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- CHOSE 1 – Leucovorin is used as an antidote to protect non-malignant cells from the effect of:
a) procarbazine.
b) cisplatin.
c) methotrexate.
d) paclitaxel.
2 – Which one of the following immunosuppressant drugs is used in Rho(D)-negative
mothers to prevent diseases of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies?
a) Mycophenolate.
b) Cyclosporin.
c) Rho(D) Immune Globulin.
d) Tacrolimus.
3 – The following statements regarding ethambutol are true except that, it:
a)
inhibits the mycobacterial cell wall synthesis.
b) should be avoided in children.
c) is not effective against intracellular organisms.
d) may decrease visual acuity.
4 – Which one of the following antifungal drugs produced its effect by inhibiting
DNA synthesis in fungal cell?
a) Ketoconazole.
b) Flucytosine.
c) Amphotericin B.
d) Griseofulvin.
5 – Which one of the following antiviral drugs is most likely to produce pancreatitis?
a)
Lamovudine.
b) Didanosine.
c)
Zidovudine.
d) Ritonavir.
6 – Which one of the following antiviral drugs is used in cytomegalovirus retinitis?
a)
Idoxuridine.
b) Acyclovir.
c) Ganciclovir.
d) Rimantadine.
7 – Severe respiratory syncytial viral pneumonia is treated by:
a)
amantadine.
b)
ribavarin.
c)
acyclovir.
d) foscarnet.
8 – Which one of the following drugs, when used in filariasis, is associated with
severe reactions due to death of parasites?
a)
Mebendazole.
b)
Ivermectin.
c)
Albendazole.
d) Piperazine.
9 – Diethylcarbamazine:
a)
is the drug of choice in O. volvulus infestation.
b) immobilized microfilariae through alteration in their surface area.
c)
is not effective orally.
d) is rapidly excreted in alkaline urine.
10 – Which one of the following antischistosomal drugs is found to be effective in
Alzheimer's disease?
a) Praziquantel.
b) Oxamniquine.
c) Oltipraz.
d) Metrifonate.
11 – A male patient presented with lower abdominal discomfort with severe dysentery,
together with amoebic liver abscess. Which one of the following regimens is
suitable for this treatment?
a) Chloroquine.
b) Metronidazole + diloxanide furoate.
c) Metronidazole + tetracycline.
d) Chloroquine + diloxanide futoate.
12 – Which one of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of cerebral malaria?
a) Halofantrine.
b) Artemisinin.
c)
Chloroquine.
d) Primaquine.
- (T) & (F) 1 – Amoxycillin:
a)
is better absorbed from the G.I.T than ampicillin.T
b) is primarily eliminated by the liver.F
c)
is highly effective in H. influenzae infections.T
d) may be used in combination with clavulanic acid for penicillnase–producingT
bacteria.
2 – Ceftriaxone:
a)
is effective orally.F
b) crosses the blood – brain barrier.T
c)
is effective against gram – negative bacteria.T
d) has a long t ½.T
3 – Adverse effects of tetracycline may include:
a)
dental caries.F
b) thrombophlebtis.T
c)
bone marrow depression.F
d) pseudomembranous colitis.T
4 – Spectinomycin is:
a)
active against gram–positive and gram–negative bacteriaT.
b) given as a single intramuscular injection.T
c)
primarily eliminated by the liver.F
d) used in the treatment of gonorrhoea.T
5 – Imipenem:
a)
has a narrow spectrum of antibacterial activity.F
b) is destroyed by renal dehydropeptidase enzyme.T
c)
is used for the treatment of enterobacter infections.T
d) may cause seizuresT
6 – Clofazimine is used in the treatment of the following:
a)
tuberculoid leprosy.F
b) dapsone–resistant leprosy.T
c)
paitents intolerant to dapsone.T
d) multi–drug resistant T.B.T
7 – Dapsone:
a)
inhibits folic acid synthesis.T
b) has a half–life of 1 – 2 days.T
c) is effective alone in the treatment of lepromatous leprosy.F
d) has an anti–inflammatory effect.F
8 – Rifampicin:
a)
has a low oral bioavailability.F
b) inhibits DNA gyrase enzyme.F
c)
is a highly nephrotoxic drug.?
d) crosses the blood–brain barrier in the absence of meningitis.F
9 – Isoniazid:
a)
inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid.T
b) has a bactericidal effect against the actively dividing bacteria.T
c)
interferes with bacterial respiration.F
d) causes pyridoxine deficiency.T
10 – Griseofulvin:
a)
acts by distrupting microtubule function.T
b) may reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives.T
c)
oral absorption may be increased with fatty foods.T
d) is effective topically against many dermatophytes.F
11 – As compared to ketoconazole, fluconazole:
a)
has a higher oral bioavailability.T
b) readily enters the CNS.T
c)
has less inhibitory action on hepatic cytochrome P450 isoenzymes.T
d) is eliminated as unchanged drug by the kidney.T
12 – Adverse effects of ketoconazole may include:
a)
gynaecomastia.T
b) menstrual irregularities.T
c)
bone marrow suppression.F
d) hirsutism.F
13 – Amphotericin B:
a)
is highly protein bound.T
b) is safe to be used in renal impairment.T
c)
has a half–life of more than one week.T
d) is used in the treatment of cryptococal meningitis.T
14 – Regarding the pharmacokinetics of antiviral drugs:
a)
Ribavarin is given by aerosol to achieve high concentrations in the respiratory
tract.T
b) Acyclovir does not cross the blood–brain barrier.F
c)
Rimantadine is mainly excreted in urine as unchanged drug.F
d) Indinavir has poor oral bioavailability.T
15 – Praziquantel is effective against parasitic manifestations due to:
a)
T. solium.T
b) H. nana.T
c)
Ascariasis.F
d) F. hepatica.F
16 – Miltefosine is used in the treatment of:
a)
schistosomiasis.F
b) ascariasis.F
c)
visceral leishmaniasis.T
d) filariasis.F
17 – Niclosamide:
a)
is active against T. solium and T. saginata.T
b) has a larvicidal action.F
c)
inhibits oxidative phosphorylayion.T
d) may cause neurocysticercosis.F
18 – Mixed infestations due to ascariasis, trichoriasis, and enterobiasis can effectively
be treated by:
a) albendazole.T
b) niclosamide.F
c) diethylcarbamazine.F
d) ivermectin.F
19 – Regarding antiamoebic drugs:
a)
Paromomycin is effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis.F
b) Diloxanide furoate is a luminal amoebicidal agent.T
c)
Metronidazole has partial lumincidal activity.T
d) Chronic use of iodoquinol may lead to optic atrophy.F
20 – The following drug(s) has(have) significant tissue amoeobicidal activity:
a)
Tetracycline.F
b) Chloroquine.T
c)
MetronidazoleT
d)
Iodoquinol.F
21 – Adverse effects of metronidazole may include:
a)
metallic taste.T
b) peripheral neuropathy.T
c)
disulfiram–like reaction.T
d) nephrotoxicity.F
22 – Regarding the pharmacokinetics of chloroquine:
a)
It has a large volume of distribution.T
b)
It is highly concentrated in the reticuloendothelial system.T
c)
Its excretion is increased by alkalinization of urine.F
d)
It can be given intravenously.T
23 – Mefloquine:
a)
is used in the treatment of multidrug–resistant strains of P. falcipariumT.
b) is excreted mainly in bile.T
c)
does not cross the blood–brain barrier.F
d) can be given either orally or parenterally.F
24 – Pyrimethamine:
a)
is a slow–acting blood schizonticide.T
b) acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase enzyme in plasmodia.T
c)
may be used in the treatment of chloroquine–resistant P. flaciparum infection
in combaiation with sulfadoxine.F
d) resistance rarely develops during its use.F
- MATCH 1 – Match the following mechanisms of action with the listed antiviral drugs:
a)
Inhibits viral aspartate protease.3
b)
Inhibits viral neuraminidase.4
c)
Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.2
d)
Inhibits viral reverse transcriptase1.
1) Zidovudine.
2) Ganciclovir.
3) Retonavir.
4) Oseltamivir.
5) Amantadine.
2 – Match the following parasitic infestations with the drugs listed below:
a)
Hookworm infestation.1
b) Visceral leishmaniasis.4
c)
Fascioliasis.2
d) Schistosomiasis due to S. mansoni.3
1) Mebendazole.
2) Bithionol.
3) Oxamniquine.
4) Sodium stibogluconate.
5)
Ivermectin.
3 – Match the following adverse effects with the corresponding drugs listed below:
a)
Flatulence.1
b) Retinopathy.3
c)
Crdiotoxicity.5
d) Thyroid enlargement.2
1) Diloxanide furoate.
2)
Iodoquinol.
3) Chloroquine.
4) Paromomycin.
5)
Dehydroemetine.
4 – Match the following adverse effects with the listed antimalarial drugs:
a)
Megaloblastic anaemia.2
b) Haemolytic anaemia.4
c)
Psychiatric disorders.1
d) Cinchonism.5
1) Mefloquine.
2) Proguanil.
3) Atovaquone.
4) Primaquine.
5) Quinine.
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