Download Systems I Study Guide No Answers

SYSTEMS I TEST STUDY GUIDE
Updated 29 OCT 2010 to include electrical section.
INTRODUCTION (4/6)
1. The UH-60 (Blackhawk) is a _____, single rotor, semi-monocoque stressed skin constructed fuselage,
rotary wing helicopter.
2. The _____ is a fully articulated, four blade, main rotor head, consisting of four subsystems; main rotor
blades, hub, flight controls and the bifilar vibration absorber.
3. A rigid crossbeam, two blade, four paddle tail rotor system provides _____.
4. The helicopter has a conventional, ______ landing gear consisting of two main gear assemblies and a tail
wheel assembly.
5. The 20 degree canted tail rotor also provides _____ of the total lifting force in a hover.
6. Design weight is _____.
7.An _____ is located in the nose of the aircraft.
8. The deck load limit is ____ per square foot.
9. Maximum capacity for each storage compartment is _____.
10. The hydraulic accumulator and hand pump in the aft midsection cabin ceiling provide the hydraulic
pressure for driving the _____.
11. The tail wheel can be locked in a trail position by a TAIL WHEEL switch in the cockpit lower console
miscellaneous switch panel indicating _____.
12. A high-rate discharge fire extinguishing system provides a two-shot, main and reserve (2 fire bottles)
capability to either main engine compartment or _____ compartment.
13. Each engine platform is capable of supporting a static weight of _____ pounds.
14. Two ____, one in front of each pilot on the glare shield contain the following capsules labeled;
MASTER CAUTION PRESS TO RESET (amber), #1 ENG OUT, #2 ENG OUT, FIRE and LOW ROTOR
RPM.
15. The PDU displays the engine power turbine speed (% RPM 1 and 2), rotor speed (% RPM R), and
_____.
16. Each accessory module provides mounting and drive for an _____ and a hydraulic pump package.
17. A drag beam switch (WOW, weight on wheels) is located on the airframe at the _____ attaching point.
18. When releasing the parking brakes with the main rotor turning, ensure pressure is applied to _____
pedals.
19. Emergency exits are displayed in the operator’s manual, chapter 9, fig _____.
What parts of the aircraft can be jettisoned?
What is the minimum crew required for flight?
What is the basic weight and the maximum gross weight (modified)?
What is the fuel load?
The emergency equipment consists of?
The Slab battery has a life of ___ day ___night @ ____% charge.
The stabilator provides ____.
Do you have to open the drive shaft covers to inspect the tail rotor drive shafts? No
The APU has what kind of starter?
ENG out light illuminates at ___
low rotor illuminates at____
fuel low light illuminates at
The engine is divided into 4 modules ___, ___, ___, ___.
The tail rotor spins ___.
At design weight (16,825 lbs), (two stage) struts should prevent the fuselage from contacting the ground
when landing at approximately ____.
The forward tub structures have ___________ under the cockpit floor.
The fuselage may be broken down into how many sections?
How many pitot tubes and where?
What is the APU hydraulic accumulator(s) used for?
Energy absorbing pilot seats are ballistic tolerant against what?
The AFCS(automatic flight control system) does what?
Two accessory modules drive what?
ENGINE (9/12)
20. TGT and ____ can be the best cockpit instruments used for identifying, and reacting to engine
malfunctions.
21. A gearbox that mechanically drives engine accessory components, every ____ component is driven
relative to NG speed.
22. Keep in mind that operational knowledge of the engine and its instruments revolves around the
understanding of the two main operational sections of _____, which operate within the four modules.
23. Power turbine speed (Np) drives the _____.
24. The oil temperature detector, or sensor, transmits oil temperature to the cockpit (CDU via SDC), the
“Eng. Oil temp” caution light illuminates at ____.
25. The alternator forwards an Ng signal to the cockpit (CDU via SDC), and supplies electrical power to
the _____.
26. The speed switch commands the starter valve to open until the Ng speed reaches a minimum of 52%
Ng. _____, the start valve will close extinguishing the starter caution light.
27. When engine is controlled with the ENG POWER CONT lever in ____, engine response is much faster
and TGT limiting system is inoperative. Care must be taken not to exceed _____ in operating range.
28. Pulling _____on the PCL activates the abort start switch.
29. To accomplish a cross bleed start, the running engine should be at 90 % Ng with the RPM R at 100%,
and the engine anti-ice advisory light _____.
30. Minimum oil pressure is 20 PSI below _____ or 35 PSI above _____.
31. The alternator powers all essential _____ functions.
32. When alternator power is absent (alternator failure) all ECU circuits except _____ protection and the
history data feed are rendered inoperative.
33. Pilot authority to adjust the Np reference is limited to ____ rpm 1 or 2, with the pilot side switch having
authority should both switches be actuated at the same time.
34. The Np O/S protection activates when the Np speed exceeds 22,200 RPM (_____).
35. The _____ mechanically positions Variable geometry (VG) linkage.
36. If an ECU malfunction causes an un-commanded power reduction as low as idle (low side failure), the
pilot can reclaim lost power through_____.
37. The POU has _____ functions: sequences start fuel to two primer nozzles, sequences main fuel to
twelve main fuel injectors, purges start and main fuel manifolds and nozzles/injectors, and fuel flow cut
back to provide NP O/S protection IAW the ECU input.
38. The _____ ANTI-ICE ON light is illuminated via a thermal switch inside the inlet when the inlet
temperature reaches 93 degrees C.
39. The Anti-ice start bleed valve (AISBV) in the open position will make the _____ advisory appear.
Eng Anti-ice and eng inlet anti-ice are ____ activated, will come on automatically if ___is lost, and result
in ____ loss MTA.
Oil use is what?
The bleed function of the AISBV is controlled solely by the _____.
The AISBV opening/closing point occurs typically at about ____ or between ____Ng.
Ng has ___ stage axial and ___ stage centrifugal compressor, driven by __ stage gas generator (GG)
turbine.
P2.5 air is used for what?
The HMU 3 main functions are?
What does the IPS (inlet particle separator) do?
Compressed air originates from 4 sources, what are they?
When is TGT limiting not operational?
What is required for a cross bleed start?
The oil pump has how many elements?
The oil tack holds _____ quarts.
Minimum oil press is ___ psi below ___ Ng or ___ psi above ___Ng. When temp reaches ____ eng oil
temp caution light illuminates.
The ECU has ___ functions.
When alternator fails, all ECU circuits except what are inop?
Fuel pressure sensor trips at ___psi.
Engine driven fuel boost pump has ___ to ___ output.
The HMU is mounted to and _____ by the ____.
The HMU has __ functions?
Three primary HMU function affecting adjustment of fuel flow via metering valve.
TQ motor accepts three inputs?
If the alternator supply providing the Ng signal is interrupted, a loss of the cockpit ____ will occur causing
the respective ______ and the _____.
If the alternator fails completely, what will be the indications?
FLIGHT CONTROLS AND HYDRAULICS (11/16)
40. The _____ combines, sums and couples cyclic collective and yaw inputs.
41. The four functions of the MMU are _____.
42. The first or second stage primary servo pressure caution lights will appear if there is a _____.
43. When the pressure drops below _____ the switch illuminates the SAS off caution light.
44. The tail rotor servo is a two stage component and ____ is pressurized at any one time.
45. In the event both cables break, this spring places the pilot valve in a position that gives a positive pitch
of ____ in the tail rotor if there is a pressurized tail rotor servo.
46. The two micro switches illuminate the tail rotor quadrant caution light if one of the ____ breaks.
47. Under normal operation, the first stage tail rotor servo is pressurized by the first stage hydraulic system
and the back-up pump can pressurize it, when the #1 pump fails. The second stage tail rotor servo is
pressurized by the ____.
48. The low level sensing switch will close the circuit and illuminate the #1, #2 and/or back-up pump ____
light on the caution/advisory panel ( _________ remaining).
49. A Back-up pump thermal switch is incorporated that limit’s the motors ground operation to 165 +- 5
degrees C. The switch is _____ in flight by the drag beam switch.
50. The ____ valve is electrically connected to the back-up pump and it’s purpose is to unload the AC
motor on the back-up pump during the start cycle.
51. The ____ shuts off flow to the accumulator if flow rate exceeds 1.5 GPM.
52. The ____ will recharge the accumulator regardless of what position the back-up pump switch is in.
53. The ____ in the transfer module will isolate a leaking #1 or #2 pump.
54. Electrical interlock ensures both____ can’t isolate both PRI SVO stages.
55. The back-up pump motor is a _____.
The MMU does what?
What are the three interchangeable primary main rotor servo assemblies?
These servos are ______ tolerant.
The trim actuators are controlled by the SAS 2 / FPS computer trip program which is activated by the
_____ and ___________.
The pitch trim actuator is part of the pitch trim assemble and is a ________ actuator operated in
conjunction with the SAS/FPS computer.
The pitch boost servo does what?
The pilot assist consists of what?
The hydraulic pump filter indicator buttons will pop at _____?
What does the LDI do?
What does the transfer valve do?
How can the pilot isolate a leak?
What is unique about the backup hydraulic pump?
When is the APU accumulator low?
When the main rotor is turning, what do the #1 and #2 hydraulic pumps supply?
Each pump has a what?
The return filter has a bypass capability, should the differential pressure reach ____.
The pitch trim servo is unique, why?
What supplies hydraulic pressure to flight controls when on ground, main rotors not turning?
What 4 cautions and 1 advisory turn on the backup pump when ac power available?
Is there priority between the pilot and copilot SVO off switches?
Can the #1 and #2 Primary SVOs be isolated simultaneously?
Hydraulic fluid levels may be up to ____ into the overfill zone when fluid is hot.
What should be noted regarding the labels on the hydraulic pumps?
The hydraulic pumps can be replenished using what?
AFCS (7/10)
56. Purpose of the ____ is to enhance the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter.
57. The SAS enhances ____ stability in pitch roll and yaw axes.
58. Two _____ receive airspeed, collective stick position, pitch rate and lateral acceleration information to
program the stabilator through the dual electric ____.
59. The test button is operational at airspeeds below ____ knots and is used to ground check the ______
system.
60. The #1 STAB actuator can be moved with battery power via the _____.
61. Both SAS together have 10% control authority, a single SAS system has _____%.
62. The yaw trim actuator and electric collective to airspeed to yaw coupling has maximum effect below
____ knots, no effect above ____ knots.
63. Digital AFCS _____, work in the pitch, roll and yaw axes.
64. FPS will attempt to hold attitude in pitch and roll, also heading in yaw above and below 60 knots. But
above 60 knots in the pitch and yaw FPS also provides _____.
65. Stabilator automatic function provides streamlining, collective compensation, angle of incidence
(variable) _____ and pitch rate feedback.
The stabilator control system provides the helicopter with stability in the _____ by controlling the position
of the horizontal stabilator.
The AFCS provides the helicopter with _____ and _____ stability.
The stabilator is programmed to do what?
The limits of the Stabilator are?
How many actuators service the stabilator?
Auto mode disengages if positions disagree by what?
If SAS 1 has failed will there be an indication?
The AFCS is comprised of 4 functions, what are they?
Which SAS has self-diagnostic capabilities?
SAS 1 is controlled by and receives signal from what?
SAS 2 is controlled by and receives signal from what?
The FPS system provides __________ rate dampening in the pitch, roll and yaw axes.
When the FPS is coupled with trim it has _____ control authority.
The anti-ice inlet turns on at what temp?
What does the #1Conv and #2Conv cautions indicate?
What cautions/advisories will be left if pilot takes no action when the #1 PRI SVO caution appears?
Electrical (4/6)
If the GEN BRG caution light stays on longer than _____, make an entry on the DA Form 2408-13-1
The _____________’s purpose is to control voltage output and provide circuit protection.
The APU GEN can provide power to all equipment on board except with the _______________ online at
the same time.
APU GEN ON advises you the the APU generator is the ___________ of AC power at the AC Primary
Busses
GCU’s under-frequency protection is disabled in flight by the ____________
If the aircraft does not receive AC power once the external power switch is in the ON position, move the
switch to _____________________, resetting the external power monitor panel
In acft with SLAB installed, the battery low sensing relay will illuminate the BATTERY LOW CHARGE
light at _______________
If you have both __________________________________ caution lights illuminated, you lose converted
DC power to the #1 and #2 Primary Busses
__________________________________________________________________________ are the 6 lights
that appear when the battery is turned on
The _____________________________ convert 3 phase AC to 200amp/28vdc