Download Science 8 - FR Haythorne Junior High

Science 8
Review
Package
Formulae:
Density = mass ÷ volume
Concentration = mass ÷ volume
Pressure = force ÷ area
MA 
Foutput
SR 
dinput
Finput
d output
MA
100%
SR
Or
Woutput
Eff 
100%
Winput
Eff 
W  F d
F
P
A
TS 2014
1
UNIT A
Use the following WHMIS symbols to answer the next 2 questions.
A. A
2. Dangerously Reactive
A. A
B. B
1. Flammable
C. C
D. D
B. B
C. C
D. D
3. Which of the following WHMIS symbols would be found on a container that is used to store
used needles?
A. Dangerously reactive material
B. Corrosive material
C. Poisonous and infectious causing other toxic effects
D. Biohazardous infectious material
4. WHMIS stands for
A. Workmen Hazardous Materials Information System
B. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
C. Workplace Healthcare Medical Information System
D. What Hazards Might I See?
5. Which of the following HHPS symbols represents an explosive material?
6. Anything that has no fixed shape and can flow and usually is a liquid or a gas is called a
A. hydraulic
C. compressed gas
B. pneumatic
D. fluid
7. Which of the following lab safety rules is designed to protect students from slips and falls?
A. Wear safety gear (goggles and gloves) at all times
B. Immediately clean up your spills
C. Return cracked or damaged glassware to your teacher
D. Never directly smell a substance — waft the smell towards you with your hand
2
8. Mixtures can be made with solids, liquids or gases. The kind of mixture or solution that is
referred to as heterogeneous (mechanical mixture) is a mixture or solution which
A. is clear
C. appears as a single substance
B. is cloudy
D. all the parts are visible
9. Salt would be classified as
A. a solution
B. a colloid
C. a pure substance
D. a mixture
10. A laboratory technician uses a chromatogram to determine whether or not a sample is a pure
substance. Which of the following statements is true?
A. A pure substance will appear as a single mark at one level, while a mixture will appear as
a series of marks at different levels.
B. A pure substance will appear as a series of marks at different levels, while a mixture will
appear as a single mark at one level.
C. A pure substance will travel up the chromatography paper while the mixture will not.
D. A pure substance will not travel up the chromatography paper while the mixture will.
11. Which of the following is not used to describe concentration?
A. Parts per million
C. Percent
B. Grams per millilitre
D. Newtons per metre
12. Which of the following solutions would have the highest concentration?
A. 5.6 g per 10 mL
C. 25 g per 50 mL
B. 12 g per 25 mL
D. 50 %
13. A common solution in which the solute is solid and the solvent is liquid is
A. antifreeze
C. rubber cement
B. air
D. saltwater
14. Diffusion occurs when the particles of a solute
A. are heated and cooled very quickly
B. fill the spaces between the particles of the solvent
C. are dissolved by a change of state
D. attach to particles of the solvent
15. Which of the following statements is part of the particle model of matter?
A. Particles in matter may be attracted or bonded to each other.
B. Temperature affects the viscosity of particles.
C. The pressure on the individual particles in a container depends on the force put on them.
D. You cannot precisely determine the speed and the position of a particle at the same time.
16. Which of the following statements from the particle model of matter best explains the reason
why paint that cannot be removed by water can be removed by a solvent such as turpentine?
A. All matter is made up of tiny particles
B. There are spaces that exist between the particles
C. The particles are always moving
D. Some particles may be attracted to or bonded to other particles
3
17. When removed from a fridge, maple syrup flows slowly because
A. the particles are spaced far apart
C. the particles are moving quickly
B. the particles are relatively close together
D. the particles have increased their mass
18. Which of the following would describe the cause of the friction experienced in a viscous
liquid?
A. The particles can slide over each other
C. The particles bump into each other
B. The particles move randomly
D. The particles rearrange themselves
19. Based on the graph shown below, which substance would have the highest density?
A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Aluminum
D. Water
20. In a dense object, the particles will
A. be placed far apart
B. be placed relatively close together
C. be moving rapidly
D. be few in number
21. A 200 g sample of sand has a volume of 40.0 mL. The density of the sand is
A. 0.02 g/mL
C. 4.00 g/mL
B. 2.00 g/mL
D. 5.00 g/mL
22. Density and buoyant force are related. As the
A. density of a fluid increases, the buoyant force it exerts on an object decreases
B. density of a fluid decreases, the buoyant force it exerts on an object increases
C. density of a fluid increases, the buoyant force it exerts on an object remains the same
D. density of a fluid decreases, the buoyant force it exerts on an object decreases
23. Buoyancy is the tendency of an object to float. A diver shows negative buoyancy when
A. force of gravity equals force of buoyancy
B. force of buoyancy is greater than force of gravity
C. force of buoyancy is less than force of gravity
D. force of gravity does not affect force of buoyancy
4
24. A cargo ship is loaded to its waterline in a tropical saltwater port. It then travels to the North
Atlantic. As a result
A. the ship sinks as its density becomes greater than the density of the surrounding water
B. the ship rides higher in the water as its density becomes greater than the density of the
surrounding water
C. the ship sinks as its density becomes less than the density of the surrounding water
D. the ship rides higher in the water as its density becomes less than the density of the
surrounding water
25. A gas can be compressed more than a liquid because the gas particles
A. can increase their energy level more than the liquid particles
B. need extra energy to take up more space
C. have more space between them than the liquid particles do
D. need less energy to take up more space
26. Pascal’s Law states that
A. pressure is calculated by dividing force by the area on which the force is acting
B. as the depth of a fluid increases, the pressure increases
C. for an object to float in a fluid the buoyant force must be at least as large as the
gravitational force acting on it
D. a fluid in a closed container transmits pressure equally in all directions
27. If a hole forms in the line of a hydraulic or pneumatic system, the system ceases to operate
because it
A. loses pressure
C. loses mass
B. fills with air
D. increases temperature
28. The nitrogen bubbles form in a diver’s blood when they ascend too quickly because nitrogen
is no longer __________ in the blood.
A. dense
C. buoyant
B. soluble
D. viscous
29. A submarine can sink beneath the waves because it
A. fills its ballast tanks with air, making it more dense than the water around it
B. fills its ballast tanks with water, making it less dense than the water around it
C. fills its ballast tanks with air, making it less dense than the water around it
D. fills its ballast tanks with water, making it more dense than the water around it
29. Pumps operate by moving a fluid from an area of ________ pressure to an area of
____________ pressure.
A. high, low
C. low, high
B. high, high
D. low, low
5
UNIT B
1. Characteristics of living organisms include all of the following, EXCEPT
A. they need energy and produce wastes
B. they reproduce and grow
C. they respond to their environment and adapt
D. they grow and move freely in their environment
2. Which of the following would not be considered an organism?
A. Sea sponges
C. Tree
B. Cork
D. Moss
3. All organisms are made up of
A. muscle and bone
B. water
C. protein
D. cells
4. Animals have developed different structures
A. to eat similar foods
B. to survive in different weather conditions throughout the year
C. to perform certain functions
D. to appear different than other animals
5. Which of the following is an example of a structural adaptation?
A. White fur on a rabbit
B. Birds migrating south
C. Humans looking both ways while crossing the street
D. Bighorn rams butting heads over mates
6. Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first person to see tiny organisms. To do this, he used a
A. lens grinder
C. magnifying glass
B. microscope
D. optical magnifier
7. In plant and animal cells, the command centre of the cell is the
A. chloroplast
C. nucleus
B. ribosome
D. vacuole
8. When cells grow to a certain size, they must divide because
A. cells that are too large cannot carry out functions such as diffusion properly
B. cells that are too large require other cells to look after them
C. cells that are too large consume fewer resources
D. cells that are too large will swell and burst
9. The two structures found in plant cells, but not in animal cells, are
A. nuclei and cell walls
C. chloroplasts and nuclei
B. cell membranes and chloroplasts
D. cell walls and chloroplasts
10. Certain materials are allowed to pass through it and others are prevented from passing
through. The type of cell membrane that is present in a plant and animal cell is called a(n)
A. selectively impermeable membrane
C. permeable membrane
B. selectively permeable membrane
D. impermeable membrane
6
11. Osmosis is the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane. When a cell is
placed in a solution that has a high salt concentration
A. the cell shrivels as water moves out of the cell
B. the cell swells as water moves into the cell
C. the cell shrivels as salt moves out of the cell
D. the cell swells as salt moves into the cell
12. The organization of cells follows this pattern (from most simple to most complex)
A. cells form organs, tissues, and systems
C. cells form systems, organs, and tissues
B. cells form tissues, organs, and systems
D. cells form organs, systems, and tissues
13. The pancreas
A. absorbs nutrients from food
B. absorbs water and collects waste
C. produces bile to help break down fats
D. produces digestive enzymes to break down food
14. The breakdown of food by acids and enzymes is known as
A. mechanical digestion
C. enzymatic digestion
B. chemical digestion
D. peristalsis
15. Each body system works with other body systems to perform its function effectively. When
different gases are exchanged in the lungs and then transported throughout the body, the
systems working together are the
A. respiratory and integumentary
C. respiratory and circulatory
B. respiratory and digestive
D. respiratory and sensory
16. Blood is the body’s transportation system. The blood is composed of different types of cells
which have a very specialized function. The type of blood cells that comprise less than 1% of
the blood’s volume and defends the body against infection and disease are the
A. red blood cells
C. plasma cells
B. white blood cells
D. platelets
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
17. The structure labeled X is a(n)
A. atrium
B. artery
C. vein
D. ventricle
18. Alveoli are
A. tiny, air-filled sacs
B. surrounded by capillaries
C. one cell layer thick
D. all of the above
7
19. Which of the following organs is not part of the nervous system?
A. Brain
C. Nerves
B. Spinal cord
D. Kidney
20. The dendrites of a neuron
A. receive nerve impulses from neighboring neurons
B. send nerve impulses to neighboring neurons
C. control voluntary responses
D. control involuntary responses
21. Which of the following rows in the table correctly identifies properties of arteries and veins?
Row
Artery
Vein
A.
thin walls, valves
thick, muscular walls
B.
thick, muscular walls, valves
thin walls
C.
thick, muscular walls
thin walls, valves
D.
thick, muscular walls, valves
thin walls, valves
Use the following diagram to answer the next 3 questions.
22. The cell shown is which of the following cell types?
A. An animal cell
C. A plant cell
B. A bacterial cell
D. A protoplasm cell
23. The part of the cell that acts as a barrier that keeps some materials out of the cell while letting
others in is structure
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
24. The part of the cell that controls the activities within the cell is structure
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 5
8
Use the following diagram to answer the next 3 questions.
25. Large changes in the focus are made by using the structure labeled
A. 1
C. 3
B. 2
D. 4
26. The purpose of structure 5 is to
A. provide support for a specimen
B. provide magnification
C. provide light
D. act as a handhold when carrying the microscope
27. This structure contains a lens that typically has a l0X magnification
A. 1
C. 3
B. 2
D. 4
28. The first vaccine was used to develop immunity to
A. anthrax
C. smallpox
B. cowpox
D. rabies
29. The first scientist to determine that infections were caused by microorganisms was
A. Edward Jenner
C. Joseph Lister
B. Louis Pasteur
D. James Lind
30. Nicotine is often the reason that people continue to smoke after trying to quit. This is
because nicotine
A. tastes good
C. is addictive
B. is a healthy additive
D. causes cancer
9
UNIT C
1. What was Pythagoras’s theory of vision?
A. Light bounces off objects then to our eyes
B. Light is sensed by our eyes as heat
C. Light bends as it enters our eyes
D. Rays leave our eyes and sense the surroundings
2. Pythagoras’ thoughts about light were proven wrong because it was impossible to see
A. the light beams
C. in the dark
B. dark objects
D. shiny objects
3. When light is shone into a mirror, the angle of the incoming beam is equal to the angle of the
outgoing beam. This understanding of light was suggested by
A. Ptolemy
C. al-Haytham
B. Aristotle
D. Euclid
4. Sir Isaac Newton is well known for many things. One thing that he showed was that white
light is actually a mixture of different colors. He was able to demonstrate this by shining a
light through
A. a prism
C. glass
B. water
D. a mirror
5. Any technology that uses light is called
A. a reflecting telescope
B. a refracting telescope
C. an optical device
D. a lens and mirror
6. The type of telescope that collects light from distant objects and focuses it in the eyepiece is
called
A. retracting
C. refracting
B. reflecting
D. resisting
7. The properties of light include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Light can go around a corner
C. Light can be reflected
B. Light can bend
D. Light is a form of energy
8. The best explanation for shadows is
A. black light is projected onto an object
B. light bends only part way around solid objects
C. when light hits an opaque object, it can’t go further
D. when light strikes an object, the object projects a black light
10
9. This illustration demonstrates how light travels and is referred to as a
A. light sketch
B. light diagram
C. ray sketch
D. ray diagram
10. When light interacts with a substance, different things can happen to the light because of
the type of material it is made of. Opaque materials do this to light.
A. Reflect
C. Block
B. Transmit
D. Diffuse
11. You can see light through a greasy bag but you can’t see if there are doughnuts inside. The
greasy bag is
A. transparent
C. opaque
B. translucent
D. shadowed
12. When you attempt to focus an image on a screen, using a concave mirror, but cannot, yet,
you can see an image when are looking into the same concave mirror, the image is called a
A. virtual image
C. convex distortion
B. concave image
D. reflected distortion
13. If an object is placed between the focal point in a concave mirror and the mirror itself, the
image will appear
A. upright and smaller
C. inverted and smaller
B. upright and larger
D. inverted and larger
14. Refraction is the bending of light when it travels from one medium to another. What
direction does the light bend when it travels from a medium of greater density to one of
lesser density?
A. Along the normal
C. Towards the normal
B. Along the perpendicular
D. Away from the normal
15. When light passing through a lens, the light is bent, causing the rays of light to diverge.
The type of lens is a
A. convex lens
C. optic lens
B. concave lens
D. diamond prism lens
16. During refraction, when the angle of incidence is doubled, the angle of refraction is
A. also doubled
C. decreased by the same amount
B. not necessarily doubled
D. decreased by about half
11
17. The arrows in (a) and (b) - identified in the illustration
indicate the
A. crest
C. amplitude
B. rest position
D. wavelength
18. The colour of light with the shortest wavelength is
A. red
C. violet
B. green
D. orange
19. As frequency increases, this will happen to the wavelength.
A. They get longer and less frequent
C. They get shorter and less frequent
B. They get longer and more frequent
D. They get shorter and more frequent
20. Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation contain the greatest amount of
energy?
A. X-rays
C. Gamma rays
B. Microwaves
D. Ultraviolet rays
21. Phosphorescence is slightly different from fluorescence. In phosphorescence, the energy that
is used to produce the light is absorbed by the material and then given off later. These types of
materials
A. glow in the dark
C. last longer than fluorescent light
B. become natural light
D. produce light and give off lots of heat
22. A firefly makes its own light in an organ known as a
A. phosphortube
C. phototube
B. phosphorescent
D. photophore
23. The primary colors of light are
A. red, yellow and blue
B. red, green and yellow
C. red, yellow and green
D. red, green and blue
24. The eye and the camera can be thought of as image-producing technologies. The part of the
camera that serves the same purpose as the retina is the
A. shutter
C. diaphragm
B. film
D. lens
25. The retina in the eye has a thin layer of cells that are light sensitive. These cells are called
photoreceptors. There are two kinds of photoreceptor cells. The type that detect low-intensity
light are the
A. rods
C. pines
B. cones
D. iris
26. Near-sightedness can be corrected with a
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. retina transplant
D. new aperture
12
Use the following diagram to answer the next 3 questions.
27. In the diagram, the structure labeled B is the
A. lens
B. retina
C. sclera
D. cornea
28. The part of the eye that is modified during laser eye surgery is labeled
A. A
C. C
B. B
D. D
29. The function of structure G is to
A. create a blind spot
B. carry nerve impulses to the brain
C. focus the light onto the retina
D. record images
30. A computer stores digital information by converting the information into
A. pictures
C. letters
B. numbers
D. symbols
UNIT D
Formulae:
1. The first machines depended on these for their source of energy
A. electricity and coal
C. humans and animals
B. natural gas and wood
D. steam and wood
2. Archimedes designed a system for moving water from one place to another. His machine is
still used today. It is based on the simple machine - the
A. lever
C. screw
B. wedge
D. inclined plane
3. The purpose of a machine is to
A. reduce the cost of labor
B. help you do work
C. replace people in some areas of business
D. increase a business’ profits
4. This type of simple machine depends on the placement of a fulcrum to develop a mechanical
advantage.
A. Pulley
C. Screw
B. Lever
D. Wedge
13
5. Scissors are a combination of what two machines?
A. Lever and wedge
C. Wheel and axle
B. Lever & inclined plane
D. Wedge and inclined plane
6. A simple machine, similar in shape to the inclined plane, but used to increase the force of
moving an object is the
A. class 1 lever
C. wheel and axle
B. screw
D. wedge
7. The purpose of a linkage in a machine is to
A. change the direction of the machine’s motion
B. hold a complex machine together
C. transfer force or energy from one part of a machine to another
D. increase the force produced by the machine
8. Devices that help that are made up of several simple machines are called complex machines.
Because all the simple machines work together in these devices, they are considered to be a
A. system
C. new technology
B. subsystem
D. complicated device
9. Gears can also change the direction of motion. In an eggbeater, the crank turns the driving
gear, which in turn makes the beaters rotate. The transfer of motion is
A. vertical to horizontal
C. linear to rotational
B. horizontal to vertical
D. rotational to linear
10. A gear that reduces the speed of a machine is known as a
A. drive gear
C. reducing gear
B. multiplying gear
D. cyclic gear
11. If the mechanical advantage is increased, then usually
A. the distance that you must move also increases
B. the distance that you must move is decreased
C. there is no change in the distance that you must move
D. a lighter load must be used
12. Mechanical advantage is the amount by which a machine can multiply a force. The force that
the machine applies to the object is called the
A. input force
C. force ratio
B. output force
D. Newton force
13. To calculate mechanical advantage, or force ratio, you divide the output force by the input
force. A machine that is able to move an object that weighs 36 Newtons with 6 Newtons of
force has a mechanical advantage of
A. 6
C. 36
B. 30
D. 42
14. To calculate the speed ratio of a pulley system, you count
A. all the ropes
C. only the ropes applying force
B. only the ropes supporting the load
D. all ropes that are movable
14
15. In most machines, you don’t get something for nothing. When you gain a mechanical
advantage, you are gaining
A. force
C. distance
B. speed
D. resistance
16. What can account for the fact that mechanical advantage and speed ratio are different in real
situations?
A. Improper calculations
C. Force of friction
B. Faulty equipment
D. Loss of energy
17. The scientific definition of work is ... “Work is done when a force acts on an object to make
the object move.” Which statement below describes work being done?
A. Hank worked very hard to get all his homework done.
B. Doing math is hard work if you don’t like numbers.
C. It was hard work for Sam to move the desk two meters.
D. It was hard work trying to move the car, but it wouldn’t budge.
Use the following information to answer the next 3 questions.
A pulley system on a crane is being used to hoist a 25 000 N object a distance of 3.50 m. The
engine powering the winch on the crane produces 5 000 N of force while pulling in a total of
21.0 m of cable.
18. The speed ratio of the pulley system is
A. 0.17
B. 6.00
C. 17.50
D. 24.50
19. The mechanical advantage of the pulley system is
A. 0.20
C. 20 000
B. 5.00
D. 30 000
20. The efficiency of the crane is
A. 17 %
B. 20 %
C. 83 %
D. 120 %
21. The units of work and energy are called
A. Newtons
B. Joules
C. Watts
D. Volts
22. A 100 N force acts on a box that is pushed 5 m. The amount of work done is
A. 0 J
C. 100 J
B. 20 J
D. 500 J
23. In a hydraulic system, the piston that is moving the heavier load should be
A. the piston with the smallest surface area
C. the piston with the greatest surface area
B. the tallest piston
D. it does not matter which piston is used
15
Use the following information to answer the next 2 questions.
In a hydraulic jack, the input piston has a force of 200 N exerted upon it. That piston has a
surface area of 0.10 m2. As a result, the output piston (with a surface area of 1.20 m2) applies a
force to lift a car.
24. What is the force produced by the output piston?
A. 16.7 N
B. 24.0 N
C. 1667 N
D. 2400 N
25. The mechanical advantage in the hydraulic system is due to
A. Pascal’s law
C. Bernoulli’s principle
B. the law of thermodynamics
D. pneumatic balance
26. Which of the following pairs of objects have the same function, but different designs? A
A. hammer and a nail
C. wallet and a belt
B. wrench and a screw
D. leaf blower and a rake
27. Criteria for evaluating a device refers to
A. the group of people that are evaluating the device
B. the list of considerations that will be used in the evaluation
C. the design used in the device
D. the people who developed the device
28. The difference between the efficiency of a device and its effectiveness is
A. efficiency refers to how quickly or easily a device allows you to do a task while
effectiveness refers to whether or not it does the task properly
B. effectiveness refers to how quickly or easily a device allows you to do a task while
efficiency refers to whether or not it does the task properly
C. efficiency refers to how quickly a device allows you to do a task while effectiveness refers
to how little energy you must use
D. effectiveness refers to how quickly a device allows you to do a task while efficiency refers
to how little energy you must use
29. The advantage of the non-removable tab top can over one that used buttons was that it
A. produced less waste
C. was cheaper to produce
B. required fewer materials to build
D. was easier to use
30. The development of electric and hybrid vehicles is largely due to
A. increasing concerns regarding vehicle emissions and their effect on the environment
B. the low cost of electricity
C. the ease of the manufacture of these vehicles
D. their increased availability in many markets
16
UNIT E
1. The reason why submerged plants are only found in the upper zone is that
A. there is not a sufficient level of nutrients in the lower zone
B. there is not enough light to support photosynthesis in the lower zone
C. there is too little oxygen for plants to survive in the lower zone
D. the water in the lower zone is too cold for plants
2. Which of the marine communities below would have the most diversity of organisms?
A. Continental shelf
C. Coral reef
B. Rocky coast
D. Sandy beach
3. Populations change because something in their ecosystem has changed. Which of the
following represent a seasonal change and a short-term change?
A. Mosquito populations are very high in summer. Salamanders disappear after a hot summer
dries up their pond.
B. A landslide changes the course of a river. Algae populations increase rapidly in July.
C. Mayflies emerge from lakes once a year. Aquatic plants die off in winter.
D. Hot weather causes the death of minnows. El Niño causes a decrease in sardine
populations.
4. What can cause excessive plant growth in aquatic environments?
A. Power stations and city runoff
C. Sewage and agriculture runoff
B. Power stations and sewage
D. Habitat destruction and sewage
5. Which of the following pairs of actions best represent indirect water use?
A. Washing dishes, preparing supper
C. Making soft drinks, growing crops
B. Washing the car, cutting the lawn
D. Eating an orange, making a sandwich
6. Hard water contains
A. bacteria
B. minerals such as calcium and magnesium
C. chemicals such as chlorine
D. acids
7. Which of the following pairs would represent the majority of fresh water on Earth?
A. Icecaps and groundwater
C. Groundwater and streams
B. Lakes and streams
D. Ice and lakes
8. Which of the following statements about tides is correct?
A. There are two equal-sized tides each day.
B. The tides occur at the same time each day.
C. There are two different-sized tides each day.
D. There is a single predictable tide each day.
9. Large bodies of water can affect the climate of the land masses adjacent to them. Which of the
statements below best describes this effect?
A. Temperature differences between winter and summer are less extreme
B. Constant rain occurs during the summer months
C. Freezing temperatures never occur
D. Fog and mist occur every morning
17
10. The long cold winters of Calgary are relieved from time to time by a warm wind called a
Chinook, causing the temperature to rise as much as 25°C. This phenomenon occurs when
moist air from the Pacific Ocean
A. warms as it rises up over the mountains, then moves down the east slope onto the prairie
B. warms during the day as it travels toward the prairie from the Pacific Ocean
C. remains warm as it moves through mountain passes and eventually reaches the prairies
D. rises over the mountains, loses its moisture, and warms as it descends to the prairies
11. Shallow areas form around a continent’s edges are known as
A. a continental shelf
C. a mid-ocean ridge
B. an ocean trench
D. volcanic islands
Answer Key:
Unit A
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
Unit B
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
Unit C
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. A
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. D
24. D
25. C
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. D
30. A
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
A
C
D
A
C
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. B
Unit D
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. D
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. A
29. D
30. A
Unit E
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. A
18