. Dogmatism
3. Personality can be defined as a set of relatively stable characteristics that influences a person’s
behavior.
a. True
b. False
4. Heredity is the only determinant of the personality traits an individual will develop.
a. True
b. False
5. Which is not a component of attitudes?
a. Affective
b. Cognitive
c.
Behavioral
d. Perception
6. ___________ is an oversimplified mental picture that is associate with a particular group.
a. Perceptual barrier
b. Stereotype
c.
Halo effect
d. Selective Perception
7. An individual’s belief concerning the ability to accomplish a job task is the definition of:
a. Self-efficacy
b. Organizational commitment
c.
Self-monitoring
d. Affect
8. Attitudes are enduring feelings, beliefs, and/or behavior tendencies.
a. True
b. False
9. Job satisfaction is a positive emotional state resulting from an individual’s opinion of the job.
a. True
b. False
10. The attribution process is the process through which people receive, organize, and interpret
information about their environment.
a. True
b. False
11. Which characteristic is not typical of Machiavellianism?
a. Being extremely loyal
b. Distrusting others
c.
Manipulating others for personal or political gain
d. Employing deceit in interpersonal relationships
12. Which of these is not a factor, listed in the book, which influences the relationship between
attitudes and behavior?
a. Specificity of the attitude
b. Fear of consequences
c.
Personality
d. Self-efficacy
13. A characteristic that influences the way they perceive others is:
a. Attitudes
b. Self-concept
c.
Thinking pattern
d. All of the above
14. ________________ means paying attention to information that supports your ideas and ignoring
the rest.
a. Projection
b. Halo effect
c.
Selective perception
d. Stereotype
15. SHRM is also about strategic choice, which refers to:
a) The processes and decisions that shape the organization’s philosophy towards its employees
b) Managerial prerogative in decision making
c) Negotiating with trade unions or employee associations over the direction of the organization
d) Giving employees their 'say' in organizational concerns
16. Extroverts tend to be shy and inward looking, introverts tend to be outgoing and concerned with
external things.
a. True
b. False
17. If an employee has continuance commitment they will stay with the company because of their
strong desire to do so and their belief in the goals and values of the organization.
a. True
b. False
18. Perception is the process through which people receive, organize, and interpret information
about their environment.
a. True
b. False
19. Do HR activities have an effect on employee and managerial behavior?
a) Yes, but these effects can be negative as well as positive
b) HR has limited impact on either employee behavior or managerial
c) HR impacts on employee behavior but not on managerial
d) No, it is managerial behavior which impacts on HR
20. The view that employees are critical to organizational success is now generally accepted. Does
this mean that……….
a) All employees have the same value or potential for the organization
b) It reflects the unprecedented success of HR practitioners to deliver
c) Good management of people will prevail
d) Managing the human resource has become even more important because it is the one resource
most difficult to replicate
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(d)
3.(a)
4.(b)
5.(d)
6. (b)
7.(a)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11. (a)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16. (b)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(d)
Chapter-9: Centralization and Decentralization
Self Assessment Questions
1. A firm's ____ may be expressed formally through its mission statement or code of ethics.
a. policies
b. culture
c.
vision
d. strategy
2. The key to success in any organization is satisfying ____
a. employees
b. markets
c.
government
d. stakeholders
3. ____ involves the division of labor into individual tasks.
a. segmentation
b. empowerment
c.
unity of command
d. specialization
4. ____ involves the grouping of jobs into working units.
a. segmentation
b. departmentalization
c.
empowerment
d. unity of command
5. Finance, marketing, and human resources are examples of ____ departmentalization.
a.
geographical
b.
customer
c.
functional
d.
production
6. ____ corporations often use geographical departmentalization.
a.
outsourcing
b.
foreign
c.
U.S.
d.
multinational
7. Customer departmentalization arranges jobs based on the ____ of various customer groups.
a. niches
b. demographics
c.
needs
d. location
8. The extent to which authority is delegated throughout an organization determines its degree of
____.
a. decentralization
b. centralization
c.
power
d. empowerment
9. Centralization and decentralization are very important concepts of organization.
a. True
b. False
10. ____ is characteristic of organizations that operate in complex, unpredictable environments.
a. decentralization
b. centralization
c.
power
d. empowerment
11. Decentralization requires that lower-level managers have strong ____ skills.
a. people
b. financial
c.
mentoring
d. decision-making
12. A ____ span of management exists when a manager supervises a very large number of
employees.
a. good
b. flawed
c.
stretched
d. wide
13. Organizations with few layers are considered ___ and as a consequence have ___ spans of
management.
a. wide; tall
b. tall; narrow
c.
flat; wide
d. flat; narrow
14. The simplest organizational structure is a ____ structure, with direct lines of authority from the
top to the lowest level of the organization.
a. staff
b. line
c.
line-and-staff
d. division
15. In ____ organizations, employees may lack the authority to carry out certain decisions.
a. staff
b. line
c.
line-and-staff
d. division
16. Decentralized organization it is also essential to adopt the democratic norms.
a. True
b. False
17. A task force is a ____ group of employees responsible for bringing about a particular change.
a. virtual
b. temporary
c.
managerial
d. low-level
18. ____ teams frequently include people from numerous functional areas, formed specifically to
devise, design and implement a new product.
a. project
b. quality-assurance
c.
task force
d. product-development teams
19. Decentralization provides a positive climate where there is freedom to make decisions, freedom
to use judgment and freedom to act.
a. True
b. False
20. Decentralization is not effective for the organizations, which have operations in different
locations.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(d)
3.(d)
4.(b)
5.(c)
6. (d)
7.(c)
8.(b)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(d)
13.(c)
14.(b)
15.(c)
16. (a)
17.(b)
18.(d)
19.(a)
20.(b)
Chapter-10 Controlling
1. Information must be collected, routed, and evaluated quickly if action is to be taken in time to
produce improvements.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accurate
Timely
Objective and Comprehensible
None of these
2. Assembly-line technology is changing dramatically as organizations …………………..
a.
b.
c.
d.
develop new products for the market
replace human labor with robots
replace old manually controlled machines with newer machines
find new markets for their products
3. Controls must have flexibility built into them so that the organizations can react quickly to
overcome adverse changes or to take advantage of new opportunities.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accurate
Timely
Flexible
None of these
4. Standards expressed in general terms should be avoided. Standards need to be flexible in order to
adapt to changing conditions.
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following is not an internal force of change?
a.
b.
c.
d.
technology
strategy
workforce
employee attitudes
6. Market control assumes………..
a)
b)
c)
d)
prices and competition.
the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority.
norms and values to which organizational members conform.
Prices and competition, the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority, and norms and
values to which organizational members conform.
7. For an organization to effectively exercise clan control it must have:
a)
b)
c)
d)
prices and competition.
rules and hierarchy of authority.
norms and values to which organizational members conform.
Prices and competition, rules and hierarchy of authority, and norms and values to which
organizational members conform.
8. The feminist perspective contributed which of the following dimensions of power that has
previously not been considered by organization theorists?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Domination/submission
Autonomy/dependence
Oppressors/oppressed
Masculine/feminine
9. In the Walton and Dutton model, what is the least likely single explanation for any given instance
of interpersonal conflict in an organization?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Individual differences
Common resources
Communication obstacles
Goal incompatibility
10. Cybernetic control systems help organizations realize their strategies by aligning:
a)
b)
c)
d)
behavioral and output measures.
strategies, goals and actions.
culture with social structure.
the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).
11. Corrective action should be taken without wasting of time so that the normal position can be
restored quickly.
a. True
b. False
12. According to agency theory, organizations achieve high levels of performance by aligning…..
a)
b)
c)
d)
behavioral and output measures.
strategies, goals and actions.
culture with social structure.
the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).
13. An organization's process strategy
a)
b)
c)
d)
will have long-run impact on efficiency and production
is the same as its transformation strategy
must meet various constraints, including cost
all of these
14. A job shop is an example of a(n)
a.
b.
c.
d.
repetitive process
continuous process
line process
intermittent process
15. Three types of process strategies are………………….
a.
b.
c.
d.
goods, services, and hybrids
manual, automated, and service
process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus
modular, continuous, and technological
16. Which of the following products is likely to be assembled on a repetitive process line?
a.
b.
c.
d.
automobiles
dishwashers
television sets
all of these
17. Concurrent controls monitor ongoing employee activity to ensure consistency with quality
standards.
a. True
b. False
18. Control system should be flexible so that it remains workable in the case of changed plans,
unforeseen circumstances or failures.
a. Flexible
b. Economical
c. Motivating
d. None of these
19. Financial statements provide management with information to monitor financial resources and
activities.
a. True
b. False
20. Managers develop each new budget by justifying the projected allocation against its contribution
to departmental or organizational goals.
a. Flexible budgeting
b. Top-down budgeting
c. Zero-based budgeting
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(b)
3.(c)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6. (a)
7.(c)
8. (d)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11.(a)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15. (c)
16. (d)
17. (a)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (c)
Chapter-11: Human Resource Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. ________ are the resources that provide utility value to all other resources.
a. Men
b. Material
c.
Money
d. Machinery
2. The term procurement stands for
a. recruitment and selection
b. training and development
c.
pay and benefits
d. health and safety
3. The characteristics of human resources are ________ in nature
a. homogeneous
b. heterogeneous
c.
ductility
d. None of the above
4. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
a. procurement
b. development
c.
organizing
d. performance appraisal
5. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?
a. planning
b. organizing
c.
procurement
d. controlling
6. The scope of human resource management includes
a. procurement
b. development
c.
compensation
d. All of the above
7. Human resource management is normally ________ in nature.
a. proactive
b. reactive
c.
combative
d. None of the above
8. The human resource management functions aim at
a. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and
material to perform the job successfully
b. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment
c.
improving an organization’s creditworthiness among financial institutions
d. None of the above
9. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR
professionals?
a. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programs while line managers are more
involved in the implementation of those programs.
b. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programs whereas staff
advisors are more involved in implementing such programs.
c.
Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR
programs while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.
d. Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programs while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.
10. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?
a. Human Relations Management.
b. Humane Resource Management.
c.
Humanistic Resource Management.
d. Human Resource Management.
11. Which of the following terms was also used before the language of modern HRM? Select all that
apply.
a. Labor relations.
b. Personnel management.
c.
Personal management.
d. Industrial relations.
12. What is meant by the acronym SHRM?
a. Soft Human Resource Management.
b. Strategic Human Resource Management.
c.
Sophisticated Human Resource Management.
d. Superior Human Resource Management.
13. What is meant by the acronym HCM?
a. High Calibre Management.
b. High Class Management.
c.
High Capability Management.
d. High Commitment Management.
14. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department?
a. Pay and reward.
b. Recruitment and selection.
c.
Employee relations.
d. Accounting.
15. It has been said that some HR departments have had a 'Cinderella' image. What is meant by this
statement?
a. Influential and powerful.
b. Low status and obscure.
c.
Bureaucratic.
d. Old fashioned and staid.
16. How long has the term 'HRM' been fashionable?
a. The last 100 years.
b. The last twenty years.
c.
The last forty years.
d. The last five years.
17. In the 'matching model' of HRM, what is meant by 'Cost driven HRM'?
a. Where a strategic planning process exists, but people are viewed as a cost.
b. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, and people are viewed as a cost.
c.
Where a strategic planning process exists, and people are viewed as a resource.
d. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, but people are viewed as a
resource.
18. Human resource management is the formal part of an organization responsible for all of the
following aspects of the management of human resources except:
a. management of the organization’s finances
b. policy making, implementation, and enforcement
c.
strategy development and analysis
d. systems, processes, and procedures
19. The field of HRM was founded on the idea that the competitive advantage of the organization
relies on the following sources of capital:
a. cultural, human and system capital
b. social, cultural and human capital
c.
organization relies on the following sources of capital:
d. cultural, human and source capital
20. To address the challenges and opportunities they face organizations engage in a process of
strategic management. Strategic management is:
a. short-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy
formulation and implementation
b. long-term focused and composed of the organization’s mission, vision and value
statements
c.
short-term focused and composed of the organization’s mission, vision and value
statements
d. long-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy
formulation and implementation
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(a)
3.(b)
4.(c)
5.(c)
6. (d)
7.(a)
8.(b)
9.(a)
10.(d)
11. (b)
12.(b)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(b)
16. (b)
17.(a)
18.(a)
19.(b)
20.(a)
Chapter-12: Values, Attitudes and Job Satisfaction
Self Assessment Questions
1. ____ represent basic convictions that “a specific mode of conduct or end state of existence is
personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct.”
a.
Values
b.
Attitudes
c.
Convictions
d.
Preferences
2. The content attribute states a value is:
a. complete.
b. important.
c.
a basic conviction.
d. related to behavior.
3. When we rank an individual’s values in terms of his/her _____, we obtain the person’s value
system.
a.
intensity
b.
content
c.
context
d.
social acceptance
4. Values are best described as:
a.
flexible.
b.
synonymous with attitudes.
c.
consistent among occupational groups.
d.
fairly stable over time.
5. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior
a.
True
b.
False
6.
Rokeach found that the instrumental value of ambitious (hardworking and aspiring) people
was related to the terminal value of:
7.
a.
a comfortable life.
b.
freedom.
c.
happiness.
d.
self-respect.
According to Rokeach, _____ values refer to desirable end-states of existence.
8.
a.
instrumental
b.
aesthetic
c.
theoretical
d.
terminal
In contrasting values and attitudes, which one of the following is true?
9.
a.
They come from different sources.
b.
There is no significant correlation between the two.
c.
Attitudes are more stable than values.
d.
Values are more stable than attitudes.
The belief that “discrimination is wrong” is a value statement. Such an opinion is the _____
component of an attitude.
10.
a.
cognitive
b.
affective
c.
reactive
d.
behavioral
The _____ component is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude.
a.
affective
b.
cognitive
c.
behavioral
d.
11.
evaluative
The _____ component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward
someone or something.
12.
13.
a.
affective
b.
cognitive
c.
behavioral
d.
evaluative
Which one of the following is not an attitude?
a.
job productivity
b.
job satisfaction
c.
job involvement
d.
organizational commitment
The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and
considers his or her performance important to self-worth is:
14.
15.
a.
job satisfaction.
b.
job involvement.
c.
job stability.
d.
organizational commitment.
_____ refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job.
a.
Job satisfaction
b.
Job involvement
c.
Job stability
d.
Organizational commitment
Job involvement is best defined as a worker’s:
a.
general attitude toward his or her job.
16.
b.
loyalty to the organization.
c.
identification with the job.
d.
need to participate in organizational social activities.
If an employee’s attitude is negative toward her job, she does not have:
17.
a.
organizational commitment.
b.
values.
c.
job satisfaction.
d.
job involvement.
Job satisfaction is best described as:
18.
a.
behavior.
b.
a value.
c.
an attitude.
d.
causing high performance.
The best measure of job satisfaction is:
19.
a.
the job involvement scale.
b.
the commitment scale.
c.
the summation of job facets.
d.
a one-question global rating.
Independent studies conducted among U.S. workers over the past 30 years generally
indicate that:
a.
workers are satisfied with their jobs.
b.
these results are generally applicable to other developed countries.
c.
more people report that they are satisfied than not.
d.
all of the above
20. Which of the following is true about the relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism?
a.
There is a consistent positive relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism.
b.
There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism.
c.
No relationship can be established between satisfaction and absenteeism.
d.
Liberal sick leave policies reduce absence among satisfied employees.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(d)
5.(a)
6. (a)
7.(d)
8.(d)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (c)
12.(a)
13.(b)
14.(a)
15.(c)
16. (c)
17.(c)
18.(d)
19.(d)
20.(b)
Chapter-13: Emotions and Perception
Self Assessment Questions
1. A process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give
meaning to their environment is called:
a. Environmental impact.
b. Interpretation.
c.
Environmental analysis.
d. Perception.
2. The focus of a person's attention appears to be influenced by:
a. experiences, motives, attitudes, and interests
b. experiences, beliefs, attitudes, and personality
c.
interests, attitudes, beliefs, and motives
d. experiences, motives, values, and judgments
3. The theory that has been proposed to develop explanations of how we judge people differently,
depending upon the meaning we assign to a given behavior, is:
a. Situational theory.
b. Attribution theory.
c.
Behavioral theory
d. Judgmental theory.
4. Attribution theory says that when we observe behavior, we attempt to determine whether its
cause is:
a. individual or external
b. internal or external
c.
typical or unusual
d. consistent or erratic
5. Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. This behavior exhibits:
a. Validity.
b. Consensus.
c.
Reliability.
d. Consistency.
6. The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of
internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is known as:
a. Fundamental attribution error
b. Self-serving bias
c.
Attribution theory
d. Selective perception
7. When we draw a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic such as
intelligence, sociability or appearance:
a. We are prejudiced.
b. We have misjudged the person.
c.
We are projecting.
d. We are using halo effect.
8. One of the shortcuts used to judge others involves evaluating a person based on how he or she
compares to other individuals recently encountered. This shortcut is known as:
a. Projection
b. Contrast effects
c.
Bias
d. Prejudice
9. People who engage in ___________ tend to perceive others according to what they themselves are
like, rather than according to what the person being observed is really like.
a. stereotyping
b. judging
c.
contrast effects
d. projection
10. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs,
we are using the shortcut called:
a. Stereotyping
b. Categorizing
c.
Contrasting
d. Grouping
11. Which of the following personality attributes predicts behavior that is pragmatic and emotionally
distant?
a. Machiavellianism
b. Locus of control
c.
Type A personality
d. Conscientiousness
12. Individuals who rate high in external locus of control:
a. Are less satisfied with their jobs.
b. Perceive they have significant control.
c.
Are less alienated from the work setting.
d. Are more involved in their jobs.
13. Characteristics of individuals high in Machiavellianism include which of the following?
a. Impulsive, emotionally involved, have strong ethical beliefs
b. Good listeners, believe in weighing alternatives.
c.
Pragmatic, maintain emotional distance, believe ends can justify means
d. Maintain emotional distance, highly authoritative, believe in swift discipline
14. People with high self-esteem:
a. Tend to more self-centered and not concerned with pleasing others.
b. Tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than those with low self-esteem.
b. Tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than those with low self-esteem.
c.
Tend to be more concerned with pleasing others than those with low self-esteem.
15. How would you describe an individual who is capable of presenting striking contradictions
between who they are in public and who they are privately?
a. High self-esteem
b. Low self-monitoring
c.
High risk-taking
d. High self-monitoring
16. A risk avoider tends to make decisions:
a. Quickly and with little information.
b. Slowly and with substantial information.
c.
Slowly and with little information.
d. Quickly and with substantial information.
17. Which occupation has the highest risk-taking likelihood?
a. A stock trader in a brokerage firm
b. A marketing representative
c.
An accountant performing auditing activities
d. An actuarial in an insurance firm
18. An individual who is aggressively involved in a chronic incessant struggle to achieve more and
more in less and less time is a/an:
a. Extrovert.
b. Type AB.
c.
Type B.
d. Type A.
19. The process of organizing and interpreting impressions to have meaning in the environment is
called:
a. Opinions
b. Ideals
c.
Views
d. Perception
20. Drawing conclusions about a person based on a characteristic is called
a. Contract effect
b. Judgment
c.
Halo effect
d. Prejudice
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(a)
3.(b)
4.(b)
5.(d)
6. (a)
7.(d)
8.(b)
9.(d)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(c)
14.(b)
15.(d)
16. (b)
17.(a)
18.(d)
19.(d)
20.(c)
Chapter-14 Reinforcement Learning
1. Learning is learning what to do--how to map situations to actions so as to ………… reward signal.
a.
b.
c.
d.
minimize a numerical
maximize a numerical
Both a and b
None of these
2. Reinforcement learning is defined not by characterizing learning methods, but by characterizing a
learning problem.
a. True
b. False
3. Reinforcement learning is different from supervised learning, the kind of learning studied in most
current research in
a. machine learning
b. statistical pattern recognition
c. artificial neural networks
d. All of these
4. A reinforcement learning agent’s sole objective is to maximize the total reward it receives in the
…………
a. run mode
b. No long run.
c. long run.
d. None of these
5. In decision-making and planning, the derived quantity called value is the one with which we are
most concerned.
a. True
b. False
6. Organizational Behavior is the study and application of knowledge about how people as
individual or as ………………….. within organizations.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Single act
Double act
Group act
None of these
7. Organizational Behavior is the key aspect to ………….. amongst employees in the company.
a. maintain and enhance interaction levels
b. maximize and enhance interaction levels
c. Minimize and enhance interaction levels
d. All of these
8. The aim of OB it to solve problems of organizations related with human behavior aspect.
a. A separate field of study
b. applied science
c. Interdisciplinary Approach
d. None of these
9. To learn that human behavior in organizations is not an exact science is in itself a significant
realization.
a. True
b. False
10. Organizations are systems of interacting components, which are people,
a. tasks
b. technology
c. structure
d. All of these
11. The informal organization was first fully appreciated as a result of the Hawthorne studies
conducted during the ………………………….
a. 1930’s and 1935’s
b. 1920’s and 1925’s
c. 1920’s and 1930’s
d. None of these
12. Organizational behavior was not a topic that was not discussed until an employee’s behavior
changed, productivity changed, or sales decreased.
a. True
b. False
13. The basis of this model is economic resources with a managerial orientation of money.
a. Autocratic
b. Custodial
c. Supportive
d. None of these
14. Psychology is not the science that seeks to measure, explain and sometimes change the behavior
of humans.
a. True
b. False
15. Sociology, the science of society, has made important contributions to ………….. about group
and intergroup dynamics in the study of organizational behavior.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Performance
Skill
Knowledge
None of these
16. Social psychology is a branch of psychology which borrows concepts from …………….
a. Psychology
b. sociology.
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
17. Political scientists study the behavior of individual and groups within a political environment.
a. True
b. False
18. Political scientists study the behavior of individual and groups within a political environment.
a. True
b. False
19. Biographical characteristics are readily…………...
a.
b.
c.
d.
Not available to managers
available to managers
available to management
None of these
20. …………..like to stand back to ponder experiences and observe them from many different
perspectives.
a. Theorists
b. Reflectors
c. Pragmatists
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(a)
3.(d)
4.(c)
5.(a)
6. (c)
7.(a)
8. (b)
9.(a)
10.(d)
11.(c)
12.(b)
13.(b)
14.(b)
15. (c)
16.(c)
17.(a)
Chapter-15: Group Behavior
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which is not related to a large group?
18.(a)
19.(b)
20. (b)
a. Freedom to operate more limited
b. Faster decision process
c.
Expanded know-how
d. Quality of decisions facilitated
2. Informal groups form naturally out of interactions among individuals over time.
a. True
b. False
3. The role negotiation process involves group discussions of each member’s contributions to the
group.
a. True
b. False
4. A group that is formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing tasks that are
essential to organizational functioning is called:
a. Interest Group
b. Task Group
c.
None of the above
d. Functional Group
5. Task groups are formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing tasks that are
essential to organizational functioning.
a. True
b. False
6. Which is not listed as a sub-role of Relations-Oriented Roles?
a. Encouragers
b. Initiators
c.
Gatekeepers
d. Followers
7. Which is not listed as a stage in group development?
a. Forming
b. Role negotiation
c.
Storming
d. Total Integration
8. A mature group has which of the following characteristics?
a. Group Cohesion
b. Group Think
c.
Status Structure
d. Both a and c
9. Which type of work team is made up of employees from different departments and has authority
to implement their own recommendations?
a. Self-managed teams
b. Problem-solving team
c.
Project teams
d. None of the above
10. Group effectiveness being influenced by the nature of the problem to be solved is an example of:
a. Leadership
b. Task complexity
c.
Physical setting
d. Geographical location
11. Which is not an example of an environmental factor that influences group effectiveness?
a. Resources
b. Social loafing
c.
Reward systems
d. None of the above
12. The extent to which leadership of the team is shared by all members and not having dependence
on a single strong leader in a team is included in which dimension of conversational space:
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c.
Openness
d. Shared Leadership
13. Which is not listed as a characteristic of groups?
a. Size and composition
b. Group roles
c.
Group norms
d. None of the above
14. The team-role which is most likely closely associated with enthusiasm, developing contacts and
exploring opportunities is:
a. team worker.
b. monitor-evaluator.
c.
resource investigator.
d. completer-finisher.
15. The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity
but may show disregard for practical details is:
a. plant.
b. specialist.
c.
team worker.
d. shaper.
16. Reasons for the formation of groups include:
a. the provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behavior.
b. the provision of protection for its membership.
c.
the performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined
efforts of individuals working together.
d. all of the above
17. Virtual teams are characterized by:
a. individuals from different work areas who come together to accomplish a task.
b. use of computer technology to communicate with individuals at different worksites.
c.
groups of employees who take on the added responsibilities of their former
managers.
d. employees who meet regularly to take corrective actions to problems being
experienced.
18. The challenge of creating teams is less demanding for management when teams are introduced
where employees have strong _________ values.
a. collectivist
b. pluralistic
c.
competitive
d. individualistic
19. When designing reward systems for teams, it is best to encourage cooperative efforts rather than
____________ ones.
a. collectivist
b. individualistic
c.
pluralistic
d. competitive
20. A role can be define as the activities and behaviors expected of a person holding a particular
position within a group.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(a)
3.(a)
4.(d)
5.(b)
6. (b)
7.(b)
8.(d)
9.(c)
10.(b)
11. (d)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16. (d)
17.(b)
Chapter-16: Work Motivation
18.(a)
19.(d)
20.(a)
Self Assessment Questions
1. Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:
a. Extrinsic/intrinsic
b. Social/spiritual
c.
Effort/reward
d. External/internal
2. According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to:
a. Control behavior
b. Organize behavior
c.
Predict behavior
d. Change behavior
3. Douglas McGregor's view that suggests that employees will exercise self-direction and self-control
when they are committed to the objectives of the work is called:
a. Theory A
b. Theory Y
c.
Theory B
d. Theory Z
4. Which step in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory deals with achieving one's potential?
a. Esteem
b. Safety
c.
Social
d. Self-actualization
5. Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?
a. Personal growth
b. Responsibility
c.
Promotion
d. Company policy
6. Who proposed that achievement, affiliation and power are three important needs that help
explain motivation in workplace situations?
a. McGregor
b. McClelland
c.
Herzberg
d. Maslow
7. Company policy, administration, supervision, interpersonal relations, working conditions, and
salary are characterized as:
a. Motivating factors
b. Growth factors
c.
Hygiene factors
d. Esteem factors
8. An individual's perception of whether performing at a particular level will lead to attainment of a
desired outcome is termed:
a. Expectation
b. Goal-setting
c.
Relevance
d. Instrumentality
9. Expectancy theory is an example of a:
a. Process Theory
b. Hierarchical Theory
c.
Needs Theory
d. Cognitive Evaluation Theory
10. Which of the following steps is important to improving expectancy?
a. Create the belief that effort is related to performance.
b. Ask employees what rewards they value.
c.
Observe and recognize performance.
d. Deliver rewards as promised.
11. Management by objectives emphasizes participatively setting goals that are:
a. General in nature.
b. Easy to create and develop.
c.
Approved by management.
d. Tangible, verifiable, and measurable.
12. An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task is called:
a. Self-importance
b. Self-efficacy
c.
Self-actualization
d. Self-worth
13. The theory that an employee will compare his or her job inputs and outcomes relative to others is
called:
a. Equity Theory
b. Performance Theory
c.
Comparative Theory
d. Inputs-Outputs Theory
14. Allocating extrinsic rewards for behavior that has been previously intrinsically rewarded tends
to decrease the overall level of motivation, and is called:
a. Intrinsic Evaluation Theory
b. Cognitive Evaluation Theory
c.
Motivational Evaluation Theory
d. Extrinsic Evaluation Theory
15. Alfie Kohn suggests that for people to be motivated it is only necessary to provide the right :
a. Incentives
b. Rewards
c.
Compensation
d. Environment
16. Theory X suggests that employees:
a. Dislike work
b. Like their manager
c.
Dislike their manager
d. None of the above
17. What three words define motivation?
a. Desire, persistence, fairness
b. Ambition, direction, intensity
c.
Persistence, fairness, ambition
d. Intensity, direction, persistence
18. The theory that individuals act depending upon their evaluation of whether their effort will lead
to good performance, whether good performance will be followed by a reward, and whether that
reward is attractive to them, is called:
a. Expectancy Theory
b. Motivational Theory
c.
Equity Theory
d. Empirical Theory
19. Which answer corresponds to a person's internal desire to do something, due to such things as
interest, challenge and personal satisfaction?
a. Theory Z
b. Extrinsic motivators
c.
Theory X
d. Intrinsic motivators
20. Equity theory of motivation focuses on:
a. The fact that people are influenced by the expected results of their actions.
b. People’s perception of how they should perform in a given situation at work
c.
The motivational force involved in a person’s actions at work
d. People’s expectation of the different outcomes for a given action
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a)
2.(c)
3.(b)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6. (b)
7.(c)
8.(d)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(b)
13.(a)
14.(b)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(d)
18.(a)
19.(d)
20.(a)
Chapter-17: Leadership
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which of the following statements about leadership is false?
a. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an
organization.
b. Not every leader is a manager.
c.
When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined.
d. All the above.
2. Within an organization, leadership influence will be dependent upon the type of ________ that the
leader can exercise over the followers.
a. friendship
b. power
c.
knowledge
d. delegation
3. Which of the following sources of power are among those identified by French and Raven?
a. Reward power
b. Referent power
c.
Expert power
d. All the above
4. Legitimate power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise
influence because of the leader’s ……..
a. ability to punish or reward
b. expertise and knowledge
c.
role or position within the organization
d. personal characteristics and personality
5. The functional approach to leadership emphasizes that…………..
a. leadership resides in a particular person and not in the functions
b. the various functions of leadership cannot be shared among members of a group
c.
both of the above
d. neither of the above
6. Adair claims that the effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting ________areas of need
within the work group.
a. four
b. two
c.
three
d. none of the above
7. Needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing
sub-
leaders may be called….
a. individual functions
b. team functions
c.
work functions
d. task functions
8. Results of the Ohio State Leadership studies indicated that there are two major dimensions of
leadership behavior. What are they?
a. Consideration and structure
b. Achievement and power
c.
Achievement and structure
d. Consideration and power
9. Leaders of teams find themselves in a role of:
a. autocrat.
b. director.
c.
high power.
d. coach.
10. The ______________ style of leadership is where the focus of power is with the manager. The
manager alone exercises decision-making, authority and the control of rewards or punishments.
a. authoritarian
b. democratic
c.
laissez-faire
d. None of the above
11. Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership behavior identifies four main
styles of leadership by the manager. What are they?
a. Tells, sells, consults and joins
b. Commands, helps, joins and leads
c.
Tells, helps, joins and leads
d. Commands, sells, consults and resists
12. Originally Tannenbaum and Schmidt suggested there are three forces of particular importance
when deciding what types of leadership are practicable and desirable, they are……
a. forces in the manager, subordinates and structure
b. forces in the organization, situation and manager
c.
forces in the structure, subordinates and situation
d. forces in the manager, subordinates and situation
13. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that…..
a. there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
b. there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
c.
there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
d. none of the above
14. Vroom and Yetton’s contingency model of leadership is based on certain aspects of a leader’s
decision, they are…..
a. decision acceptance
b. decision quality
c.
both of the above
d. neither of the above
15. Another contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that subordinates
will see leadership behavior as a motivating influence if.
a. path-goal relationships are clarified
b. their effective performance will satisfy their needs
c.
the necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided
d. all the above
16. Hersey and Blanchard present a form of situational leadership based on the ___________ of the
people the leader is attempting to influence.
a. readiness
b. personality
c.
motivation
d. intelligence
17. When determining the most appropriate form of leadership, which of the following should be
considered?
a. The manager
b. The group
c.
The work environment
d. All the above
18. The following phrase is used to describe a leader:
a. uses traditional influence
b. challenges status quo
c.
acts with established culture
d. relies on control strategies
19. The two dimensions of leader behavior explained in the Ohio State studies are:
a. coercion and motivation.
b. employee-oriented and production-oriented.
c.
initiating structure and consideration.
d. power and influence.
20. The leadership behaviors identified by the path-goal theory are:
a. supportive, achievement-oriented.
b. participative, goal-oriented, supportive.
c.
participative, directive.
d. supportive, directive, participative, achievement-oriented.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(d)
4.(c)
5.(d)
6. (c)
7.(b)
8.(a)
9.(d)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(d)
13.(c)
14.(c)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(d)
18.(b)
19.(c)
20.(d)
Chapter-18: Conflict Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which is not a structural factor of organizational conflict?
(a) Goal differences
(b) Specialization
(c) Status differences
(d) Skills and abilities
2. Which conflict management technique focuses on satisfying mutual interests?
(a) Avoiding
(b) Forcing
(c) Collaborating
(d) Compromising
3. Difficult people who constantly criticize, yet rarely take action to improve things would be in
which category?
(a) Negativists
(b) Indecisive stallers
(c) Clams
(d) Complainers
4. Interpersonal conflict occurs when two people have incompatible needs, goals, or approaches in
their relationship.
(a) True
(b) False
5. What is the final stage in the escalation of a conflict situation?
(a) Violence
(b) Anger
(c) Threats
(d) Aggression
6. Which of these would be considered inappropriate when confronting unacceptable behaviour?
(a) Showing empathy to show you understand the other person
(b) Being assertive
(c) Being threatening
(d) Stating the consequences of the behavior continuing
7. In order to resolve a conflict situation it is important to develop a sense of trust with the other
person by:
(a) Explaining the rules
(b) Building rapport
(c) Delivering a gift
(d) Passing the baton
8. Intentions are decisions to act in a given way intentions intervene between people’s perception
and emotions and their overt behavior.
(a) True
(b) False
9. Which of these would not be a good way to de-escalate a potential conflict situation?
(a) Listening actively
(b) Showing empathy
(c) Adopting positive body language
(d) Using humor or sarcasm
10. What is the first stage in the process of a dynamic risk assessment?
(a) Suggest a compromise, avoid confrontation
(b) Step forward, take control
(c) Step back, stop and think
(d) Synchronies responses, liaise with colleagues
11. The character of armed actors is increasingly more diverse and difficult to define.
(a) True
(b) False
12. One of the advantages of conflict is that it forces you to examine problems and work toward a
potential
(a) Experience
(b) Outcome
(c) Solution
(d) Relationship
13. Conflict that refers to a disagreement among connected individuals is
(a) personal conflict
(b) Intrapersonal conflict
(c) Friendly conflict
(d) Negative conflict
14. One advantage of conflict is that it
(a) makes problem people go away.
(b) forces one to choose friends wisely.
(c) makes problems go away.
(d) forces problems to be addressed.
15. When you become engaged in a conflict, there are two major concerns you have to take into
account.
(a) True
16. The first stage of conflict resolution is to
(a) define the problem.
(b) analyze the problem.
(b) False
(c) choose a solution.
(d) think through possible solutions.
17. When a conflict is defined, what needs to be attended to in addition to any obvious issues?
(a) The relationship
(b) Accommodation
(c) Where the conflict will be resolved
(d) Evaluation
18. Which of the following is a conflict resolution skill?
(a) Passive listening
(b) Accommodating
(c) Active listening
(d) Avoiding
19. The simplest way to reduce conflict is to eliminate the relationship, by leaving or by refusing to
interact with the other party.
(a) True
(b) False
20. One of the most important skills a negotiator will learn in training is formulating a clear objective
of what to expect from the process of negotiating.
(a) True
(b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(c)
3.(d)
4.(a)
5.(c)
6.(c)
7.(b)
8.(a)
9.(d)
10.(c)
11.(a) 12.(c)
13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(a)
16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(c)
19.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-19: Organizational Culture
Self Assessment Questions
1. Culture is comprised of which of the following characteristics?
a. Values
b. Norms
c.
Assumptions
d. All of the above
2. Which does not describe a strong culture?
a. Control must be exercised through extensive procedures and bureaucracy.
b. Opportunities for innovation may be missed due to groupthink.
c.
There is a greater risk of groupthink.
d. People do things because they believe it is the right thing to do.
3. A list of corporate values posted on the wall in the reception area of an organization's
headquarters offices would be classified by a culture researcher as an example of cultural:
a. values.
b. assumptions.
c.
artifacts.
d. beliefs.
4. A list of corporate values presented to employees on a laminated wallet-sized card would be
classified by an ethnographer as an example of cultural:
a. assumptions.
b. beliefs.
c.
values.
d. artifacts.
5. According to Hofstede, national cultures such as Singapore, Hong Kong, and Denmark, in which
people are more accepting of innovative ideas and eccentric or deviant behavior, are which of the
following?
a) High in uncertainty avoidance
b) Low in uncertainty avoidance
c) More masculine
d) High power distance
6. Which of the dimensions Hofstede used to define differences between national cultures refers to
the degree to which members of a culture are expected to act independently of other members?
a. Individualism
b. Power distance
c.
Masculinity
d. Uncertainty avoidance
7. According to Siehl and Martin, a subculture that supports the larger or dominant culture in an
organization is referred to as:
a. countercultural.
b. orthogonal.
c.
occupational.
d. enhancing.
8. According to Hofstede, there are four dimensions of difference between national cultures. Which
of the following is not one of the dimensions Hofstede studied?
a. Uncertainty avoidance
b. Power distance
c.
Masculinity
d. Paradoxicality
9. There is strong culture where there is little alignment with organizational values and control must
be exercised through extensive procedures and bureaucracy.
a. True
b. False
10. In the tough-guy macho culture, within the Deal and Kennedy model, feedback is quick and the
rewards high.
a. True
b. False
11. Management by values can be defined as both a managerial philosophy and practice whereby
focus is concurrently maintained on an organization’s core value and aligned with its strategic
objectives.
a. True
b. False
12. In the Charles Handy concept, _______ culture is characterized by teams that are formed to solve
particular problems.
a. Task Culture
b. Person Culture
c.
Power Culture
d. Role Culture
13. Narrative approaches to organizational culture:
a. study the stories told in organizations and how they are told.
b. are based around the theatre metaphor.
c.
are part of the fragmentation perspective.
d. study the stories told in organizations and how they are told, are based around the
theatre metaphor and are part of the fragmentation perspective.
14. Postmodern studies of organizational culture invoke:
a) thick description.
b) cultural dynamics.
c) dramaturgy.
d) intertextuality.
15. Harrison identifies four main cultures in organizations. What do they mean by a 'person culture'?
a. An organization that exists to serve the needs of members, where individuals are expected to
influence each other through example and helpfulness.
b. An organization with a single source of power.
c.
An organization where the focus is upon achieving goals, and flexibility is important.
d. None of these
16. What does Hofstede mean by the concept of 'individualism'?
a. A concern with dominant values such as success and money.
b. The degree to which individuals are required to act independently.
c.
The manner in which individuals have learned to cope with uncertainty.
d. The extent to which members are willing to accept an unequal distribution of power,
wealth, and privilege.
17. Harrison identifies four main cultures in organizations. What do they mean by a 'task culture'?
a. An organization which exists to meet the needs of its members, and individuals
influence each other through helpfulness.
b. An organization where the emphasis is upon functions and specialities.
c.
An organization with a single source of power.
d. An organization where the focus is upon achieving goals, flexibility is important, and
power is based on expertise.
18. The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is:
a. the country in which it operates.
b. the business planning process.
c.
the selection process.
d. its founders.
19. A strong culture will have the greatest impact on:
a. absence.
b. productivity.
c.
satisfaction.
d. turnover.
20. A strong organizational culture increases behavioral consistency and, therefore, can act as a
substitute for:
a. institutionalization.
b. formalization.
c.
followership.
d. socialization.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(a)
3.(c)
4.(d)
5.(b)
6. (a)
7.(d)
8.(d)
9.(b)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(a)
13.(c)
14.(b)
15.(a)
16. (b)
17.(d)
18.(d)
19.(d)
20.(b)
Chapter-20: Stress Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. Stress can be defined as a negative emotional experience accompanied by
a. biochemical and physiological changes.
b. cognitive changes.
c.
behavioral changes.
d. all of the above.
2. Which of the following could be considered a stressor?
a. noise
b. crowding
c.
commuting to work
d. all of the above
3. Most definitions of stress focus on
a. stressful events.
b. physiological changes.
c.
emotional changes.
d. the relationship between the person and the environment.
4. Fight or flight response included which of the following physiological changes?
a. Increased blood flow to brain and large muscle groups
b. Pupils of the eye enlarge
c.
Palms of the hands and feet sweat
d. All of the above
5. Which principal component in the general model of workplace stress relates to the employees'
perception of a situation?
a. Social support
b. Individual differences
c.
Perception of job demands
d. None of the above
6. Which extrinsic source of stress relates to a lack of feedback or erroneous feedback that is based on
a poor system of performance appraisal?
a. Lack of career progress
b. Poor employee appraisal and feedback
c.
Rapid changes in pace and content of work
d. Role conflict and role ambiguity
7. Which extrinsic source of stress relates to an organization constantly trying new methods for
processing work?
a. Poor working conditions
b. Rapid changes in pace and content of work
c.
Job control and responsibility
d. Work overload or work under load
8. Which organizational stressor relates to the impact produced by the establishment of unreachable
goals given the time allotted to complete them?
a. Hierarchical structure
b. Irrational deadlines
c.
Technology
d. Size and management style
9. Which does not describe someone with a Type A personality?
a. Workaholic tendencies
b. Less likely to react in a hostile or aggressive manner
c.
Impatience with anything that interferes with goal attainment
d. Constant feeling of time urgency
10. Which individual stress management technique refers to an activity from which a person derives
enjoyment?
a. Leisure activities
b. Cognitive restructuring
c.
Relaxation training
d. Time management
11. Workplace stress is seen as the entire process in which people perceive and interpret their work
environment in relation to their capability to cope with it.
a. True
b. False
12. As related to sources of stress, job context is intrinsic in nature, whereas job content is extrinsic.
a. True
b. False
13. When the performance expectations of an employee are incompatible or confusing the employee
may experience role ambiguity.
a. True
b. False
14. Job rotation is defined as movement from one position to another on the same level and can
reduce the stress associated with boredom and under-promotion.
a. True
b. False
15. Stress is a normal physical response to events that make a person _______
a. Feel upset in some way
b. Happy
c.
Excited
d. None of these
16. Stress response can save our life by going us ............. to defend ourselves.
a. Fear
b. Extra strength
c.
Challenges
d. None of these
17. Stress stops helping beyond a certain point and starts...........
a. Causing one to mature
b. Causing major changes
c.
Causing major damage to one's health
d. None of these
18. Chromic stress leads to .............
a. Serious health related problems
b. A healthy life
c.
A happy life
d. None of these
19. The situation that causes stress are known as ..........
a. Obesity
b. Stressors
c.
Stress response
d. None of these
20. The stress of the bodies reaction to danger is human as .............
a. Energy
b. Stress response
c.
Imaginary
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(d)
3.(d)
4.(d)
5.(c)
6. (b)
7.(b)
8.(b)
9.(b)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(b)
13.(a)
14.(a)
15.(a)
16. (c)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(b)
20.(c)