Download VTNE post test 2

Name: _____________________
Date: ______________________
VTNE Post Test 2
1. An underjet bite can be a normal occlusion in some dog breeds.
A. True
B. False
2. The number assigned to the upper right canine tooth given the triadian number system would be:
A. 204
B. 104
C. 303
D. 404
3. A Class I malocculsion occurs when one side of the jaw is longer than the other.
A. True
B. False
4. The common term for gingival is
A. Cavity
B. Palate
C. Gums
D. Tongue
5. Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe the tooth surface facing the lips?
A. vestibular
B. buccal
C. labial
D. lingual
6. What is the relationship between plaque and calculus?
A. Bacteria cause plaque; calculus results from harmful by-products of WBC’s as they attempt to
destroy the bacteria.
B. Plaque is another term for calculus
C. Plaque is a white, slippery film that collects around the gingival sulcus and later mineralizes on
the tooth to become calculus.
D. Plaque refers to supragingival food debris and calculus refers to subgingival food debris
7. Hard tissue that makes up the bulk of the tooth is called.
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. Pulp cavity
8. How do you notate a missing tooth on a dental chart?
A. Place an “X” over the missing tooth
B. Circle the missing tooth
C. Write the letter “M” next to the missing tooth
D. Color in the entire missing tooth on the dental chart
9. The tip of the root of the tooth is the:
A. Crown
B. Apex
C. Pulp chamber
D. Nidus
10. Which of the following species has brachyodont teeth?
A. Equine
B. Rabbit
C. Rat
D. Cat
11. Presently, which of the following are examples of canine blood types?
A. A
B. DEA 1.1
C. DEA 1.2
D. both B and C
12. _____ to ______ mLs of blood per kg of body weight may be drawn every three weeks from the canine
donor.
A. 1 to 10 mLs
B. 5 to 10 mLs
C. 10 to 20 mLs
D. 15 to 25 mLs
13. The most common type of fluids used to replace body fluids are:
A. Hypotonic crystalloids
B. Hypertonic crystalloids
C. Isotonic crystalloids
D. Isotonic colloids
14. When the body maintains a dynamic equilibrium, this is called:
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Hematopoiesis
C. Cellular Respiration
D. Homeostasis
15. The QRS complex of the ECG corresponds to:
A. Atrial contraction
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular depolarization
D. Atrial depolarization
16. During polarization, what is pumped out of the cell?
A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Blood
D. Neutrons
17. The canine “universal donor” is:
A. DEA 1.1 positive
B. DEA 1.2 positive
C. DEA 1.1 negative
D. Type A
18. The feline “universal donor” is:
A. DEA 1.1 positive
B. DEA 1.1 negative
C. Type A
D. None of the above
19. The normal pH of the blood is:
A. 6.5-6.8
B. 7.35-7.45
C. 7.45-7.55
D. 7.0-7.25
20. A _____ catheter is used to infuse small volumes of fluid into a vein and is usually in place for only a
few minutes.
A. Butterfly
B. Over-the-needle
C. Through-the-needle
D. Guide-wire
21. The classification of unsegmented worms are referred to as:
A. Cestodes
B. Tapeworms
C. Helminths
D. Nematodes
22. This worm may also be referred to as an ascarid.
A. Tapeworm
B. Hookworm
C. Roundworm
D. Heartworm
23. Which white blood cell has to do with immunity and differentiates into a T-cell or B-cell?
A. Monocyte
B. Basophil\
C. Lymphocyte
D. Macrophage
24. When there is an increase of immature neutrophils circulating in the blood, this is called:
A. A right shift
B. A left shift
C. Degeneration
D. Crenation
25. Which two hormones help to influence glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular
secretion?
A. FSH and ADH
B. LH and ADH
C. Aldosterone and FSH
D. ADH and Aldosterone
26. Urine specific gravity compares the concentration of the solutes in the urine to __________.
A. Light
B. Glucose
C. Water
D. Sodium chloride
27. These substances are formed during the breakdown of lipids.
A. Ketones
B. Nitrites
C. Proteins
D. Glucose
28. MacConkey media selects for this type of bacteria.
A. Gram positives
B. Gram negatives
C. Catalase positives
D. Catalase negatives
29. The stain that causes a red coloration is:
A. Crystal violet
B. Nigrosin
C. Iodine
D. Safarin
30. When performing an oxidase test, an oxidase positive test will turn what color?
A. Red
B. Clear
C. Bubbles will be produced with no color change
D. Purple
31. The acceleration of electrons and their ultimate striking energy is determined by the:
A. Milliamperage (mA)
B. Kilovoltage peak (kVp)
C. Milliamperage-seconds (mAs)
D. Exposure time (time)
32. During an exposure, electrons travel from the:
A. Anode to the cathode
B. Anode to the target
C. Cathode to the anode
D. Cathode to the filament
33. The main purpose of the x-ray developer is to :
A. Clear away unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals
B. Convert the exposed, silver halide crystals into black metallic silver
C. Reduce the silver halide crystals into black metallic silver
D. Swell and soften the emulsion
34. You are looking at a film that is totally clear except for a bit of black that you notice along the edges.
You film has not been.
A. Developed
B. Fixed
C. Developed or fixed
D. Exposed to radiation
35. Sante’s rule states that when setting up a technique chart, you should use what base kVp for the
abdomen?
A. (2 x thickness [cm]) + 100
B. (2 x thickness [cm]) + 40
C. (2 x thickness [in]) + 100
D. (2 x thickness [in]) + 40
36. A radiograph in front of you appears dark. You note that the bones are gray. You are best to do what
for the next radiograph?
A. Decrease kVp
B. Decrease mAs
C. It really does not matter which setting you decrease
D. Increase kVp or mAs
37. The unit of absorbed ionizing radiation is
A. MPD
B. Gray (Gy)
C. Sievert (Sv)
D. Rem
38. The filament of an x-ray tube is the:
A. negative electrode
B. positive electrode
C. area of the anode struck by electrons during an exposure
D. tungsten coil that emits electrons when heated
39. Which of these techniques causes a major increase in scatter radiation?
A. Increasing the kVp
B. Increasing the mA
C. Increasing the time
D. Increasing the focal-film distance
40. What x-ray intensifying screen provides the least detail on the developed film?
A. low speed
B. par speed
C. high speed
D. rare earth
41. The goal of aseptic technique is to:
A. Eliminate pathogens
B. Immunize patients
C. Prevent transmission of infection
D. Isolate the pathogens
42. Acepromazine is contraindicated in animals with:
A. history of seizures
B. liver disease
C. renal disease
D. both A and B
43. What type of drug is used to increase heart rate, decrease salivation and reduce respiratory secretions?
A. Anticholinergics
B. Tranquilizers
C. Opiods
D. Cholinergics
44. Diazepam is:
A. Valium
B. Used in seizuring patients
C. Sometimes used with ketamine as an induction agent
D. All the above
45. Which of the following is considered a crystalloid fluid?
A. Hetastarch
B. Plasma
C. LRS
D. Oxyglobin
46. What types of dogs may be more difficult to intubate because of the anatomy of the soft palate?
A. sight hounds
B. mixed breeds
C. brachiocephalic breeds
D. giant breeds
47. The TPR goes on which part of the SOAP?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
48. Benefits of premedication include:
A. Decrease the amount of general anesthetic needed.
B. patient is calmer and easier to handle before surgery
C. minimizing salivation
D. all the above
49. After intubation, the patient becomes light and begins to chew on the endotracheal tube. When you
listen to the chest, you can hear breathing sounds only on the left side of the chest. What is the most likely
problem?
A. the vaporizer is empty
B. the endotrach tube is in the esophagus
C. the endotracheal tube has been placed too far in and is now only in one bronchus
D. the patient is lying on its right side so you would not expect to hear lung sounds on that side
50. Blue weighs 56 lbs and needs antibiotics. The dose is 5 mg/lb. The amoxicillin comes in 100 mg/ml.
How many mls of amoxicillin are needed for one dose for Blue?
A. 2.2 mLs
B. 1.7 mLs
C. 2.8 mLs
D. 1.9 mLs
51. Drug solutions that are irritating should be given:
A. IM
B. ID
C. IV
D. SC
52. How would you write “one tablet by mouth three times a day”?
A. 1 T PO q 12 h
B. 1 T PO QID
C. 1 T PO q6h
D. I T PO q8h
53. What category of drug stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. Cholinergic
B. Adrenergic
C. Anticholinergic
D. Dopaminergic
54. Pharmacodynamic is the study of:
A. The absorption, blood levels, distribution, and excretion of drugs.
B. How the motion of drugs in the body affects or brings about an effect
C. The mechanisms of action of a drug and its biological and physiological effects
D. The treatment of disease with medicines
55. All of the following groups of antibiotics are bactericidal EXCEPT:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Cephalosporins
56. What is the basic functional unit of animal life?
A. Cells
B. Tissues
C. Organs
D. Epithelium
57. Ions with a net positive charge are called?
A. Cations
B. Catalysts
C. Anions
D. Isotopes
58. The loss or gain of an electron causes an atom to become a (an):
A. Isotope
B. Ion
C. Catalyst
D. Enzyme
59. Hyperadrenocorticism (too much cortical) is called:
A. Addison’s Disease
B. Diabetes
C. Cushing’s Disease
D. Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency
60. The spindle apparatus appears and the nuclear envelope disintegrates during this phase of mitosis:
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Interphase
D. Telophase
61. The toughest and most permanent fiber of the cytoskeleton is the:
A. Intermediate fibers
B. Microfilaments
C. Peripheral proteins
D. Microtubules
62. The changing of genetic information from a nucleotide code to amino acids is called:
A. Transcription
B. Transfer
C. Telophase
D. Translation
63. The spinal cord passes through this opening:
A. Obturator foramen
B. Foramen magnum
C. Nutrient foramina
D. Obturator magnum
64. What is the bone that articulates with the acetabulum and the tibia?\
A. Femur
B. Ulna
C. Radius
D. Fibula
65. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a storage site for:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Calcium
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. ATP
66. Phenothiazine tranquilizers are contraindicated in an animal with:
A. Diabetes
B. Epilepsy
C. Glaucoma
D. Hyperthyroidism
67. A lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary deficiency, by impaired synthesis, or by
impaired absorption of vitamin:
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K
68. An otoscope is an instrument primarily used when examining the:
A. Rectum
B. Throat
C. Ears
D. Eyes
69. A disinfectant that should be used with caution around cats is:
A. Zephron
B. Phenol
C. Nolvasan
D. Alcohol
70. Which of the following parasites is most likely to cause eye damage to a human who becomes
infected?
A. A Toxocara canis larva
B. A Sarcoptes scabiei mite
C. An Ancylostoma caninum larva
D. A Cheyleteiella parasitivorax mite
71. 0.5 kg expressed in grams is?
A. 500 g
B. .05 g
C. 50 g
D. .5 g
72. The order is for 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be
administered?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
73. A rabbit weighs 12 lb and is to be given 0.02 mg/kg of buprenorphine subcutaneously for pain control.
The concentration of the drug is 0.3 mg/ml. How much of the drug should be given?
A. 0.24 mL
B. 0.17 mL
C. 3.6 mL
D. 0.36 mL
74. 1 mL is equivalent to:
A. 1 cc
B. 500 g
C. .01 L
D. None of the above
75. If a 10 lb dog gets ¼ of a tablet of an antibiotic, how many tablets will a 50 lb dog get?
A. 3.75 tablets
B. 3.25 tablets
C. 1.25 tablets
D. 2.25 tablets
76. The term that means “joint pain” is
A. Arthralgia
B. Arthropathy
C. Arthritis
D. Arthrogryposis
77. An animal that suffers from this condition is having difficulty ingesting or swallowing food.
A. Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dystrophy
D. Indigestion
78. The term that refers to making an incision through the abdominal wall is:
A. Laparostomy
B. Enterotomy
C. Enterostomy
D. Laparotomy
79. The term that means “abnormal growth” is:
A. Paresis
B. Hyperplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Dysplegia
80. The term used to describe enlargement of the liver is:
A. Microhepatitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Cholethiasis
81. Proptosis of the globe
A. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
B. Is not considered an emergency
C. Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic-breeds such as collies
D. Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis
82. When a cat is to be castrated, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is
most commonly made in what location?
A. Inguinal
B. Scrotum
C. Prescrotal prepuce
D. Abdominal ventral midline
83. Which of the following forceps has the best crushing action?
A. Rochester-Carmalt
B. Rochester-Pean
C. Ochsner
D. Crile
84. A declaw is also known as an
A. Orchidectomy
B. Onychectomy
C. Ovariohysterectomy
D. Onychotomy
85. The animal is to be prepared for a femoral head ostectomy. What part of the body is prepped?
A. Top of the head
B. Hip
C. Shoulder
D. Lumbar spine
86. Which of the following is not considered a contaminated surgery?
A. Anal sac removal
B. Dental extractions
C. Intestinal anastomosis
D. Gastrotomy
87. Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries?
A. 0
B. 3-0
C. 6-0
D. 10-0
88. What is the proper term for trimming the edges of a jagged tear before suturing?
A. Debridement
B. Decoupage
C. Curettage
D. Cauterization
89. Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissors?
A. Iris
B. Metzenbaum
C. Wire-cutting
D. Mayo-Hegar
90. Which of the following does not require surgical repair?
A. Gastric dilatation and volvulus
B. Intussusception
C. Mesenteric torsion
D. Ileus
91. How many sides/surfaces are there to an animal cage?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
92. Which of the following tasks is not legal for veterinary technicians?
A. Venipuncture
B. Patient restraint
C. parking clients’ cars
D. Prescribing medications
93. Which of the following diseases/conditions warrants isolation of the affected animal?
A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
B. Diabetes
C. Renal disease
D. Lyme disease
94. If consent forms are signed by a minor, they
A. are not legally binding
B. are frequently not legible
C. are valid only if the minor is the client
D. are valid only after a 10 day waiting period
95. Which of the following would be the least profitable place to advertise a professional position for a
licensed veterinary technician?
A. local newspaper
B. employment agency
C. professional school
D. professional journal or magazine
96. To correct a mistake in a medical record
A. Use liquid paper and start over
B. Erase it as best you can write over the erased area
C. Draw a line through it, label it as an error, and initial it
D. Strike it out with red ink
97. OTC refers to
A. Owner’s top complaint
B. Over the counter
C. Obstructed trachea condition
D. Obese tomcat
98. This schedule of controlled substances has the least potential for abuse and is primarily antitussive and
antidiarrheal drugs.
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
99. Prescriptions
A. Need not be signed
B. Are not considered legal documents
C. Should be recorded, and records should be maintained
D. Are not necessary for extral label drug dispensing
100. Which bovine brucellosis ear tattoo is incorrect?
A. 3V8
B. 5V2
C. 4V1
D. 1V0