Download Integrated Science 1 Pretest

Integrated Science 1 Pretest
Create a Table in your Observation Journal with 20 Rows and 6 Columns. Enter the first 20 answer in the first
column, the second 20 answers in the second column, etc…. Use the table as an answer sheet so we can enter the
answers 20 questions at a time with the SMART Responders (clickers).
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. _____ is the only planet in the solar system known to sustain life.
a. Uranus
c. Earth
b. Mercury
d. Pluto
____
2. The inner planets are called terrestrial because they
a. have no atmosphere.
c. have Earth-like oceans.
b. are small and highly dense.
d. are visible from Earth.
____
3. All four outer planets are
a. terrestrial planets.
b. gas giants.
c. very small.
d. close to the sun.
____
4. The nebular hypothesis explains
a. why the inner and outer planets differ.
b. why the planets have separate orbits.
c. the presence of comets and asteroids.
d. All of the above
____
5. Astronomers believe _____ was originally a part of Earth.
a. the sun
c. Jupiter
b. the moon
d. Mars
____
6. According the current theory, the moon was formed
a. together with Earth.
c. from a portion of Earth.
b. separately from Earth.
d. from leftover matter.
____
7. According to the nebular hypothesis, the planets of the solar system
a. are pieces of a larger planet.
c. are comets captured by the sun.
b. formed from small particles.
d. formed before the big bang.
____
8. The age of our solar system is approximately
a. 6,000 years old.
b. 4.6 million years old.
____
c. 4.6 billion years old.
d. 15 billion years old.
9. Planets may have been formed out of material orbiting the early sun through the process of
a. solidification.
c. accretion.
b. sedimentation.
d. radiation.
____ 10. The gravitational force between two objects depends on masses of objects and
a. accelerations of objects.
c. speeds of objects.
b. distance between objects.
d. sizes of objects.
____ 11. Increasing which of these conditions results in more gravitational force between two objects?
a. distance
c. mass
b. acceleration
d. surface area
____ 12. Stars are held together by
a. gravitational forces.
b. magnetic forces.
c. ionic forces.
d. electrical forces.
____ 13. The sun will eventually end up as a
a. black hole.
b. neutron star.
c. white dwarf.
d. brown dwarf.
____ 14. Fusion produces _____ nuclei.
a. same-sized
b. smaller
c. larger
d. All of the above
____ 15. Stars produce energy by fusing hydrogen into
a. carbon.
c. iron.
b. oxygen.
d. helium.
____ 16. An observation of the red shift of galaxies suggests that the universe is
a. expanding.
c. reversing.
b. contracting.
d. stagnant.
____ 17. A light-year is a unit of
a. time.
b. distance.
c. mass.
d. density.
____ 18. Which statement about the atom’s nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
b. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
c. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
____ 19. Two different isotopes of an element have different
a. numbers of protons.
c. atomic numbers.
b. numbers of electrons.
d. numbers of neutrons.
____ 20. Dark matter is
a. a myth.
b. matter that doesn’t emit its own light and
can’t be seen by a telescope.
c. a mystical substance controlled by the
dark lord Sauron in his attempt to conquer
Middle Earth. Precious...
d. matter than is completely invisible.
____
1. The smallest unit of an element that maintains the properties of that element is a(n)
a. molecule.
c. compound.
b. substance.
d. atom.
____
2. The big bang theory states that the universe began with a gigantic explosion
a. 4.4 billion years ago.
c. 13 to 15 billion years ago.
b. 50 billion years ago.
d. 100 billion years ago.
____
3. A star generates energy by
a. photosynthesis.
b. fission.
c. fusion.
d. burning hydrogen
____
4. Scientists can calculate the distance from the seismograph station to the focus using
a. the difference in arrival times of S and surface waves.
b. the difference in arrival times of P and surface waves.
c. the difference in arrival times of P and S waves.
d. None of the above
____
5. Which of the following gives evidence for plate tectonics?
a. the age of Earth’s crust
b. cooling molten rock
c. magnetic alignment of oceanic rock
d. movement of crust away from a plate boundary
____
6. One hypothesis states that plate movement results from convection currents in the
a. lithosphere.
c. mantle.
b. asthenosphere.
d. outer core.
____
7. The magnitude of earthquakes is expressed using
a. the Mohs’ scale.
c. the amplitude of the P waves.
b. the Mercalli scale.
d. the Richter scale.
____
8. The location on Earth’s surface where most earthquake damage occurs is called the
a. epicenter.
c. vent.
b. surface wave point.
d. focus.
____
9. Mid-oceanic ridges are formed by
a. collisions of Earth’s continental crust.
b. the diving of oceanic plates.
c. bends and folds along the subduction zone.
d. cooled magma that hardens between diverging plates.
____ 10. A zone where oceanic crust dives beneath continental crust is called a zone of
a. subduction.
c. reduction.
b. rifting.
d. divergence.
____ 11. The reversal of Earth’s magnetic poles, as indicated by the rock on the ocean floor, occurs on average every
a. 400,000 years
c. 200,000 years.
b. 100,000 years.
d. 300,000 years
____ 12. A transform fault boundary occurs where two plates
a. move away from each other.
c. move toward each other.
b. move over each other.
d. move past each other.
____ 13. A convergent boundary occurs where two plates
a. move away from each other.
c. move over each other.
b. move past each other.
d. move toward each other.
____ 14. A seismograph measures
a. how much the surface of Earth moves during an earthquake.
b. the location of the epicenter.
c. the force of the earthquake.
d. the speed of S waves.
____ 15. Which of the following statements is not true about the Richter scale?
a. The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake.
b. The Richter scale allows us to make predictions of earthquake severity.
c. Each step of the scale represents a 30-fold increase in energy released.
d. Earthquakes with equal ratings do not have the same severity.
____ 16. Where do volcanoes tend to form?
a. hot spots
b. convergent plate boundaries
c. divergent plate boundaries
d. All of the above
____ 17. Alpha particles are nuclei of
a. radium.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. helium.
____ 18. Archaeologists use the half-life of _____ to date organic materials.
a. uranium-238
c. carbon-14
b. uranium-235
d. carbon-12
____ 19. In alpha decay, the mass number of the atom before the decay
a. equals the sum of the mass numbers of the products.
b. cannot be determined.
c. is the same as the atomic number.
d. does not change after the decay.
____ 20. Weathering that does not alter the chemical composition of the rock is called
a. chemical weathering.
c. physical weathering.
b. acid weathering.
d. biological weathering.
____
1. _____ occurs when water fills cracks in rock and freezes.
a. Oxidation
c. Deposition
b. Chemical weathering
d. Frost wedging
____
2. What are the values of x and y in the following alpha decay?
a. x = 244, y = 94
b. x = 60, y = 96
c. x = 236, y = 94
d. x = 240, y = 96
____
3. Which of the following occurs in the nucleus during alpha decay?
a. Two protons and two neutrons are gained.
b. Two neutrons and two electrons are gained.
c. Two neutrons and two electrons are lost.
d. Two protons and two neutrons are lost.
____
4. The process in which sediment is laid down is called
a. erosion.
c. weathering.
b. cementation.
d. deposition.
____
5. Which process forms ocean cliffs?
a. water erosion
b. deposition
____
c. deforestation
d. glacial abrasion
6. The principle of superposition is used to determine
a. the relative age of rocks.
b. how rocks are formed.
____
____
____
c. the absolute age of rocks.
d. how rocks are changed.
7. Radioactive isotopes are used to
a. determine how rocks are formed.
b. determine the relative age of rocks.
c. determine how rocks are changed.
d. determine the absolute age of rocks.
8. Ozone molecules are destroyed by
a. ultraviolet radiation.
b. chlorofluorocarbons.
c. deoxyribonucleic acids.
d. carbon dioxide molecules.
9. The only atmospheric layer containing measurable amounts of water is the
a. mesosphere.
c. stratosphere.
b. thermosphere.
d. troposphere.
____ 10. Air becomes wind as it flows from
a. high pressure to high pressure.
b. low pressure to high pressure.
c. low pressure to low pressure.
d. high pressure to low pressure.
____ 11. Which of the following gases was not believed to be present on Earth at the time of its formation 4.4 billion
years ago?
a. water
c. oxygen
b. nitrogen
d. methane
____ 12. In the oxygen–carbon dioxide cycle,
a. animals produce oxygen used by plants for respiration.
b. animals produce oxygen used by plants for photosynthesis.
c. animals produce carbon dioxide used by plants for respiration.
d. animals produce carbon dioxide used by plants for photosynthesis.
____ 13. Oxygen was introduced into the atmosphere as a byproduct of
a. respiration.
c. osmosis.
b. photosynthesis.
d. dehydration.
____ 14. In the oxygen–carbon dioxide cycle,
a. plants produce carbon dioxide used by animals for photosynthesis.
b. plants produce carbon dioxide used by animals for respiration.
c. plants produce oxygen used by animals for photosynthesis.
d. plants produce oxygen used by animals for respiration.
____ 15. The climate of a region or location is affected by
a. season.
c. latitude.
b. elevation.
d. All of the above
____ 16. A frontal boundary is established between air masses of different
a. speeds.
c. temperatures.
b. directions.
d. humidities.
____ 17. Historically, global climate
a. has varied greatly over time.
b. has varied slightly over time.
c. has always been the same.
d. None of the above
____ 18. What causes thunder?
a. discharge of electrical energy
c. frontal boundaries
b. rotating winds
d. supersonic expanding air
____ 19. How does carbon dioxide keep Earth warm?
a. by trapping radiation in the atmosphere
b. by combining with water vapor
c. by reacting with fossil fuel
d. by reacting with nitrogen
____ 20. The burning of fossil fuels produces
a. greenhouse gases and air pollution.
b. acid rain only.
c. land pollution.
d. air pollution only.
____
1. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because
a. it is used inside of greenhouses.
b. it is produced when wood or fossil fuels are burned.
c. it helps keep our planet warmer than outer space.
d. plants need carbon dioxide to grow.
____
2. Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the substance
a. reacts with other substances.
c. smells.
b. can be broken down into atoms.
d. looks.
____
3. When two hydrogen atoms bond, the positive nucleus of one atom attracts the
a. negative electron of the other atom.
b. positive electron of the other atom.
c. negative nucleus of the other atom.
d. positive nucleus of the other atom.
____
4. The north pole of one magnet will be attracted to
a. another north pole.
c. the middle of a magnet.
b. a south pole.
d. All of the above
____
5. An iron atom has an atomic mass of 56. Its atomic number is 26. How many neutrons does the iron atom
have?
a. 26
c. 30
b. 82
d. 56
____
6. On a distance vs. time graph of an object’s motion, distance is usually
a. greater than time.
c. measured in ft/min.
b. the dependent variable.
d. plotted on the x-axis.
____
7. Which statement about the atom’s nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
b. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
c. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
d. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
AIR POLLUTION
____
8. According to the pie chart, the second-largest contributor to air pollution is
a. particulate matter.
c. volatile organic compounds.
b. carbon monoxide.
d. nitrogen oxides.
____
9. What is an atom’s nucleus made of?
a. protons and neutrons
b. only neutrons
c. only protons
d. anodes
____ 10. The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel that distance is called
a. average speed.
c. negative acceleration.
b. average acceleration.
d. average velocity.
____ 11. Which molecules are most strongly attracted to one another?
a. oxygen molecules
c. hydrogen molecules
b. nitrogen molecules
d. water molecules
____ 12. The speed of a sound wave
a. depends on amplitude.
b. depends on wavelength.
c. depends on the medium.
d. None of the above
____ 13. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
a. protons are added to the silk.
b. electrons are removed from the rod.
c. the silk remains neutral.
d. protons are removed from the silk.
____ 14. If two objects with different masses and traveling with different velocities collide, what law allows you to
predict the motion of the objects after the collision?
a. Newton’s second law
b. Newton’s third law
c. the law of conservation of momentum
d. the law of universal gravitation
____ 15. The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
a. the law of conservation of momentum.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s third law of motion.
d. Newton’s second law of motion.
____ 16. Solid ionic compounds have very high melting points because they
a. contain charged ions that are locked tightly together.
b. contain metallic elements.
c. are made of elements that are solid at room temperature.
d. are positively charged.
____ 17. A dropped racquetball will not return to its original position because
a. some of the mechanical energy is converted to nonmechanical energy.
b. energy is not conserved.
c. the mechanical energy is stored up for later bounces.
d. potential energy is inefficient.
____ 18. As a dropped penny falls toward the ground, _____ energy is converted to _____ energy.
a. thermal, potential
c. kinetic, vibrational
b. potential, kinetic
d. kinetic, heat
____ 19. The _____ is the time it takes for one full vibration of a particle in a medium.
a. amplitude
c. wave speed
b. frequency
d. period
____ 20. A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is a(n)
a. commutator.
c. transformer.
b. generator.
d. electric motor.
____
1. The color of light is determined by the _____ of the light waves.
a. amplitude
c. frequency or wavelength
b. speed
d. medium
____
2. The electric force between two objects _____ when the distance between them decreases.
a. increases
c. decreases
b. remains constant
d. None of the above
____
3. An ionic bond is a bond that forms between
a. ions with opposite charges.
b. one atom’s nucleus and another atom’s electrons.
c. atoms with neutral charges.
d. the electrons of two different atoms.
____
4. If an equal force is applied to two cars of equal mass, Car A and Car B, Car A will have _____ acceleration as
(than) Car B.
a. the opposite
c. less
b. greater
d. the same
____
5. Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
a. final velocity.
c. distance.
b. speed.
d. time.
____
6. What is the mass number of an element that has 19 protons, 19 electrons, and 20 neutrons?
a. 20
c. 58
b. 39
d. 19
____
7. Most elements on the left side of the periodic table are
a. semiconductors.
c. metalloids.
b. nonmetals.
d. metals.
____
8. An object’s volume can be found by dividing its mass by its
a. pressure.
c. density.
b. weight.
d. temperature.
____
9. Which of the following statements is not true about ecosystems?
a. All the elements of an ecosystem are interrelated.
b. Seasonal patterns can change an ecosystem.
c. Wildfires cause permanent loss of an ecosystem.
d. If disturbed, ecosystems tend to eventually balance out.
____ 10. The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains
a. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
b. two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
c. two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms.
d. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
____ 11. Two different isotopes of an element have different
a. numbers of electrons.
c. numbers of neutrons.
b. atomic numbers.
d. numbers of protons.
____ 12. Average speed can be represented by the mathematical expression
a. time – distance.
c. time + distance.
b. distance  time.
d. distance/time.
____ 13. Aluminum is used in kitchen foil because it is
a. shiny.
c. very heavy.
b. hard to bend.
d. None of the above
____ 14. Sound waves from a radio generally travel in which medium?
a. air
c. light
b. earth
d. water
____ 15. The _____ is the distance between two crests of a wave.
a. amplitude
c. wavelength
b. period
d. frequency
____ 16. Mechanical energy can change to nonmechanical energy as a result of
a. heat.
c. radiation.
b. air resistance.
d. None of the above
____ 17. Earth pulls on the moon and holds the moon in its orbit. The moon pulls on Earth with an equal and opposite
force. This is an example of
a. Newton’s second law.
c. Newton’s first law.
b. Newton’s third law.
d. None of the above
____ 18. What would be the immediate effect on a population of insect-feeding birds if pesticide is sprayed in their
ecosystem?
a. The bird population would decrease.
b. The birds would balance out the ecosystem.
c. The birds would adapt to their environment.
d. The bird population would increase.
____ 19. A person is standing still and listening to a siren sounding an alarm. The frequency of the sound is 500 Hz.
The person begins running toward the sound at a rate of 20 m/s. The frequency of the sound the person hears
will
a. increase.
c. change by 20 Hz.
b. decrease.
d. remain the same.
____ 20. In which substance do the molecules have the strongest attractions to one another?
a. hydrogen, a gas
c. water, a liquid
b. sulfuric acid, a liquid
d. sugar, a solid
____
1. A chemical property of copper is its
a. color.
b. density.
c. melting point.
d. reactivity.
____
2. The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its
acceleration is
a. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s second law of motion.
d. the law of conservation of momentum.
____
3. A forest destroyed by a fire will gradually become a complex ecosystem with a wide variety of plants and
animals in a process called
a. development.
c. succession.
b. evolution.
d. regeneration.
____
4. Solar cells are used to
a. convert electricity into solar energy.
b. convert sunlight and carbon dioxide into sugars.
c. photograph sunspots.
d. convert sunlight into electricity.
____
5. An element’s atomic number is equal to its number of
a. protons and neutrons.
c. neutrons.
b. protons.
d. valence electrons
____
6. Oxygen atoms have six electrons in their outer shells. When two oxygen atoms bond, they will form a(n)
_____ bond by _____ their electrons.
a. ionic, sharing
c. ionic, transferring
b. covalent, sharing
d. covalent, transferring
____
7. Plants utilize carbon dioxide that is produced by
a. fossil fuel burning.
c. cellular respiration.
b. decomposition.
d. All of the above
____
8. An electric motor and a generator are similar in that both
a. produce mechanical energy.
b. transform energy into a different form.
c. create energy.
d. use electricity.
____
9. At the top of its arc, a thrown ball has _____ potential energy.
a. zero
c. minimum
b. maximum
d. average
____ 10. There are strong bonds between the atoms in a piece of quartz. These bonds give quartz a
a. high melting point.
c. low molecular mass.
b. high molecular mass.
d. low melting point.
____ 11. How is water used in a coal-fired power plant?
a. Steam from hot water spins the turbines.
b. Water is heated and reacts with the burning coal.
c. Hot water turns the generator.
d. As water heats up, energy is released into the coals.
____ 12. The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
a. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. the law of conservation of momentum.
d. Newton’s second law of motion.
____ 13. Often atoms join so that each atom will have
a. an equal number of protons and electrons.
b. more electrons than either protons or neutrons.
c. an outermost energy level that is full of electrons.
d. an even number of electrons.
____ 14. Generators convert
a. electrical energy to chemical energy.
b. electrical energy to mechanical energy.
c. mechanical energy to electrical energy.
d. chemical energy to electrical energy.
____ 15. Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a. reactivity
c. freezing point
b. density
d. boiling point
____ 16. Which of the following is not a physical property of iron?
a. ability to rust
c. color
b. conductivity
d. melting point
____ 17. Which of the following will result in the greatest acceleration?
a. 23 N acting on a 2-kg box
c. 23 N acting on a 5-kg box
b. 56 N acting on a 1-kg box
d. 56 N acting on a 2-kg box
Figure 15-1
____ 18. The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in Figure 15-1 increases the most between locations
a. C and D.
c. A and C.
b. B and D.
d. A and B.
____ 19. The law of conservation of energy states that energy
a. cannot be created or destroyed.
c. is always equal and opposite.
b. can only be converted into heat.
d. is created from motion.
____ 20. The attraction between molecules tends to be _____ the attraction between ions.
a. stronger than
c. weaker than
b. equal to
d. None of the above