Download Comprehensive Review Flashcards

Comprehensive Review Flashcards
How many chromosomes are in the nucleus of a
typical diploid cell?
Each gamete (ovum or sperm) has how many
chromosomes?
What is the name for a group of cells, usually
similar, which share a particular function?
What is an organ made of ?
What part of the hair follicle is the site of hair
growth and the location of the melanocytes that
determine hair color?
What are the layers of the epidermis and give a
brief description of each
Describe 3 types of most common cancer in the
USA.
What is the major risk factor for all three?
Which one almost never metastasizes?
Which one is the most metastatic?
Characterize types of burns.
Which one is most serious?
What is the medical term for thick, red, painful
scars?
46
23 because ½ come from our mothers (0vum) and ½ from our
fathers (sperm)
TISSUE: A group of cells, usually similar, which share a particular
function.
Each ORGAN is made up of one or more tissues.
Hair matrix





Stratum corneum (most superficial layer of epidermis)
Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin)
Stratum granulosum (cells start to die here)
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale (the deepest layer of epidermis; cells are
reproducing only here)
SKIN CANCER
This is the most common cancer in the USA, and its major risk factor
is exposure to ultraviolet light.
1) BASAL CELL CARCINOMA: Cancer of the blood vessels.
Almost never metastasizes or crosses the basement
membrane
Looks like shiny nodules
2) SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
25% of all cancers
Will metastasize if not treated.
3) MELANOMA: cancer of the melanocytes of the epidermis
Highly metastatic.
Asymmetrical, sharp but irregular borders and edges
Not uniform in color.
FIRST DEGREE: Minor burn to the epidermis; sunburn
SECOND DEGREE: Dermis separates from epidermis; blister
THIRD DEGREE: Hypodermis is burned. (most severe type of burn)
Keloid
What is an enlargement of the lining of blood vessels,
and is treated with lasers?
Hemangioma
What is the rare autosomal dominant disorder of
melanocyte development, causing a congenital
white patch of hair
What is the shaft of a long bone called?
What type of bone does it contain?
What are the ends of a long bone called?
What type of bone do they contain?
Piebaldism
Diaphysis
Contains compact bone
Epiphysis
Spongy (cancellous) bone
1
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
What is the term for rickets caused by lack of
vitamin D?
What is the term for dwarfism, the type that has
larger heads and hands than is proportionate?
What is the term for cartilage rubbing off under
the patella
What type of fracture is when the skin is not
broken?
What type of fracture is when the bone breaks
through the skin?
How is a fracture described when only one side
of the bone has broken?
How is a fracture described when both sides of
the bone have broken?
What is the difference between a displaced and
non-displaced fracture?
Name 8 types of fractures.
Which type is the most serious? Least serious?
Which type is most common in children?
What is it called when the hip bone breaks from
osteoporosis, and then the patient falls?
What are the three classifications of joints?
Give examples of each
What are the three types of joint movement?
What type of movement does a fibrocartilage
(symphysis) joint have?
What type of movement does a hyaline cartilage
Osteomalacia
Achondroplasia
Chondromalacia
Simple (closed)
Compound (open)
Incomplete
Complete
Describes whether or not the bone fragments are lined up in a
complete fracture.
TYPES OF FRACTURES
COMMINUTED: The most serious; bone shatters into many small
pieces. Bone graft might be needed.
SPIRAL: Bone was twisted.
GREENSTICK: most common in children
COMPRESSION: bone is crushed, like the vertebrae in osteoporosis.
STRESS: least serious, get tiny, almost invisible breaks.
COMPOUND FRACTURES: Bone breaks and goes through skin.
Increased chance of infections, which can be life-threatening.
SIMPLE FRACTURES: Skin is not broken.
PATHOLOGICAL FRACTURE: When the bone (especially the hip bone
of someone with osteoporosis) breaks first, then the patient falls.
1) Fibrous Joints: Fibrous connective tissue (dense regular CT)
Example is suture, tooth, ligament
2) Cartilaginous Joints:
a) Fibrocartilage (vertebral discs, pubic symphysis)
b) Hyaline cartilage, no capsule (epiphyseal plate, costal cart)
3) Synovial: Hyaline cartilage with a capsule
 Synarthrotic
 immoveable, allows no movement
 Amphiarthrotic
 allows only limited movement
 Diarthrotic
 freely moveable
Amphiarthrotic (slightly moveable)
Synarthrotic (no movement)
2
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
(synchondrosis) joint have?
In the knee joint, what are the main ligaments
that keep the knee from moving medially to
laterally?
What is a sprain?
What is a strain?
SKELETAL MUSCLE
 For skeletal muscle to contract, what
chemical is released from the neuron?
 Where is this chemical released onto?
 What mineral is also needed for muscle
contraction?
 What is the nerve signal called?
the collateral ligaments
A tear in a ligament
A tear in a muscle
 For skeletal muscle to contract, a neuron must first release a
chemical called acetylcholine onto the region known as the
endplate.
 Calcium is also needed for muscle contraction.
 The nerve signal is called an ACTION POTENTIAL.
a group of muscle fibers, surrounded by
perimysium.
MUSCLE FASCIA
a single muscle cell
MUSCLE FIBER
a long organelle inside a muscle fiber
MYOFIBRIL
the lowest level of organization that is composed
of actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin
proteins.
MYOFILAMENTS
What are the two types of myofilaments?
there are two types: actin (with troponin and tropomyosin) and
myosin.
 The myosin heads of the thick filaments attach like hooks to
the thin actin filaments at both ends of the sacromere and
pull the thin filaments toward the center of the sacromere.
 Cross-bridges
What happens to the myosin and actin filaments
when sacromere contact?
The sites where the myosin heads hook onto the
actin are called what?
TROPONIN and TROPOMYOSIN cover which
myofilament when muscle is RELAXED?
 TROPONIN is a complex of three proteins.
 TROPOMYOSIN is a single protein.
What nerve controls the contraction rate of the
diaphragm?
What is the storage form of ATP?
 Both troponin and tropomyosin cover the ACTIN filament
when the muscle is relaxed.
Phrenic nerve
Creatine phosphate
3
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
What is muscular dystrophy caused by?
BONE CELLS
 What is the immature bone cell that
makes bone?
MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY
Genetic lack of the protein DISTROPHIN.
The muscle cell won’t contract.
 Osteoblast (makes bone)
 What is a mature bone cell called?
 Osteocyte (mature bone cell)
 What bone cell breaks down bone and
reabsorbs it?
 Osteoclast (reabsorbs bone)
 What is the term for a bone infection?
 Osteomyelitis
 What is the little cave called where
mature bone cells are?
 Lacunae (where bone cells live)
 What are the tiny channels that allow
osteocytes to transport nutrients and
waste to each other?
 Canaliculi (allow for transport of nutrients and wastes)
 What are the rings in an osteon called?
What are the three main kinds of arthritis?
 Lammellae (rings)
ARTHRITIS
Which one is a chronic disorder of joints in which
the articular cartilages degenerate and bony
spurs form?
OSTEOARTHRITIS: common in older people. The articular cartilage
begins to break down, and bone spurs start to grow.
Which one is an autoimmune disease?
Which one is caused by cartilage destruction by
uric acid crystals?
What glial cell makes myelin sheaths in the CNS?
What glial cell makes myelin sheaths in the PNS?
What does myelin do?
What disease is caused by an autoimmune
disease which destroys the myelin sheaths of
nerves?
What is the main sensory nerve of the face?
When damaged, what is it called?
What is the main motor nerve of the face?
RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: It’s an autoimmune disease where body
attacks and destroys the cartilage in synovial joints. It is NOT known
for having spurs, like osteoarthritis.
GOUTY ARTHRITIS (gout). Caused by eating too much red meat or
protein. The breakdown product is urea, and acid, which causes uric
acid crystals in the cooler areas of the body, especially big toes.
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells
Speeds up the action potential by jumping from one node of Ranvier
(bare area) to another.
MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS is an autoimmune disease where the myelin
sheaths are destroyed.
CN V (Trigeminal nerve)
Trigeminal neuralgia
CN VII (Facial nerve)
4
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
When it shows intermittent signs of damage,
what is it called?
Someone with a damaged facial nerve can not
easily taste sweet, sour, or salty substances has
damage to which nerve?
Which cranial nerves carry information from the
baroreceptors in the head and neck to the
brainstem?
What is the only cranial nerve to innervate
structures in the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic
cavities?
Which structure develops from an embryonic
pouch that grows upward from the ectoderm of
the pharynx?
What region of the brain contains a precise map
of the different body parts? What is this map
called?
Why are the hands, tongue, and face region of the
homunculus so large?
What is a collection of axons inside the central
nervous system called?
What does a visceral nerve innervate?
What does a somatic nerve innervate?
What is hydrocephaly?
Meningitis?
Encephalitis?
What are the two special regions in auditory
association area?
What region of the brain allows for speech?
What is the condition of not being able to speak?
What region of the brain allows understanding of
words?
Damage to the ulnar nerve results to what?
Bell’s palsy
CN VII (Facial nerve)
Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves carry information from the
baroreceptors in the head and neck to the brainstem.
Vagus nerve
Adenohypophysis

Pre-central gyrus. This map is called a motor homunculus
(Latin: little man)
The face region of the homunculus is large so we can have many
facial expressions. The hands and tongue are large, indicating that we
have many fine motor skills in those areas as well.
A TRACT is a collection of axons inside the central nervous system.
A visceral nerve innervates involuntary effectors (smooth muscles in
organs).
A somatic nerve innervates voluntary effectors (skeletal muscle).
HYDROCEPHALY
This is usually congenital, caused by a blockage of the cerebral
aqueduct. So the CSF is made but can’t leave, and the brain gets
expanded.
MENINGITIS
This is when the meninges become infected. Can be caused from
virus (not that bad) or bacteria (can be fatal). The main symptom is
a headache.
ENCEPHALITIS
This is infection of the brain. It can be caused by mosquito-borne
illnesses, or bacteria. Treatment is to remove a piece of the skull
bone to allow the swelling.
Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s area
Broca’s Area
Aphasia
Wernicke’s area
Clawhand
5
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
What is the consequence of a median nerve
injury?
What is the result of a radial nerve injury?
What is sciatica?
What is a neuroma?
Damage to which nerve is Carpal Tunnel
Syndrome?
What eye disorder is when the lens cannot
accommodate?
Carpel Tunnel Syndrome (Hand of Benediction)
Wrist-drop (waiter’s hand)
SCIATICA
Inflamed sciatic nerve
NEUROMA
Inflamed nerve in the ball of the foot
Often caused from wearing high heels
MEDIAN NERVE: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
PRESBYOPIA (“old eyes”). Occurs around age 45-50. The lens cannot
accommodate.
What eye disorder is when the lens clouds?
What eye disorder is a medical emergency?
CATARACTS. Clouding of the lens.
RETINAL DETACHMENT: medical emergency!
What eye disorder is far sightedness?
HYPEROPIA (far-sighted) eyes are too short;
What eye disorder is nearsightedness?
MYOPIA (nearsighted)
What eye disorder is when the cornea has an
irregular shape?
ASTIGMATISM is when the cornea has an irregular shape.
What eye disorder is the most common cause of
blindness in the USA?
MACULAR DEGENERATION: the most common cause of blindness in
the US.
What eye disorder is common in diabetics?
DIABETIC RETINOPATHY: the high sugar levels destroy the
photoreceptors in the retina.
What eye disorder is increased pressure of the
anterior chamber of the eye?
What is Inflammation of the semi-circular canals,
causing dizziness?
Hematocrit is a value describing the ratio of ____
to _____
GLAUCOMA: increased pressure within the anterior chamber of the
eye. It leads to blindness.
VERTIGO
Gives you a sense of motion when you’re not moving = (dizziness).
The hematocrit is the ratio of packed red blood cells to total blood
volume.
What is the normal hematocrit value?
Name the blood diseases:
Normal is 46% for men and 38% for women.
BLOOD DISEASES
The blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is
diminished
ANEMIA is when the blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is
diminished. It can be caused by blood loss, deficiency in iron, B12, or
folic acid, RBC destruction, or a genetic defect of hemoglobin in the
RBCs.
6
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
Three of the causes of anemia
CAUSES OF ANEMIA: lack of iron, hemorrhage, lack of vitamin B12
Cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs
LEUKEMIA is cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs.
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing target
cells, teardrops, spherocytes
THALASSEMIA is a form of anemia. The RBCs have abnormal
hemoglobin.
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing sickled
erythrocytes. This anemia esp. common in
Africans
SICKLE CELL DISEASE is present in African Americans more than in
other groups, and is always characterized by sickled erythrocytes.
Too few platelets
THROMBOCYTOPENIA: too few platelets, and blood doesn’t clot
properly.
Blood clot in a vessel
THROMBUS is a blood clot in a vessel.
A clot that breaks off and travels in the blood
stream
What is immunotherapy?
EMBOLIS is a thrombus that travels in the blood stream.
Which heart chamber is responsible for
generating the largest pressure upon contraction?
What causes the heart to beat?
Left ventricle generates the largest pressure upon contraction.
A form of cancer treatment that takes blood cells from a patient and
fuses the blood with an antibody that is specifically designed to seek
out and destroy the cancer cell.
The heart does not need a nerve to stimulate it to contract, rather,
specialized heart cells can spontaneously start an action potential that
spreads to depolarize the rest of the cardiac muscle cells.
7
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
Picture of heart depolarization structures
Describe the path that an action potential takes
during depolarization of the heart.
What is the term for the period when the
ventricles are contracting?
What is the term for the period when the
ventricles are relaxing?
At which stage do the atria contract?
Name the heart disease:
Inflamed outer layer of the heart
1. First the Sinoatrial (SA) node starts an action potential which
causes the atria to depolarize.
2. This depolarization will then reach the AV node at the bottom
portion of the right atrium and there is a delay here because these
cells are so small in diameter.
3. Another delay in the transmission of the depolarization at the
bundle of His (AV bundle) because these special heart cells
travel through the atrioventricular septum which is nonconductive fibrous connective tissue.
Next, the depolarizing event travels through the left and right bundle
branches, found in the interventricular septum, to finally arrive at the
Purkinje fibers in the ventricular myocardium.
Systole
Diastole
Diastole
HEART DISORDERS
PERICARDITIS: inflamed outer layer of heart.
Bacteria enters the bloodstream and lodges in
the heart
ENDOCARDITIS: Bacteria enter bloodstream, lodges in heart
Leaky heart valve is what?
HEART MURMUR: The valve leaks
What valve is most likely to prolapse?
MITRAL VALVE is most likely to prolapse
8
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
Problem with SA or AV node, causing improper
heart beat
ARRHYTHMIA = problem with the SA or AV node à improper heart
beat. Treatment is medicines or a pacemaker.
Pain caused by deficient blood delivery to the
heart wall
ANGINA PECTORIS = pain from not enough blood to the heart wall
Complete blockage of a coronary artery
MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION = Complete blockage of a coronary
artery
Heart disease from eating fatty food
ATHEROSCLEROSIS is caused from eating fatty food
Ventricles contract with rapid, random motions
VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION: (the ventricles are unable to pump
blood efficiently due to rapid, random contraction of cardiac muscle
fibers).
Progressive weakening of the heart
Name these heart disease treatments.
CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE is progressive weakening of the heart
as it fails to keep up with the demands of pumping blood.
HEART DISORDERS – treatment
Surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery
Angioplasty is a surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery.
Medicine that reduces blood clot formation
Aspirin reduces blood clot formation.
Medicine that dilates coronary arteries
Nitroglycerine dilates the coronary arteries so more blood can get
in.
Coronary bypass: Take another blood vessel graft (from thigh) and
go around the blockage.
Surgery that takes a blood vessel graft (from
thigh) to go around a blockage
Failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth
Which vein is often used to bypass a damaged
coronary artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is
the most likely vein to become varicose anyway?
Patent Foramen ovale: A ‘blue baby” has low oxygen levels in the
blood that may be due to failure of the foramen ovale to close at
birth.
SAPHANOUS VEIN is often used to bypass a damaged coronary
artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is the most likely vein to
become varicose anyway.
The “danger triangle” of the face can spread
infection into the dural sinuses of the brain by
way of which vein?
FACIAL VEIN: squeezing pimples, and nose piercings in the “danger
triangle” of the face can spread infection through the facial vein into
the dural sinuses of the brain.
9
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
Name the lymph disorder
1) Cancer of the lymph nodes; many
enlarged lymph nodes that do not feel
tender
DISORDERS OF LYMPH SYSTEM
Hodgkins disease: Cancer of the lymph nodes; many enlarged lymph
nodes that do not feel tender
2) Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes
and causes inflammation of lymph
vessels.
Mononucleosis: Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes and causes
inflammation of lymph vessels.
3) Accumulation of excess tissue fluid in
loose connective tissue
EDEMA is the accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connective
tissue.
4) Lymph vessel inflammation; usually from
infection
Lymphangitis: lymph vessel inflammation; usually from infection.
5) An infected lymph node that contains a
large number of pathogens that are
trapped in the node but not destroyed
Name respiratory disorder
BUBO is an infected lymph node that contains a large number of
pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed.
RESPIRATORY DISORDER
1) Inflamed vocal cords
LARYNGITIS: inflamed vocal cords (↓ sound production).
2)
ASTHMA: In allergic conditions, bronchioles will constrict, blocking
air flow to the lungs.
In allergic conditions, bronchioles will
constrict, blocking air flow to the lungs.
3) The #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer
LUNG CANCER: the #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer.
4) Lack of surfactant in premature babies
RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME: lack of surfactant in
premature babies
5) The rubbing together of inflamed pleural
membranes that produces a stabbing
pain in the chest
PLEURISY is the rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranes
that produces a stabbing pain in the chest.
6) Collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura
PNEUMOTHORAX: collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura
When you are advised to get flu shots for this
year’s strain of flu virus, but you do not get the
shot and then you get the flu, this flu is actually
what?
What three features is Mononucleosis
characterized by?
INFLUENZA
1) Inflammation of lymph vessels
2) Painful lymph nodes
3) Infection of B-lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus
10
Comprehensive Review Flashcards
Inspiration – what muscles produce inspiration?
What is inflammation of the bronchi called?
What respiratory conditions is loss of elastic
tissue on the bronchioles and alveoli, which
collapse now during exhalation
What condition is characterized by a person with
a large, “barrel” chest?
Bacteria eat away at the enamel
If the cavity extends into the pulp cavity.
Bacteria cause inflammation of the gums
What is the major cause of tooth loss, and how
does it occur?
Bacterial infection that erodes the stomach lining
a small pouch in the large intestine becomes
inflamed
inflammation of the colon
The #1 most deadly cancer because it
metastasizes with no symptoms. It can be
diagnosed by seeing blood in the stool.
Used to looks for POLYPS, which are precancerous growths.
varicose veins along the rectum
Infection of the liver
Liver cells die; often from alcoholism
This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver
disorder. It first shows up as a yellow color in the
sclera of the eye because it is white there.
Which cells in the Stomach secrete hydrochloric
acid and digestive enzymes which kill bacteria?
Which vitamin requires an Intrinsic Factor in
order to be absorbed?
Lack of B12 causes what disorder?
What do Chief Cells secrete?
The diaphragm and the external intercostals are the muscle group that
produces inspiration.
Bronchitis
Emphysema (a form of COPD)
Emphysema (a form of COPD)
CAVITY (cary)
ROOT CANAL
GINGIVITIS
PERIODONTITIS gingiva pulls away from the tooth and extends
down to the periodontal ligament.
GASTRIC ULCER
DIVERTICULITIS
COLITIS
COLON CANCER
COLONOSCOPY
HEMORRHOIDS
HEPATITIS: Infection of the liver = (can be deadly)
CIRRHOSIS: liver cells die; often from alcoholism.
JAUNDICE: This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver disorder. It
first shows up as a yellow color in the sclera of the eye because it is
white there.
PARIETAL CELLS
Vitamin B-12
Pernicious (megaloblastic) Anemia
Chief cells secrete an enzyme called Pepsinogin. When Pepsinogin is
exposed to hydrochloric acid, it is cleaved into PEPSIN, it’s active
form. Pepsin digests proteins.
11