Download Multiple Choice Questions

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Multiple Choice Questions
Chapter 1: The Systems Development Environment
1. Which of the following is not a key information system component?
(a) design stability
(b) data
(c) data flows
(d) processing logic
2. Which of the following focus on output and processing logic?
(a) data models
(b) data-oriented approach
(c) systems development approach
(d) process-oriented approach
3. A customer sending in a payment best represents:
(a) data
(b) data flow
(c) information
(d) processing logic
4. Describing the steps for computing income tax exemplifies:
(a) data
(b) data flow
(c) information
(d) processing logic
5. Product number, quantity in stock, and the supplier's name are examples of:
(a) data
(b) data flow
(c) information
(d) processing logic
6. Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of information systems?
(a) decision support system
(b) collaboration system
(c) management information system
(d) expert system
7. Which of the following replicates the decision-making process rather than manipulates information?
(a) management replication system
(b) management information system
(c) expert system
(d) decision support system
8. Drawing on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data is characteristic
of:
(a) management information systems
(b) decision support systems
(c) expert systems
(d) transaction processing systems
9. True statements regarding the SDLC include each of the following except:
(a) Every organization uses a slightly different life cycle model.
(b) The life cycle is sequential.
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(c) In the systems development life cycle, it is possible to complete some activities in one phase in
parallel with some activities of another phase.
(d) Sometimes the life cycle is iterative.
10. Generating alternative initial designs would most likely be done during:
(a) design
(b) initiation and planning
(c) implementation
(d) analysis
11. During the analysis phase, the project team:
(a) describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in the previous phase
(b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform
organizational tasks
(c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed
project
(d) codes, tests, and installs the new system
12. During logical design, the project team:
(a) describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in the previous phase
(b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform
organizational tasks
(c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed
project
(d) codes, tests, and installs the new system
13. During implementation, the project team:
(a) concentrates on the business aspects of the system and tends to be oriented to a high level of
specificity
(b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform
organizational tasks
(c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed
project
(d) codes, tests, and installs the new system
14. Technical, detailed specifications of all system elements are the product of:
(a) logical design
(b) physical design
(c) analysis
(d) implementation
15. Which of the following is the property that occurs when entity types or object classes are arranged in
a hierarchy and each entity type or object class assumes the attributes and methods of its ancestors?
(a) polymorphism
(b) encapsulation
(c) decomposition
(d) inheritance ]
Chapter 3: Managing the Information Systems Project
1. Which of the following determines if the information system makes sense for the organization from an
economic and operational standpoint?
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(a) a feasibility study
(b) a statement of work
(c) a system service request
(d) a resource schedule
2. Designing and sequencing activities to attain project goals best describes the:
(a) customer relations project manager activity
(b) conflict management project manager activity
(c) team management project manager activity
(d) technical problem solving project manager activity
3. Skills required for the management activity include:
(a) communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning activities;
monitoring progress
(b) defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning resources to activities;
monitoring outcomes
(c) communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict resolution; team building; selfmanagement
(d) problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting
4. Skills required for the team management activity include:
(a) communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning activities;
monitoring progress
(b) defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning resources to activities;
monitoring outcomes
(c) communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict resolution; team building; selfmanagement
(d) problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting
5. The establishing management procedures activity involves:
(a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the
project's scope
(b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project
change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled
(c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general
alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility
of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases
(d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in
the work breakdown structure
6. Which of the following is the second phase of the project management process, which focuses on
defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project?
(a) project execution
(b) project initiation
(c) project planning
(d) project closedown
7. The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a
smooth evolution between tasks best defines:
(a) work breakdown structure
(b) decomposition
(c) task identification
(d) activity slicing
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8. The describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity involves:
(a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the
project's scope
(b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project
change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled
(c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general
alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility
of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases
(d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in
the work breakdown structure
9. A graphical representation of a project that shows each task activity as a horizontal bar whose length
is proportional to its time for completion best describes:
(a) work breakdown structure
(b) decision tree
(c) PERT chart
(d) Gantt chart
10. The developing a preliminary schedule activity involves:
(a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the
project's scope
(b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project
change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled
(c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general
alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility
of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases
(d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in
the work breakdown structure
11. Which of the following is the third phase of the project management process in which the plans
created in the prior phases are put into action?
(a) project execution
(b) project closedown
(c) project implementation
(d) project initiation
12. Which of the following has a medium to high formality rating and is used to resolve issues?
(a) project workbook
(b) minutes of meetings
(c) bulletin boards
(d) meetings
13. The shortest time in which a project can be completed best describes:
(a) slack
(b) critical path
(c) expected path
(d) optimistic path
14. Which of the following reflects the project manager's "best guess" of the amount of time an activity
actually will require for completion?
(a) optimistic time
(b) pessimistic time
(c) realistic time
(d) logical time
15. If the optimistic time is 10, the pessimistic time is 25, and the realistic time is 16, the expected time
would be:
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(a) 51
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 16.5
Chapter 6: Initiating and Planning Systems Development Projects
1. Which of the following is an activity that occurs during project initiation and planning?
(a) project structuring
(b) logical design
(c) project planning
(d) requirements determination
2. The justification for an information system, presented in terms of the tangible and intangible economic
benefits and costs, and the technical and organizational feasibility of the proposed system best describes:
(a) business case
(b) justification walkthrough
(c) Baseline Project Plan
(d) Statement of Work
3. Feasibility factors include:
(a) political
(b) legal and contractual
(c) technical
(d) all of the above
4. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased speed of activity are examples of:
(a) intangible costs
(b) tangible costs
(c) tangible benefits
(d) intangible benefits
5. Faster decision making, information processing efficiency, and improved asset utilization are examples
of:
(a) intangible costs
(b) tangible costs
(c) tangible benefits
(d) intangible benefits
6. Application software maintenance, incremental data storage expense, and incremental
communications are examples of:
(a) intangible costs
(b) recurring costs
(c) tangible benefits
(d) one-time costs
7. The current value of a future cash flow best defines:
(a) future value
(b) return on investment
(c) break-even point
(d) present value
8. Assume the discount rate is 12 percent and you will receive $25,000 each year, beginning next year
for the next three years; what is the approximate present value of these three payments?
(a) $50,152
(b) $74,453
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(c) $69,180
(d) $60,046
9. Assume that the NPV of all benefits is $275,000 and the NPV of all costs is $200,000; the overall ROI
is:
(a) .50
(b) .84
(c) .375
(d) .272
10. Assuming a yearly NPV cash flow of $20,000 and an overall NPV cash flow of $17,000, the breakeven ratio is:
(a) .27
(b) .10
(c) .93
(d) .15
11. The process of assessing the degree to which the potential time frame and completion dates for all
major activities within a project meet organizational deadlines and constraints for affecting change best
describes:
(a) political feasibility
(b) technical feasibility
(c) schedule feasibility
(d) timeline feasibility
12. Familiarity with the proposed application area is a risk factor associated with the:
(a) development group
(b) project size
(c) user group
(d) project structure
13. Which of the following criteria would address the ownership of software used in joint ventures?
(a) schedule feasibility
(b) operational feasibility
(c) legal and contractual feasibility
(d) technical feasibility
14. Which of the following Baseline Project Plan sections provides a brief description of alternative
system configurations?
(a) Management Issues
(b) Feasibility Assessment
(c) Introduction
(d) System Description
15. Referencing walkthrough roles, this person describes the work product to the group:
(a) coordinator
(b) user
(c) maintenance oracle
(d) presenter
Chapter 7: Determining System Requirements
1. Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements?
(a) interviewing
(b) RAD
(c) observations
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(d) document analysis
2. Specifying that only people who satisfy certain criteria receive a questionnaire corresponds to a:
(a) purposeful sample
(b) convenient sample
(c) random sample
(d) stratified sample
3. When comparing questionnaires to interviews, questionnaires:
(a) are rated high in terms of information richness
(b) are rated high in terms of expense
(c) are limited in terms of chances for follow up
(d) have an active and involved subject
4. Which of the following has group members work alone to generate ideas, and then pools the ideas
under the guidance of a trained facilitator?
(a) JAD
(b) RAD
(c) Nominal Group Technique
(d) analytical clustering
5. Which of the following is the official way a system works as described in organizational
documentation?
(a) formal system
(b) primary system
(c) working system
(d) value system
6. In documents, you can find out about:
(a) problems with existing systems
(b) opportunities to meet new needs
(c) titles and names of key individuals who have an interest in relevant existing systems
(d) all of the above
7. When comparing observation to document analysis:
(a) observation is rated low in terms of information richness
(b) observation is rated as moderate in terms of time requirements
(c) the observee may or may not be involved and committed
(d) the observation may potentially involve large numbers of observes
8. During the analysis phase, which of the following has as its primary purpose the collection of system
requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system?
(a) requirements structuring
(b) prototyping
(c) JAD
(d) business process reengineering
9. Referencing a JAD session, this person usually attends the sessions only at the very beginning or at
the end:
(a) JAD session leader
(b) scribe
(c) manager
(d) sponsor
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10. Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:
(a) there is a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation
(b) multiple stakeholders are involved in the system
(c) tools and data are not readily available to rapidly build systems
(d) user requirements are not well understood
11. According to Michael Hammer and James Champy, which of the following questions should be asked
when analysts are trying to identify activities for radical change?
(a) Is the activity a primary activity?
(b) How does management feel about changes to the existing activity?
(c) How dysfunctional is the activity?
(d) Does the activity currently use disruptive technology?
12. The overall process by which current methods are replaced with radically new methods is referred to
as:
(a) disruptive technology
(b) business process reengineering
(c) revolutionary design
(d) innovative application design
13. The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular
customer or market best describes:
(a) key business processes
(b) value chain
(c) project scope
(d) candidate processes
14. Which of the following has disrupted the belief that the best contact with a potential buyer is personal
contact?
(a) interactive communication technologies
(b) expert systems
(c) advanced telecommunications networks
(d) decision support tools
15. Which of the following has disrupted the belief that managers must make all the decisions?
(a) distributed databases
(b) expert systems
(c) advanced telecommunications networks
(d) decision support tools
Chapter 8: Structuring System Requirements: Process Modeling
1. Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a
system and its environment and among components within a system best describes:
(a) logic modeling
(b) data modeling
(c) process modeling
(d) dynamic modeling
2. A picture of the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within
a system best describes a(n):
(a) data flow diagram
(b) decision table
(c) entity relationship diagram
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(d) structure chart
3. Updating a customer's account to reflect a recent payment is represented on a data flow diagram as a:
(a) data flow
(b) process
(c) data store
(d) source
4. Which of the following is a data flow diagramming rule?
(a) A data flow has a verb phrase label.
(b) Data must be moved by a process if the data are of any concern to our system.
(c) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data comes from any of two or more different
processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location.
(d) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or
more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks.
5. Functional decomposition is:
(a) the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of DFDs or discrepancies
within a single DFD
(b) the extent to which all necessary components of a data flow diagram have been included and fully
described
(c) the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data flow diagram process when that process is
decomposed to a lower level
(d) an iterative process of breaking the description of a system down into finer and finer detail, which
creates a set of charts in which one process on a given chart is explained in greater detail on
another chart
6. Which of the following is an advanced rule governing data flow diagramming?
(a) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data comes from any of two or more different
processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location.
(b) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or
more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks.
(c) The inputs to a process must be sufficient to produce the outputs.
(d) Data cannot move directly from an outside source to a data store.
7. DFD completeness is:
(a) the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of DFDs or discrepancies
within a single DFD.
(b) the extent to which all necessary components of a data flow diagram have been included and fully
described.
(c) the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data flow diagram process when that process is
decomposed to a lower level.
(d) an iterative process of breaking the description of a system down into finer and finer detail, which
creates a set of charts in which one process on a given chart is explained in greater detail on
another chart.
8. A data flow that appears on a higher-level DFD but not on lower levels violates the DFD:
(a) consistency guideline
(b) timing guideline
(c) completeness guideline
(d) iterative development guideline
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9. Which of the following is not indicated on a DFD?
(a) processing
(b) sources
(c) timing
(d) data storage
10. The lowest level of decomposition for a data flow diagram is a:
(a) primitive DFD
(b) unit DFD
(c) context DFD
(d) level-0 DFD
11. An analysis of DFDs can:
(a) identify data that are captured but are not used by the system
(b) identify data that are updated identically in more than one location
(c) reveal procedural redundancies
(d) do all of the above
12. Which of the following is not a process model?
(a) data flow diagram
(b) entity relationship diagram
(c) functional hierarchy diagram
(d) Oracle's process modeler
13. A functional hierarchy diagram is a:
(a) matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the
decision and the resulting actions
(b) picture of the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within
a system
(c) picture of the various tasks performed in a business and how they are related to each other
(d) detailed, logical representation of the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization
or business area
14. Which of the following is a true statement about DFDs?
(a) DFDs do not provide detail of data in flow or in store
(b) DFDs can be animated with time parameters
(c) DFDs are most useful in the requirements structuring
(d) DFDs show ownership
15. Which of the following is a true statement about Oracle's process models?
(a) Oracle's process models do not show ownership
(b) Oracle's process models show attributes of flows and stores
(c) Oracle's process models do not show external triggers
(d) Oracle's process models do not support a numerical hierarchy
Chapter 9: Structuring System Requirements: Logic Modeling
1. Structured English:
(a) is a method for representing the instructions in a module with language very similar to computer
programming code
(b) describes the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores
within a system
(c) describes the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area
(d) is a modified form of the English language used to specify the logic of information system
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processes
2. A decision table:
(a) models the state of an object and the events that cause the object to change from one state to
another
(b) depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time
(c) is a matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the
decision and the resulting actions
(d) is a graphical representation of a decision situation in which decision situation points are connected
together by arcs and terminate in ovals
3. Condition stubs:
(a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision
(b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions
(c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of
rules
(d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table
4. Action stubs:
(a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision
(b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions
(c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of
rules
(d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table
5. Rules:
(a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision
(b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions
(c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of
rules
(d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table
6. Which of the following would be placed in the action stub section of a decision table?
(a) employee type
(b) hours worked
(c) prerequisite course
(d) generate receipt
7. Which of the following would be placed in the condition stub section of a decision table?
(a) item type
(b) place order
(c) pay base salary
(d) contact vendor
8. Assume condition one has four values, condition two has four values, and condition three has two
values. How many rules are required?
(a) 3
(b) 32
(c) 10
(d) 5
9. A condition whose value does not affect which actions are taken for two or more rules best describes
a(n):
(a) relaxed condition
(b) extended condition
(c) indifferent condition
(d) insignificant condition
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10. Which of the following is not a basic procedure for constructing decision tables?
(a) name the conditions and the values each condition can assume
(b) simplify the decision table
(c) name all possible actions that can occur
(d) remove all limited entries
11. Which of the following is a main component on a decision tree?
(a) entity
(b) process
(c) action
(d) condition
12. A decision tree:
(a) models the state of an object and the events that cause the object to change from one state to
another
(b) depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time
(c) is a matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the
decision and the resulting actions
(d) is a graphical representation of a decision situation in which decision situation points are connected
together by arcs and terminate in ovals
13. When deciding among Structured English, decision tables, and decision trees:
(a) decision trees were rated as the worst for determining conditions and actions
(b) decision trees were rated as the second best for determining conditions and actions
(c) decision trees were rated as the best for determining conditions and actions
(d) decision trees and Structured English were both rated as the best for determining conditions and
actions
14. When deciding among Structured English, decision tables, and decision trees:
(a) Structured English was rated as the best technique for checking consistency and completeness
(b) Structured English and decision tables were rated as the best techniques for checking consistency
and completeness
(c) Structured English was rated as the third best technique for checking consistency and
completeness
(d) Structured English was rated as the second best technique for checking consistency and
completeness
15. When deciding between decision tables and decision trees:
(a) decision trees are the best for portraying complex logic
(b) decision trees are the best for portraying simple problems
(c) decision trees are the worst for making decisions
(d) decision tables are the worst for manipulating
Chapter 10: Structuring System Requirements: Conceptual Data Modeling
1. A detailed model that shows the overall structure of organizational data while being independent of
any database management system or other implementation considerations best describes:
(a) conceptual data model
(b) logical data model
(c) process model
(d) logic model
2. Database and file definitions are prepared during:
(a) initiation and planning
(b) design
(c) implementation
(d) analysis
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3. Physical file and database design are associated with:
(a) initiation and planning
(b) design
(c) implementation
(d) analysis
4. Asking the question "What unique characteristic distinguishes each object from other objects of the
same type?" helps an analyst identify:
(a) primary keys
(b) attributes and secondary keys
(c) relationships and their cardinalities and degrees
(d) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data
5. Asking the question, "Who is not permitted to use this data?" helps the analyst identify:
(a) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data
(b) attributes and secondary keys
(c) relationships and their cardinalities and degrees
(d) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data
6. Which of the following is not an entity type?
(a) name
(b) store
(c) product
(d) work center
7. On an entity-relationship diagram, a relationship is represented by a(n):
(a) rectangle
(b) ellipse
(c) arrow
(d) diamond
8. A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type best
describes a(n):
(a) data marker
(b) identifier
(c) associative entity
(d) primary attribute
9. Which of the following best exemplifies a candidate key?
(a) student first name
(b) ordered product
(c) course number
(d) email address
10. An employee managing another employee best exemplifies a:
(a) weak entity
(b) ternary relationship
(c) unary relationship
(d) binary relationship
11. The number of entity types that participate in a relationship describes:
(a) identifier
(b) degree
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(c) join level
(d) structure level
12. A vendor, part, and warehouse have a:
(a) multivalued relationship
(b) unary relationship
(c) binary relationship
(d) ternary relationship
13. An entity type that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes that
are peculiar to the relationship between those entity instances best describes a(n):
(a) multivalued attribute
(b) repeating group
(c) recursive relationship
(d) associative entity
14. Which of the following specifies that an entity instance of the supertype is allowed not to belong to
any subtype?
(a) partial specialization rule
(b) total specialization rule
(c) disjoint rule
(d) overlap rule
15. Which of the following specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one
subtype, it cannot simultaneously be a member of any other subtype?
(a) partial specialization rule
(b) total specialization rule
(c) disjoint rule
(d) overlap rule
Chapter 12: Designing Databases
1. An attribute whose value is unique across all occurrences of a relation best describes a:
(a) primary key
(b) data marker
(c) recursive key
(d) join attribute
2. A relation that contains a minimum amount of redundancy and allows users to insert, modify, and
delete the rows without errors or inconsistencies best describes a:
(a) denormalized relation
(b) well-structured relation
(c) sequentially organized relation
(d) physical file
3. If every nonprimary key attribute is functionally dependent on the whole primary key, then the relation
is in at least:
(a) third normal form
(b) fifth normal form
(c) fourth normal form
(d) second normal form
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4. If there are no functional dependencies between two (or more) nonprimary key attributes, this
describes:
(a) second normal form
(b) fifth normal form
(c) fourth normal form
(d) third normal form
5. Which of the following E-R structures places the primary key of the entity on the one side of the
relationship as a foreign key in the relation for the entity on the many side?
(a) regular entity
(b) binary or unary 1:1 relationship
(c) binary 1:N relationship
(d) binary or unary M:N relationship
6. The creation of a relation with the primary key associated with the relationship, plus any nonkey
attributes of the relationship and the primary keys of the related entities is the relational representation
associated with a:
(a) regular entity
(b) binary or unary 1:1 relationship
(c) binary 1:N relationship
(d) binary or unary M:N relationship
7. A coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data best defines a:
(a) hashing algorithm
(b) data type
(c) hyperlink
(d) tuple
8. Which of the following is not an Oracle8i data type?
(a) BLOB
(b) DATE
(c) VARCHAR2
(d) EXP7
9. A value a field will assume unless an explicit value is entered for that field best defines:
(a) default value
(b) assigned value
(c) replicated value
(d) normalized value
10. A special field value, distinct from 0, blank, or any other value, that indicates that the value for the
field is missing or otherwise unknown best defines:
(a) BLOB value
(b) null value
(c) nonspecific value
(d) hashed value
11. The process of splitting or combining normalized relations into physical tables based on affinity of use
of rows and fields best describes:
(a) denormalization
(b) intermediation
(c) transition
(d) hashing
12. Partitions are defined by nonoverlapping ranges of values for a specified attribute best describes:
(a) composite partitioning
(b) range partitioning
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SA&D
2006 AUU
(c) hash partitioning
(d) transitive partitioning
13. A named set of table rows stored in a contiguous section of secondary memory best describes a(n):
(a) pointer
(b) entity
(c) relation
(d) physical file
14. When the rows are stored either sequentially or nonsequentially and a table is created that allows
software to locate individual rows, this method is called:
(a) sequential file organization
(b) hashed file organization
(c) indexed file organization
(d) direct addressing
15. Each of the following is a true statement concerning hashed file organization except:
(a) concerning storage space, extra space may be needed to allow for addition and deletion of records
(b) sequential retrieval on the primary key is impractical
(c) the deletion of rows is not very easy
(d) random retrieval on the primary key is moderately fast
Meshe’s