Download Final Exam Practice Questions

Final Exam Biomedical Science 2015-2016
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) What event will immediately follow the event shown in this image?
A) The cell will divide into two animal cells.
B) The cell will divide into two plant cells.
C) The cell will divide into four animal cells.
D) The cell will divide into four plant cells.
2) According to the graph, at what maternal age is the incidence of Down syndrome equal to five times the
incidence at age 40?
A) about 29 or 30
B) about 35 or 36
C) about 44 or 45
D) about 46 or 47
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3) If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what
best describes what just occurred?
A) normal meiosis
B) translocation
C) inversion
D) nondisjunction
4) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they
A) are simpler.
B) are circular in structure.
C) include fewer proteins.
D) are housed in a membrane -enclosed nucleus.
5) Sister chromatids are
A) found right after a cell divides.
B) joined together at a centromere.
C) made only of DNA.
D) unique to prokaryotes.
6) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane
B) cytokinesis
C) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
D) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell
7) The genetic material is duplicated during
A) the mitotic phase.
B) G 1.
C) the S phase.
D) G 2.
8) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle
poles?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
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9) Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle control system is false ?
A) The cell cycle control system receives messages from outside the cell that influence cell division.
B) The cell cycle control system triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.
C) The cell cycle control system includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle.
D) The cell cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.
10) A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor
A) is cancerous.
B) spreads from the original site.
C) does not metastasize.
D) never causes health problems.
11) Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent?
A) a drug that interferes with cellular respiration
B) a drug that prevents mitotic spindle from forming
C) a drug that prevents crossing over
D) a drug that prevents tetrad formation
12) Karyotyping
A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II.
B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
C) examines points of crossing over.
D) reveals the presence of cancerous genes.
13) A karyotype is most like
A) a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure.
B) a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle.
C) photographs of every couple at a high school prom.
D) the answer key to a multiple -choice exam.
14) Nondisjunction occurs when
A) a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost.
B) two chromosomes fuse into one.
C) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.
D) an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.
15) If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse
direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a/an
A) deletion.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) reciprocal translocation.
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16) Jacobsen syndrome, which can cause heart defects, intellectual deficiencies, and bleeding disorders, is
caused by a deletion of the terminal end of chromosome 11. What method could you use to determine
whether an individual has Jacobsen syndrome?
A) Look at a person's skin cells in G 1 under a light microscope.
B) Perform a karyotype using a person's white blood cells.
C) Place a person's red blood cells in culture to see if they grow.
D) Count the number of chromosomes present.
17) If the left end of the daughter strand indicated by the arrow in the figure is being synthesized in one
continuous piece, then
A) the DNA at point A is being synthesized in one continuous piece.
B) the DNA at point B is being synthesized in small pieces.
C) the DNA at point C is being synthesized in one continuous piece.
D) the DNA at point D is being synthesized in one continuous piece.
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18) Examine the following two DNA sequences.
Sequence 1: ATGCGATGCTAGCAT
Sequence 2: ATGCGATGATAGCAT
If both of these sequences code for proteins, how might the function of protein 2 differ from the function of
protein 1? Use the genetic code below for assistance.
A) Protein 1 and protein 2 will function exactly the same.
B) Protein 1 will be shorter than protein 2, so they will not function the same.
C) Protein 2 will be shorter than protein 1, so they will not function the same.
D) Protein 2 has a different sequence, so it will function differently from protein 1.
19) One type of virus that infects bacteria is called a
A) phage.
B) retrovirus.
C) rhinovirus.
D) coronavirus.
20) When a T2 bacteriophage infects an Escherichia coli cell, which part of the phage enters the bacterial
cytoplasm?
A) the whole phage
B) only the RNA
C) only the DNA
D) the protein "headpiece" and its enclosed nucleic acid
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21) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the production of a strand of RNA from DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) RNA ligase
C) a ribozyme
D) tRNA
22) DNA replication
A) occurs through the addition of nucleotides to the end of the parental DNA molecule.
B) results in the formation of four new DNA strands.
C) uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.
D) begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments.
23) Where do transcription and translation occur in prokaryotic cells?
A) on the plasma membrane
B) in the nucleus
C) in the cytoplasm
D) in chromatophores
24) Which of the following statements about eukaryotic RNA is true ?
A) Introns are added to the RNA.
B) Exons are spliced together.
C) A small cap of extra nucleotides is added to both ends of the RNA.
D) The modified RNA molecule is transported into the nucleus.
25) Which of the following is a function of a tRNA molecule?
A) recognizing the appropriate anticodons in mRNA
B) transferring nucleotides to rRNA
C) helping to translate codons into nucleic acids
D) joining to only one specific type of amino acid
26) Which of the following options most accurately lists the sequence of events in translation?
A) codon recognition → translocation → peptide bond formation → termination
B) peptide bond formation → codon recognition → translocation → termination
C) codon recognition → peptide bond formation → translocation → termination
D) codon recognition → peptide bond formation → termination → translocation
27) Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
A) a mutation.
B) a mutagen.
C) a base substitution.
D) an anticodon.
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28) A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a/an
A) terminator.
B) transposon.
C) mutagen.
D) anticodon.
29) A protein coat enclosing a viral genome is known as a/an
A) capsule.
B) envelope.
C) capsid.
D) prophage.
30) Which of the following statements characterizes the lytic cycle of a viral infection?
A) The cycle typically ends when the host bacterium divides.
B) The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell.
C) The virus reproduces outside of the host cell.
D) The viral genes typically remain inactive once they are inside the host cell.
31) The envelope of a mumps virus
A) helps the virus enter the cell.
B) is coded by host genes.
C) helps the virus insert its DNA into the host cell genome.
D) accounts for viral resistance to antibiotics.
32) Which of the following statements about herpesviruses is false ?
A) Herpesviruses reproduce inside the host cell's mitochondria.
B) Herpesviruses acquire their envelopes from the host cell nuclear membrane.
C) Herpesviruses may remain dormant for long periods of time while inside the host cell nucleus.
D) Herpesviruses may cause cold sores or genital sores to appear during times of physical or emotional
stress.
33) Which of the following statements regarding viral diseases is false ?
A) RNA viruses tend to have an unusually high rate of mutation because their RNA genomes cannot be
corrected by proofreading.
B) New viral diseases often emerge when a virus infects a new host species.
C) Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are
D)
too great.
AIDS was around for decades before becoming a widespread epidemic.
34) HIV does the greatest damage to
A) the adrenal glands.
B) pancreatic cells.
C) nervous tissue.
D) white blood cells.
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35) Which of the following enzymes does HIV use to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA convertase
36) In many bacteria, genes that confer resistance to antibiotics are carried on
A) factors.
B) R plasmids.
C) transposons.
D) exons.
37) Conjugation between a bacterium that lacks an F factor (F-) and a bacterium that has an F factor on its
chromosome (F +) could produce which of the following results?
A) The F- bacterium ends up carrying one or more plasmids from the F + bacterium; the F + bacterium is
unchanged.
B) The F+ bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the Fbacterium, and the F - bacterium ends up with an unaltered chromosome.
C) The F+ bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the Fbacterium, and the F - bacterium ends up with a chromosome that lacks those genes.
D) The F- bacterium ends up with a recombinant chromosome that carries some genes from the F +
bacterium, and the F + bacterium ends up with an unaltered chromosome.
38) Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria having R
plasmids?
A) nitrogen fixation by genetically engineered plants
B) improper use of restriction enzymes in research and medical facilities
C) increased carcinogen exposure from excessive fossil fuel burning
D) heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture
39) Below are three statements. Which of the following choices properly matches the statements with the
correct biological processes?
I. This occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
II. Transfer RNAs bind amino acids in the cytoplasm.
III. A polymerase enzyme is required.
A) I: replication; II: translation; III: transcription
B) I: translation; II: translation; III: replication
C) I: transcription; II: translation; III: translation
D) I: replication; II: transcription; III: replication
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40) In this drawing of the lac operon, which molecule is an inactive repressor?
A) molecule A
B) molecule B
C) molecule C
D) molecule D
41) There is a mutation in the operator of the trp operon in a cell such that the trp repressor is unable to bind to
the operator. If tryptophan is added to the cell, what will happen?
A) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
B) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will not be produced.
C) Tryptophan will not bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
D) Tryptophan will bind to the operator, and trp enzymes will be produced.
42) In thinking about their role in cell division, oncogenes are like the ________ of a car, while tumor
suppressor genes are like the ________ of a car.
A) gas pedal; brakes
B) steering wheel; brakes
C) gas pedal; headlights
D) brakes; gas pedal
43) There is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound
to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, what will happen?
A) Lactose will bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will be produced.
B) Lactose will bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will not be produced.
C) Lactose will not bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will be produced.
D) Lactose will bind to the operator, and lac enzymes will be produced.
44) Which of the following molecules are not required to express a gene in eukaryotic cells?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA-bending protein
C) activator protein
D) repressor protein
9
45) A cell has a mutation in both alleles of its p53 gene that causes the p53 protein to be three times as effective
as normal. What do you predict would happen to this cell?
A) The cell would divide three times as fast and would lead to cancer.
B) The cell would divide into six daughter cells instead of two and would lead to cancer.
C) The cell would divide with mutated DNA and would lead to cancer.
D) The cell would divide normally or possibly not at all.
46) In terms of gene regulation, what do eukaryotes and prokaryotes have in common?
A) operons such as the lac operon and the trp operon
B) elaborate packing of DNA into chromosomes
C) activator proteins that bind to DNA
D) promoters that bind RNA polymerases
47) Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to cancer by
A) causing the production of excessive amounts of relay proteins.
B) causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division.
C) promoting the expression of mRNA that can interact with DNA, resulting in new mutations.
D) increasing the production of growth hormones, which trigger faster cell cycles.
48) Mutations in the proto-oncogene ras and the tumor suppressor gene p53
A) increase protein synthesis by the cell.
B) can improve the chance of avoiding cancer as one ages.
C) can enhance further mutations, which can develop into cancer.
D) disrupt normal regulation of the cell cycle.
49) Which of the following is likely to occur in E. coli cells that are grown in skim milk?
A) The lac operon is shut off, and the cells will not produce lactose -utilizing enzymes.
B) The trp repressor is activated, and the cells will produce lactose -utilizing enzymes.
C) The trp operon is turned on, but the bacteria will not produce lactose -utilizing enzymes.
D) The trp operon and the lac operon are both switched off.
50) In a prokaryote, a group of genes with related functions, along with their associated control sequences,
defines
A) an allele.
B) an operon.
C) a locus.
D) a transposon.
51) DNA ligase binds
A) recombinant DNA to transformed bacterial cells.
B) recombinant DNA to recombinant proteins.
C) nucleotides in the DNA backbone together.
D) nucleotide base pairs together.
10
52) ________ are a major source of restriction enzymes.
A) Plant cells
B) Human cells
C) Archaea cells
D) Bacterial cells
53) Restriction enzymes
A) facilitate nucleotide base pairing.
B) cut DNA at specific sites.
C) stop transcription and translation.
D) bind together strands of DNA.
54) Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
A) introns.
B) exons.
C) sticky ends.
D) restriction sites.
55) Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
A) nucleotide sequence.
B) ability to bind to mRNA.
C) solubility in the gel.
D) size.
56) The polymerase chain reaction relies upon unusual, heat-resistant ________ that were isolated from bacteria
living in hot springs.
A) DNA polymerases
B) phages
C) restriction enzymes
D) plasmids
57) During the process of electrophoresis, the ________ functions like a molecular sieve, separating the samples
according to their size.
A) sample mixture
B) positively charged electrode
C) negatively charged electrode
D) agarose gel
58) The number of proteins in humans
A) is approximately equal to the number of genes.
B) cannot be determined because the human genome is too complex.
C) is less than half the number of genes.
D) is much greater than the number of genes.
11
59) Gel electrophoresis is normally set up with the negative electrode at the top of the gel and the positive
electrode at the bottom of the gel. The DNA products are loaded at the top of the gel, and then a current is
applied to separate them. However, when preparing to run a gel, you accidentally switched the locations of
the negative and positive electrodes such that the positive electrode is at the top and the negative electrode
is at the bottom. You still loaded the DNA products at the top of the gel as normal. What result are you
most likely to observe if you apply an electric current to this gel setup?
A) All DNA molecules will migrate up the gel toward the positive electrode.
B) All DNA molecules will migrate down the gel toward the negative electrode.
C) Shorter DNA molecules will move up the gel, and longer DNA molecules will move down the gel.
D) Longer DNA molecules will move up the gel, and shorter DNA molecules will move down the gel.
Figure 17.1
60) Which of the three types of viruses shown in Figure 17.1 would you expect to include glycoproteins?
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
E) all three
61) Which of the three types of viruses shown in Figure 17.1 would you expect to include a capsid(s)?
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
E) all three
12
Figure 17.2
62) In Figure 17.2, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s) are being utilized?
A) reverse transcriptase
B) viral DNA polymerase
C) host cell DNA polymerase
D) host cell RNA polymerase
E) host cell DNA and RNA polymerases
63) Emerging viruses arise by
A) mutation of existing viruses.
B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species.
C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species.
D) all of the above
13
64) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
65) Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the
following?Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the
following?
Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the following?
A) I only
B) III only
C) IV only
D) I and II
14
66) Plates I and III were included in the experimental design in order to
A) demonstrate that the E. coli cultures were viable
B) demonstrate that the plasmid can lose its ampr gene
C) demonstrate that the plasmid is needed for E. coli growth
D) prepare the E. coli for transformation
67) Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II?
A) The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin resistant.
B) The transformation procedure killed the bacteria.
C) Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli growth.
D) The bacteria on the plate were transformed.
68) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp
operon, then
A) the amino acid inactivates the repressor.
B) the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes.
C) the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid.
D) the amino acid acts as a corepressor.
69) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D) the binding of RNA polymerase to transcription factors
70) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D) the binding of RNA polymerase to transcription factors
15
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
1) B
ID: TestBank 8.2-1
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.5, 8.6
Learning Outcome: 8.4
2) C
ID: TestBank 8.2-2
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.19
Learning Outcome: 8.10
3) D
ID: TestBank 8.2-3
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.20, 8.23
Learning Outcome: 8.10
4) D
ID: TestBank 8.1-8
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.3
Learning Outcome: 8.2
5) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-10
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.3
Learning Outcome: 8.2, 8.6
6) C
ID: TestBank 8.1-13
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.4
Learning Outcome: 8.3
7) C
ID: TestBank 8.1-14
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.4
Learning Outcome: 8.3
8) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-18
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.5
Learning Outcome: 8.4
9) D
ID: TestBank 8.1-28
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.8
Learning Outcome: 8.5
10) C
ID: TestBank 8.1-30
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.9
Learning Outcome: 8.5
16
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
11) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-31
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.9
Learning Outcome: 8.5
12) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-47
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.18
Learning Outcome: 8.10
13) C
ID: TestBank 8.1-48
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.18
Learning Outcome: 8.10
14) C
ID: TestBank 8.1-50
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.20
Learning Outcome: 8.10
15) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-55
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.23
Learning Outcome: 8.11
16) B
ID: TestBank 8.1-67
Page Ref:
Topic: 8.19
Learning Outcome: 8.10
17) C
ID: TestBank 10.2-2
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.5
Learning Outcome: 10.3
18) A
ID: TestBank 10.2-4
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.8, 10.16
Learning Outcome: 10.5, 10.8
19) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-2
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.1
Learning Outcome: 10.1
20) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-3
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.1
Learning Outcome: 10.1
17
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
21) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-26
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.9
Learning Outcome: 10.6
22) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-12
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.4
Learning Outcome: 10.3
23) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-29
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.10
Learning Outcome: 10.6, 10.7
24) B
ID: TestBank 10.1-30
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.10
Learning Outcome: 10.6
25) D
ID: TestBank 10.1-32
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.11
Learning Outcome: 10.7
26) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-36
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.14
Learning Outcome: 10.7
27) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-38
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.16
Learning Outcome: 10.8
28) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-41
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.16
Learning Outcome: 10.8
29) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-42
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.17
Learning Outcome: 10.9
30) B
ID: TestBank 10.1-43
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.17
Learning Outcome: 10.9
18
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
31) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-46
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.18
Learning Outcome: 10.10
32) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-47
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.18
Learning Outcome: 10.10
33) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-49
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.19
Learning Outcome: 10.10
34) D
ID: TestBank 10.1-53
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.20
Learning Outcome: 10.10
35) C
ID: TestBank 10.1-52
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.20
Learning Outcome: 10.10
36) B
ID: TestBank 10.1-62
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.23
Learning Outcome: 10.11
37) D
ID: TestBank 10.1-63
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.23
Learning Outcome: 10.11
38) D
ID: TestBank 10.1-64
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.23
Learning Outcome: 10.11
39) A
ID: TestBank 10.1-68
Page Ref:
Topic: 10.15
Learning Outcome: 10.3, 10.6, 10.7
40) D
ID: TestBank 11.2-1
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1
Learning Outcome: 11.1
19
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
41) A
ID: TestBank 11.1-71
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1
Learning Outcome: 11.1
42) A
ID: TestBank 11.1-66
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.15
Learning Outcome: 11.5
43) B
ID: TestBank 11.1-61
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1
Learning Outcome: 11.1
44) D
ID: TestBank 11.1-60
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.3
Learning Outcome: 11.3
45) D
ID: TestBank 11.1-59
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.17
Learning Outcome: 11.6
46) D
ID: TestBank 11.1-58
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1, 11.7
Learning Outcome: 11.1, 11.3
47) B
ID: TestBank 11.1-50
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.17
Learning Outcome: 11.6
48) D
ID: TestBank 11.1-49
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.17
Learning Outcome: 11.6
49) B
ID: TestBank 11.1-8
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1
Learning Outcome: 11.1
50) B
ID: TestBank 11.1-3
Page Ref:
Topic: 11.1
Learning Outcome: 11.1
20
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
51) C
ID: TestBank 12.1-5
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.1
Learning Outcome: 12.1
52) D
ID: TestBank 12.1-7
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.2
Learning Outcome: 12.1
53) B
ID: TestBank 12.1-8
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.2
Learning Outcome: 12.1
54) D
ID: TestBank 12.1-9
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.2
Learning Outcome: 12.1
55) D
ID: TestBank 12.1-35
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.13
Learning Outcome: 12.7
56) A
ID: TestBank 12.1-34
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.12
Learning Outcome: 12.7
57) D
ID: TestBank 12.1-36
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.13
Learning Outcome: 12.7
58) D
ID: TestBank 12.1-50
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.20
Learning Outcome: 12.8
59) A
ID: TestBank 12.1-67
Page Ref:
Topic: 12.3, 12.4, 12.6
Learning Outcome: 12.2, 12.3
60) D
ID: cbf1u 17.2-1
Page Ref:
Topic: Concept 17.1
Learning Outcome: 17.1
21
Answer Key
Testname: FINAL EXAM 2015-2016
61) E
ID: cbf1u 17.2-2
Page Ref:
Topic: Concept 17.1
Learning Outcome: 17.1
62) C
ID: cbf1u 17.2-3
Page Ref:
Topic: Concept 17.2
Learning Outcome: 17.2
63) D
ID: cbf1u 17.4-2+
Page Ref:
Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions
Learning Outcome: No L.O. Specified
64) B
ID: cbf1u 17.4-5+
Page Ref:
Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions
Learning Outcome: No L.O. Specified
65) C
ID: USER-2
Page Ref:
Topic:
Learning Outcome:
66) A
ID: USER-3
Page Ref:
Topic:
Learning Outcome:
67) A
ID: USER-4
Page Ref:
Topic:
Learning Outcome:
68) D
ID: cbf1u 15.4-1+
Page Ref:
Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions
Learning Outcome: No L.O. Specified
69) C
ID: cbf1u 15.4-3+
Page Ref:
Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions
Learning Outcome: No L.O. Specified
70) C
ID: cbf1u 15.4-3+
Page Ref:
Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions
Learning Outcome: No L.O. Specified
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23
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24