Download GHS Chemistry Final Exam Review Questions 2014 Answer Section

GHS Chemistry Final Exam Review Questions 2014
1) The symbol for the element magnesium is __________.
A) Rb
B) Mn
C) Ne
D) Si
E) Mg
2) What is the physical state in which matter has no specific shape but does have a specific volume?
A) gas
B) solid
C) liquid
D) salts
E) ice
3) A combination of sand, salt, and water is an example of a __________.
A) homogeneous mixture
B) heterogeneous mixture
C) compound
D) pure substance
E) solid
4) A small amount of salt dissolved in water is an example of a __________.
A) homogeneous mixture
B) heterogeneous mixture
C) compound
D) pure substance
E) solid
5) Which one of the following has the element name and symbol correctly matched?
A) P, potassium
B) C, copper
C) Mg, manganese
D) Ag, silver
E) Sn, silicon
6) Which one of the following is a pure substance?
A) concrete
B) wood
C) salt water
D) elemental copper
E) milk
7) Which states of matter are significantly compressible?
A) gases only
B) liquids only
C) solids only
D) liquids and gases
E) solids and liquids
8) Of the following, only __________ is a chemical reaction.
A) melting of lead
B) dissolving sugar in water
C) tarnishing of silver
D) crushing of stone
E) dropping a penny into a glass of water
9) The temperature of -25 C is __________ in Kelvins.
A) 136
B) 166
C) 103
D) 298
E) 248
10) Round the number 0.08535 to two significant figures.
A) 0.09
B) 0.086
C) 0.0854
D) 0.085
E) 0.08535
11) The number 0.00430 has __________ significant figures.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 4
E) 6
12) The nucleus of an atom contains __________.
A) electrons
B) protons
C) neutrons
D) protons and neutrons
E) protons, neutrons, and electrons
13) In the symbol below, x is __________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the number of neutrons
the atomic number
the mass number
the isotope number
the elemental symbol
14) An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is __________.
A) 17O2B) 17O2+
C) 19F+
D) 19FE) 17Ne2+
15) All atoms of a given element have the same __________.
A) mass
B) number of protons
C) number of neutrons
D) number of electrons and neutrons
E) density
16) Which combination of protons, neutrons, and electrons is correct for the isotope of copper,
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29 p+, 34 n°, 29 e29 p+, 29 n°, 63 e63 p+, 29 n°, 63 e34 p+, 29 n°, 34 e34 p+, 34 n°, 29 e-
17) Which isotope has 45 neutrons?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) Which pair of atoms constitutes a pair of isotopes of the same element?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19) The atomic number of an atom of 80Br is __________.
A) 115
B) 35
C) 45
D) 73
E) 80
?
20) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the
isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is __________ amu.
Isotope
221X
220X
218X
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Abundance
74.22
12.78
13.00
Mass
220.9
220.0
218.1
219.7
220.4
220.42
218.5
221.0
21) An element in the upper right corner of the periodic table __________.
A) is either a metal or metalloid
B) is definitely a metal
C) is either a metalloid or a non-metal
D) is definitely a non-metal
E) is definitely a metalloid
22) In the periodic table, the elements are arranged in __________.
A) alphabetical order
B) order of increasing atomic number
C) order of increasing metallic properties
D) order of increasing neutron content
E) reverse alphabetical order
23) Elements __________ exhibit similar physical and chemical properties.
A) with similar chemical symbols
B) with similar atomic masses
C) in the same period of the periodic table
D) on opposite sides of the periodic table
E) in the same group of the periodic table
24) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and
chemical properties?
A) H, Li
B) Cs, Ba
C) Ca, Sr
D) Ga, Ge
E) C, O
25) An element that appears in the lower left corner of the periodic table is __________.
A) either a metal or metalloid
B) definitely a metal
C) either a metalloid or a non-metal
D) definitely a non-metal
E) definitely a metalloid
26) Which one of the following is a metal?
A) Sb
B) Ge
C) Br
D) P
E) W
27) A molecular formula always indicates __________.
A) how many of each atom are in a molecule
B) the simplest whole-number ratio of different atoms in a compound
C) which atoms are attached to which in a molecule
D) the isotope of each element in a compound
E) the geometry of a molecule
28) An empirical formula always indicates __________.
A) which atoms are attached to which in a molecule
B) how many of each atom are in a molecule
C) the simplest whole-number ratio of different atoms in a compound
D) the isotope of each element in a compound
E) the geometry of a molecule
29) Which one of the following does not occur as diatomic molecules in elemental form?
A) oxygen
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur
D) hydrogen
E) bromine
30) Of the choices below, which one is not an ionic compound?
A) PCl5
B) MoCl6
C) RbCl
D) PbCI2
E) NaCl
31) How many protons does the Br- ion possess?
A) 34
B) 36
C) 6
D) 8
E) 35
32) Of the following, __________ contains the greatest number of electrons.
A) P3+
B) P
C) P2D) P3E) P2+
33) Which species has 54 electrons?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34) Which of the following compounds would you expect to be ionic?
A) SF6
B) H2O
C) H2O2
D) NH3
E) CaO
35) Which pair of elements is most apt to form an ionic compound with each other?
A) barium, bromine
B) calcium, sodium
C) oxygen, fluorine
D) sulfur, fluorine
E) nitrogen, hydrogen
36) Which pair of elements is most apt to form a molecular compound with each other?
A) aluminum, oxygen
B) magnesium, iodine
C) sulfur, fluorine
D) potassium, lithium
E) barium, bromine
37) Predict the charge of the most stable ion of bromine.
A) 2+
B) 1+
C) 3+
D) 1E) 238) Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium.
A) 3+
B) 1C) 2+
D) 2E) 1+
39) Which formula/name pair is incorrect?
A) FeSO4
iron(II) sulfate
B) Fe2(SO3)3
iron(III) sulfite
C) FeS
iron(II) sulfide
D) FeSO3
iron(II) sulfite
E) Fe2(SO4)3
iron(III) sulfide
40) Which species below is the nitride ion?
A) Na+
B) NO3C) NO2D) NH4+
E) N341) Which species below is the nitrate ion?
A) NO2B) NH4+
C) NO3D) N3E) N342) Which one of the following compounds is chromium(III) oxide?
A) Cr2O3
B) CrO3
C) Cr3O2
D) Cr3O
E) Cr2O4
43) Which metal does not form cations of differing charges?
A) Na
B) Cu
C) Co
D) Fe
E) Sn
44) The formula for the compound formed between aluminum ions and phosphate ions is __________.
A) Al3(PO4)3
B) AlPO4
C) Al(PO4)3
D) Al2(PO4)3
E) AlP
45) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are __________.
C8H18 + O2  CO2 + H2O
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2, 3, 4, 4
1, 4, 8, 9
2, 12, 8, 9
4, 4, 32, 36
2, 25, 16, 18
46) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are __________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Al(NO3)3 + Na2S  Al2S3 + NaNO3
2, 3, 1, 6
2, 1, 3, 2
1, 1, 1, 1
4, 6, 3, 2
2, 3, 2, 3
47) Of the reactions below, which one is a decomposition reaction?
A) NH4Cl  NH3 + HCl
B) 2Mg + O2  2MgO
C) 2N2 + 3 H2  2NH3
D) 2CH4 + 4O2  2CO2 + 4H2O
E) Cd(NO3)O2 + Na2S  CdS + 2NaNO3
48) Which of the following are combination reactions?
1) CH4 (g) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
2) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)  CaCO3 (s)
3) Mg (s) + O2 (g)  MgO (s)
4) PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g)
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 4 only
E) 2, 3, and 4
49) When a hydrocarbon burns in air, what component of air reacts?
A) oxygen
B) nitrogen
C) carbon dioxide
D) water
E) argon
50) The molecular weight of the acetic acid (CH3CO2H), rounded to the nearest integer, is __________
amu.
A) 60
B) 48
C) 44
D) 32
51) The mass % of C in methane (CH4) is __________.
A) 25.13
B) 133.6
C) 74.87
D) 92.26
E) 7.743
52) How many molecules of CH4 are in 48.2 g of this compound?
A) 5.00  1024
B) 3.00
C) 2.90  1025
D) 1.81  1024
E) 4.00
53) A 30.5 gram sample of glucose (C6H12O6) contains __________ mol of glucose.
A) 0.424
B) 0.169
C) 5.90
D) 2.36
E) 0.136
54) There are __________ mol of carbon atoms in 3 mol of dimethylsulfoxide (C2H6SO).
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
55) What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 27.0% S, 13.4% O, and 59.6% Cl by mass?
A) SOCl
B) SOCl2
C) S2OCl
D) SO2Cl
E) ClSO4
56) The combustion of ammonia in the presence of excess oxygen yields NO2 and H2O:
4 NH3 (g) + 7 O2 (g)  4 NO2 (g) + 6 H2O (g)
The combustion of 43.9 g of ammonia produces __________ g of NO2.
A) 2.58
B) 178
C) 119
D) 0.954
E) 43.9
57) The combustion of propane (C3H8) in the presence of excess oxygen yields CO2 and H2O:
C3H8 (g) + 5 O2 (g)  3CO2 (g) + 4 H2O (g)
When 2.5 mol of O2 are consumed in their reaction, __________ mol of CO2 are produced.
A) 1.5
B) 3.0
C) 5.0
D) 6.0
E) 2.5
58) Of the following, __________ radiation has the shortest wavelength.
A) X-ray
B) radio
C) microwave
D) ultraviolet
E) infrared
59) The wavelength of light emitted from a traffic light having a frequency of 5.75  1014 Hz is
__________.
A) 702 nm
B) 641 nm
C) 674 nm
D) 522 nm
E) 583 nm
60) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 525 nm appears as green light to the human eye. The
frequency of this light is __________ s-l.
A) 5.71  1014
B) 5.71  105
C) 1.58  102
D) 1.58  1011
E) 1.75  10-15
61) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation?
A) 2s
B) 3p
C) 3f
D) 4d
E) 4s
62) The condensed electron configuration of krypton, element 36, is __________.
A) [Kr]4s23d8
B) [Ar]4s4
C) [Kr]4s43d8
D) [Ar]3d104s24p6
E) [Ar]4s43d4
63) The ground state electron configuration of Fe is __________.
A) 1s22s23s23p63d6
B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d6
C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d6
E) 1s22s23s23p10
64) In a ground-state silver atoms, the __________ subshell is partially filled.
A) 3d
B) 3s
C) 4s
D) 4d
E) 4p
65) The ground-state electron configuration of __________ is [Ar]4s13d5.
A) V
B) Mn
C) Fe
D) Cr
E) K
66) The element that corresponds to the electron configuration 1s22s22p6 is __________.
A) sodium
B) magnesium
C) lithium
D) beryllium
E) neon
67) The complete electron configuration of gallium, element 31, is __________.
A) 1s22s22p103s23p104s23d3
B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p1
C) 1s42s42p63s43p64s43d3
D) 1s42s42p103s43p9
E) 1s42s42p83s43p84s3
68) In which set of elements would all members be expected to have very similar chemical properties?
A) O, S, Se
B) N, O, F
C) Na, Mg, K
D) S, Se, Si
E) Ne, Na, Mg
69) Which element would be expected to have chemical and physical properties closest to those of argon?
A) Cl
B) S
C) Fe
D) O
E) Kr
70) Which one of the following has the smallest radius?
A) K
B) Br
C) Fe
D) Sr
71) Which one of the following atoms has the largest radius?
A) Sr
B) Ca
C) K
D) Rb
E) Y
72) Atomic radius generally increases as we move __________.
A) down a group and from right to left across a period
B) up a group and from left to right across a period
C) down a group and from left to right across a period
D) up a group and from right to left across a period
E) down a group; the period position has no effect
73) __________ have the lowest first ionization energies of the groups listed.
A) Alkali metals
B) Transition elements
C) Halogens
D) Alkaline earth metals
E) Noble gases
74) Of the following atoms, which has the largest first ionization energy?
A) Sb
B) Se
C) As
D) S
E) Ge
75) Of the elements below, __________ is the most metallic.
A) sodium
B) barium
C) magnesium
D) calcium
E) cesium
76) Which one of the following is a metalloid?
A) Ge
B) S
C) Br
D) Pb
E) C
77) Which one of the following is not true about the alkali metals?
A) They are low density solids at room temperature.
B) They all readily form ions with a +1 charge.
C) They all have 2 electrons in their valence shells.
D) They are very reactive elements.
E) They have the lowest first ionization energies of the elements.
78) There are __________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for a (an) sodium ion.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 0
D) 4
E) 1
79) Of the ions below, only __________ has a noble gas electron configuration.
A) S3B) O2+
C) I+
D) KE) Cl80) The type of compound that is most likely to contain a covalent bond is __________.
A) one that is composed of a metal from the far left of the periodic table and a
nonmetal from the far right of the periodic table
B) a solid metal
C) one that is composed of only nonmetals
D) held together by the electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions
E) There is no general rule to predict covalency in bonds.
81) Of the atoms below, __________ is the least electronegative.
A) Ba
B) Be
C) Mg
D) Sr
E) Ca
82) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative.
A) Si
B) Cl
C) Rb
D) Ca
E) S
83) Of the molecules below, the bond in __________ is the most polar.
A) HBr
B) HI
C) HCl
D) HF
E) H2
84) Of the following species, __________ will have bond angles of 120°.
A) PH3
B) ClF3
C) NCl3
D) BCl3
E) All of these will have bond angles of 120°.
85) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in NF3 is __________.
A) linear
B) trigonal planar
C) tetrahedral
D) bent
E) trigonal pyramidal
86) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in CF4 is __________.
A) linear
B) trigonal planar
C) tetrahedral
D) bent
E) trigonal pyramidal
87) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in CO2 is __________.
A) linear
B) trigonal planar
C) tetrahedral
D) bent
E) trigonal pyramidal
88) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar.
A) CCl4
B) BCl3
C) NCl3
D) BeCl2
E) Cl2
89) The phrase "like dissolves like" refers to the fact that __________.
A) gases can only dissolve other gases
B) polar solvents dissolve polar solutes and nonpolar solvents dissolve nonpolar
solutes
C) solvents can only dissolve solutes of similar molar mass
D) condensed phases can only dissolve other condensed phases
E) polar solvents dissolve nonpolar solutes and vice versa
90) An unsaturated solution is one that __________.
A) has no double bonds
B) contains the maximum concentration of solute possible, and is in equilibrium with
undissolved solute
C) has a concentration lower than the solubility
D) contains more dissolved solute than the solubility allows
E) contains no solute
91) A solution with a concentration higher than the solubility is __________.
A) is not possible
B) is unsaturated
C) is supercritical
D) is saturated
E) is supersaturated
92) A saturated solution __________.
A) contains as much solvent as it can hold
B) contains no double bonds
C) contains dissolved solute in equilibrium with undissolved solute
D) will rapidly precipitate if a seed crystal is added
E) cannot be attained
93) Which one of the following substances is more likely to dissolve in CCl4?
A) CBr4
B) HBr
C) HCl
D) CH3CH2OH
E) NaCl
94) Which one of the following is most soluble in water?
A) CH3OH
B) CH3CH2CH2OH
C) CH3CH2OH
D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
E) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
95) 49 grams of potassium nitrate (KNO3) are dissolved in 100 g of water at 50°C, with precautions taken
to avoid evaporation of any water. This solution is __________.
A) hydrated
B) placated
C) saturated
D) unsaturated
E) supersaturated
96) What is the missing product from this reaction?
P
A)
He
B)
e
S + _____
C)
D)
e
E)
p
97) Which one of the following is a correct representation of a beta particle?
A) e
B)
C)
e
D)
e
E)
98) Which type of radioactive decay results in no change in mass number and atomic number for the
starting nucleus?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) positron emission
D) electron capture
E) gamma
99) The beta decay of cesium-137 has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many years must pass to reduce a 25
mg sample of cesium 137 to 6.25 mg?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 60
D) 90
E) 120
100) Which one of the following forms of radiation can penetrate the deepest into body tissue?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) positron
E) proton
GHS Chemistry Final Exam Review Questions 2014
Answer Section
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PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
3
2
1
3
3
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 2.8
Sec. 3.1
Sec. 3.1
Sec. 3.2
Sec. 3.2
Sec. 3.2
Sec. 3.3
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.4
Sec. 3.5
Sec. 3.6
Sec. 3.6
Sec. 6.1
Sec. 6.1
Sec. 6.1
Sec. 6.5
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 6.8
Sec. 7.1
Sec. 7.1
Sec. 7.3
Sec. 7.3
Sec. 7.3
Sec. 7.4
Sec. 7.4
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.6
Sec. 7.7
Sec. 8.1
Sec. 8.1
Sec. 8.3
Sec. 8.4
Sec. 8.4
Sec. 8.4
84)
85)
86)
87)
88)
89)
90)
91)
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
97)
98)
99)
100)
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
D
E
C
A
C
B
C
E
C
A
A
D
B
D
E
C
C
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
3
2
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.2
Sec. 9.3
Sec. 13.1
Sec. 13.2
Sec. 13.2
Sec. 13.2
Sec. 13.3
Sec. 13.3
Sec. 13.3
Sec. 21.1
Sec. 21.1
Sec. 21.1
Sec. 21.4
Sec. 21.9