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a. b. PPS Exam March 20, 2002 Recalled Questions 1. IMCI: Treatment for Shigella a. Ampicillin for 5 days 2. IMCI: case of a child with pneumonia a. send home b. treat for 5 days 16. 5 year old without previous vaccination on 1st visit give: a. DPT1, OPV1, Hib1 b. DPT1, HepB1 c. DPT1, OPV1, Hib1, MMR 3. IMCI: infant with persistent diarrhea but no dehydration a. continue breastfeeding b. do not give vitamin A c. is still dehydrated 4. IMCI: case of an ill infant not feeding a. small feedings of soft, preferred foods and continue breastfeeding b. go to hospital 5. Treatment for allergic rhinitis a. topical corticosteroids 6. No longer used in neonatal resuscitation: a. albumin containing solutions b. intraosseous access c. NaHCO3 (causes burns) 7. Use of vaccines with thiomerosal when no other thiomerosal-free vaccine is available: a. use b. do not use c. use only for Hep B and Pertussis 8. Med rep gives you a free trip to Hongkong for prescribing their milk formula for a year: a. accept b. do no accept c. report d. ask your department chairman 9. 15 year old with metastatic lung Ca asks for morphine for pain-relief: a. give to relieve pain b. do not give c. start aggressive chemotherapy 10. Fellow takes a look at the patient of a consultant who is not available. What will you do? a. tell the parents b. report the incident c. talk to the Fellow 11. Routine measurement of the circumference is taken up to this age: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 head 12. U/L ratio is equal to 1 at this age: a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 13. Can say other words beside Mama and Papa: a. 6 mos b. 8 mos c. 10 mos d. 12 mos 14. Toilet training: a. 24-48 mos b. 48-60 mos 15. EPI vaccination at 1 year old: DPT3, OPV3, HepB3, Measles DPT3, OPV3, HepB3 17. Asthma patient with PEFR >30, daily symptoms for a week, night symptoms once a week: a. moderate persistent b. severe persistent 18. Findings in restrictive lung disease: a. increase RR (plus other choices I can’t remember) b. decrease RR 19. Premature formulas should be discontinued at 34-36 weeks due to: a. hypercalcemia b. hypernatremia c. high ash content which may damage kidneys 20. Freshwater drowning: a. hyperosmolality b. hypoosmolality c. hyponatremia and hemodilution d. hypernatremia 21. Preventive pediatrics – monthly visits during the 1st year. On the 2nd year, well-baby visits every: a. 12 months b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 6 months 22. 17 month weighing 5 kg. Weight for age based on the Waterlow Classification: a. normal b. mild c. moderate d. severe 23. IMCI moderate dehydration (Plan B) in a 7 kg child a. 300 ml b. 500 ml c. 700 ml 24. 2 year old with severe dehydration. Fluid to be given over 30 minutes: a. 30 ml/kg b. 70 ml/kg 25. Dengue in shock. What to give after LRS bolus? a. D5 IMB b. D5 NM c. D5 0.3 NaCl d. Colloid 26. 3 wk old 1.900 kg fed 30 ml every 3 hours with abdominal distention and vomiting. a. CBC b. Urinalysis c. Abdominal x-ray d. Ultrasound 27. An example of pathologic indirect hyperbilirubinemia caused by increased bilirubin production: a. prematurity b. c. d. sepsis inborn errors ABO incompatibility 28. Type of Polio virus in the 3 cases identified in the Philippines: a. I b. II c. III d. IV 29. Hypersensitivity reaction wherein an antigen is presented to a sensitized cell: a. I b. II c. III d. IV 30. Maneuver to intubation: a. Sellick’s prevent aspiration during 31. X-linked recessive trait: a. all daughters of affected males are carriers 32. Perinatal cause of mental retardation: a. hypoxic-ischemic injury b. chromosomal 33. Equinus gait / toe walking until: a. 3 years old 34. Single umbilical artery is most commonly associated with: a. trisomy b. Potter syndrome 35. Most common with good prognosis: a. cerebellar astrocytoma 36. Congenital scoliosis is most commonly associated with malformations in this organ system: a. genitourinary b. cardiac c. pulmonary 37. Clinical triad of short neck, low hairline, and restricted neck motion with multiple coalitions: a. Klippel-Feil b. Sprengel c. Noonan’s (?) Cornelia de Lange 42. Management of caustic ingestion except: a. endoscopy should not be done in 24-48 hours b. give milk or water c. no need for lavage 43. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose a. NAC 44. Which blocks acetylcholine receptors a. organophosphates 45. Safe for breastfeeding mothers: a. paracetamol 46. True of kerosene ingestion except: a. aspiration pneumonia should be treated with antibiotics b. no need for lavage c. (forgot the other choices. Sorry) 47. Increased risk of kernicterus by displacing albumin: a. sulfonamide b. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline 48. Theophylline decreases increasing levels of: a. terbutaline b. rifampicin c. phenobarbital d. erythromycin clearance thereby 49. Cyanotic neonate with findings of LVH: a. TOGA b. TOF 50. True of CHF in neonates: a. digoxin dosage is the same as in older children b. edema not limited to lower extremities 51. Management of cardiogenic shock except: a. dopamine to maintain cardiac output b. epinephrine to maintain heart rate c. digitalis d. treat cause 52. Seizures lasting for 10-20 seconds but patient still speaks without loss of consciousness: a. simple partial seizure b. complex c. absence 38. Not an absolute contraindication to sports: a. murmur b. seizure in swimming activities c. hyperpyrexia 53. 3 year old with seizure for 45 seconds with normal PE except T 39.5C a. febrile seizure 39. Immediate management of sports injury except: a. ice b. compression c. NSAID d. Massage ligament 54. Girl with SMR Tanner 5 amenorrhea and midline mass: a. ovarian tumor b. imperforate hymen c. uterine tumor 40. Oligohydramnios associated with: a. clubfoot b. spadelike hands c. flattened nasal bridge d. all 55. 15 year old with multiple tender bilateral breast masses advised by a surgeon to be premalignant. What would you do? a. give oral contraceptive pills with progesterone b. do aspiration biopsy c. do excision biopsy d. agree with surgeon and remove masses 41. Increased ICP a. lead b. salicylate c. INH d. Mercury with primary 56. Child given vitamins A,D, and C for several months with anorexia, irritability, and tender bone swelling: a. hypervitaminosis A b. hypervitaminosis C c. hypervitaminosis B d. Caffey’s disease 57. Most common anatomic abnormality in patient with OSAS: a. adenoidal hypertrophy b. obesity 58. Pre-eclamptic mother admitted for several days gives birth to an apneic infant. Check for: a. glucose b. Ca c. Mg d. All 71. Leading cause of death in the adolescent age group: a. suicide b. motor vehicle c. injury 72. Use of alcohol increases effects of which abused substance: a. amphetamines b. cocaine c. marijuana 73. Adolescent caught stealing twice and driving without a license: a. juvenile delinquency b. oppositional defiant disorder 59. Vitamin K deficiency: a. bleeding time b. clotting time c. prothrombin Factor V d. one step prothrombin 74. Child with almost monthly skin abscess even with frequent hexachlorophene washes. a. T cell deficiency b. B cell deficiency c. NK cell deficiency 60. Requirement for the diagnosis of kwashiorkor: a. Edema 75. After intake of Amoxicillin, noted skin erythema, (+) Nikolsky, (-) perioral crusting. a. Ritter b. TEN c. epidermolysis bullosa d. erythema multiforme 61. Necessary to prevent neural tube defects in newborns: a. folate 62. Newborn screening which detected an abnormality not thought to be common in the Philippines: a. galactosemia b. phenylketonuria c. homocystinuria 76. In-vitro test for IgE a. RAST 77. No renal abnormalities a. SLE b. PAN c. dermatomyositis 63. ABG values interpretation 78. case of bronchiolitis and management 64. Most common cause of diabetes insipidus: a. trauma b. craniopharyngioma 79. case of epiglotittis and management 80. case of AGN 65. Anaerobic bacteria a. meningitis b. abscess c. ventriculitis 81. case of SLE diagnostics) (including statistics and 82. case of HSP 66. Not in ARDS: a. hypoxemia b. diffuse pulmonary infiltrates c. normal pulmonary artery pressure d. abnormal cardiac function 67. Test for hemophilia a. PT b. PTT c. Factor assay 68. Milk let down signifies: a. successful nursing b. unsuccessful nursing c. maternal fatigue d. maternal anxiety 69. Test for strabismus in an uncooperative child: a. cover test 70. Nadir of glucose in IDM: a. 1-3 hours b. 30 minutes c. 4-6 hours 83. case of JRA (?) 84. True of Kawasaki except a. treatment with IVIG and steroids 85. A child takes the Phenobarbital tablets used by the mother for a sibling with seizure disorder anytime before or after school. This behavior is: a. serious b. very serious c. no effect 86. Baby fat is burned at this age: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years 87. Taste discrimination at what age for infants 3 months 88. Case of toxic shock syndrome. Symptoms are due to the ff. except: a. lipotechoic-peptidoglycan complex b. c. d. IL TNF endotoxin 103. case of meningitis – N. meningitidis 104. case of croup – with stridor, etc. 89. Case of meningococcemia. Symptoms are due to: a. lipotechoic-peptidoglycan complex b. IL c. TNF d. endotoxin 90. Does not cross the blood-brain-barrier a. cotrimoxazole b. chloramphenicol c. INH d. rifampicin 91. Neonate placed on mechanical ventilator. Parents want to discontinue treatment. a. consult bioethics committee 92. Congenital syphilis is transmitted during: a. 1st trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 3rd trimester d. any 105. Child with FUO, history of pica and has a dog: a. lead b. Toxocara 106. Prophylaxis for endocarditis prior to dental extraction. 107. Premature neonate with abdominal flank mass, hematuria. a. renal vein thrombosis 108. Poor prognostic indicator in ALL: a. young age at onset b. hyperploidy with more than 50 chromosomes c. chromosomal translocation d. rearrangement of TEL/AMLI genes in Bprogenitor ALL 109. case of tetanus 93. Iron deficiency anemia a. 3-6 months b. 9-24 months 110. diagnosis of rheumatic fever 94. Not part of management of recurrent AOM a. adenoidectomy b. myringotomy 112. Child with mother diagnosed to have TB. PPD is 2 mm. CXR negative. No signs and symptoms. a. treat with INH then repeat PPD after 3 months 95. Labial adhesions need not be aggressively because: a. systemic steroids are effective b. resolve by adolescence 111. treatment of extrapulmonary TB treated 96. Case of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome 113. Flouride concentration in water to prevent dental caries: a. 1.0 –1.5 ppm b. 2.0 – 2.5 ppm c. 3 – 3.5 ppm 97. Language development is important during this period for later school success: a. infancy b. pre-school c. school age 98. Typhoid fever resistant to the usual antibiotics can be treated with: a. ciprofloxacin b. cotrimoxazole c. ceftriaxone 99. Not true about the ff. drug effects on the fetus: a. valproic acid – b. phenytoin – c. retinoin – d. alcohol – 100. Not true about hypertension: a. Most common cause in 2-4 years old is renal b. Drug therapy can be used in the 1 st stage of management 101. Not true about drug absorption: a. Systemic absorption of a drug given percutaneously is absorbed 3x more in children. b. Drugs given IV are 100% bioavailable. c. Only unbound, protein-free drugs are filtered freely in the kidney. 102. Amount of glucose in WHO ORS: a. 10 g/dl c. 30 g/dl b. 20 g/dl d. 40 g/dl (?) 111 g/dl celineblancas-evidente slmc / march 2002 c. d. PPS Exam March 20, 2002 Recalled Questions 3. IMCI: Treatment for Shigella b. Ampicillin for 5 days 4. IMCI: case of a child with pneumonia c. send home d. treat for 5 days 126. 5 year old without previous vaccination on 1 st visit give: d. DPT1, OPV1, Hib1 e. DPT1, HepB1 f. DPT1, OPV1, Hib1, MMR 3. IMCI: infant with persistent diarrhea but no dehydration d. continue breastfeeding e. do not give vitamin A f. is still dehydrated 114. IMCI: case of an ill infant not feeding c. small feedings of soft, preferred foods and continue breastfeeding d. go to hospital 115. Treatment for allergic rhinitis b. topical corticosteroids 116. No longer used in neonatal resuscitation: d. albumin containing solutions e. intraosseous access f. NaHCO3 (causes burns) 117. Use of vaccines with thiomerosal when no other thiomerosal-free vaccine is available: d. use e. do not use f. use only for Hep B and Pertussis 118. Med rep gives you a free trip to Hongkong for prescribing their milk formula for a year: e. accept f. do no accept g. report h. ask your department chairman 119. 15 year old with metastatic lung Ca asks for morphine for pain-relief: d. give to relieve pain e. do not give f. start aggressive chemotherapy 120. Fellow takes a look at the patient of a consultant who is not available. What will you do? d. tell the parents e. report the incident f. talk to the Fellow 121. Routine measurement of the circumference is taken up to this age: d. 2 e. 3 f. 4 head 122. U/L ratio is equal to 1 at this age: d. 3 e. 5 f. 7 123. Can say other words beside Mama and Papa: e. 6 mos f. 8 mos g. 10 mos h. 12 mos 124. Toilet training: c. 24-48 mos d. 48-60 mos 125. EPI vaccination at 1 year old: DPT3, OPV3, HepB3, Measles DPT3, OPV3, HepB3 127. Asthma patient with PEFR >30, daily symptoms for a week, night symptoms once a week: c. moderate persistent d. severe persistent 128. Findings in restrictive lung disease: c. increase RR (plus other choices I can’t remember) d. decrease RR 129. Premature formulas should be discontinued at 34-36 weeks due to: d. hypercalcemia e. hypernatremia f. high ash content which may damage kidneys 130. Freshwater drowning: e. hyperosmolality f. hypoosmolality g. hyponatremia and hemodilution h. hypernatremia 131. Preventive pediatrics – monthly visits during the 1st year. On the 2nd year, well-baby visits every: e. 12 months f. 3 months g. 4 months h. 6 months 132. 17 month weighing 5 kg. Weight for age based on the Waterlow Classification: e. normal f. mild g. moderate h. severe 133. IMCI moderate dehydration (Plan B) in a 7 kg child d. 300 ml e. 500 ml f. 700 ml 134. 2 year old with severe dehydration. Fluid to be given over 30 minutes: c. 30 ml/kg d. 70 ml/kg 135. Dengue in shock. What to give after LRS bolus? e. D5 IMB f. D5 NM g. D5 0.3 NaCl h. Colloid 136. 3 wk old 1.900 kg fed 30 ml every 3 hours with abdominal distention and vomiting. e. CBC f. Urinalysis g. Abdominal x-ray h. Ultrasound 137. An example of pathologic indirect hyperbilirubinemia caused by increased bilirubin production: e. prematurity f. g. h. sepsis inborn errors ABO incompatibility 138. Type of Polio virus in the 3 cases identified in the Philippines: e. I f. II g. III h. IV 139. Hypersensitivity reaction wherein an antigen is presented to a sensitized cell: e. I f. II g. III h. IV 140. Maneuver to intubation: b. Sellick’s prevent aspiration during 141. X-linked recessive trait: b. all daughters of affected males are carriers 142. Perinatal cause of mental retardation: c. hypoxic-ischemic injury d. chromosomal 143. Equinus gait / toe walking until: b. 3 years old 144. Single umbilical artery is most commonly associated with: c. trisomy d. Potter syndrome 145. Most common with good prognosis: b. cerebellar astrocytoma 146. Congenital scoliosis is most commonly associated with malformations in this organ system: d. genitourinary e. cardiac f. pulmonary 147. Clinical triad of short neck, low hairline, and restricted neck motion with multiple coalitions: d. Klippel-Feil e. Sprengel f. Noonan’s (?) Cornelia de Lange 152. Management of caustic ingestion except: d. endoscopy should not be done in 24-48 hours e. give milk or water f. no need for lavage 153. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose b. NAC 154. Which blocks acetylcholine receptors b. organophosphates 155. Safe for breastfeeding mothers: b. paracetamol 156. True of kerosene ingestion except: d. aspiration pneumonia should be treated with antibiotics e. no need for lavage f. (forgot the other choices. Sorry) 157. Increased risk of kernicterus by displacing albumin: d. sulfonamide e. chloramphenicol f. tetracycline 158. Theophylline decreases increasing levels of: e. terbutaline f. rifampicin g. phenobarbital h. erythromycin clearance thereby 159. Cyanotic neonate with findings of LVH: c. TOGA d. TOF 160. True of CHF in neonates: c. digoxin dosage is the same as in older children d. edema not limited to lower extremities 161. Management of cardiogenic shock except: e. dopamine to maintain cardiac output f. epinephrine to maintain heart rate g. digitalis h. treat cause 162. Seizures lasting for 10-20 seconds but patient still speaks without loss of consciousness: d. simple partial seizure e. complex f. absence 148. Not an absolute contraindication to sports: d. murmur e. seizure in swimming activities f. hyperpyrexia 163. 3 year old with seizure for 45 seconds with normal PE except T 39.5C b. febrile seizure 149. Immediate management of sports injury except: e. ice f. compression g. NSAID h. Massage ligament 164. Girl with SMR Tanner 5 amenorrhea and midline mass: d. ovarian tumor e. imperforate hymen f. uterine tumor 150. Oligohydramnios associated with: e. clubfoot f. spadelike hands g. flattened nasal bridge h. all 165. 15 year old with multiple tender bilateral breast masses advised by a surgeon to be premalignant. What would you do? e. give oral contraceptive pills with progesterone f. do aspiration biopsy g. do excision biopsy h. agree with surgeon and remove masses 151. Increased ICP e. lead f. salicylate g. INH h. Mercury with primary 166. Child given vitamins A,D, and C for several months with anorexia, irritability, and tender bone swelling: e. hypervitaminosis A f. hypervitaminosis C g. hypervitaminosis B h. Caffey’s disease 167. Most common anatomic abnormality in patient with OSAS: c. adenoidal hypertrophy d. obesity 168. Pre-eclamptic mother admitted for several days gives birth to an apneic infant. Check for: e. glucose f. Ca g. Mg h. All 181. Leading cause of death in the adolescent age group: d. suicide e. motor vehicle f. injury 182. Use of alcohol increases effects of which abused substance: d. amphetamines e. cocaine f. marijuana 183. Adolescent caught stealing twice and driving without a license: c. juvenile delinquency d. oppositional defiant disorder 169. Vitamin K deficiency: e. bleeding time f. clotting time g. prothrombin Factor V h. one step prothrombin 184. Child with almost monthly skin abscess even with frequent hexachlorophene washes. d. T cell deficiency e. B cell deficiency f. NK cell deficiency 170. Requirement for the diagnosis of kwashiorkor: b. Edema 185. After intake of Amoxicillin, noted skin erythema, (+) Nikolsky, (-) perioral crusting. e. Ritter f. TEN g. epidermolysis bullosa h. erythema multiforme 171. Necessary to prevent neural tube defects in newborns: b. folate 172. Newborn screening which detected an abnormality not thought to be common in the Philippines: d. galactosemia e. phenylketonuria f. homocystinuria 186. In-vitro test for IgE b. RAST 187. No renal abnormalities d. SLE e. PAN f. dermatomyositis 173. ABG values interpretation 188. case of bronchiolitis and management 174. Most common cause of diabetes insipidus: c. trauma d. craniopharyngioma 189. case of epiglotittis and management 190. case of AGN 175. Anaerobic bacteria d. meningitis e. abscess f. ventriculitis 191. case of SLE diagnostics) (including statistics and 192. case of HSP 176. Not in ARDS: e. hypoxemia f. diffuse pulmonary infiltrates g. normal pulmonary artery pressure h. abnormal cardiac function 177. Test for hemophilia d. PT e. PTT f. Factor assay 178. Milk let down signifies: e. successful nursing f. unsuccessful nursing g. maternal fatigue h. maternal anxiety 179. Test for strabismus in an uncooperative child: b. cover test 180. Nadir of glucose in IDM: d. 1-3 hours e. 30 minutes f. 4-6 hours 193. case of JRA (?) 194. True of Kawasaki except b. treatment with IVIG and steroids 195. A child takes the Phenobarbital tablets used by the mother for a sibling with seizure disorder anytime before or after school. This behavior is: d. serious e. very serious f. no effect 196. Baby fat is burned at this age: e. 1 year f. 2 years g. 3 years h. 4 years 197. Taste discrimination at what age for infants 3 months 198. Case of toxic shock syndrome. Symptoms are due to the ff. except: e. lipotechoic-peptidoglycan complex f. g. h. IL TNF endotoxin 213. case of meningitis – N. meningitidis 214. case of croup – with stridor, etc. 199. Case of meningococcemia. Symptoms are due to: e. lipotechoic-peptidoglycan complex f. IL g. TNF h. endotoxin 200. Does not cross the blood-brain-barrier e. cotrimoxazole f. chloramphenicol g. INH h. rifampicin 201. Neonate placed on mechanical ventilator. Parents want to discontinue treatment. b. consult bioethics committee 202. Congenital syphilis is transmitted during: e. 1st trimester f. 2nd trimester g. 3rd trimester h. any 215. Child with FUO, history of pica and has a dog: c. lead d. Toxocara 216. Prophylaxis for endocarditis prior to dental extraction. 217. Premature neonate with abdominal flank mass, hematuria. b. renal vein thrombosis 218. Poor prognostic indicator in ALL: e. young age at onset f. hyperploidy with more than 50 chromosomes g. chromosomal translocation h. rearrangement of TEL/AMLI genes in Bprogenitor ALL 219. case of tetanus 203. Iron deficiency anemia c. 3-6 months d. 9-24 months 220. diagnosis of rheumatic fever 204. Not part of management of recurrent AOM c. adenoidectomy d. myringotomy 222. Child with mother diagnosed to have TB. PPD is 2 mm. CXR negative. No signs and symptoms. b. treat with INH then repeat PPD after 3 months 205. Labial adhesions need not be aggressively because: c. systemic steroids are effective d. resolve by adolescence 221. treatment of extrapulmonary TB treated 206. Case of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome 223. Flouride concentration in water to prevent dental caries: d. 1.0 –1.5 ppm e. 2.0 – 2.5 ppm f. 3 – 3.5 ppm 207. Language development is important during this period for later school success: d. infancy e. pre-school f. school age 208. Typhoid fever resistant to the usual antibiotics can be treated with: d. ciprofloxacin e. cotrimoxazole f. ceftriaxone 209. Not true about the ff. drug effects on the fetus: e. valproic acid – f. phenytoin – g. retinoin – h. alcohol – 210. Not true about hypertension: c. Most common cause in 2-4 years old is renal d. Drug therapy can be used in the 1 st stage of management 211. Not true about drug absorption: d. Systemic absorption of a drug given percutaneously is absorbed 3x more in children. e. Drugs given IV are 100% bioavailable. f. Only unbound, protein-free drugs are filtered freely in the kidney. 212. Amount of glucose in WHO ORS: c. 10 g/dl c. 30 g/dl d. 20 g/dl d. 40 g/dl (?) 111 g/dl celineblancas-evidente slmc / march 2002 1. Infant mortality rate, based from the Philippine statistics, from 1994-1998: 46 per 1,000 livebirths (p.6t, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 2. This is considered as the most common nutritional disorder in the world: Iron deficiency anemia (p.11, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 3. Reduces the occurrence of neural tube defects: Folic Acid 4. Included in the EPI, EXCEPT: Haemophilis Infuenza type B vaccine (p.42t, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 5. True about vaccination with live virus vaccine in pregnant women: 6. Most common site of accident in preschoolers: 7. When talking to parents regarding the health needs of their young adolescents, the most frequent aspect discussed is: 8. Pre-exposure rabies vaccination schedule that is economical: 9. A mother who was positive for VDRL gave birth. The newborn is at risk of having congenital syphilis in the following, EXCEPT: (Pls. Check risk factors for congenital syphilis p.905, Nelson) 10. A mother was found to be reactive for HBsAg. At birth, which of the following should be done: Give Hep B vaccine only Mother may breastfeed ? 11. True contraindications to vaccine: 12. Which of the following vaccines can be given to an immunocompromised person, considering that he is not severely immunocompromised: Rotavirus ? BCG MMR OPV 13. Anticonvulsants produce blockade to Na channels and increase the threshold for calcium… Which of the following anticonvulsant can produce a Reye-like syndrome? Valproic acid (p.1823, Nelson) 14. The relative size of the brain to total body weight at birth is: 10% (p. 53, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 15. Which of the following structures carries highly oxygenated blood during fetal circulation? Umbilical vein (p.930, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 16. Cord blood fetal hemoglobin at birth is how many % of the total blood volume? 80% (p. 55, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 17. A newborn was placed on his side. The newborn was longitudinally transected by a red colored lower part and a palecolored upper part. This phenomenon is: Harlequin color change 18. The bacterial flora of the gut is established during the first few hours after birth. Breastfed infants have: Lactobacillus bifidus (p.56, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 19. Maintenance fluid is given with a higher osmolality in adults as compared to infants because: The total body water is higher in infants than in adults. (?) 20. A 5 year old female has short stature, delayed dentition, enlarged protruding tongue, dry, course skin, constipation, history of prolonged jaundice: Congenital Hypothyroidism 21. An eight year old has a weight of 15 kg. and a height of 115 cm. Based on the Waterlow classification for wasting and stunting, this child has: Severe wasting, mild stunting (p. 79, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 22. The height is 3x the birth length at: 13 years (p. 80, del Mundo, 4th ed. ) 23. From the 6th to the 20th year, the head circumference increases to ½ inch per ___ yrs. 5 years (p. 80, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 24. The crown-symphysis to symphisis-sole measurements have a ratio of 1.7 at birth and become 1 at ____ years. 10 years (p.83, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 25. Providing extraordinary means for a known fatal ailment: 26. Filipino infants are able to hold the breast or the bottle at about the: Fourth month (p.101, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 27. Writing movements follow a specific pattern. The child’s style of writing is quite set at ____ years and penmanship remains such up to adulthood with minor changes. 12 years (p. 101, dl Mundo, 4th ed.) 28. At 18 months, the infant has: 10-12 simple words (p. 101, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 29. The IQ is classified as dull or borderline if it is between: 70-79 (p.116, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 30. This macronutrient is not essential for term infants in early life: Nucleotides (p. 130, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 31. A newborn who has persistent vomiting and dehydration has: Metabolic alkalosis 32. Bone age is determined by having an xray of the left: wrist 33. In wiskott-aldrich, this is characterized by thrombocytopenia and: Atopic dermatitis (p. 604, Nelson, 16th ed.) 34. Organism associated with necrotizing enterocolitis: Clostridium perfringens (p. 512, Nelson, 16th ed.) 35. Pyloric stenosis is a worldwide.. . This is a risk factor and predisposes newborns to pyloric stenosis: Males and first born (p.1130, Nelson, 16th ed.) 36. A child with abdominal pain, arthritis and purpura on the buttock: HSP 37. A child with abdominal pain, purpura on the buttocks and lower extremities, developed hematuria: HSP nephropathy 38. A 5 year old presented at the ER with fever, malaise, chills, headache, arthralgia. BP: 70/40, with petechiae on the chest. Most like he has: Meningococcemia (p. 455, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 39. A child with polyuria and polydipsia with 10% weight loss over the past few months, presented at the ER with ….. urinalysis showed glucose (+++) and ketones (+++). The most likely condition is: Type I diabetes mellitus 40. A child with polyuria and polydipsia underwent a water deprivation test. After the test, the SG increased from 1.001 to 1.025 and the volume of the urine ______. This child most likely has: Psychogenic polydipsia (p.1195, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 41. This is NOT likely an associated finding in Kawasaki disease: Thrombocytopenia 42. The most frequent site of coarctation of the aorta is : just below the origin of the subclavian artery (p.1379, Nelson, 16th ed.) 43. A substernal thrust indicates the presence of: Right ventricular enlargement (p. 1347, Nelson, 16th ed.) 44. Skimmed milk is not given to a 9 month old because: Its high protein and mineral content in proportion to calories may cause severe dehydration (p. 157, Nelson) 45. At 6 months a mother started weaning her baby with cereals. However, the baby would spit the cereals. What would you advise? Do not force the child to eat. (p. 157, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 46. The newborn is a homoiotherm. He should be maintained in a thermoneutral environment at which the body temperature is maintained with the least metabolic and oxygen requirement. This temperature range is between: 32oC – 35oC (p.247, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 47. A child is fond of cuddling her pet dog and cat. She developed fever, lymph node enlargement at the axillary area, that is solitary and tender, with no cellulites. Most likely she has: Cat-Scratch Disease (p.559, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 48. The infant with congenital absence of abdominal musculature presents with a bulging abdomen, bilateral flank fullness, and loose wrinkled skin covering the anterior abdomen has: Prune-belly syndrome (p.290, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 49. A child presented with generalized edema, serum albumin of 15 mg/dL and cholesterol of 656 …. Nephrotic Syndrome 50. In a one year old infant with measles, the WHO recommends this dose of Vitamin A: 200,000 IU oral, one dose 51. Ipecac is contraindicated in this condition: Ingestion of caustic substance 52. Toxic myocarditis occurs in 20 % of cases in: Diptheria 53. Cerebellar ataxia is most frequently implicated with this viral infection: Varicella (p.1072, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 54. Sensorineural hearing loss is most commonly caused by this viral infection: Rubella 55. One of this is NOT an isotonic solution: 56. This is given late in the resuscitation: Defibrillate and give medication 57. Capillary refill is 12 secs. What will you do? Give a bolus of isotonic solution at 20 mL/kg. 58. ABCDE of neonatal resuscitation. “E” stands for: Thermal environment (p. 268, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 59. The following are correctly given as medication in resuscitation EXCEPT: Epinephrine via ET at 0.1 mg/kg using 1:10,000 dilution (should be 1: 1000) 60. Which of the following is an effect of the vasopressor class of cardiac medications: 61. A two day old purely breastfed presented with bleeding from the nose, umbilicus and gastrointestinal tract. This infant’s condition is most likely: Deficient in Factors VII, IX, X. (p.286, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 62. A child presented with a ping-pong deformity. The expected laboratory findings are: (A case of Ricketts) 63. 64. 65. 66. Serum calcium level may be normal or low, the serum phosphorus level is low, and the serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated (p.186, Nelson) A newborn presented with abdominal distention and on x-ray of the abdomen showed a “double-bubble” sign. This condition is associated with: Bilious vomiting A 2 day old presented with jaundice. The total bilirubin is 12 mg/dL and the indirect is 7 mg/dL. You will: Investigate for the cause of the jaundice. This is a disorder of movement and posture caused by a static defect or lesion of the immature brain: Cerebral palsy (p. 1093, del Mundo, 4th ed.) A female pseudohermaphrodite is: A Virilized female (p.1760, Nelson) 67. A child was bitten by her six year old sibling. You will give an antibiotic that will cover for: Both aerobes and anaerobes (pp. 791-792, Nelson) 68. A son of a farmer presented with fever, myalgia, headache, abdominal pain, vomiting and conjunctival suffusion. Most likely condition is: Leptospirosis (p.486, Del Mundo, 4th ed.) 69. A child with leg mass, the most important to elicit is: 70. Retinoblastoma (RB1) 71. Associated with Varicella with good prognosis: 72. Renal scarring is best evaluated with: Renal Scan 73. A child presented to you at the OPD with a past history of UTI treated with an antibiotic. His urinalysis now is (+) for pyuria. You will do: Congenital lobar emphysema (p.1274, Nelson) 79. The majority of neonatal infection is caused by: GBS 80. Community acquired pneumonia is most often caused by: S. pneumoniae 81. True of mycoplasma pneumonia epidemiology, EXCEPT: Occurs worldwide Overt illness is unusual before 3-4 years of age Endemic in larger communities Highly communicable (it’s not highly communicable) (p. 914, Nelson) 82. This substance produced IUGR, limb anomalies, autism in the infant: Alcohol (p. 468, Nelson) 83. True of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: Predilection for the metaphyseal region (p. 1139, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 84. The most common cause of pleural effusion is: Bacterial Pneumonia (p 1329, Nelson) 85. Inspiratory and expiratory chest film is most valuable in: suspected foreign body inhalation (p 1254, Nelson) 86. Esophageal varices in a patient with liver cirrhosis, most important modality: Endoscopy 87. Diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease: 24 hr. pH monitoring 88. A child who presented at about the 5th day of illness with a reticular or lacy pattern of rash on the extremities, most likely has: Parvovirus infection (p. 534, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 89. A child presented at the ER with fever, respiratory distress and croupy cough, most likely has: Acute laryngotracheobronchitis (p. 665, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 90. A child with previously treated PPTB and with healed lesion, developed measles: Urine culture and sensitivity 91. A child with relapse of PTB: 74. Dribbling and … On ultrasound the bladder wall is thickened, you will do: VCUG 75. The best … for infective endocarditis is: Blood culture 76. One of these is NOT a major criteria in the Jones criteria for RF: Arthralgia 77. Apgar score of a newborn at one minute that has: HR = 95/min, limp, blue, grimace on catheter insertion, hypoventilating. APGAR = 3 78. The most common congenital lung lesion is: Cystic adenomatoid malformation (p.651t, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 92. Corticosteroid is beneficial in which forms of PTB: All of the above (TB Meningitis, Pleuritis and Pericarditis) 93. Which should NOT be done in Kerosene ingestion? do lavage 94. Congenital TB is rare because: most common result of female genital tract TB is infertility (p. 887, Nelson) 95. A child with asthma with PEFR between 60-80% has: Moderate persistent asthma (p.27t, Asthma Consensus, 2002) 96. A child was brought by his mother because he was exposed to his father with HAV infection three weeks ago, you will give: Immunoglobulin at 0.02 mL/Kg and active immunization Advise on hygiene Note: The use of IG more than 2 weeks after exposure is not recommended ( p.771, Nelson) 97. In a child with tetanus and is allergic to penicillin, the best option is to give: Metronidazole 98. Automatism is commonly associated with this kind of seizure: Complex partial seizure (p.1036, del Mundo, 4th ed.) (p. 1815, Nelson) 99. A newborn with jaundice has hyperbilirubinemia and positive Coomb’s test. He has: ABO incompatibility 100. Anemia in the newborn is most commonly due to: Hemolysis (p.285, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 101. RDS type II is due to: delayed absorption of the respiratory fluid (p.283, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 102. Endotracheal intubation with application of negative pressure is beneficial in: Depressed infant with thick meconium staining 103. NOT a modality in RDS I: Nitric oxide 104. Apnea in the newborn is treated with: Methylxanthines 105. A premature with systemic candidiasis with renal impairment. The drug of choice is: Liposomal amphotericin B (p. 933, Nelson) Ketoconazole Fluconazole 106. A 2 year old presented with pallor. Hgb is 7 g/dL. He is asymptomatic. This child is best treated with: Oral Iron Transfusion then oral iron 107. Antidote for Paracetamol overdose: N-acetylcysteine 108. The ratio of serum Na to serum K is: 109. A child with Cushing’s syndrome has: Obesity (p.1738, Nelson) Hypernatremia Hypertension 110. The earliest sign of puberty in males is: Testicular enlargement 111. The earliest signs of puberty in Filipino males and females is seen between: _________years old 112. A child with recurrent UTI, leg-length discrepancy, talipes cavus most likely has: Spina bifida (p.1066, del Mundo, 4th ed.) Tethered Cord (p.1864, Nelson) 113. The earliest immunoglogulin to rise after a recent immunization is: IgM (p.306, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 114. A 10 year old female with fever and necrotizing fasciitis, most likely has: Group A Streptococcus (p. 446t, del Mundo, 4th ed) 115. Type IV delayed type hypersensitivity is exemplified by: Graft vs. host reaction (p. 647, Nelson) 116. Major criteria for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis include: pruritus, typical morphology and distribution and personal or family history of atopy. Which is also part of the major criteria for diagnosing atopic dermatitis? Tendency to recurrences (p. 416, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 117. The principal noncytotoxic mechanism for urticaria and angioedema is: Interaction of antigen with mast cell or basophil-bound IgE antibodies (p.684, Nelson) 118. Central necrosis becoming vesiculobullous, involves 2 or more mucous membranes, either eyes, mouth, genitals or perianal area. Stevens Johnson (p.1990, Nelson) 119. Characteristic lesion of scabies infection: Burrow lesion (p.1225, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 120. Drug of choice for rheumatoid arthritis: NSAID 121. A child has diarrhea with a 4 x 4 cm palpable mass at left upper quadrant: Neuroblastoma Wilm’s tumor HUS? 122. A child with Acute lymphocytic leukemia followed up. He has testicular engorgement. What will you do? Biopsy (p.1546, Nelson) 123. Reactivity with PPD wanes at about this age in infants vaccinated with BCG 4-5 years 124. Patients being treated with antibiotics for Group A Strep pharyngitis which does not resolve in 24-48 hrs should be suspected of having: Infectious mononucleosis (Triad of pharyngitis, fatigability, generalized lymphadenopathy p.979, Nelson) 125. A child with cough of 4 weeks in duration that is paroxysmal and with development of subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae on the face, most likely has: Pertussis (p.466, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 126. Earliest response to oral iron therapy is seen by: 30 days 127. A child with snoring…. Adenoid hypertrophy 128. Symptom is severe, causes child to loose consciousness: Cough syncope? or Breatholding? 129. A component of Tetralogy of Fallot, EXCEPT: Dextroposition of the major arteries 130. Statutory rape is: Rape of a minor? 131. Premarital sex is most frequent among: 132. A child with basal meningitis, it is prudent to start with this regimen: Antituberculous treatment (p.891, Nelson) 133. The following are signs of basal skull fracture, EXCEPT: Mandibular fracture (p. 1050, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 134. A 15 month old presented with recurrent bouts of abdominal pain, diarrhea, later developed bloody mucoid stools. Most likely he has: Intussusception 135. Effective in the destruction of gametocytes in Malaria: Primaquine (p.600, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 136. A newborn infant delivered presented with absence of suppination, failure to abduct the arm from the shoulder and to externally rotate the arm…. Erb-Duschene paralysis (p.491, Nelson) 137. Highly sensitive in detecting cases of Primary TB 138. Treatment of helminthiasis: every 3-6 months (p.583, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 139. Restrictive lung disease has: reduced lung volume (p.633, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 140. Physiologically acceptable fluid to be used in boluses: Isotonic solution 141. This is the most common valvular lesion involved in children with rheumatic heart disease: Mitral regurgitation (p. 991, del Mundo, 4th ed.) 142. Which of the following condition is at risk for developing subacute sclerosing panencephalitis? Measles infection before 18 mos. 143. For infants under 1,000 g, the initial feeding are either half or full-strangth breast milk or preterm formula at: 5 ml 10 ml (p. 481, Nelson) 15 ml 20 ml (to be continued) by: Ramon C. Santos, M.D. Pediatrics St. Luke’s Medical Center Last updated: March 31, 2003 Jlc March 2004 PPS Recalled Exam Subjects: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Nagayana Spots Effect of Chronic intake of drugs a. phenobarbital with vomiting c. valproic acid with hyperactivity b. phenytoin with gum hypertrophy Alice in wonderland Syndrome Dawson encephalitis Metabolic derangement in Pyloric Stenosis: hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis 2 year old exposed to a pesticide sprayed in his room suffering from nausea, vomiting, jaundice and hepatomegaly. a. lead b. mercury c. arsenic Toxicity of this substance can be found in gold mining areas a. Mercury c. lead b. Copper A 5 year old girl was screened as having a lead level of 55 ug/ml. Asymptomatic. Normal PE. What will you do? a. relocate the girl from the source of lead b. remove the girl from the source of lead and observe c. relocate the girl and admit to a hospital for IV EDTA therapy d. relocate the girl from the source of lead and treat OPD basis with EDTA Inherited as X-linked disorder and the second most common cause of mental retardation in children: a. Down syndrome b. Fragile X c. Cri du chat syndrome d. XYY Syndrome Most common gene defect in Trisomy 21: a. Translocation b. Mosaicism You suspect a case of epiglottitis, what will you do? a. do direct laryngospcopy b. do tracheostomy c. do CXR with lateral neck d. give immediately a 3rd gen cephalosporin Which of the following skin disorder is inherited as autosomal dominant? a. Pityriasis rosacea b. Psoriasis c. Acne vulgaris d. Seborrheic dermatitis Preventive pediatrics plays a major role in _ to prevent significant morbidity and mortality: a. child abuse b. nicotine addiction c. teen pregnancy The most common cause of neonatal gastrointestinal obstruction: a. aganglionic megacolon b. meconium ileus The following are useful in differentiating Hisrchsprung from functional constipation except: a. symptoms start from birth b. rectal biopsy c. presence of stool in ampulla d. palpation of feces in the abdomen 16. The SMR of a girl with sparse, straight pubic hair and papilla and areola form a second mound: SMR 2 17. Bone aging correlates with pubertal development 18. The following is an effect of oligohydramnios except: a. pulmonary hypoplasia b. 19. IUGR with Congenital Rubella Syndrome 20. Respiratory syncitial virus 21. A 2 year old male presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and blood streaked stools: a. Meckel’s diverticulum b. Intussusception 22. Which if the following has a delay in its effect in the treatment of asthmatics: a. steroids b. nebulized budesonide c. nebulized salbutamol d. ipratropium bromide 23. A 5 day old neonate was being given theophylline then presented with irritability and seizures. Which of the following substances mimic the effect of theophylline having the same metabolite? a. caffeine b. terbutaline 24. Structures in the newborn postnally closes except: a. Patent foramen ovale b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Ductus venosus d. Infundibular pulmonic stenosis 25. Immunotherapy is based on the following: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 26. Immune system primarily involved in tuberculosis: a. macrophage and T-lymphocytes b. natural killer cells and B-lymphocytes c. macrophage and natural killer cells 27. A neonate born to mother who is on her third month of TB chemotherapy. What should be given to the infant? a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol 28. Which of the following is proven to have a protective effect against otitis media? a. breastfeeding 29. A 1 year old asthmatic who just completed his immunization 6 months ago was bitten by a stray dog. What should be given to the child? a. tetanus toxoid, tetanus vaccine, HDCV and ERIG b. HDVC and HRIG c. ERIG and HDVC 30. A hyperdynamic precordium signifies which of the following: a. right ventricular hypertrophy b. left ventricular hypertrophy c. large left to right shunt 31. A status asthmaticus seen at ER in impending respiratory failure presents with the following ABG: a. ph=7.2, pO2=60, pCO2=45 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. b. ph=7.4, pO2=80, pCO2=40 c. ph=7.2, pO2=100, pCO2=40 Which of the following is a direct measurement of hemolysis? a. hematocrit b. reticulocytosis c. retic index Which of the following is a critical level in the secondary polycythemia in congenital cyanotic heart diseases? a. 50% volume b. 55% c. 60% d. 65% Which of the following is the objective way to monitor asthma attacks? a. spirometry b. peak flow expiratory rate c. diary of symptoms Which of the following substances being given in acute attacks of asthma has an effect of transient paradoxical hypoxemia? a. ipratropium bromide b. inhaled budesonide c. IM epinephrine d. Nebulized salbutamol A NICU with equipment for surgical, pedia medical represents what level of hospital care? a. subspecialty care b. special care c. basic care d. intermediate care A 2 year old presents with hepatomegaly and a 3x3 cms palpable mass at left lower quadrant: a. neuroblastoma b. wilm’s tumor The roentgenographic pattern in osteosarcoma: a. sunburst pattern b. onion skinning The diagnostic of choice in vesicoureteral reflux: a. Renal Ultrasound b. IVP c. VCUG The probable cause for a primary reflux: a. neurogenic bladder b. cystitis c. distal bladder obstruction d. (anatomic) EEG is indicated in the following: a. febrile seizure b. first non-febrile seizure c. meningitis d. encephalitis Which of the following is noted at 9 months? a. object permanence Skipping, drawing a triangle, etc is developed at what age? a. 5 years old An infant learns to say “mama, dada” at least at what month? a. 8 months b. 9 months c. 10 months d. 12 months Which of the following developmental aspect is markedly developed at 2 years old? a. social b. cognitive c. linguistic 47. Breathholding peaks at what age? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 24 months d. 36 months 48. Which of the following is the most commonly used instrument in ‘child abuse’? a. hand 49. What is the most common cause of death in child abuse? a. intentional head trauma 50. What age is high risk for submersion drowning? a. 1-4 years 51. 1-4 years old are most prone to: a. Drowning 52. A 2 day old infant presents with dyspnea. Chest x-ray showed cystic mass. a. CCAM 53. A 10 year old presents with low to moderate grade fever, sudden respiratory distress. PE showed lagging of the right chest, bronchial breath sounds below the right scapular area, dullness on percussion and tympanitic on auscultation. There is leukocytosis with neutriphilic predominance. a. pleural effusion b. lung abscess c. pneumothorax d. consolidation 54. The following characterizes pleural exudate except: a. pH > 7.2 b. serum to pleural protein ratio <0.5 a. LDH < 500 55. The diagnostics to use in the diagnosis of UTI in children: a. ultrasound of kidney and bladder b. renal scan 56. It is mandatory to measure BP at what age? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 7 years 57. Which of the following characterizes the physiology in children? a. RR and heart rate decreases markedly in the first 2 years of life b. BP increases starting at 6 years old c. All of the above 58. Cholesterol screening in adolescents especially those with a strong family history 59. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in children: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes 60. A case of basilar enhancement, hydrocephalus. No symptoms in the family. What will you give? a. anti-Kochs 61. A 10 year old was recently adopted at DSWD. Record retrieved at health center showed that he received a DPT and OPV. What will you recommend? a. DPT , OPV, MMR and Hepa B b. DT, OPV, MMR and Hepa B c. DT, OPV, MMR and Varicella Pghpeds2003c/olaiza PPS Specialty Boards Recall Questions – March 2005 1. A 1 year old patient born to an HbsAg (+) mother. Patient was given HBIg and HBV at birth; and subsequent HBV doses at 1 and 6 months old. Mother shows you patient’s hepatitis profile:HbsAg (-), anti-HbsAg (-), antiHBc (-). What do you do? a. repeat HBV immunization b. refer to hepatologist c. allay fears for mother and tell her that her child will develop antibodies to hepB in 6 months time d. do nothing 2. Pineal gland calcifies at: a. 6 years old b. 8 years old c. 10 years old d. 14 years old 3. 20 primary teeth complete at: a. 2 years old b. 3 years old c. 4 years old d. 5 years old 4. 5. 6. Object constancy is achieved at: a. 7 months b. 8 months c. 9 months d. 10 months Triad of congenital rubella: a. cardiac, cataract, deafness b. blueberry muffin lesions, cardiac, deafness c. cataract, mental retardation, deafness Most common presentation of a neonate with Hirschprung disease: a. abdominal distention with complete or partial obstruction b. delayed passage of meconium c. sepsis 7. Cranial tumor with poorest prognosis a. brainstem glioma b. craniopharyngioma c. pinealoma d. astrocytoma 8. Important in asthma management according to the Philippine Concensus for the Management of Childhood Asthma: a. regular monitoring of lung function b. gene therapy c. exercise challenge d. cow’s milk allergy 9. Couple with heredofamilial disease. What do you do: a. gene therapy b. genetic counseling 10. Diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism: a. ABG b. CXR c. ventilation lung scanning d. pulmonary angiography 11. Diagnostic exam to determine cardiac involvement in a patient with Kawasaki disease: a. CXR b. 2-D echo 12. Patient with Wilms tumor. Associated finding: a. b. hemihypertrophy --- 13. Complication of TPN: a. electrolyte imbalance, hypo/hyperglycemia b. CONS sepsis c. vitamin deficiency d. all 14. Vitamin A deficiency, EXCEPT: a. hyperkeratosis b. bleeding in subperiosteal areas c. associated with decreased fat intake 15. Protein requirement in 1-3 year old: a. 20 g b. 24 g c. 30 g 16. Munchaussen syndrome by proxy: definition ---17. Causes ??? myocarditis: a. Coxsackie A b. Coxsackie B c. Enteroviruses 18. Patient born to an HIV (+) mother. Youngest age when you can declare patient free of HIV infection: a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 24 months 19. Most common injury among toddlers: a. burn, fall, drowning 20. Most common injury in the home and school: a. motor vehicular accidents b. fall c. burn 21. Drowning patient is asymptomatic after resuscitation. When will patient become symptomatic: a. 4 hours b. 10-12 hours c. 12-24 hours 22. Patient with hypopigmented lesion has seizures: a. Tuberous sclerosis b. Sturge Weber c. Incontinentia Pigmenti d. Hemangiofibroma 23. Lead poisoning is treated if: a. serum lead levels > 45 mg/dl 24. 3-year old patient took 30 ml of 250mg/5ml Paracetamol. Which is correct: a. patient took toxic dose b. antidote is N-acetylcysteine c. give syrup of ipecac to induce vomiting 25. Lab exam to determine long-term control of glucose: a. FBS b. HbA1c c. urine glucose 26. Definitive diagnosis for patient with TB meningitis: a. CT scan showing basal enhancement and infarction b. positive TB culture 27. Statistic on VCUG and VUR: 28. Foul-smelling nasal discharge: a. chronic sinusitis b. diphtheria 29. Patient took metoclopramide and later manifested with choreoathetosis. What is the drug of choice: a. diphenhydramine 30. Inactivated toxin: a. toxoid 31. Erythroblastosis fetalis is what type of hypersensitivity: a. type I b. type II c. type III d. type IV 32. Most useful tool in allergy: a. skin test b. serum IgE c. RAST 33. Associated with Turner syndrome: a. Coarctation of the aorta b. Endocardial cushion defect c. PDA d. VSD 34. Associated with Down syndrome: a. VSD b. Endocardial cushion defect c. PDA d. Coarctation of the aorta 35. Presence of blowing holosystolic murmur on the left parasternal border in a patient who is cyanotic when crying: a. VSD b. PS c. PDA 36. Patient with large VSD and pulmonary hypertension. When is the best time to operate: a. 6-12 months b. 18-24 months 37. Pathognomonic sign on x-ray in necrotizing enterocolitis: a. pneumatosis intestinalis b. pneumoperitoneum 38. Patient with webbing of the neck, low posterior hairline, and lower extremity pulses weaker than the carotids: a. coarctation of the aorta 39. Congenital obstruction of the GI tract is characteristic of what type of amniotic fluid: a. anhydramnios b. oligohydramnios c. polyhydramnios 40. 6-hour old infant with hematemesis and hematochezia. This is due to maternal intake of: a. phenobarbital b. valproic acid c. lithium d. prednisone 41. 12-hour old term infant previously doing well experiences respiratory distress. Patient has soft systolic murmur and has received 3 feeds for the past 12 hours. (+) maternal history of PROM of 18 hours. Which is the least likely cause: a. TTN b. aspiration pneumonia c. sepsis d. congenital heart disease 42. 5mm induration is considered negative in: a. asymptomatic patient in endemic area b. immunocompromised patient 43. G-6-PD (+) baby. Tell mother: a. MR is common b. MR occurs in those with hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus c. MR occurs even without jaundice 44. Bird flue strain: a. H1N2 b. H2N5 c. H5N1 d. H7N3 45. SARS is due to : a. coronavirus b. rhinovirus c. echovirus 46. Congenital rubella triad: a. blueberry muffin lesions, cataract, deafness b. microcephaly, cataract, deafness c. congenital heart disease, cataract, microcephaly 47. Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and cataract comprise the triad of: a. toxoplasmosis b. congenital rubella c. CMV 48. Patient with vomiting, nausea, and histologic finding of decreased ganglionic cells a. chalasia b. achalasia 49. Normal anion gap is found in: a. RTA b. DM c. uremia d. nephrotic syndrome 50. Persistent hepB is best characterized as: a. persistent HbSAg b. persistently elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes after acute hepatitis 51. Generalized jaundice in a 1-day old. Determine: a. serum bilirubin levels b. mother’s BT c. baby’s BT d. mother and baby’s BT 52. Persistent toe-walking is a sign of which developmental delay: a. neurologic b. motor c. language 53. Adolescent with history of respiratory infection followed after 1 week by hematuria and hemoptysis. (-) dsDNA. What is the diagnosis: a. SLE b. Goodpasture’s syndrome 54. Patient with intermittent polyuria and polydipsia. Lab test needed: a. urine culture b. urinalysis and FBS c. urinalysis and GTT 55. Patient with increased skull AP diameter. This signifies premature closure of which suture: a. coronal b. sagittal c. lambdoid 56. Viral syndrome with cicatricial --a. varicella b. rubella c. CMV 57. Adolescent with hyperpigmented lesions on the mouth experiences crampy abdominal pain. a. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome b. Adenopolyposis coli c. Gardner syndrome 58. Total caloric requirement should make allowances for all of the following EXCEPT: a. basal metabolic rate b. emotional distress c. physiologic growth 59. Indirect bilirubinemia is found in: a. hypothyroidism b. breastmilk jaundice c. sepsis 60. Which of the following is not a risk factor for RDS: a. asphyxia b. maternal pre-eclampsia c. prematurity d. Cesarean delivery 61. Most common cause of prolonged fever: a. bacterial infection b. connective tissue disease c. malignancy 62. 2-week old patient presenting with opisthotonus and seizures. What do you ask: a. feeding history b. manner of delivery c. maternal history 63. Pineal gland calcifies at what age: a. 6 years old b. 8 years old c. 10 years old d. 12 years old 64. Produced in large quantities, neutralizes viruses: a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. cytokines 65. Patient with congenital hydrocephalus. Most economical diagnostic test: a. cranial ultrasound b. cranial CT scan 66. Used in diagnosing SLE, EXCEPT: a. ANA b. c. d. CBC 2-D echo C3 67. Principle of single-dose aminoglycoside a. higher peak than MIC results in bacterial killing b. prolonged exposure results in bacterial killing 68. Localize sound and familiar names a. 6 months 69. 14-year old with TB Meningitis stage III. Pullsout NGT and says she doesn’t want it reinserted and no longer wants to live. What do you do: a. reinsert NGT anyway b. comply with request c. refer to ethics committee 70. Intubated newborn with Down syndrome and Hirschsprung. Mother tells that she wants to withdraw life support. What do you do: a. comply with request b. continue management and refer to surgeon c. consult other members of the family and get consensus d. refer to ethics committee 71. Best way to prevent bicycle accident: a. do not let the child ride a bicycle b. use of helmet when riding bicycle 72. Patient with chronic diarrhea. Patient infected with: a. Amoeba b. Enterobius c. Giardia d. Trichuris 73. Suggest Wilms Tumor a. hemihypertrophy 74. Patient with abdominal pain and currant jelly stools a. intussusception 75. Indicative of Hirschsprung Disease: a. absence of meconium 76. Patient with DHF, platelet of 80,000, and blood nasal discharge. Maintenance fluid to use: a. D5LR NOVEMBER 2005 RECALL 1. Follows moving objects 180º, smiles on social contact, listens to voice and coos a. 2 months old b. 4 months old c. 6 months old d. 8 months old a. b. c. d. 2 3 4 5 2. Walks up and down the stairs a. 1 year old b. 1 ½ years old c. 2 years old d. 2 ½ years old 12. 10-year old boy with short stature, normal perinatal history, (-) illnesses; has always been smaller than other boys his age; growth is below and parallel to the 3rd percentile; bone age is consistent with height age a. constitutional growth delay b. growth hormone deficiency c. pathologic short stature d. nutritional insufficiency 3. Lifts head and chest with arms extended, tonic neck posture predominates, reaches toward and misses objects, waves at toy, listens to music a. 4 weeks old b. 8 weeks old c. 12 weeks old d. 16 weeks old 13. The mom of a preterm infant would like to be transferred to a charity hospital since she does not have any money. What do you do? a. give oxygen inhalation and thermoregulate b. start IV fluids c. do nothing 4. Imitates a triangle, names 4 colors, counts 10 pennies, dresses and undresses, asks questions about meaning of words a. 2 years old b. 3 years old c. 4 years old d. 5 years old 14. Giving pain meds to a terminally-ill patient a. palliative care 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Sits up alone and indefinitely without support, back straight, plays peek-a-boo, waves bye-bye a. 8 months old b. 10 months old c. 12 months old d. 15 months old Feeds self, seeks help when in trouble, kisses parent with a pucker, identifies 1 or more parts of the body a. 12 months old b. 15 months old c. 18 months old d. 24 months old Appearance of mandibular central incisors a. 5-7 months old b. 8-10 months old c. 10-16 months old d. 16-20 months old Sleep requirement in hours per day of a 3month old a. 17 b. 15 c. 13 d. 11 Conformity to peers is important a. preschool b. middle childhood c. early adolescence d. late adolescence 15. Iron is 2-3 times absorbed more readily in which of the following: a. cow’s milk b. breastmilk c. skimmed milk d. hypoallergenic milk 16. What is the recommended age to stop breastfeeding? a. 6 months b. 10 months c. 12 months (?) d. 18 months 17. Absolute contraindication to breastfeeding 18. Pica and anemia a. folate deficiency b. iron deficiency c. vitamin B12 deficiency 19. A patient with cough, colds, and fever with diplopia, papilledema, and cranial palsies. You suspect: a. Vitamin A intake >1500 IU per day b. Vitamin C deficiency 20. Another question on vitamins 21. The following are associated with Vitamin A deficiency except: a. silver-gray plaques on the conjunctiva b. dry and scaly skin with follicular hyperkeratosis c. fat malabsorption d. epiphyseal enlargement of wrists and ankles 10. Consolidation of sexual identity a. middle childhood b. early adolescence c. middle adolescence d. late adolescence 22. Sodium content of isotonic solution in meqs/L a. 154 b. 130 c. 77 d. 35 11. Tanner stage: previously scanty hair increased in amount and begins to curl, penis longer, testes larger 23. Question on glucose infusion rate. Know the formula. 24. True about total body water a. term infants have a higher total body water than preterms b. term infants have 90% total body water at birth c. during the 1st year of life, total body water decreases to 60% of body weight and remains at this level until puberty d. males have more total body water than females 25. True about osmolality except: a. ECF and ICF are in osmotic equilibrium because the cell membrane is freely permeable to water b. A shift of water into the ECF occurs as the ICF osmolality increases c. An increase in ECF osmolality causes a shift of water out of the ICF d. Plasma osmolality is 285-295 mOsm/kg 26. Decreased serum Na, decreased to normal urine output with increased urine Na and osmolality a. SIADH b. Cerebral salt wasting c. dehydration 27. The following are causes of metabolic acidosis except: a. RTA I b. RTA II c. diuretics 28. What is the best advice to give to parents on how to avoid swimming pool accidents? a. keep the pool covered b. build a shallow pool c. put a fence around the pool d. always have a watcher present 29. Toddlers are at least risk for: a. falls b. poisoning c. firearm-related injuries d. drowning 30. Most common accident among 2-year olds a. fall b. burns c. suffocation d. poisoning 31. Most common cause of serious injuries in motor vehicle accidents (sorry can’t remember the other choides) a. ejection a. b. c. Furosemide Mannitol Acetazolamide 34. Normal capillary refill time in seconds a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 35. True about x-linked recessive diseases a. man transfers the gene to 50% of his daughters b. heterozygous female carriers are unaffected c. may be transmitted from father to son 36. The following are components of the NBS except: a. CAH b. CH c. PKU d. MSUD 37. The following are conditions associated with polyhydramnios except: a. Ileal atreasia b. Omphalocoele c. Renal agenesis d. Duodenal atresia 38. Infants weighing <1000g can lose as much as a. 7-8 ml/kg/hr b. 6-7 ml/kg/hr c. 4-5 ml/kg/hr d. 2-3 ml/kg/hr 39. Fluid requirement of a term infant on D2-D3 of life a. 20-30 ml/kg b. 50-60 ml/kg c. 70-80 ml/kg d. 100-120 ml/kg 40. The most common site of hemorrhage in preterms a. subdural b. subarachnoid c. intracerebral d. intraventricular 41. The site of hemorrhage in a term infant delivered after a difficult labor a. subdural b. subarachnoid c. intracerebral d. intraventricular 42. LGA infant born via SVD with note of torticollis - due to traumatic rupture of SCM 32. Scale used to assess patients with altered level of consciousness a. Pediatric Trauma Score b. Glasgow Coma Score 33. Which of the following relieves increased intracranial pressure by decreasing blood flow to the choroidal arteries? 43. A preterm baby weighing 2000 grams presented with cyanosis and retractions on the 2nd hour of life a. cyanotic heart disease b. HMD 44. Which of the following can be used to distinguish between GBS and HMD? a. asymptomatic bacteremia b. well at birth c. apnea with early shock 45. A decreased risk of HMD occurs in a. Maternal use of antihypertensive medications b. Administration of antenatal steroids 46. Pneumatosis intestinalis may be found in which of the following: a. NEC b. Ileus 47. Management of a 2,500 gram infant who develops jaundice within the first 24º of life; the mom is type O while the baby is type A; (+) Coombs, TB 20, IB 18 a. start IVF and phototherapy b. exchange transfusion c. repeat bilirubin determination after 36º d. do nothing 48. Polycythemia may be seen in the following conditions except: a. twin-twin transfusion b. maternal-fetal transfusion c. SGA d. congenital spherocytosis 49. A baby was born with short palpebral fissyures, epicanthal folds, maxillary hypoplasia, micrognathia, decreased weight, length, and head circumference. These findings are consistent with: a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 50. The following causes withdrawal symptoms of tachycardia and hyperactivity except: a. alcohol b. barbiturates c. opioids d. salicylates 51. Which of the following produce withdrawal symptoms of insomnia, “goose flesh”, tachycardia, and diarrhea? a. opioids b. salicylates 52. Gastric lavage may NOT be done in which of the following? a. caustic ingestion b. chalk ingestion 54. Which of the following documents allergyspecific IgE in serum? a. RAST b. Skin test c. Skin prick/puncture technique d. Methacholine challenge test 55. Anterior uveitis may be seen in: a. JRA b. SLE c. Juvenile dermatomayositis d. Scleroderma 56. Abdominal pain, purpura, joint pains a. Kawasaki b. HSP 57. Pulseless disease with erythema nodosum and malar rash a. Takayasu arteritis b. SLE c. PAN d. HSP 58. The tips of the fingers initially appear violet becoming purpuric; with intermittent abdominal pain, hematuria, hypertension, and proteinuria a. periarteritis nodosa (don’t know if this is a typo error and should be polyarteritis nodosa) b. HSP c. IE 59. 15-year old female from the US with fever; the patient is a tampon user (also with other symptoms that I can’t remember) a. TSS b. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome 60. Strep B is a common cause of bacteremia, meningitis, and pneumonia among children < 2 years old because of: a. inability to form defenses against polysaccharide capsulecontaining organisms 61. Which of the following is the drug of choice for single dose treatment of Gonococcal infection? a. Ceftriaxone b. Penicillin G c. Cefotaxime d. Erythromycin 62. Pertussis a. b. c. d. paroxysmal cough with sore throat paroxysmal cough with wheezes paroxysmal cough without fever paroxysmal cough with hoarseness 63. Your suspicion of Salmonella enteritis is further supported by: a. exposure to a classmate with gastroenteritis b. intake of a hotdog 53. Case of a girl with recurrent, prolonged cough with pruritic, crusting lesions on the lower extremities a. work-up for immunodeficiency 64. A patient with fever, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea a. b. S. dysenteriae serotype 1 Shiga toxin-producing E. coli 65. Despite disinfecting hospital equipment, nosocomial infection by Pseudomonas still occurs because of: a. ingestion of contaminated secretions from the gastrointestinal tract b. frequent use of povidone iodine c. the use of infected linen 66. Management of a baby born to a mom with suspected MDRTB 67. Management of a baby born to a mom with untreated tuberculosis 68. Which of the following is the most common mode of Syphilis transmission among children? a. vertical b. direct contact c. sexual contact d. blood transfusion 69. Management of a neonate with (+) VDRL and RPR whose mother is positive for syphilis and was treated with penicillin for 6 months starting at 6 months AOG 70. Cold agglutinins a. Chlamydia b. Mycoplasma 71. Which of the following is the most common infection caused by Candida in immunocompetent children? a. Diaper dermatitis b. Oral thrush c. Periungual infections d. Vulvovaginitis 72. Hecht pneumonia a. Rubella b. Rubeola c. Chlamydia d. Varicella 73. Papular-pruritic gloves and socks a. Echovirus b. Coksachievirus A c. Parvovirus B19 d. Coksachievirus B 74. What is the route through which Naegleria reaches the brain? a. oral b. nasal c. hematogenous d. lymphatics 75. Which of the following is true about Giardia? a. Least common protozoal infection in the US b. Diagnosed by finding cysts, trophozoites, antigens in stool c. Boiling is ineffective for inactivating cysts d. Symptomatic infection occurs more frequently in adults than in children 76. Algid malaria a. b. c. d. Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium falciparum 77. Tramway sign a. Ascariasis b. Trichuriasis c. Enterobiasis d. Strongyloidiasis 78. Katayama fever a. Strongyloidiasis b. Filariasis c. Schistosomiasis d. Trichinosis 79. Vaccine that can be given on the first visit Hepatitis B 80. Management of a neonate born to a mother who is HBsAg positive a. give vaccine and immunoglobulin within 12 hours 81. HbeAg is obtained to determine the presence of a. acute infectious state b. perinatal infection c. resolved infection d. acute hepatitis 82. What is the optimal time for surgery of biliary atresia a. 8 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 14 weeks 83. Which of the following presents with painless rectal bleeding? a. Meckel diverticulum b. Intussuseption c. Anal fissure d. Volvulus 84. Direct bilirubinemia with bile duct paucity, broad forehead, mandibular hypoplasia, and peripheral pulmonic stenosis a. Byler b. Alagille c. Dubin-Johnson 85. A condition with agangliosis more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults presenting as dysphagia for solids and liquids with failure to thrive a. Achalasia b. Chalasia c. Barrett esophagus d. Hiatal hernia 86. Persistent respiratory distress after intubation in a baby with a scaphoid abdomen 87. A patient with suspected diaphragmatic hernia still has a pO2 <50 on 1.0 FiO2 after resuscitation. This is probably secondary to: a. CHD b. Pulmonary hypoplasia 88. A patient with fever, dysphagia, bulging of the peritonsillar wall with displacement of the uvula a. retropharyngeal abscess b. peritonsillar abscess c. lateral pharyngeal abscess 89. Management of a child who comes to the ER in respiratory distress and with findings suggestive of epiglottitis: a. intubate ASAP b. start corticosteriods c. request for radiologic studies d. nebulize with racemic epinephrine 90. Diagnostic of choice for bronchiectasis a. bronchogram b. bronchoscopy c. fluoroscopy d. high-resolution CT scan with thin cuts a. b. c. acute blood loss of >25% of the circulating volume <100 g/dl in the perioperative period prior to major surgery 99. Philadelphia chromosome a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. Juvenile CML 100. Management of an infant with a hemangioma on the thigh a. excise b. observe c. start steroids d. give interferon-alpha 91. A 13-year old with asthma came to the ER speaking in phrases, agitated, with HR 100, RR 30, with retractions and wheezes all over, and PEF 79% a. intermittent b. mild persistent c. moderate persistent d. severe persistent 101. Renal biopsy reveals mesangial IgA deposits in the glomerulus similar to those in IgA Nephropathy a. Alport b. SLE c. HSP d. HUS 92. Drug of choice in acute exacerbation a. IV steroids b. IV theophylline c. Inhaled steroids d. inhaled beta2 agonist 102. The edema in Nephrotic Syndrome is secondary to a. renal failure b. salt retention c. hypoalbuminemia 93. Management of a patient who is a known asthmatic whose chest x-ray revealed a 5% pneumothorax a. 100% oxygen b. beta2 agonist c. thoracentesis d. chest tube thoracotomy 103. More sensitive than IVP in detecting renal scars a. DMSA scan 94. 15-year old athlete with sudden chest pain and abdominal pain; (+) infraclavicular crepitations a. aortic aneurysm b. pneumomediastinum 95. Which of the following is the least common cause of infective endocarditis? a. Strep viridans b. Staph aureus c. Strep fecalis d. Haemophilus influenzae 96. Which of the following is the most common cause of myocarditis? a. diphtheria b. coxsackievirus B c. echovirus d. leptospirosis 97. Worsening of physiologic anemia has been proved to be associated with a. Vitamin C deficiency b. Folate deficiency c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Vitamin A deficiency 98. Blood transfusion in older children and adolescents is warranted in which of the following situations: 104. Which of the following supports a diagnosis of hypoglycemia secondary to hypopituitarism? a. microphallus b. glucagon test 105. Patients with Turner syndrome should be referred to which subspecialty for a more complete follow-up? a. Cardiology b. Endocrinology c. Genetics 106. CSF picture in viral meningitis a. b. b. c. lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal protein, normal glucose lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein, normal/decreased glucose neutrophilic pleocytosis, normal protein, normal glucose neutrophilic pleocytosis, elevated protein, normal/decreased glucose 107. Most common cause of sensorineural deafness a. bacterial meningitis b. viral meningitis 108. Triad of osteogenesis imperfecta a. low set ears, blue sclerae, deafness b. fragile bones, blue sclerae, deafness c. d. e. PPS EXAM NOVEMBER 2003 B 1. Saxitoxin is associated with b. paralytic shellfish poisoning D 2. Permanent hearing loss with reversible renal damage c. Furosemide d. Aminoglycoside mucosal secretions bronchospasm B 13. 2 year old girl with proteineria 2 gm/24 hrs, edema and hyperlipidemia a. biopsy b. steroids without biopsy c. furosemide d. steroids + cyclophosphamide B 3. Antihypertensive that causes hyperkalemia a. Propranolol b. Captopril c. Furosemide B 14. Friend asks for medical certificate a. will give certificate for the sake of friendship b. explain that you cannot give false certificate D D 15. Pathogenesis of bronchiolitis, except a. bronchiolar obstruction is due to edema b. accumulation of mucus and cellular debris c. resistance in small air passages is increased during inspiratory and expiratory phases d. repair of granulation 4. Procedure to diagnose renal scarring a. VCUG b. IVP c. UTZ d. DMSA B 5. Drug which causes hypercalciuria and nephrocalcinosis a. Chlorothiazide b. Furosemide c. Propranolol C 6. Rheumatic fever major criteria except a. carditis b. chorea c. fever d. polyarthritis D 7. Minor criteria for rheumatic fever except a. ESR b. PR interval c. ASO d. subcutaneous nodules C 8. Non-invasive diagnostic procedure a. digital subtraction angiography b. cardiac catheterization c. 2D echo with color flow doppler d. selective angiography A 9. Management of croup a. cold steam b. bronchodilator c. sedative d. morphine 10. Fear of death a. 4 – 7 years old b. 7 – 12 years old c. 12-15 years old d. 15-18 years old C 11. Transfers objects from hand-to-hand, sits without support, close-open a. 4 – 6 months b. 8 – 9 months c. 10-11 months d. 12-15 months B 12. Pathogenesis of asthma a. edema b. inflammation C 16. Na 155, K 5, Cl 110, HCO3 15; compute anion gap a. - 12 b. 20 c. 35 d. 60 B 17. 4 year old with Na 125, to increase to 132 mEqs/L, compute for Na correction b. 67 mEqs B 18. Mother with (+) PPD without signs & symptoms a. isolate baby b. BCG c. Do not isolate, do not treat, investigate other family members d. Treat with anti-TB meds D 19. 2 year old exposed to father diagnosed with PTB 2 weeks ago b. Xray, PPD then treat if positive c. Isolate from father d. Start INH regardless of PPD & chest Xray D 20. Significant 10 mm PPD a. 3 year old with BCG b. 6 year old with mother with (+) PPD c. d. 8 year old previously with 0 mm D 21. Significant PTB exposure except a. father in jail but asymptomatic b. mother with (+) PPD c. uncle with hemoptysis and fever d. child with PTB C 22. Highly infective Hepatitis B a. IgM anti-HBc b. HBsAg c. HBeAg d. HBcAg D 23. Chronic subglottic stenosis, most common cause a. Tuberculosis b. GER c. c. neonatal intubation D 24. Case of H. influenza meningitis, characteristics, except, a. common in < 2 years old b. active vaccination encouraged c. prophylaxis for household contacts d. steroids x 2 days A 34. Autoimmune disease have this complement abnormality a. C1qrsC4C3 b. C1 c. Membrane attack complex d. Properdin A 35. Preterm with sepsis, developed GI bleeding a. stress gastritis b. b. intussusception c. H. pylori associated duodenitis 36. Hemolytic disease of the newborn a. ABO more antigenic than Rh b. Can develop hydrops fetalis B 25. Vaccination with whole cell pertussis prevents a. mild cough b. paroxysmal cough of 14 days duration c. B. pertussis infection d. B. parapertussis infection C 26. Puncture wound through rubber shoes is associated with a. Group B strep b. Staph aureus c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 27. 5 year old with ALL has fever, ANC < 100 with cultures after 1 days showed ______ should be given _____ a. C. albicans – Ampho B b. Staph. aureus – Vancomycin c. Pseudomonas – Cefuroxime d. Pseudomonas – Cefotaxime 28. H. pylori, diagnostic of choice a. b. urea breath test c. d. gastroduodenoscopy with biopsy B 29. Bronchial asthma, greatest risk for status asthmaticus a. early use of steroids b. over-dependence on bronchodilators c. FEV1 > 80% of expected after agonists d. Pulsus paradoxus 10 mm Hg C C 30. Notching of rib seen in a. ASD b. VSD c. COA d. TGA B 38. When to do serum Hgb, Hct in a preterm infant a. 4 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 9 months d. anytime B 39. Nadir of Hct a. b. 3 months c. d. 7 years C 40. Majority of Hgb at birth a. Hgb A b. Hgb B c. Hgb F d. Gower B 41. Immunoglobulin which crosses the placenta a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. All of the above B 31. Egg-shaped heart a. b. VSD c. TGA d. TOF A. 32. Resection-anastomosis is procedure of choice a. COA b. PDA D 37. Abnormal blood picture a. Hgb 120 mg/d at birth b. Hgb 8.5 g/d at 5 weeks, infant preterm c. Hgb 11 in a 7 year old d. Hgb 12 in a teen-age girl 33. SLE with (+) Coomb’s test d. hemolytic anemia 42. True of restrictive lung disease a. rapid and deep breathing b. increased load carried almost exclusively by inspiratory muscles c. increased elastic recoil of the lung increases the relaxation volume d. recoil forces transmitted through the fibrous network are maximal at low lung volumes D 43. Child playing outside was bitten and developed urticaria, what to do a. steroids b. salbutamol nebulization c. d. aqueous epinephrine IM B 44. Most common cause of urticaria a. malignancy b. c. d. drugs infection parasitism 45. Causes of IgE mediated urticaria (except?) a. radioactive contrast b. aspirin c. penicillin d. thiamine 46. High-grade proteinuria (albumin +2) a. high protein intake b. exercise upon waking c. supine d. fever ≥ 38.3C A 47. Most common cause of serious intracranial injury in children less than 1 year old a. fall b. sexual abuse D 48. Mother infected with varicella early in gestation causing serious problems; advise to her regarding chances of serious infection a. 75% b. 50% c. 25% d. <5% A 49. Most common sign of physical abuse a. bruises C 50. Rubella, as compared to CMV, has a. retinopathy b. deafness c. cardiac malformations B 51. Most common presentation of rubella b. IUGR A 52. Neonate with CMV with mild hepatomegaly, all other tests normal; most likely to develop within 1 year a. hearing loss b. retinopathy c. brain loss d. loss of immunoglobulins C 53. Most severe form of malaria in immunized persons a. P. malariae b. P. vivax c. P. falciparum d. P. ovale D 54. Most lethal infection in immunocompromised patients a. M. avium b. CNS crytococcal encephalopathy c. Candidiasis (oral) d. P. carinii pneumonia A 55. Absolute contraindications in breastfeeding, except a. thyrotoxicosis b. psychiatric problems c. open TB d. mother infected with syphilis 56. First dental check-up a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 2 years old A 57. Pathogenesis of carious teeth a. frequent feeding with nursing bottle b. breastfeeding per demand c. increased sweetened juice A 58. Contraindicated in breastfeeding a. chloramphenicol b. prednisone c. furosemide d. diuretics C 59. Colostrum compared to mature milk, except a. inc. protein b. dec. fats and carbohydrates c. less salt and minerals d. inc. immunoglobulins D 60. Cerebral palsy, except a. spastic hemiplegia b. mental retardation c. d. progressive encephalopathy D 61. Characteristic of benign febrile convulsions, except a. < 5 years old b. with fever c. family history d. requiring prophylactic anticonvulsants C 62. Absence seizures, except a. rarely > 30 secs b. loss of consciousness c. post-ictal state d. 3/sec spike C 63. Most common soft tissue tumor c. rhabdomyosarcoma C 64. Access to subarachnoid space a. subdural tap b. cranial UTZ c. lumbar puncture d. ventricular tap A 65. Most common presentation of retinoblastoma a. leukocoria C 66. Cannot be differential for hypomagnesemia a. hyponatremia b. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia d. hypophosphatemia B 67. Simple test for strabismus a. red eye reflex b. cover test c. slit lamp test A 68. Contraindicated in breastfeeding a. thiouracil b. c. d. digitalis 69. True about breastmilk a. dependent on maternal diet b. fatty acid content depends on maternal diet c. mother who is undernourished without significant difference in fat content but less in amount d. varies everyday and with every meal D 79. Passage of dark, brown hematemesis, except a. esophageal varices b. peptic ulcer c. esophagitis d. gastric outlet obstruction 80. Regurgitation, all except a. effortless, nonforceful movement of stomach contents into esophagus and mouth b. improper feeding technique c. may be due to mechanical obstruction in the esophagus d. associated with failure to thrive A. 70. 14 year old adolescent took white tablets presented with lethargy, seizures, metabolic acidosis and coma. Patient took a. isoniazid b. aspirin c. acetaminophen A 71. Phenotypic expression depends on parent of origin or the gender of the parent from whom it was derived refers to: a. genomic imprinting b. deletion c. d. genetic engineering A 72. In aneuploidy states, the most common form of mental retardation occurring in 1:7001:1000 a. Trisomy 21 b. Fragile X c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13 A 73. True of NEC, except a. gastric decompression and lavage b. occurs in prematures only c. serial abdominal x-rays D 74. Embryonic origin, cystic with blood supply form the systemic circulation a. bronchogenic cyst b. CCAM c. Pulmonary hypoplasia d. Pulmonary sequestration 75. In patients with increased risk for atopy, what to advise a. breastfeeding for 6 months b. delay solid foods until 9 months c. use hydrosylated milk formula A 76. Mechanical, unobstructive causes of vomiting a. GER b. Pyloric stenosis c. Intussusception d. Hirschprung’s disease A 77. Diagnostic of choice for GER a. 24-hour pH monitoring b. barium swallow 78. Question on achalasia 81. Toxicity of drugs 2º to passage through blood-brain barrier and blood-ocular barrier a. immaturity of the barrier b. decreased permeability c. d. alkalosis C 82. Cause of neonatal hypoglycemia in DM a. b. pancreatic hypoplasia c. maternal hyperglycemia leading to hyperinsulinism d. D 83. IUGR 2º to a. transient neonatal hypoglycemia b. pancreatic hypoplasia c. maternal malnutrition d. all of the above C 84. Goitrous enlargement in neonates with hypothyroidism a. thyroid dysgenesis b. 1º hypopituitarism c. thyroid dysmorphogenesis with intake of maternal thyroid drugs B 85. 36 weeks, 4.5 kg, APGAR score 3/5 a. PT, SGA, non-asphyxiated b. PT, LGA, asphyxiated c. PT, SGA, asphyxiated d. PT, LGA, non-asphyxiated C 85. 41 week old newborn with pea-soup consistency of amniotic fluid a. b. ambubagging c. direct visualization and suctioning d. A 86. Hematuria with sensorineural hearing loss a. Alport’s syndrome D 87. L-sided Bell’s palsy, except a. drooping of left lip b. inability to close left side of the face c. decreased sensation on the left side of the face d. loss of taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue A 88. Sea-water drowning electolyte abnormalities a. hypernatremia and hyperosmolarity b. hypoosmolarity c. hyponatremia D 89. Asperger syndrome, similar to autism, except a. social interaction b. repetetive movements c. d. language C 90. Kwashiorkor and marasmus, same except marasmus has a. decreased appetite b. failure to gain weight c. muscle wasting d. normal amino acid levels D C 91. Index of adiposity a. weight b. length c. triceps skinfold thickness d. head size 92. True of growth, except a. weight as acute indicator b. head circumference an indicator c. height is a poor indicator because it is affected by fat and fluid A 93. Dengue with circulatory failure, thready pulse, narrow pulse pressure, hypotension, cold, clammy skin a. IV b. III c. II d. I 94. Patient with growth retardation, presented with tachypnea, vomiting, GFR <50%; what to give a. CHON >3 mg/kg/day b. Unrestricted carbohydrates c. Limit fat intake d. Will give water-soluble vitamins 95. Urine osmolarity >530, Urine Na 180, FeNa <10%, what to do a. give isotonic solution b. give furosemide + mannitol 96. 8 year old child with fever and abdominal pain with note of LLQ tenderness on PE, BP 130/90; UA showed hematuria and (+) WBC, what to do next a. ASO b. C3 c. Creatinine d. Lower abdominal ultrasound D 2 97. Differentiate RTA type 1 from RTA type a. b. c. d. hypercalcemia, nephrocalcinosis negative anion gap A 98. Patient had VUR on VCUG with normal UTZ, what to do next a. prophylactic antibiotics b. c. urine CS then treat d. DMSA D 99. Most common cause of injury among adolescents a. suicide b. poisoning c. d. motor vehicle accidents D 100. False statements regarding sexual abuse, except a. b. 5 year old c. 6 year old can invent stories regarding sexual abuse d. normal PE and absence of forensic evidence does not rule out sexual abuse A 101. When does human life begin a. fertilization b. implantation c. when heartbeat starts A 102. There is a need for ICU set-up because of, except: a. increased monitoring of vital signs b. skilled nurses c. increased patient:nurse ratio A 103. Genetic counseling is accepted in the following cases, except a. termination of pregnancy b. adoption A 104. Can be diagnosed prenatally among disorders of carbohydrate metabolism a. Pompe’s disease b. Tay-Sach’s disease c. Gaucher’s disease A 105. Autosomal dominant a. achondroplastic dwarfism A 106. Absence of distal femoral epiphysis in neonates is a sign of a. prematurity b. hypocalcemia c. osteogenesis imperfecta d. hypothyroidism A 107. Highly recommended by the DOH a. Vitamin A and Iron b. Vitamin C c. Multivitamins d. Vitamin B complex A 108. Most prevalent vitamin deficiency seen in 70% of the population according to DOH a. Vitamin A b. Zinc c. Calcium d. Vitamin C 109. Untreated esophagitis may lead to deficiency of this mineral a. Zinc b. Vitamin C B 110. Immunization of a 14 year old prior to transfer to a foster home a. DPT b. Td, MMR, Hepatitis B c. Varicella, Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B A 111. Drug which causes cataract a. radiation b. copper c. steroids A 112. EPI vaccines a. BCG, OPV3, DPT3, measles, hepaB3 b. MMR B 113. Despite short pediatric visits, it has a lasting effect because of a. administration of vaccines b. continuation of care c. counseling on nutrition d. counseling on prevention D 114. Physician:patient relationship is based on a. paternalism b. c. physician’s skills d. mutual trust and confidentiality c. d. D 121. 39weeks, 3.6 kg with mother having vaginal discharge 2 weeks prior to delivery a. neonatal hypothyroidism b. neonatal diabetes mellitus c. neonatal hyperthyroidism d. neonatal pneumonia D 122. Pathologic jaundice if jaundice persists longer than a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 14 days e. D 123. Most common cause of neonatal seizures d. hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy D 124. 9 year old with nocturnal enuresis a. environmental stressors b. family history c. poor school performance d. all of the above A 125. Treatment of central DI a. DDAVP C 126. Murmur of RF except a. MR b. MS c. PI d. AI B 115. Provocative test for developmental hip dysplasia a. Ortolani’s maneuver b. Barlow’s maneuver 116. Dental assessment of an 11 month old infant without primary teeth a. determine Vitamin D b. c. mandibular xray d. all of the above C 117. Needs antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis a. endotrachial intubation b. c. dental extraction d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation C 118. 4 year old with abdominal pains, anorexia, and pallor a. b. peptic ulcer c. intestinal parasitism A 127. Child presents with diarrhea and vomiting, prolonged CRT a. hypovolemic shock b. cardiogenic shock c. neurogenic shock d. distributive shock C 128. GBS except a. ascending paralysis b. CSF: CHON ↑, low sugar, 0 cells c. CSF: CHON ↑, normal sugar, 0 cells d. Responds to IVIg B 129. Most common cause of pleural effusion in children a. Tuberculosis b. Congestive heart failure c. d. bacterial pneumonia A 119. Management of HMD a. oxygenation, surfactant, antibiotics b. bicarbonate, surfactant c. oxygenation, bicarbonate A 120. True of transient tachypnea of the newborn a. slow absorption of lung fluid resulting in increased pulmonary compliance and tidal volume and decreased dead space b. resolves in 1 week air bronchogram with reticulogranular pattern clear of rales and wheezes 130. Correlates with intelligence a. adaptive b. fine motor c. personal social d. gross motor B 131. Child eats grapes and choked, presents with intermittent wheezing a. stop-valve effect b. ball-valve effect B 132. Head circumference is monitored up to a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 6 years A 133. Antidote for iron poisoning a. deferoxamine D 134. Full arrest in children 2º to a. primary cardiac pathology b. failure of resuscitation c. c. primary respiratory pathology B 135. Asymptomatic non-TB mycobacterium lymphadenitis a. treat with INH, Rifampicin b. complete surgical excision c. wait for suppuration than do incision and drainage d. partial excision and biopsy D 136. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion a. synergism b. c. pharmacotherapeutics d. pharmacokinetic interaction 137. 5 month old with meningitis, had neighbor with similar case, child has recommended vaccines. What is the etiologic agent? a. Grp B strep b. H. influenza c. N. meningitides B 138. Widespread use of this vaccine had most effect on eradication of serious infection a. N. meningitides b. H. influenza c. Typhoid C 139. Hemorrhagic fever with renal manifestations, rat-borne, discovered in Korea in 1993 a. Legionella b. Leptospirosis c. Hantavirus A 140. Vector Culex tritaeniorhyncus summarosus, nighttime-biting mosquito which feeds preferentially on large animals and birds presented with encephalitis and died within 10 days a. Japanese B encephalitis b. Arbovirus c. St. Louis encephalitis d. Eastern equine encephalitis PPS EXAM RECALL NOV 10, 2004 1. Snowman sign is seen in patients with a. TAPVR b. TGA c. TOF 2. Congenital anomalies associated with infants of diabetic mothers a. renal venous thrombosis 3. Diagnosis of an infant in the nursery with cyanosis when calm but resolves by crying a. TEF b. choanal atresia 4. A case of a 4 year old female on immunosuppresive medications contracted varicella from a brother. What would you give? a. IVIG b. varicella Ig c. varicella vaccine 5. What is the basal fluid requirement of a 3 y/o, 5 kg child? a. 1000 mL b. 400 mL c 750 mL (p. 141 Nelson 16th) 6. TB Meningitis Stage II is characterized by a. drowsiness, stiff neck b.cranial nerve palsies c. hemiplegia 7. Case on how to distinguish between a streptococcal from a non-streptococcal infection? a. antistreptolysin O > 133 todd units b. throat swab culture 8. Treatment for streptococcal throat infection a. Benzathine Pen G 1.2 M U IM single dose b. Pen V K for 10 days 9. rash of Henoch Schonlein Purpura d. >5 WBC in the CSF 14. Most common cause Hydrocephalus a. aqueductal stenosis b. post-infectious 15. A 2-year old…. a. role play b. ride tricycle name of congenital c. knows full 16. Non-billous projectile vomiting in a male newborn a. pyloric stenosis 17. A child diagnosed with Iron deficiency anemia. What happens after iron therapy in 7296 hours? a. reticulocytosis b. increase hemoglobin c. corrected hematocrit 18. Indications for assisted ventilation in a newborn a. pH < 7.25 b. pH > 7.25 c. paO2 < 40 d. pCO2 > 50 19. What will make you worry? a. Palmar reflex at 4 months old b. Moro reflex at 2 months c. Parachute reflex at 7 months d. Tonic neck reflex at 6 months 20. Treatment for Kawasaki a. IVIG and aspirin 10. Characteristics of intestinal amoebiasis except a. carrier state should be treated b. infection by a 4-nucleated cyst c. pathologic state caused by trophozoite d. most common cause of bloody diarrhea in the Philippines 21. What is the correct distribution of calories in a well nourished child in terms of proteins, fats and carbohydrates? a. 30%-10%-60% b. 35%-15%-55% 11. A patient with TOF who presents with on and off headache. Hematocrit was .68. What would be the initial management? a. hydrate b. request cranial CT scan 22. Characteristics of viral pneumonia on chest xray except a. interstitial infiltrates b. consolidation 12. Child involved in a vehicular accident who present at the ER in shock. We insert an intraosseous line to prevent a. metabolic acidosis b. hyponatremia c. hypokalemia 13. Characteristics of Guillain Barre syndrome except a. areflexia/hyporeflexia b. predominantly sensory manifestations c. progressive muscle weakness 23. Case of a patient with cough for 2 weeks, except a. TB b. pertussis 24. Which of the following drugs needs a maintenance dose which exceeds the MIC? a. B lactams b. Macrolides c. Glycopeptides d. Aminoglycosides 25. A boyscout went to Palawan, after 2 weeks developed paroxysms, hepatomegaly, etc, etc, What Plasmodium species is responsible? a. P. malariae b. P. vivax c. P. ovale d. P. falciparum 26. How would you differentiate between an uncomplicated respiratory tract infection and bacterial pneumonia? a. duration of illness more than 10 days b. color of the nasal discharge 27. A 3 y/o patient brought in because she was allegedly underweight. She is exposed to a Grandfather with occasional hemoptysis and on and off intake of anti TB drugs. On PE patient was undernourished. PPD done was 5mm induration. Chest X-ray normal. Classify patient a. Latent TB b. disseminated TB c. active TB d. drug-resistant TB 28. Treatment of choice for patient above a. INH x 9 months b. 2 months HRZ, 4 months HR c. 2 months HRZS, 7 months HR+/-S 29. A male child is characterized to have precocious puberty if he develops secondary sexual characteristics by what age? a. 10 ½ y/o b. 9 ½ y/o c 11 ½ y/o d. 12 ½ y/o 30. First sign of puberty in a male a. deepening of the voice b. testicular enlargement c. elongation of the penis 31. 20/20 vision is achieved by a. 4 years old b. 6 years old 32. Indication for ROP screening 33. External genitalia is distinguishable by what age? a. 8 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 16 weeks These are some of the questions and choices we remembered. The incomplete choices for some of the questions here does not necessarily contain the correct answer, kaya read nyo pa rin yung topic. It’s hard to remember them all since mostly cases and they were long. It also helps to have friends from the other hospitals baka they have a more complete recall. At least we hope this will give you an idea of the contents of the exam. Good luck and God bless to all. To Tisha (and Mark), who provided our official review place, not to mention the food esp Mark’s pesto and Tisha’s bangus sisig…YUM! and Girlie (and Kiko) for our review while stuck in traffic and for the blessed pencil during the exam, THANKS!!! Review tayo ulit for the orals. To our batchmates who prayed for us and gave their support, THANKS!!! TO GOD…THE GREATEST GRATITUDE OF ALL. Ge1104 PPS Exam November 2004 Recall: 1. granulation tissue- treat with silver nitrate 2. retinoblastoma- chromosome 13 3. co A –Turner’s 4. case of myocarditis 5. causes of myocarditis - Coxsackie 6. disease that is potential to be pandemic- a.HIV, b.influenza,c.Hib,d.hepatitis 7. P. falciparum 8. crying peaks-___wks 9. vitamin D - rickets 10. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia 11. TOF-management 12. JRA case 13. least in the management of PSGNtransfusion with PRBC 14. Kawasaki- IVIg and aspirin 15. percentage of acquiring allergy if father is asthmatic and patient has sinusitis 16. fluid requirement-case 17. IVH grading 18. Asthma classification-mild, moderate, severe – ans: moderate persistent 19. object permanence-9 months 20. non strep and strep pharyngitis - do throat swab 21. treatment of strep pharyngitis 22. can draw a man with 2 parts- 2 y/o 23. patrhogenesis of immune mediated thrombocytopenia 24. description of rashes-HSP 25. hemophilia 26. chromosomal aberration-MR 27. blood picture of SLE 28. Erb Duchenne 29. not needed for normal growth- lead 30. upper midarm circumference – very good gauge of nutrition for under 6 y/o 31. GBS- not a dx criteria-predominance of sensory impairment 32. 1st milk teeth-mandibular central incisors 33. anal stage- 12-36 month 34. Fe therapy at 72-96hrs- what happens- reticulocytosis 35. measles bronchopneumonia-suddenly had cyanosis- cause is-a. ards, b. ruptured pneumatocoele, c. congestive heart failure, d. pyothorax 36. side effects of erythromycinnephrocalcinosis, gray baby syndrome, enamel hypoplasia, pyloric stenosis? 37. True of idiopathic nephritic syndrome except: azotemia, edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia 38. stop breastfeeding - cimetidine, nicotine, chloramphenicol 39. what is true of infants with HIVchoices unrecalled 40. what differentiates uncomplicated URTI from chronic sinusistis: color and character of secretions, duration of symptoms for more than 10 days? 41. most common cause of diarrhearotavirus 42. True of amoebiasis:a. most common cause of bloody diarrhea, b. cyst is the infective stage,c. treat carriers of cyst, d. pathogenic-trophozoites 43. in the treatment of OM what is not true? a. uncomplicated-give 5-7 days antibiotics,b.myringotomy,c. middle ear effusion-initiate treatment with antibiotics 44. true of candida: a. fluconazole as DOC, b. most common cause of diaper rash,c. decrease incidence in the NICU due to improved conditions,d. non candica albicans sp. as the cause 45. patient on prednisone for nephritic syndrome exposed to varicella:a. give IVIg, b. give VZIg’c. decrease prednisone 46. testicular enlargement earliest –a. 7 ½, b. 9 ½ c.10 ½, d. 11 ½ 47. first sign of puberty in females- brest bud 48. pyloric stenosis- hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis 49. True of NEC-a. e of onset inversely proportional to appearance of symptoms, b. pneumatosis intestinalis, c. complicated if located at the ileum 50. NB neural tube defect-a. low set ear, B. alcoholism, c. hypothyroidism, d. methimazole 51. Denver Developmental Screening Test (DDST) – device to assess the dev Status of children during the first 6 yrs of age 52. Weight / height / HC computations 53. What is a toxoid ? 54. Breast Milk vs Cow’s Milk – composition / advantages 55. Trisomy 21 56. AD, AR, X-linked diseases 57. Klinefelter – tall 58. Caput vs cephalhematoma 59. PTB - latent 60. Toxocariasis – lung mxs 61. Rash of chicken pox – describe : cicatricial 62. Snowman – TAPVR 63. Sinuses – ethmoid, frontal – which is seen first ? 64. Kerosene – Hydrocarbon ingestion – case – mgt? 65. Case diarrhea – mgt? 66. Intussusception case 67. Choledochal cyst – case 68. Dx of UTI – KUB done wat next ? VCUG 69. Mitral stenosis – RHD 70. umbilical hernia 0.5-1 cm- observe? 71. Neonatal seizure 72. Absence or petit mal – daydreaming, poor school performance 73. Osteosarcoma vs ewings 74. Galactosemia – (+) non glucose reducing substance in urine 75. Acromegaly vs Gigantism case 76. CAH – 21 hydroxylase deficiency 77. Folic acid 78. ITP 79. what to request: px hypotonic,protruding tongue, jaundice – ans: thyroid function test 80. what to do for a patient who had bitten an electric cord, lips were burned- admit? 81. ethics of referrals 82. CMV question 83. Presents with eosinophilia 90% of the time: a. toxocara canis, b. ancylostoma, c. trichura, d. enterobius 84. x chromosome, MR- Klinefelter 85. disruptive behavior common in: a.cross country adoption, b.abandoned child, c. multiple foster care 86. least medical complication of obesity: hypertension, cholelithiasis, late menarche, MI 87. what is true with the management of burns- remove clothes, immerse in tub of water 88. optimal asthma managementmonitoring lung function 89. patient with crt 5 sec, with diarrhea, no signs of dehydration, tolerates ORS, what to do?a. send home, b. bring to a room with ok temp, c. give O2, d. hydrate 90. best or true pulse ox: a. BPincreased,b. adequate perfusion,c. ok temp, d. all 91. endorser of products, infraction of responsibility? 92. Baby with neural tube defect and low set ears, etiology- a.Syphilitic mom, b. DM, c. alcoholism, d. hyperthyroidism 93. cerebral calcification, jaundice: a. toxoplasmosis, b. CMV 94. differentiate AML from ALL: leucocytosis 95. ALL-most common site of relapseCNS 96. What is true of PDA 97. x linked recessive: color blindness, hemophilia 98. when will a positive ppd appear with mycobacterial infection 99. Tx for (+) exposure, 5 cm PPD- 9 mos INH 100 .needs ventilatory support: pH <7.2, pCO2= 50, pH> 7.4, pO2 40 and less 101. True of bresastmilk except: a.breastmilk will provide vit k for protection against hdn, b.something about IgA, c.more will have allergy with breastmilk 102.stimulates complement fixation: IgA, IgG,IgM, cytokine 103.variability in response to vaccination is due to: chemical stability, is genetically predetermined, age, immaturity of the immune system 104.vaccines-postnatal age 105. When is transfusion of PRBC warranted: a. NB PTon CPAP, FiO2 21%, Hct 40; b. term asymptomatic, Hct 28; c. term, with pneumonia Hct 35; d. PT gaining weight Hct 32 106.abscess after I and d, what is not effective: Cloxacillin, cefalexin, amoxicillin, cotrimoxazole 107.Management of OM: myringotomy, give… 108.boy VA in shock,, gave intraosseus LRS and NSS to prevent a. acidosis, b. hyponatremia, c. hypokalemia 109.normal neuro exam, 3 y/o, (+) seizures, oliguric, BP 120/80: nephritic syndrome, TB meningitis, PSGN 110.not a frequent cause of sinusitis: staphylococcus, streptococcus, H. influenza, moraxella 111.cause of prolonged cough: M. tb, Bordetella, Strep pneu 112.atypical pneumonia: mycoplasma, legionella, H. influenza 113.Zollinger Ellison-gastritis 114.Gastritis-Helicobacter pylori 115.Bilateral choanal atresia- cyanotic when mouth is closed, pink with crying 116.true B. thalassemia minor-needs Fe, hypochromic anemia? 117.Blood culture-(+) urinalysis- infective endocarditis 118. expected response when a patient is given a vaccine 119. rabies-(-) negri bodies safely rules out rabies? 120.True of cryptococcus-a.meningitis subacute and chronic;b.frombirds and pigeons,c. lab tech at greatest risk 121.least risk to develop military tb - a. 4 y/o , b.adolescent, c.immunocompromised, d, with other medical conditions? 122.NB with ground glass abdomen: meconium ileus, peritonitis, malrotation? 123.3 wks old with jaundice, acholic, with hepatomegaly,dx?-a.inspissated bile syndrome, b.biliary atresia, c.choledochal cyst,d.hepatitis 124.20/20 vision –4y/o 125.(+) HBs Ag- 1st dose vaccination before discharge, 1st dose vaccination at 2 mos? 126.Post Strep GN - a.low C3, b.(-) Ds DNA or ANA, c. Hgb <9, d.ASO titer 127. pancreatitis 128. hydrocarbon ingestion- what would you do if temp is 40C and lungs clear: a. CXR, b. Gastric Lavage, c.Give antibiotics 129. 12 y/o, (=) fever, (=) arthritis for 3 wks: diagnosis: a. JRA, b. post infectious arthritis, c. SLE, d. ankylosing spondylitis 130. will have generalized headache except: a. hypertension, b. sinusitis, c. fever, d. hypoglycemia 131. congenital hydrocephalus - arnold chiari, aqueductal stenosis, post infectious, dandy walker? 132. neonatal seizures, true of, except: in SGA after 2 wks, generalized tonic clonic? 133. not true : moro present at 2, palmar at 4 wks(2-3 wks), tonic neck reflex at 6 wks, parachute at 7 mos 134. diagnostic criteria of TSS except: thrombocytopenia, fever 38C, rash 135. complications of steroid use: psychoses, cataract and glaucoma, hypertension, bone demineralization? 136. pancytopenia 137. predispose to cancer in childhood: trisomy 18, burkitt’s lymphoma, papillomaviruses 138. bilateral clubfoot: conservative management with splint, serial casting 139. 6 toes, not aligned well articulated, what to do: observe, no harm; surgery at 1 y/o ***this is just to give you an idea of the coverage, not so sure of the answers, questions are rephrased the way we understood them. GOOD Luck and GOD BLESS!! Recalled Exam Questions - PPS NOVEMBER 15, 2006 1. The basic pathology in rheumatic diseases is a. always triggered by an infectious process b. “self-tolerance” to own’s tissue is lost c. ? d. ? Ans: B Nelsons pp 793 2. Pica is associated with which of the following: a. Toxocariasis b. Strongyloidosis c. Ascariasis d. -----------Ans: A Nelsons pp 1165. Classic presentation of VLM includes eosinophilia, fever, hepatomegaly and occurs most commonly in toddlers with a hx of pica and exposure to puppies 3. Description of Rumination disorder (Nelsons pp 73) Hallmark of this disorder is weight loss or failure to gain weight because of repeated regurgitation of food without nausea or associated GI illness 4. A mother with unknown hepatitis status gave birth to a baby girl, you should a. Give the baby hepatitis B vaccine only b. Give the baby hepatitis B vaccine and Ig c. Give the baby hepatitis B vaccine and draw blood to determine HbsAg status of baby 5. The triad of Osteogenesis imperfecta: ( always asked ito) Triad: fragile bones, blue sclerae and early deafness. Nelsons pp 2336 6. The best diagnostic test for Peptic Ulcer Disease in children a. endoscopy b. biopsy for H. pylori c. abdominal x-ray d. urea breath test ans: A Nelsons pp 1245 endoscopy is the method of choice to diagnose PUD in children 7. Drugs contraindicated for G6PD babies * nelsons pp 1637 8. PDA is commonly associated with which of the following : a. VSD b. ASD c. Pulmo-aortic window d. Coarctation of the Aorta Ans: D (?) Nelsons pp 1511 9. Patient with unilateral nasal discharge, noisy breathing and episodes of cyanosis a. Choanal atresia b. Severe nasal septum deviation c. Foreign body d. Tracheo-esophageal atresia e. 10. Most hydroceles resolved by a. 1 years old b. 2 years old c. 3 years old d. 4 years old Ans: A. Nelsons pp 1820. Most hydroceles resolves by 12 months. Hydroceles that persist beyond 1218 months may require surgical correction. 11. Which of the following best describes appendicitis a. ? b. ? c. Perforation is more common in adolescents d. Highest incidence in early childhood 12. Raynaud’s phenomenon is commonly associated with a. SLE b. JRA c. PAN d. Scleroderma ANS: D Nelsons pp 817 Raynaud’s phenomenon results from digital arterial spasm is often the earliest manifestation of Scleroderma, induced by exposure to cold and has 3 stages : pallor, cyanosis and erythema 13. Indications for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy except a. 2 episodes of tonsillitis the previous years b. Tonsillitis unresponsive to antibiotics c. Obstructive symptoms or snoring which disturbs sleep with failure to thrive d. Mother wants to enroll child at a pre-school ANS: D Nelsons pp 1397 Criteria for tonsillectomy accdg to Childrens Pittsburgh study: 7 or more throat infections tx with antibiotics in the preceeding year , 5 or more infections treated in each of the preceeding 2 year or 3 or more infections treated with antibiotics in each of the preceeding 3 year. 14. Drug of choice for MRSA a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin c. Oxacillin or nafcillin d. ( I forgot…..dolan kaya?) hehe Ans: A d. Suzuki…..Honda…Hyundai 15. Fever pattern which occurs every 3 days ( this question was very vague….) a. Dengue b. African hemorrhagic fever c. P.vivax d. Leptospirosis 16. Pancytopenia without organomegaly a. ALL b. CML c. AML d. Aplastic anemia 17. Steve Irwin ( zino zya??? Secret…dehins cya kapatid ni Zsazsa zaturnah mga ineng…) was attacked by a sting ray causing his death. The mechanism of his fatal death is a. Urticaria b. Heart block c. severe infection d. Anaphylaxis Ans: B. Steve Irwin, the crodocodile hunter of Australia was attacked by a stingray piercing his heart. (moral lesson: manood ng discovery channel paminsan2x…hwag PBB lagi or telenovela…take note Minnie and arjie…hehehe) 18. Most common cause of death among toddlers and pre-schoolers next to falls is a. Motor/vehicular accidents b. Submersion/drowning c. Poisoning/ingestion d. Sports injuries ANS: B? Nelsons pp 257 19. Best diagnosis to delineate kidney anatomy and renal mass or tumors a. CT scan b. Pelvic Ultrasound c. Xray d. VCUG 20. A completely immunized child according to EPI a. DPT OPV BCG MMR b. BCG DPT OPVE Measels Hepa c. BCG DPT OPV Varicella Hib 21. Fever with that exhibits a stepladder pattern a. Typhoid b. Kawasaki c. Dengue 22. Best decribes FUO a. Fever for more than 1 week b. Fever documented by caretaker’s history and validated by mercuric thermometer (?) c. ? d. ? FUO Nelsons pp 843 23. A 10 year old boy regularly plays soccer however lately would usually complain of DOB and chest tightness lasting 30 minutes a. Evaluate for asthma b. Cardiac work-up c. ? d. ? Ans: A 24. Classification of asthma (Please memorize table on classification and management GINA handbook) 25. Which of the following is least helpful in the diagnosis of Retinoblastoma before enucleation (?) a. CT-scan b. UTZ c. Biopsy d. Direct examination Answer: Biopsy ? answer ni Bong 26. Features of Infantile glaucoma EXCEPT a. Epiphora ( tearing) b. decreased visual acuity c. eye squeezing (blepharospasm) d. photophobia ans: B. Nelsons pp2122. classic triad of infantile glaucoma is photophobia, blepharospasm and epiphora. Visual acuity can not be illicited in infants.(oo nga ano?) 27. 6 year old child who tilts her head when watching TV, decreases her palpebral fissure and missed some letters on the snellen chart a. Myopia b. Hypertropia ( not HYPEROPIA) c. Astigmatism d. Glaucoma Answer: B …sabi ulit ni Bong. Nelson’s pp 2094. Hypertropia is a form of paralytic strabismus, 4th nerve palsy . Child exhibits head tilt to the shoulder opposite to the affected eye. Amblyopia is uncommon. Head tilting is not present in myopia, astigmatism and glaucoma. 28. General pediatrician refers a patient to a pedia-pulmo. On follow-up, patient’s mother decides to follow-up with the specialist. If you were the pulmonologist what would you do a. Refer patient back to the GP ( kung friend mo cya…hehehe) b. Accept the patient as yours since it’s the mother’s choice c. ? d. ? there are some questions on professional ethics … 29. Best describes prognosis of untreated classic MSUD a. Severe MR and death with in 5 years b. Severe MR and death with in 1 year c. Death with in a few months d. Death with in a week Ans: D Nelsons pp 409 30. Normocytic, normochromic anemia a. Thalassemia b. Anemia of chronic diseases c. Hemolytic anemia d. Aplastic anemia ( im not sure of this ) 31. Forscheimer spots are found in a. Rubella b. Rubeola c. Mumps d. Diphtheria Ans: A Nelsons pp 1033. Forscheimers spots are discrete rose colored spots on the soft palate that may coalesce into a red blush and extend over the fauces 32. Micronutrients which causes mental retardation if deficient in intake a. Zinc b. Iodine c. ?( poor memory na talaga) d. ? ( m sure di ako nabigayan ng nanay ko…) Ans: Iodine 33. DOC for candidemia a. Nystatin b. Amphotericin c. Ketoconazole d. Fluconazole ANS: B Nelsons pp 1012 34. Interstitial lymphocytic pneumonia is seen in a. HIV b. Cant recall other choices * this is the only question on AIDS and this question was also asked during previous exams 35. Newborn who manifests bilious vomiting and on abdominal x-ray shows ground glass appearance a. Meconium ileus b. Volvulus c. Malrotation d. Intussusception ANS A. Nelsons pp 1234 36. Pharmacodynamics is best defined as a. Labeling of drug b. Manufacturing of drugs c. Drug absorption, excretion, metabolism,distribution ( pharmacokinetics) d. Relationship of pharmacologic response to drug concentration in blood. Ans: D . Nelsons pp 2427 37. Polycythemia a. Increase RBC Increase blood volume b. Increase RBC, decrease blood volume c. Increase RBC, normal blood volume ans: A . Nelsons pp1641. True polycythemia is characterized by increase of both the RBCs and the total blood volume 38. Physiologic anemia of infancy begins at a. ? b. ? c. 8-12 weeks d. 6 weeks Ans: C . nelsons pp1610 39. The ff denotes poor prognosis in meningococcemia patients a. Aseptic meningitis b. Hyperpyrexia c. Purpura appearing with in 12 hours after onset of fever d. Recrudescence of fever Ans: D Nelsons pp 899 40. Newborn after 3 days developed respiratory distress. Chest x-ray shows pulmonary edema and cardiomegaly, distal heart sounds with tachycardia a. Sepsis b. HMD c. Myocarditis d. Pneumonia 41. Features of congenital varicella 42. Compute for weight of a 9 month old infant with a birthweight of 3.3 kgs Mnemonics: wt in gms = age in mos x 600 + BW Ans: 9.6 kgs ( this question repeated verbatim…hehehe) 43. A child with a height of 100 cms is approximately a. 4 yr old b. 5 yr old c. 6 yr old d. 7 yr old Ans: A mnemonic for height: age in years x 5 + 80 44. A urine collected thru a specimen bag has a false positive rate of a. 60% b. 55% c. 70% d. 85% Ans: D. CPG Approach to UTI pp 8 45. Renal agenesis is seen in a. Oligohydramnios b. Polyhydramnios c. ? d. ? Ans: A .(Nelsons pp 1783 Renal agenesis) 46. ABG’s ph 7.4 Bicarbonate 23 PO2 60 PCO2 40 sats 95%. The present mech vent settings are the ff: Fi02 80 RR 40 PIP 15 PEEP 5. What should you do: a. decrease RR b. Increase PIP to 20 c. Increase PEEP d. Increase FiO2 e. Call Dr Herbie or Dra A.E. Ans: A? for ABG’s /mech vent, I referred to Gomella 47. 5 month old with a liver span of 5 cm, palpable edge 2 cm below costal margin a. Order abdominal scan b. Refer to a hepatologist c. Follow-up after 1 year d. Order liver enzymes ans: c Nelsons pp 1309 48. The mildest but most chronic form of malaria a.falciparum b.Vivax c.malariae d.ovale ANS: C. Nelsons pp 1140 49. Question on NEC 50. Follow-up of a newborn who was discharged less than 24 hours old a. With in 48 hours b. With in 3 days c. With in a week d. With in 2 weeks Ans: A ( pp 1 of Preventive Pediatric Handbook) 51. Which one the following is a red flag? a. Sits unsupported at 7 months b. Hands still fisted at 4 months old c. Unable to hold objects at 5 motnhs old d. Unable to walk at 10 months old Ans: B ( Preventive Pediatric Handbook) 52. Most common error in blood pressure taking a. deflating the cuff very rapidly b. innapropriate size of the cuff c. failing to accurately note 1st korotkoff sound d. ? Ans: A/B . Nelsons pp 1482 53. Least priority in evaluating for FUO a. CBC b. CXR and PPD c. Torniquet test, HCT and platelet d. Blood and Bone marrow culture Ans: c? FUO dxtics pp 846 54. Nagayama spots are a feature of a. Rubella b. Rubeola c. Schistosomiasis d. HHV 6 Ans: D ( a.k.a. Roseola Nelsons pp 1070. Be careful sometimes they use “synonyms”) 55. Clinical effects upon withdrawal of drug responsible for drug fever is seen with in a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 96 hours Ans: C . Nelsons pp 844… Discontinuation of the drug is associated with resolution of the fever generally with in 72 hrs although certain drugs such as iodides are excreted for a prolonged period with fever that may persist for as long as 1 month 56. 4 year old male with chief complaint of sore throat, PE revealed erythematous ulcers on mouth and gums a. Viral Stomatitis b. Herpetic c. Vincent’s angina (?) 57. Best describes pseudomembrane of diphtheria a. Leatherlike and adherent b. Erythematous and bleeding c. ? d. ? Ans: A Nelsons pp 887 58. Post exposure treatment for Pertussis a. Erythromycin b. Rifampicin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Co-amoxiclav e. Ans: A pp 889 59. Describes Habit cough except a. Disappears during sleep b. Resistant to anti-cough medications c. Associated with voice hoarseness d. Disappears once examining MD goes out of the room Ans: C Nelsons pp 1403 60. Sinuses fully developed at 7 years old a. Frontal b. Ethmoidal c. Maxillary d. Sphenoidal Ans: A 61. NEC a. Age of onset is inversely proportional to AOG b. most common site of perforation is distal ileum c. most common sx is abdominal distention 62. Newborn home-delivered, breastfeeding purely with 1 episode of melena, unremarkable maternal hx. DX? a. aspiration of maternal blood b. NEC c. Vitamin k deficiency d. ? Ans. C . nelsons PP 1668. we think this is a case Post-neonatal Vitamin k def 63. A female school-age child exhibits blank stares and dropping of objects a. petit mal seizures b. rolandic seizures c. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy d. ? Ans: A (absence or petit mal seizures) Nelsons pp 1997 64. Newborn presents with the ff blood picture ( cant recall, can only remember the choices sori!) a. ALL b. CML c. Congenital ALL d. Congenital AML Note: familiarize na lang smear results of each entity 65. 12 month old infant still without teeth a. work-up for thyroid problem b. assure parents of familial trend c. wait until 16 months old d. bigyan ng toothbrush hehe Ans: Sa nelsons acceptable up to 13 months while sa del Mundo up to 16 months 66. Best diagnosis for Rheumatoid arthritis a. trial of aspirin therapy b. CS ( of synovial fluid?) c. ? d. ? Ans: A 67. Which of the ff is not a feature of Rh and ABO? a. reticulocytosis and anemia b. reticulocytopenia and anemia 68. Infant with (+) Nikolsky sign with crusting and rashes( can not remember if there is erythema mentioned) a. SSS b. TEN c. TSS d. Necrotizing fasciitis Ans: A /B?Nelsons pp2225 and pp 2183. Both SSS and TEN exhibit nikolsky sign (denudation of skin upon tangential pressure) however in TEN, it is only present in areas of erythema wheras in SSS, it may be present even in non-erythematous crusted areas 69. Question on mechanisms of Immunizations/ Immunoglobulins (?) (e.g. definitions of active, passive, artificial immunizations) 70. Which of the following is true about fever a. the higher the temperature the more bacterial in origin b. all fevers irregardless of character warrants complete laboratory work-up c. always warrants antibiotics d. a single episode may be benign in origin and may not warrant further investigation but just close observation and follow-up( or something to this effect) 71. Situation: Mom brings a child to you with hx of 3 days of productive cough, She wants you to give antibiotics.What should you advise? 72. MC site of skeletal TB a. spine b. knees c. hips d. clavicles ans: A (TB consensus) 73. MC form of extra-pulmonary TB in children a. scrofuloderma b. potts c. renal ans: A (TB consensus) 74. Child on HRZ develops jaundice after 2 weeks. You should: a. discontinue Rifampicin b. continue rifampicin but on a lower dose c. 75. Anti-koch’s medications which causes flulike symptoms like fever with chills a. ethambutol b. rifampicin c. INH d. Pyrazinamide Ans: A 76. Causes Drug-induced renal tubulonephritis a. quinolones b. rifampicin c. streptomycin 77. question on DOTS 78. Pregnant woman being tx for PTB, her OB discontinues her meds. Upon giving birth, you intervention for the newborn? 79. Diagnostic Classification of TB 80. What is common among the the ff: dehydration, DI, atropine , anhydrotic eczema? a. bradycardia even if with fever b. lack of shivering mechanism c. ? d. ? Ans: B??? A. B Nelsons pp 1318 81. Mechanism of physiologic weight loss in newborns a. loss of ECF b. (cant recall other choices) 82. Definitive dx of JRA a. (+) Rf b. ASO c. ESR d. CRP Ans: A 83. Question on Rheumatic Fever 84. Neonate presents with cyanosis, retractions with tachypnea a. intubate and hook to mech vent b. ambubagging 100% O2 via mask c. O2 and suctioning of secretions Ans: A? Review NALS 85. Least consideration in rehydration phase of AGE a. fluids b. anion gap c. hyperglycemia d. Sodium replacement 86. Considered as “secondary chemotherapy”(?) for PTB a. INH b. Rifampicin c. pyrazinamide d. inh and rifampicin 87. Differentiate breastfeeding from breastmilk jaundice(….walang kamatayang jaundice) 88. I think 3 or 4 questions on the characteristics of IG’s – IgG, IgE, IgA. Ig M -which Ig (G) confers maternally derived immunity -which Ig (E) is related to allergies -which Ig ( A) is present in saliva /GI secretions -which Ig (M) reflects acute infection 89. Golden period of doing Kasai procedure a. 6 b. 8 c. 16 d. 24 90. Least priority in Kwashiorkor a. anemia b. diarrhea c. infection d. dehydration 91. SMR – please memorize! Always asked 92. Earliest sign of puberty in males 93. Earliest sign of puberty in females 94. Reflexes present in a 1 month old except a. rooting b. parachute c. moro d. asymmetric tonic neck Ans: D 95. DOC for uncomplicated non-typhoidal salmonella – Nelsons mentions 2 drugs, ampi and cotri (pp 915) 96. Components of cow’s milk vs breastmilk (Del Mundo) 97. Question on infectious agents causing neonatal pneumonia 98. 99. Best describes Turner syndrome a. Buccal smear establishes dx b. abnormality in translocation of chromosome c. commonly presents with short stature and amenorrhea ( or delayed puberty?) Ans: C. Nelsons pp 1931. Mechanism is absence of 2nd X chromosome with or without mosaicism( not translocation). Cardinal findings are short stature and failure of sexual maturation. Diagnosis is thru chromosomal analysis. 100. Most dramatic event for girls ages 813 a. menarche b. breast buds c. pubic hair d. growth spurt 101. Most dramatic event for boys (middle childhood ages 10-14) e. penile enlargement f. lymphoid tissue maturation g. midface enlargement h. voice changes 102. A female 16 year old from Ilocos Sur region with vomiting and abdominal pain, probable cause a. capillariasis b. filariasis c. schistosomiasis d. ? Ans: A ( Infectious Handbook, yung local Redbook natin,hehe) 103. Paralytic shellfish poisoning a. Saxitoxin b. ? c. ? d. ? Ans: A ( this question is always asked . Nelsons pp 2377.) 104. Minamata disease a. mercury poisoning 105. Child personality type that is prone to accidents a. slow to warm kids b. hyperactive and impulsive c. introvert and pessimistic ans: B 106. Rocker-bottom feet, micrognathia, cleft lip a. trisomy 13 b. cri-du-chat c. trisomy 18 d. trisomy 21 ans: A (Nelsons pp 384, Table 70.1) 107. Limb abnormalities, microcephaly, cicatrical skin lesions, expected intrauterine infection is : a. varicella b. rubella c. influenzae d. rubeola ans: A Hi mga lola….! Hope this will help you. Sorry just finished encoding it…medyo tinamad ako hehe. Please read the compilation of past exams, it is really a great help because a lot of questions were either repeated verbatim or rephrased. Of course Nelsons pa rin and a little of del Mundo ( Nutrition, G and D and Toxicology). But please also memorize by heart the TB consensus, the Handbook on Preventive Pediatrics and the CPG’s. I think mga 10 -15 questions on PTB. Only 3 questions on Cardio, mga 7 on hema, all peripheral smear pics, grabe. As advised by madr chin and dang, read 1st the infectious chapter at later na G&D kasi memorization talaga mga milestones/anthropometric calculations. We tried to research the answers , verify nyo na rin to be sure. The exam is 150 items to be answered in 3 hours but the 1st 30 minutes is spent on filling up waiver forms and announcements/instructions. Please bring a valid ID. Our exam results were released via internet (mga midnight na ata yun or 1 am…nakakatense mag antay results!..angela tnx for everything!) . There’s no other way to pass except prayers and of course studying. Pray pray and pray harder and thank HIM afterwards..! Miss u all guys….pay me a visit dito Bukidnon at magcelebrate tayo…syempre kayo ang taya….miss ko na ang St luke’s...dorm..canteen..nsy pantry .BK..Morato…Gateway and of course ang 168….hehehe….Anji and me will pray for everybody! Motto nyo: Philippians 4:13 I can do all things thru Christ who gives me strength…! Promise ni Lord yan and He never fails us...can’t wait to celebrate with you mga lola! Love you…mwahh!!!! Its me, Madr Brends 108. The mechanism that explains why females are more predisposed to having immunologic diseases 109. Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ( thrombocytopeni, recurrent infections and eczema.) Nelsons pp 699 110. Most common site of TB in the CNS a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Brainstem d. Ventricles Ans: D 111. Snowman’s sign is seen in a. TAPVR b. TGA c. PDA d. CoA Ans: A