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Iraq War Clinician Guide Questions from chapter II 1) a) b) c) d) The Active Guard Reserve is part of the Individual Ready Reserve Standby Reserve Selected Reserve Retired Reserve 2) Which Echelon of Care includes the farthest forward Combat Stress Control elements available to address combat stress issues? a) Echelon I b) Echelon II c) Echelon III d) Echelon IV 3) The symptoms “disbelief, numbness, fear and confusion” characterize which phase of the Multi-Phasic Stress Response? a) immediate b) intermediate c) delayed d) chronic 4) During deployment, the results of command direct mental health evaluations are confidential. a) True b) False 5) Service members receive a comprehensive screening evaluation for medical and psychiatric illness when they return from deployment due to a) normal troop rotation b) medical evacuation c) administrative reasons d) all of the above Questions from chapter III 6) a) b) c) d) What term is suggested as it carries more meaning and is less stigmatizing? combat fatigue combat stress reaction shell shock war-zone stress 7) a) b) c) d) In the debriefing acronym “PIES”, the “S” stands for simplicity strawberry stress support ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com 8) a) b) c) d) During an initial assessment, the modal presentation of a veteran is likely to be all EXCEPT formal laconic angry cautious Questions from chapter IV 9) a) b) c) d) Which type of therapy emphasizes repeated verbalization of traumatic memories? psychodrama exposure therapy cognitive restructuring psychoanalysis 10) According to Chalder et al. (2001), what percent of Gulf War veterans believe they have Gulf War Syndrome? a) 12% b) 17% c) 22% d) 27% 11) What do the authors recommend as first line medications for PTSD? a) MAOIs b) SSRIs c) TCAs d) atypical antipsychotics Questions from chapter V 12) Traumatic stress-related interventions should be presented as part of routine care given to all patients. a) True b) False 13) Scurfield & Tice (1991) identified family concerns which included all EXCEPT a) shame about the emotional breakdown of the veteran b) fear of contracting contagious illnesses from the veteran c) anger at the veteran for abandoning the family d) guilt about allowing the veteran to go to war Questions from chapter VI 14) Caring for the amputee patient requires which approach? a) biopsychosocial b) physical c) psychological d) environmental 15) The TIPPS program emphasizes all the following EXCEPT a) reducing dependency on medications b) normalizing psychological experiences c) supporting healthy defenses d) monitoring for the development of psychiatric disorders ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com Questions from chapter VII 16) Research has increasingly demonstrated that PTSD can lead to neurobiological dysregulation altering the functioning of systems such as the immune system. a) True b) False Questions from chapter VIII 17) What term describes a countertransference reaction experienced by the clinician as a result of the victim’s retelling of the trauma? a) re-experiencing b) sublimation c) vicarious trauma d) enmeshment Questions from chapter IX 18) Sexual assault victimization of civilians is associated with higher lifetime rates of PTSD than rates reported by men following combat exposure. a) True b) False Questions from chapter X 19) All the following are components of the anger management intervention described EXCEPT a) assertiveness training b) self-hypnosis training c) stress management d) communication skills training Questions from chapter XI 20) Grief symptoms should be declining after about how many months during a normal grieving process? a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12 Questions from chapter XII 21) In the alcohol abuse screening instrument CAGE, the “C” stands for a) cut down b) consume c) criticize d) care ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com Questions from chapter XIII 22) Which stage of the Emotional Cycle of Deployment is marked by adaptive families “settling into the routine”? a) pre-deployment b) re-deployment c) post-deployment d) sustainment Questions from appendix C 23) Which is NOT true regarding women veterans returning from combat theaters? a) the percentage of active duty women increased from 1.6% in 1973 to 15% in 2003 b) the average woman veteran is younger than her male counterpart c) women are likely to have more and different medical problems than men d) the average woman veteran is more likely to belong to a minority group 24) The Screen for PTSD asks about all the following symptoms EXCEPT a) nightmares b) detachment c) hypervigilance d) substance abuse Questions from appendix D 25) According to Bryant & Harvey (2002), some individuals who do not meet criteria for ASD will develop PTSD. a) True b) False 26) Which measure of PTSD may be useful for veterans who have less formal education because it has a very low reading level? a) SPTSS b) NASCAR c) PCL-C d) PTSD-R Questions from appendix F 27) Regarding hyperarousal among trauma survivors, Shalev et al. (1998) found that PTSD prevalence rates 4 months after the trauma were best predicted by a) blood pressure b) heart rate c) temperature d) galvanic skin response 28) According to Mitchell & Everly (1996), what is the most recognized and used method of psychological debriefing? a) Cognitive Behavioral Debriefing b) Reenactment Therapy c) Critical Incident Stress Debriefing d) Psychoeducational Trauma Debriefing ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com 29) In which of Mitchell & Everly’s (1996) stages does the team sum up the debriefing and referral process? a) fact b) thought c) teaching d) re-entry 30) In the authors’ practice recommendations, they conclude that there is no evidence that global intervention for all trauma survivors will serve a function in preventing subsequent psychopathology. a) True b) False 31) Regarding early intervention, there is sufficient empirical evidence to recommend that PD be provided to individuals immediately after trauma. a) True b) False Questions from appendix G 32) In Lang’s (1979) theory of emotion, memory representations of anxiety-provoking events are stored in a) fear files b) anxiety depots c) fear networks d) anxiety schemas 33) Treatment planning with comorbid substance abuse and PTSD requires consideration of all the following factors EXCEPT a) the family sabotaging attempts at sobriety b) the patient’s level of motivation to stop using c) understanding the relationship between substance use and PTSD symptoms d) patients with longstanding abuse problems may benefit from AA/NA 34) Dialectical Behavior Therapy is suggested for patients with which co-occurring personality disorder? a) antisocial b) borderline c) histrionic d) narcissistic 35) Regarding managed care, the authors believe that effective assessment and treatment of PTSD requires a minimum of how many sessions? a) 12 b) 16 c) 20 d) 24 Questions from appendix H 36) Which 2 SSRIs have received approval by the US Food and Drug Administration as indicated treatments for PTSD? a) paroxetine and fluoxetine b) fluoxetine and citalopram c) citalopram and sertraline d) sertraline and paroxetine ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com 37) Regarding how long medications are continued for PTSD, the authors state that for many cases, it may be beneficial for treatment duration to exceed a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 18 months d) 2 years 38) Many of the medications that were discussed in the article were developed as treatments for PTSD. a) True b) False Questions from appendix I 39) The risk of PTSD is increased by all EXCEPT a) younger age of entry into the military b) less premilitary education c) lower socioeconomic status d) childhood behavior problems 40) Regarding special populations, the NVVRS showed women differed from men in PTSD risk factors. Women differed from men in all the following EXCEPT a) they tended to be White b) they tended to be older c) they tended to be better educated d) they tended to be enlisted rank ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com ce4less.com