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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________
1. The three-stage processing model of memory was proposed by:
A) Atkinson and Shiffrin.
B) Herman Ebbinghaus.
C) Loftus and Palmer.
D) George Sperling.
2. Brenda has trouble remembering her new five-digit zip plus four-digit address code.
What is the most likely explanation for the difficulty Brenda is having?
A) Nine digits are at or above the upper limit of most people's short-term memory
capacity.
B) Nine digits are at or above the upper limit of most people's iconic memory capacity.
C) The extra four digits cannot be organized into easily remembered chunks.
D) Brenda evidently has an impaired implicit memory.
3. Which of the following is not a measure of retention?
A) recall
B) recognition
C) relearning
D) retrieval
4. Which type of word processing—visual, acoustic, or semantic—results in the greatest
retention?
A) visual
B) acoustic
C) semantic
D) Acoustic and semantic processing were equally beneficial.
5. Darren was asked to memorize a list of letters that included v, q, y, and j. He later
recalled these letters as e, u, i, and k, suggesting that the original letters had been
encoded:
A) automatically.
B) visually.
C) semantically.
D) acoustically.
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6. Studies by Loftus and Palmer, in which people were quizzed about a film of an accident,
indicate that:
A) when quizzed immediately, people can recall very little, due to the stress of
witnessing an accident.
B) when questioned as little as one day later, their memory was very inaccurate.
C) most people had very accurate memories as much as six months later.
D) people's recall may easily be affected by misleading information.
7. The spacing effect means that:
A) distributed study yields better retention than cramming.
B) retention is improved when encoding and retrieval are separated by no more than 1
hour.
C) learning causes a reduction in the size of the synaptic gap between certain neurons.
D) delaying retrieval until memory has consolidated improves recall.
8. The disruption of memory that occurs when football players have been knocked out
provides evidence for the importance of:
A) consolidation in the formation of new memories.
B) consolidation in the retrieval of long-term memories.
C) nutrition in normal neural functioning.
D) all of the above.
9. Visual sensory memory is referred to as:
A) iconic memory.
B) echoic memory.
C) photomemory.
D) semantic memory.
10. During basketball practice, Jan's head was painfully elbowed. If the trauma to her brain
disrupts her memory, we would expect that Jan would be most likely to forget:
A) the name of her teammates.
B) her telephone number.
C) the name of the play during which she was elbowed.
D) the details of events that happened shortly after the incident.
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11. After finding her old combination lock, Janice can't remember its combination because
she keeps confusing it with the combination of her new lock. She is experiencing:
A) proactive interference.
B) retroactive interference.
C) encoding failure.
D) storage failure.
12. Memory techniques such as acronyms and the peg-word system are called:
A) consolidation devices.
B) imagery techniques.
C) encoding strategies.
D) mnemonic devices.
13. Brad, who suffered accidental damage to the left side of his hippocampus, has trouble
remembering:
A) visual designs.
B) locations.
C) all nonverbal information.
D) verbal information.
14. Experimenters gave people a list of words to be recalled. When the participants were
tested after a delay, the items that were best recalled were those:
A) at the beginning of the list.
B) in the middle of the list.
C) at the end of the list.
D) at the beginning and the end of the list.
15. The misinformation effect provides evidence that memory:
A) is constructed during encoding.
B) is unchanging once established.
C) may be reconstructed during recall according to how questions are framed.
D) is highly resistant to misleading information.
16. Amnesia patients typically experience disruption of:
A) implicit memories.
B) explicit memories.
C) iconic memories.
D) echoic memories.
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17. Complete this analogy: Fill-in-the-blank test questions are to multiple-choice questions
as:
A) encoding is to storage.
B) storage is to encoding.
C) recognition is to recall.
D) recall is to recognition.
18. When Gordon Bower presented words grouped by category or in random order, recall
was:
A) the same for all words.
B) better for the categorized words.
C) better for the random words.
D) improved when participants developed their own mnemonic devices.
19. The three steps in memory information processing are:
A) input, processing, output.
B) input, storage, output.
C) input, storage, retrieval.
D) encoding, storage, retrieval.
20. In an effort to remember the name of the classmate who sat behind her in fifth grade,
Martina mentally recited the names of other classmates who sat near her. Martina's
effort to refresh her memory by activating related associations is an example of:
A) priming.
B) déjà vu.
C) encoding.
D) relearning.
21. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence of environment's role in
intelligence?
A) Adopted children's intelligence scores are more like their adoptive parents' scores
than their biological parents'.
B) Children's intelligence scores are more strongly related to their mothers' scores than
to their fathers'.
C) Children moved from a deprived environment into an intellectually enriched one
show gains in intellectual development.
D) The intelligence scores of identical twins raised separately are no more alike than
those of siblings.
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22. Experts in a field prefer heuristics to algorithms because heuristics:
A) guarantee solutions to problems.
B) often save time.
C) prevent fixation.
D) do all of the above.
23. Telegraphic speech is typical of the ________ stage.
A) babbling
B) one-word
C) two-word
D) three-word
24. The Flynn effect refers to the fact that:
A) white and black infants score equally well on measures of infant intelligence.
B) Asian students outperform North American students on math achievement tests.
C) The IQ scores of today's better fed and educated population exceed those of the
1930s population.
D) Individual differences within a race are much greater than between-race differences.
25. The child who says “Milk gone” is engaging in ________. This type of utterance
demonstrates that children are actively experimenting with the rules of ________.
A) babbling; syntax
B) telegraphic speech; syntax
C) babbling; association
D) telegraphic speech; association
26. Hiroko's math achievement score is considerably higher than that of most American
students her age. Which of the following is true regarding this difference between Asian
and North American students:
A) It is a recent phenomenon.
B) It may be due to the fact that Asian students have a longer school year.
C) It holds only for girls.
D) Both A and B are true.
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27. Rudy is 6 feet 6 inches tall, weighs 210 pounds, and is very muscular. If you think that
Rudy is more likely to be a basketball player than a computer programmer, you are a
victim of:
A) belief bias.
B) the availability heuristic.
C) functional fixedness.
D) the representativeness heuristic.
28. Benito was born in 1937. In 1947, he scored 130 on an intelligence test. What was
Benito's mental age when he took the test?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 13
29. Which of the following is an example of the use of heuristics?
A) trying every possible letter ordering when unscrambling a word
B) considering each possible move when playing chess
C) using the formula “area = length  width” to find the area of a rectangle
D) playing chess using a defensive strategy that has often been successful for you
30. The chimpanzee Sultan used a short stick to pull a longer stick that was out of reach into
his cage. He then used the longer stick to reach a piece of fruit. Researchers
hypothesized that Sultan's discovery of the solution to his problem was the result of:
A) trial and error.
B) heuristics.
C) functional fixedness.
D) insight.
31. If asked to guess the intelligence score of a stranger, your best guess would be:
A) 75.
B) 100.
C) 125.
D) “I don't know; intelligence scores vary too widely.”
Page 6
32. Gerardeen has superb social skills, manages conflicts well, and has great empathy for
her friends and co-workers. Peter Salovey and John Mayer would probably say that
Gerardeen possesses a high degree of:
A) g.
B) social intelligence.
C) practical intelligence.
D) emotional intelligence.
33. Most psychologists believe that racial gaps in test scores:
A) have been exaggerated when they are, in fact, insignificant.
B) indicate that intelligence is in large measure inherited.
C) are in large measure caused by environmental factors.
D) are increasing.
34. Most people tend to:
A) accurately estimate the accuracy of their knowledge and judgments.
B) underestimate the accuracy of their knowledge and judgments.
C) overestimate the accuracy of their knowledge and judgments.
D) lack confidence in their decision-making strategies.
35. A listener hearing a recording of Japanese, Spanish, and North American children
babbling would:
A) not be able to tell them apart.
B) be able to tell them apart if they were older than 6 months.
C) be able to tell them apart if they were older than 8 to 10 months.
D) be able to tell them apart at any age.
36. Standardization refers to the process of:
A) determining the accuracy with which a test measures what it is supposed to.
B) defining meaningful scores relative to a representative pretested group.
C) determining the consistency of test scores obtained by retesting people.
D) measuring the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to
predict.
37. Research on the effectiveness of Head Start suggests that enrichment programs:
A) produce permanent gains in intelligence scores.
B) improve school readiness and may provide a small boost to intelligence.
C) improve intelligence scores but not school readiness.
D) produce temporary gains in intelligence scores.
Page 7
38. A 6-year-old child has a mental age of 9. The child's IQ is:
A) 96.
B) 100.
C) 125.
D) 150.
39. First-time parents Geena and Brad want to give their baby's intelligence a jump-start by
providing a super-enriched learning environment. Experts would suggest that the new
parents should:
A) pipe stimulating classical music into the baby's room.
B) hang colorful mobiles and artwork over the baby's crib.
C) take the child to one of the new “superbaby” preschools that specialize in infant
enrichment.
D) relax, since there is no surefire environmental recipe for giving a child a superior
intellect.
40. Current estimates are that ________ percent of the total variation among intelligence
scores can be attributed to genetic factors.
A) less than 10
B) approximately 25
C) about 50
D) over 75
41. (Close-Up) Women in ________ rate their body ideals closest to their actual shape.
A) Western cultures
B) countries such as Africa, where thinness can signal poverty,
C) countries such as India, where thinness is not idealized,
D) Australia, New Zealand, and England
42. Hunger and sexual motivation are alike in that both are influenced by:
A) internal physiological factors.
B) external and imagined stimuli.
C) cultural expectations.
D) all of the above.
Page 8
43. One problem with the idea of motivation as drive reduction is that:
A) because some motivated behaviors do not seem to be based on physiological needs,
they cannot be explained in terms of drive reduction.
B) it fails to explain any human motivation.
C) it cannot account for homeostasis.
D) it does not explain the hunger drive.
44. Few human behaviors are rigidly patterned enough to qualify as:
A) needs.
B) drives.
C) instincts.
D) incentives.
45. The number of fat cells a person has is influenced by:
A) genetic predisposition.
B) childhood eating patterns.
C) adulthood eating patterns.
D) all of the above.
46. It has been said that the body's major sex organ is the brain. With regard to sex
education:
A) transmission of value-free information about the wide range of sexual behaviors
should be the primary focus of the educator.
B) transmission of technical knowledge about the biological act should be the
classroom focus, free from the personal values and attitudes of researchers,
teachers, and students.
C) the home, not the school, should be the focus of all instruction about reproductive
behavior.
D) people's attitudes, values, and morals cannot be separated from the biological
aspects of sexuality.
47. Which of the following is inconsistent with the drive-reduction theory of motivation?
A) When body temperature drops below 98.6° Fahrenheit, blood vessels constrict to
conserve warmth.
B) A person is driven to seek a drink when his or her cellular water level drops below
its optimum point.
C) Monkeys will work puzzles even if not given a food reward.
D) A person becomes hungry when body weight falls below its biological set point.
Page 9
48. Psychologist Henry Murray asked research participants to invent stories about
ambiguous pictures. The stories were then scored for content related to acts of heroism,
pride, and other signs of:
A) achievement motivation.
B) the need to belong.
C) optimum arousal.
D) esteem needs.
49. Mary loves hang-gliding. It would be most difficult to explain Mary's behavior
according to:
A) incentives.
B) achievement motivation.
C) drive-reduction theory.
D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
50. Castration of male rats results in:
A) reduced testosterone and sexual interest.
B) reduced testosterone, but no change in sexual interest.
C) reduced estrogen and sexual interest.
D) reduced estrogen, but no change in sexual interest.
51. In his study of men on a semistarvation diet, Keys found that:
A) the metabolic rate of the men increased.
B) the men eventually lost interest in food.
C) the men became obsessed with food.
D) the men's behavior directly contradicted predictions made by Maslow's hierarchy of
needs.
52. Exposure of a fetus to the hormones typical of females between ________ and
________ months after conception may predispose the developing human to become
attracted to males.
A) 1; 3
B) 2; 5
C) 4; 7
D) 6; 9
Page 10
53. After an initial rapid weight loss, a person on a diet loses weight much more slowly.
This slowdown occurs because:
A) most of the initial weight loss is simply water.
B) when a person diets, metabolism decreases.
C) people begin to “cheat” on their diets.
D) insulin levels tend to increase with reduced food intake.
54. According to Maslow's theory:
A) the most basic motives are based on physiological needs.
B) needs are satisfied in a specified order.
C) the highest motives relate to self-actualization.
D) all of the above are true.
55. (Close-Up) Of the following individuals, who might be most prone to developing an
eating disorder?
A) Jason, an adolescent boy who is somewhat overweight and is unpopular with his
peers
B) Jennifer, a teenage girl who has a poor self-image and a fear of not being able to
live up to her parents' high standards
C) Susan, a 35-year-old woman who is a “workaholic” and devotes most of her
energies to her high-pressured career
D) Bill, a 40-year-old man who has had problems with alcoholism and is seriously
depressed after losing his job of 20 years
56. According to Masters and Johnson, the sexual response of males is most likely to differ
from that of females during:
A) the excitement phase.
B) the plateau phase.
C) orgasm.
D) the resolution phase.
57. Which of the following is not true regarding sexual orientation?
A) Sexual orientation is neither willfully chosen nor willfully changed.
B) Most people accept their orientation.
C) Men's sexual orientation is potentially more fluid and changeable than women's.
D) Women, regardless of sexual orientation, respond to both female and male erotic
stimuli.
Page 11
58. (Close-Up) Although the cause of eating disorders is still unknown, proposed
explanations focus on all of the following except:
A) metabolic factors.
B) genetic factors.
C) family background factors.
D) cultural factors.
59. While viewing erotica, men and women differ in the activity levels of which brain area?
A) anterior cingulated cortex
B) amygdala
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
60. Research on genetic influences on obesity reveals that:
A) the body weights of adoptees correlate with that of their biological parents.
B) the body weights of adoptees correlate with that of their adoptive parents.
C) identical twins usually have very different body weights.
D) the body weights of identical twin women are more similar that those of identical
twin men.
61. Law enforcement officials sometimes use a lie detector to assess a suspect's responses to
details of the crime believed to be known only to the perpetrator. This is known as the:
A) inductive approach.
B) deductive approach.
C) guilty knowledge test.
D) screening examination.
62. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in:
A) increased rate of respiration.
B) increased blood sugar.
C) a slowing of digestion.
D) all of the above.
63. Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both:
A) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system.
B) verbal and nonverbal expression.
C) physical arousal and a cognitive label.
D) universal and culture-specific aspects.
Page 12
64. The component of Type A behavior that is the most predictive of coronary disease is:
A) time urgency.
B) competitiveness.
C) high motivation.
D) anger.
65. A study in which people were asked to confide troubling feelings to an experimenter
found that participants typically:
A) did not truthfully report feelings and events.
B) experienced a sustained increase in blood pressure until the experiment was
finished.
C) became physiologically more relaxed after confiding their problem.
D) denied having any problems.
66. Which of the following is true regarding gestures and facial expressions?
A) Gestures are universal; facial expressions, culture-specific.
B) Facial expressions are universal; gestures, culture-specific.
C) Both gestures and facial expressions are universal.
D) Both gestures and facial expressions are culture-specific.
67. (Thinking Critically) Many psychologists are opposed to the use of lie detectors
because:
A) they represent an invasion of a person's privacy and could easily be used for
unethical purposes.
B) there are often serious discrepancies among the various indicators such as
perspiration and heart rate.
C) polygraphs cannot distinguish the various possible causes of arousal.
D) they are accurate only about 50 percent of the time.
68. When students studied others who were worse off than themselves, they felt greater
satisfaction with their own lives. This is an example of the principle of:
A) relative deprivation.
B) adaptation level.
C) behavioral contrast.
D) opponent processes.
Page 13
69. The leading cause of death in North America is:
A) lung cancer.
B) AIDS.
C) coronary heart disease.
D) alcohol-related accidents.
70. Jane was so mad at her brother that she exploded at him when he entered her room. That
she felt less angry afterward is best explained by the principle of:
A) adaptation level.
B) physiological arousal.
C) relative deprivation.
D) catharsis.
71. Which of the following was not mentioned in the text as a potential health benefit of
exercise?
A) Exercise can increase ability to cope with stress.
B) Exercise can lower blood pressure.
C) Exercise can reduce stress, depression, and anxiety.
D) Exercise improves functioning of the immune system.
72. Research suggests that people generally experience the greatest well-being when they
strive for:
A) wealth.
B) modest income increases from year to year.
C) slightly higher status than their friends, neighbors, and coworkers.
D) intimacy and personal growth.
73. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that:
A) emotions have two ingredients: physical arousal and a cognitive label.
B) the conscious experience of an emotion occurs at the same time as the body's
physical reaction.
C) emotional experiences are based on an awareness of the body's responses to an
emotion-arousing stimulus.
D) emotional ups and downs tend to balance in the long run.
74. Izard believes that there are ________ basic emotions.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
Page 14
75. (Thinking Critically) Current estimates are that the polygraph is inaccurate
approximately ________ of the time.
A) three-fourths
B) one-half
C) one-third
D) one-fourth
76. As elderly Mr. Hooper crosses the busy intersection, he stumbles and drops the
packages he is carrying. Which passerby is most likely to help Mr. Hooper?
A) Drew, who has been laid off from work for three months
B) Leon, who is on his way to work
C) Bonnie, who graduated from college the day before
D) Nancy, whose father recently passed away
77. In studying what makes people angry, James Averill found that most people become
angry:
A) once a day.
B) once a week.
C) several times a week.
D) several times a month.
78. Research studies demonstrate that after a catastrophe rates of ________ often increase.
A) depression
B) anxiety
C) sleeplessness
D) all of the above
79. After hitting a grand-slam home run, Mike noticed that his heart was pounding. Later
that evening, after nearly having a collision while driving on the freeway, Mike again
noticed that his heart was pounding. That he interpreted this reaction as fear, rather than
as ecstasy, can best be explained by the:
A) James-Lange theory.
B) Cannon-Bard theory.
C) two-factor theory.
D) adaptation-level theory.
Page 15
80. Researchers Friedman and Rosenman refer to individuals who are very time-conscious,
supermotivated, verbally aggressive, and easily angered as:
A) ulcer-prone personalities.
B) cancer-prone personalities.
C) Type A.
D) Type B.
Page 16