Download Environmental Science – Fall 2010

Environmental Science – Spring 2010 – Wednesday Class
Practice Final Exam
Part I. The Practice Midterm Questions from the Learning Web
Part II. The following questions.
1. On a population growth curve, the _____________________ phase results in the same
percentage increase each year.
A. lag
B. deceleration
C. stable equilibrium
D. exponential growth
2. The human population growth curve is currently in which phase?
A. death phase
B. lag phase
C. stable equilibrium
D. exponential growth
3. In a bacterial growth curve, the population follows a typical growth curve until
A. waste products become lethal.
B. raw materials are depleted.
C. they encounter a lag phase.
D. there is predation.
4. Ecologists refer to the maximum sustainable population for an area as
A. exponential growth.
B. lag phase.
C. carrying capacity.
D. None of these are correct.
5. In the real world, many organisms don't "fit" clearly into either the r-strategist or K-strategist
category for
A. population reproductive strategies.
B. human growth factors.
C. population growth curves.
D. intrinsic reproduction.
6. A measure of the land area required to provide the resources and absorb the wastes of a
population is referred to as the
A. ecological footprint.
B. ecological impact.
C. human impact.
D. human dependant footprint.
7. Which organism is affected the most by the accumulation of waste?
A. humans
B. plants
C. small rodents
D. bacteria
8. K-strategists are
A. large and long-lived.
B. small and long-lived.
C. controlled by density-dependent factors.
D. large and short-lived.
E. large and long-lived and controlled by density-dependent factors.
F. None of these are correct.
9. The shift from using wood as a source of fuel to coal was caused
A. by a decline in local supplies of wood.
B. the start of World War I.
C. an increase in wood prices.
D. a decrease in coal prices.
10. The remains of plants, animals, and microorganisms is commonly referred to as
A. wood.
B. compost.
C. fossil fuel.
D. organic fuel.
11. OPEC began in September of
A. 1990.
B. 1960.
C. 1975.
D. 2001.
12. Which country is NOT a member of OPEC?
A. Nigeria
B. U.S.
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Kuwait
13. When Iraq invaded Kuwait in 1990,
A. oil prices rose.
B. oil prices dropped.
C. oil supply rose.
D. oil demand dropped.
14. The sharp decline in U.S. oil consumption in 1973 and 1979 was the result of
A. mandatory conservation.
B. a drop in reserves.
C. OPEC price increase.
D. war with Kuwait.
15. How much of the world's oil reserve is controlled by OPEC?
A. 100%
B. 29%
C. 50%
D. 78%
16. Which country has the highest per capita energy use for transportation?
A. India
B. Mexico
C. Japan
D. United States
17. Almost all electrical energy is produced as a result of
A. burning fossil fuels.
B. nuclear power.
C. hydroelectric power.
D. geothermal power.
18. Which fossil fuel is the most abundant?
A. oil
B. natural gas
C. coal
D. All of the choices are equally abundant.
19. Ethanol is produced through the fermentation of
A. sugarcane.
B. wheat.
C. sugar beet.
D. corn.
E. All of these are correct.
F. Only sugarcane and corn are correct.
G. None of these are correct.
20. Large accumulations of decayed plant materials form which of the following resources?
A. oil
B. natural gas
C. methane gas
D. coal
21. Which of the following processes involves removing materials from the top of a vein of coal
to get to the coal beneath?
A. surface mining
B. underground mining
C. acid mine drainage
D. secondary recovery
22. Acid mine drainage occurs when
A. sulfur is released into the atmosphere during mining.
B. oxygen, water, and bacteria cause sulfur to form sulfuric acid.
C. oil is separated in a distillation tower.
D. biomass is burned to generate methane.
23. What is the name of the process whereby a platform with many wells is secured to the ocean
floor?
A. off shore drilling
B. secondary recovery
C. underground mining
D. geothermal extraction
24. Liquefied natural gas is formed
A. by volatilizing hydrocarbons in gasoline.
B. by subjecting natural gas to-162C.
C. on the surface of oil deposits.
D. None of these are correct.
25. Hydroelectric power plants are most commonly located near
A. coal-powered plants.
B. nuclear-power plants.
C. artificial reservoirs.
D. estuaries.
26. The first goal for developing nuclear energy was to
A. produce electricity.
B. test new theories in quantum physics.
C. produce bombs.
D. develop a new energy source.
27. The first controlled nuclear chain reaction occurred at Stag Field in Chicago in 1942 which
lead directly to
A. atomic bombs being dropped on Japan.
B. atomic research.
C. atomic energy stoppage.
D. All of these are correct.
28. One of the greatest terrorism-related nuclear threats is from
A. nuclear power plants.
B. dirty bombs.
C. nuclear warheads.
D. None of these are correct.
29. Uranium mining and milling waste contains low levels of
A. dust.
B. hydrogen sulfide
C. fuel rods.
D. radioactive materials.
30. Public acceptance of nuclear power plants has been declining because of expensive
A. construction costs.
B. cleanup costs.
C. decommissioning costs.
D. All of these are correct.
E. Cleanup costs and decommissioning costs are correct.
31. Which of the following is NOT a part of the nuclear fuel cycle?
A. mining uranium ore
B. gas cooling of the reactor
C. fabricating fuel into fuel rods
D. enriching the uranium ore
32. Waste that consists primarily of various isotopes of plutonium is referred to as
A. nuclear waste.
B. thermal pollution.
C. transuranic waste.
D. gamma radiation.
33. What is the name of the process in which the fuel is removed from a nuclear plant, its
surfaces are cleaned, and people are permanently prevented from coming in contact with the
building?
A. decommissioning
B. demolition
C. nuclear chain reaction
D. nuclear regulation
34. As fission occurs in a nuclear reactor the concentration of U-235 atoms
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains constant.
D. converts to plutonium atoms.
35. The number one cause of extinction is
A. introduction of exotic species.
B. over hunting/fishing.
C. habitat fragmentation and loss.
D. persecution of pest organisms.
36. Extinction of a species in one area of its range is called
A. local extinction.
B. total extinction.
C. partial extinction.
D. spatial extinction.
37. The productivity of ecosystems depends on policy choices relating to
A. investment.
B. trade.
C. regulation.
D. All of these are correct.
38. Over the past few hundred years, humans have increased the species extinction rate by as
much as
A. 100 times.
B. 50 times.
C. 1000 times.
D. 10 times.
39. Impact to ecosystems from human activity has sometimes been referred to as
A. "Anthropomorphic ecologies."
B. "Engineered ecologies."
C. "Non-native ecologies."
D. None of these are correct.
40. An individual can help to control the spread of invasive species by
A. becoming informed about the issue.
B. growing native plants.
C. not releasing non-native plants, fish, or other animals into water.
D. All of these are correct.
41. Pollution _____________ with population density.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
42. Genetic diversity is influenced by which of the following?
A. migration
B. mutation
C. sexual reproduction
D. All of these are correct.
43. Which term describes the movement of large plates on the surface of the Earth?
A. lithosphere
B. abrasion
C. plate tectonics
D. mechanical weathering
44. __________ increases the decomposition rate of organic matter.
A. High rainfall
B. Low rainfall
C. Low temperatures
D. High temperatures
45. Which soil profile contains material leached from other horizons?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
46. Land has characteristics that influence how it can be used, including
A. soil, climate, and degree of slope.
B. crops, trees, and shrubs.
C. houses, farms, and commercial buildings.
D. None of these are correct.
47. Soil quality management components include
A. adding massive nutrient loads.
B. excessive tillage.
C. enhancing organic matter.
D. All of these are correct.
48. By avoiding excessive tillage, soil quality is enhanced by
A. minimizing loss of organic matter.
B. adding diverse crops.
C. maximizing soil removal.
D. All of these are correct.
49. What is the importance of humus?
A. It supplies cadmium.
B. It decreases pH.
C. It allows seeds to germinate.
D. It provides a habitat for invertebrates.
50. Organisms affect the soil in which of the following ways?
A. by releasing nutrients
B. by burrowing
C. through decomposition
D. All of these are correct.
51. Which of the following does NOT determine soil fertility?
A. organic matter content
B. diversity of invertebrates
C. water content
D. air spaces
52. Which horizon has the highest amount of organic matter?
A. A
B. B
C. C
53. Soil conservation practices are designed to
A. increase productivity.
B. increase the percentage of grasslands over forests.
C. support international trade.
D. minimize topsoil loss.
54. Water intended for human consumption is referred to as
A. distilled water.
B. artesian water.
C. ground water.
D. drinking water.
55. Unpolluted freshwater supplies are known as
A. approved public water supplies.
B. potable waters.
C. pristine water source.
D. aquifers.
56. The fastest growing drink of choice in many parts of the world is
A. coffee.
B. soda.
C. bottled water.
D. beer.
57. In the United States, two agencies set the drinking water standards one of which is the
A. Department of Transportation.
B. Department of Homeland Security.
C. Department of Labor.
D. Food and Drug Administration.
58. The term used to indicate processes that remove chemicals and pathogens from water is
A. deionized.
B. purified.
C. pasteurized.
D. distilled.
59. What is biochemical oxygen demand?
A. amount of oxygen required to decay a certain amount of organic matter
B. a necessary material that is in short supply
C. method by which settled organic matter is returned to aeration tanks
D. None of these are correct.
60. Water lost through the leaves of plants is called
A. evaporation.
B. evapotranspiration.
C. photosynthesis.
D. diffusion.
61. The process by which the Earth's water cleanses itself through solar evaporation,
precipitation, and infiltration is called
A. evapotranspiration.
B. geologic cycle.
C. hydrologic cycle.
D. overland runoff.
62. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with groundwater mining?
A. saltwater intrusion
B. subsidence
C. exhaustion of water supply
D. loss of wildlife habitat
63. Which of the following is a source of groundwater pollution?
A. increased organic matter
B. thermal pollution
C. agricultural runoff
D. oxygen depletion
64. Which of the following accounts for two-thirds of all human-caused marine oil pollution?
A. runoff from streets
B. improper disposal of lubricating oil
C. discharges during loading and unloading of oil tankers
D. All of these are correct.
65. Which of the following is a source of groundwater contamination?
A. agricultural products
B. septic tanks
C. radioactive disposal sites
D. All of these are correct.
66. Worldwide, what two agricultural practices result in contamination of water?
A. fertilizer and pesticide use
B. creating buffer zones around all streams and ponds on a farm
C. sewage treatment with chlorine and ozone
D. regulation of point-source pollution
67. Which of these is a common contaminant of drinking water?
A. nitrates from fertilizer and manures
B. chlorine from sewage treatment plants
C. oxygen from aquatic animals
D. macroinvertebrates in ripples
68. In the United States, Las Vegas Nevada is one of the fastest growing population centers and
this has resulted in
A. an increase in demand for water.
B. forcing the city to look for water farther away.
C. many people having to move away from the city.
D. Both an increase in demand for water and forcing the city to look for water farther away are
correct.
69. Most large urban areas depend on which of the following for their water supply?
A. large reservoirs
B. rivers
C. groundwater
D. None of these are correct.
70. The upper surface of shallow groundwater is called a(n)
A. water table.
B. aquifer.
C. aquiclude.
D. unconfined aquifer.
71. The porous layer where water accumulates in the ground is called a(n)
A. aquitard.
B. confined aquifer.
C. aquifer.
D. aquiclude.
72. The major consumptive use of water in most parts of the world is for
A. domestic use.
B. agricultural use.
C. in-stream use.
D. industrial use.
73. In the United States and Europe, the top use of water is for
A. industry.
B. agriculture.
C. recreation.
D. drinking water.
74. What two activities use the most water for a typical North American family of four?
A. bathing and cooking
B. dishes and drinking
C. lawns and toilets
D. laundry and car washing
75. The vegetable basket of the United States in central California has what water problem?
A. flooding
B. groundwater depletion
C. excessive use of dams
D. mitigation of wetlands
76. What two land uses result in substantial wetland loss in the United States?
A. rural development and forestry
B. urban development and agriculture
C. national parks and forestry
D. military bases and rangeland grazing
77. Saltwater intrusion occurs when
A. groundwater pumped from wells along the coastline causes saline groundwater to move
inland.
B. saltwater is added to wells.
C. saltwater is added to lakes and ponds.
D. saltwater is pushed upstream by encroaching storms.
78. Which biome is characterized by organisms which are inactive during the day and burrow
underground?
A. tundra
B. taiga
C. rainforest
D. desert
79. The two major factors influencing vegetation in biomes are
A. precipitation and temperature.
B. soil fertility and hydrology.
C. day length and climate.
D. topography and soil type.
80. Mediterranean Shrublands (Chaparral) have been heavily impacted by humans because
A. they are near the oceans.
B. have a moderate climate.
C. both they are near the oceans and have a moderate climate
D. None of these are correct.
81. In a rainforest, most of the sunlight is captured by trees and therefore only
A. small plants grow there.
B. fast growing trees and shrubs grow there.
C. vines can grow underneath them.
D. shade-tolerant plants live beneath the canopy.
82. Oceans cover approximately
A. 40% of the Earth's surface.
B. 50% of the Earth's surface.
C. 60% of the Earth's surface.
D. 70% of the Earth's surface.
83. Which group of organisms forms the base of the energy pyramid in a pelagic marine
ecosystem?
A. plankton
B. zooplankton
C. bacteria
D. sea grass
84. In desert biomes, flowering usually coincides with
A. moisture availability.
B. Santa Anna winds.
C. cool summers.
D. migration of monarch butterflies.
85. Which is an example of secondary succession?
A. bare rock
B. a burned field
C. standing water
D. pure sand
86. Primary succession is
A. a progression that begins with a total lack of organisms.
B. of very short duration.
C. a progression that begins with destruction of an existing ecosystem.
D. All of these are correct.
87. Development and impact on desert areas is mainly due to
A. air conditioning.
B. roads and highways.
C. modern irrigation.
D. None of these are correct.
88. What is the dominant organism colonizing bare rock during primary succession?
A. bacteria
B. algae
C. lichens
D. submergent plants
89. Ecologists have learned that succession is influenced by many factors other than climate
alone including
A. rainfall and temperature patterns.
B. invasive species, disease, human land use history, and seed dispersal.
C. biogeochemical cycles, available oxygen, and superfund sites.
D. slope, wind patterns, and toxicity levels.
90. A floating bog is an example of
A. secondary succession.
B. aquatic primary succession.
C. terrestrial primary succession.
D. None of these are correct.
91. Which of the following is NOT a region in a lake ecosystem?
A. limnetic zone
B. pelagic zone
C. euphotic zone
D. littoral zone
92. What is the term used to describe a shallow, partially enclosed area where freshwater enters
the ocean?
A. coral reef
B. abyssal ecosystem
C. mangrove swamp
D. estuary
93. Seaweed and other attached marine organisms prefer to grow in which of the following
regions?
A. benthic
B. pelagic
C. abyssal
D. neritic
94. You would find a temperate rainforest along the coasts of all of the following states except
A. southern Alaska.
B. northern California.
C. northern British Columbia.
D. northern New York.