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Comprehensive Review Flashcards The plasma (cell) membrane is made up what of two layers of molecules? PHOSPHOLIPIDS. What does amphipathic mean? Amphipathic molecules have a polar region and a non-polar region. The polar region of phospholipids consists of what? The polar region consists of PHOSPHATE HEADS and this region is considered to be HYDROPHILIC (likes water). The non-polar region of phospholipids consists of what? The non-polar region of the cell membrane consists of FATTY ACID TAILS and this region is considered to be HYPDROPHOBIC (repels water). Which region is hydrophilic, and which is hydrophobic? What are the four main functions of the Plasma Membrane? Which organelle modifies proteins that are destined to be shipped outside of the cell or to some other organelle? It is like a Fed-Ex center that packages and ships the proteins from the ribosomes. What is the smallest living unit in the body? Which organelle is responsible for generating much of the cell’s ATP? What are the monomers (building blocks) of proteins? When GENE TRANSCRIPTION occurs, it is characterized by ____? Where in the cell does transcription occur? When TRANSLATION occurs, it is characterized by ____? Where in the cell does translation occur? How many chromosomes are in the nucleus of a typical diploid cell? Each gamete (ovum or sperm) has how many chromosomes? What is a chromosome? DNA is made out of what? FUNCTIONS OF THE PLASMA MEMBRANE 1) it controls the movement of substances into and out of the cell 2) It acts as a barrier to the external environment 3) It acts as a site for receiving signals from the rest of the body 4) It acts as a site for holding the cell in place Golgi complex modifies proteins that are destined to be shipped outside of the cell or to some other organelle Mitochondria Amino acids When GENE TRANSCRIPTION occurs, it is characterized by mRNA SYNTHESIS (messenger RNA is synthesized). This occurs in the nucleus. The mRNA then exits the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm. When TRANSLATION occurs, it is characterized by PROTEIN SYNTHESIS. This occurs in the cytoplasm. 46 23 because ½ come from our mothers (0vum) and ½ from our fathers (sperm) A double-stranded string of DNA DNA is made out of Nucleic Acids 1 Comprehensive Review Flashcards How many nucleic acids are there and what are their names? Which nucleic acids pair together? What is this called when they pair together? Why is DNA called a double-stranded helix? DNA is made out of what? How many nucleic acids are there and what are their names? What is the name for a group of cells, usually similar, which share a particular function? What is an organ made of ? What part of the hair follicle is the site of hair growth and the location of the melanocytes that determine hair color? What are the layers of the epidermis and give a brief description of each Describe 3 types of most common cancer in the USA. What is the major risk factor for all three? Which one almost never metastasizes? Which one is the most metastatic? Characterize types of burns. Which one is most serious? What is the medical term for thick, red, painful scars? 4 Nucleic Acids: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C) -Each A, T, G, or C on one strand of DNA is paired to its counterpart on the other strand of DNA. A and T ONLY pair together C and G ONLY pair together When they pair up together ( A with T and G with C) they are called Base Pairs. The double strand of DNA looks like a ladder, it is then twisted into a shape called a helix, thus being called a double-stranded helix. DNA is made out of Nucleic Acids. 4 nucleic acids: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and cystosine (C) TISSUE: A group of cells, usually similar, which share a particular function. Each ORGAN is made up of one or more tissues. Hair matrix Stratum corneum (most superficial layer of epidermis) Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) Stratum granulosum (cells start to die here) Stratum spinosum Stratum basale (the deepest layer of epidermis; cells are reproducing only here) SKIN CANCER This is the most common cancer in the USA, and its major risk factor is exposure to ultraviolet light. 1) BASAL CELL CARCINOMA: Cancer of the blood vessels. Almost never metastasizes or crosses the basement membrane Looks like shiny nodules 2) SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA 25% of all cancers Will metastasize if not treated. 3) MELANOMA: cancer of the melanocytes of the epidermis Highly metastatic. Asymmetrical, sharp but irregular borders and edges Not uniform in color. FIRST DEGREE: Minor burn to the epidermis; sunburn SECOND DEGREE: Dermis separates from epidermis; blister THIRD DEGREE: Hypodermis is burned. (most severe type of burn) Keloid 2 Comprehensive Review Flashcards What is an enlargement of the lining of blood vessels, and is treated with lasers? Hemangioma What is the rare autosomal dominant disorder of melanocyte development, causing a congenital white patch of hair What is the shaft of a long bone called? What type of bone does it contain? What are the ends of a long bone called? What type of bone do they contain? What is the term for rickets caused by lack of vitamin D? What is the term for dwarfism, the type that has larger heads and hands than is proportionate? What is the term for cartilage rubbing off under the patella What type of fracture is when the skin is not broken? What type of fracture is when the bone breaks through the skin? How is a fracture described when only one side of the bone has broken? How is a fracture described when both sides of the bone have broken? What is the difference between a displaced and non-displaced fracture? Name 8 types of fractures. Which type is the most serious? Least serious? Which type is most common in children? What is it called when the hip bone breaks from osteoporosis, and then the patient falls? Piebaldism What are the three classifications of joints? Give examples of each Diaphysis Contains compact bone Epiphysis Spongy (cancellous) bone Osteomalacia Achondroplasia Chondromalacia Simple (closed) Compound (open) Incomplete Complete Describes whether or not the bone fragments are lined up in a complete fracture. TYPES OF FRACTURES COMMINUTED: The most serious; bone shatters into many small pieces. Bone graft might be needed. SPIRAL: Bone was twisted. GREENSTICK: most common in children COMPRESSION: bone is crushed, like the vertebrae in osteoporosis. STRESS: least serious, get tiny, almost invisible breaks. COMPOUND FRACTURES: Bone breaks and goes through skin. Increased chance of infections, which can be life-threatening. SIMPLE FRACTURES: Skin is not broken. PATHOLOGICAL FRACTURE: When the bone (especially the hip bone of someone with osteoporosis) breaks first, then the patient falls. 1) Fibrous Joints: Fibrous connective tissue (dense regular CT) Example is suture, tooth, ligament 2) Cartilaginous Joints: a) Fibrocartilage (vertebral discs, pubic symphysis) b) Hyaline cartilage, no capsule (epiphyseal plate, costal cart) 3) Synovial: Hyaline cartilage with a capsule 3 Comprehensive Review Flashcards What are the three types of joint movement? What type of movement does a fibrocartilage (symphysis) joint have? What type of movement does a hyaline cartilage (synchondrosis) joint have? In the knee joint, what are the main ligaments that keep the knee from moving medially to laterally? What is a sprain? What is a strain? SKELETAL MUSCLE For skeletal muscle to contract, what chemical is released from the neuron? Where is this chemical released onto? What mineral is also needed for muscle contraction? What is the nerve signal called? Synarthrotic immoveable, allows no movement Amphiarthrotic allows only limited movement Diarthrotic freely moveable Amphiarthrotic (slightly moveable) Synarthrotic (no movement) the collateral ligaments A tear in a ligament A tear in a muscle For skeletal muscle to contract, a neuron must first release a chemical called acetylcholine onto the region known as the endplate. Calcium is also needed for muscle contraction. The nerve signal is called an ACTION POTENTIAL. a group of muscle fibers, surrounded by perimysium. MUSCLE FASCIA a single muscle cell MUSCLE FIBER a long organelle inside a muscle fiber MYOFIBRIL the lowest level of organization that is composed of actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin proteins. MYOFILAMENTS What are the two types of myofilaments? there are two types: actin (with troponin and tropomyosin) and myosin. The myosin heads of the thick filaments attach like hooks to the thin actin filaments at both ends of the sacromere and pull the thin filaments toward the center of the sacromere. Cross-bridges What happens to the myosin and actin filaments when sacromere contact? The sites where the myosin heads hook onto the actin are called what? 4 Comprehensive Review Flashcards TROPONIN and TROPOMYOSIN cover which myofilament when muscle is RELAXED? TROPONIN is a complex of three proteins. TROPOMYOSIN is a single protein. What nerve controls the contraction rate of the diaphragm? What is the storage form of ATP? What is muscular dystrophy caused by? How do you test for the presence of spasticity? What does a positive test look like? BONE CELLS What is the immature bone cell that makes bone? Both troponin and tropomyosin cover the ACTIN filament when the muscle is relaxed. Phrenic nerve Creatine phosphate MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY Genetic lack of the protein DISTROPHIN. The muscle cell won’t contract. Passively move their elbow or foot quickly; the muscle will tighten up or jerk 5 or more times Osteoblast (makes bone) What is a mature bone cell called? Osteocyte (mature bone cell) What bone cell breaks down bone and reabsorbs it? Osteoclast (reabsorbs bone) What is the term for a bone infection? Osteomyelitis What is the little cave called where mature bone cells are? Lacunae (where bone cells live) What are the tiny channels that allow osteocytes to transport nutrients and waste to each other? Canaliculi (allow for transport of nutrients and wastes) What are the rings in an osteon called? What are the three main kinds of arthritis? Lammellae (rings) ARTHRITIS Which one is a chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs form? OSTEOARTHRITIS: common in older people. The articular cartilage begins to break down, and bone spurs start to grow. Which one is an autoimmune disease? Which one is caused by cartilage destruction by uric acid crystals? RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: It’s an autoimmune disease where body attacks and destroys the cartilage in synovial joints. It is NOT known for having spurs, like osteoarthritis. GOUTY ARTHRITIS (gout). Caused by eating too much red meat or protein. The breakdown product is urea, and acid, which causes uric acid crystals in the cooler areas of the body, especially big toes. 5 Comprehensive Review Flashcards Hematocrit is a value describing the ratio of ____ to _____ The hematocrit is the ratio of packed red blood cells to total blood volume. What is the normal hematocrit value? Name the blood diseases: Normal is 46% for men and 38% for women. BLOOD DISEASES The blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished ANEMIA is when the blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished. It can be caused by blood loss, deficiency in iron, B12, or folic acid, RBC destruction, or a genetic defect of hemoglobin in the RBCs. Three of the causes of anemia CAUSES OF ANEMIA: lack of iron, hemorrhage, lack of vitamin B12 Cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs LEUKEMIA is cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs. RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing target cells, teardrops, spherocytes THALASSEMIA is a form of anemia. The RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin. RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing sickled erythrocytes. This anemia esp. common in Africans SICKLE CELL DISEASE is present in African Americans more than in other groups, and is always characterized by sickled erythrocytes. Too few platelets THROMBOCYTOPENIA: too few platelets, and blood doesn’t clot properly. Blood clot in a vessel THROMBUS is a blood clot in a vessel. A clot that breaks off and travels in the blood stream What is immunotherapy? EMBOLIS is a thrombus that travels in the blood stream. Which heart chamber is responsible for generating the largest pressure upon contraction? What causes the heart to beat? Left ventricle generates the largest pressure upon contraction. A form of cancer treatment that takes blood cells from a patient and fuses the blood with an antibody that is specifically designed to seek out and destroy the cancer cell. The heart does not need a nerve to stimulate it to contract, rather, specialized heart cells can spontaneously start an action potential that spreads to depolarize the rest of the cardiac muscle cells. 6 Comprehensive Review Flashcards Picture of heart depolarization structures Describe the path that an action potential takes during depolarization of the heart. What is the term for the period when the ventricles are contracting? What is the term for the period when the ventricles are relaxing? At which stage do the atria contract? Name the heart disease: Inflamed outer layer of the heart 1. First the Sinoatrial (SA) node starts an action potential which causes the atria to depolarize. 2. This depolarization will then reach the AV node at the bottom portion of the right atrium and there is a delay here because these cells are so small in diameter. 3. Another delay in the transmission of the depolarization at the bundle of His (AV bundle) because these special heart cells travel through the atrioventricular septum which is nonconductive fibrous connective tissue. Next, the depolarizing event travels through the left and right bundle branches, found in the interventricular septum, to finally arrive at the Purkinje fibers in the ventricular myocardium. Systole Diastole Diastole HEART DISORDERS PERICARDITIS: inflamed outer layer of heart. Bacteria enters the bloodstream and lodges in the heart ENDOCARDITIS: Bacteria enter bloodstream, lodges in heart Leaky heart valve is what? HEART MURMUR: The valve leaks What valve is most likely to prolapse? MITRAL VALVE is most likely to prolapse 7 Comprehensive Review Flashcards Problem with SA or AV node, causing improper heart beat ARRHYTHMIA = problem with the SA or AV node à improper heart beat. Treatment is medicines or a pacemaker. Pain caused by deficient blood delivery to the heart wall ANGINA PECTORIS = pain from not enough blood to the heart wall Complete blockage of a coronary artery MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION = Complete blockage of a coronary artery Heart disease from eating fatty food ATHEROSCLEROSIS is caused from eating fatty food Ventricles contract with rapid, random motions VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION: (the ventricles are unable to pump blood efficiently due to rapid, random contraction of cardiac muscle fibers). Progressive weakening of the heart Name these heart disease treatments. CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE is progressive weakening of the heart as it fails to keep up with the demands of pumping blood. HEART DISORDERS – treatment Surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery Angioplasty is a surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery. Medicine that reduces blood clot formation Aspirin reduces blood clot formation. Medicine that dilates coronary arteries Nitroglycerine dilates the coronary arteries so more blood can get in. Coronary bypass: Take another blood vessel graft (from thigh) and go around the blockage. Surgery that takes a blood vessel graft (from thigh) to go around a blockage Failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth Which vein is often used to bypass a damaged coronary artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is the most likely vein to become varicose anyway? Patent Foramen ovale: A ‘blue baby” has low oxygen levels in the blood that may be due to failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth. SAPHANOUS VEIN is often used to bypass a damaged coronary artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is the most likely vein to become varicose anyway. The “danger triangle” of the face can spread infection into the dural sinuses of the brain by way of which vein? FACIAL VEIN: squeezing pimples, and nose piercings in the “danger triangle” of the face can spread infection through the facial vein into the dural sinuses of the brain. 8 Comprehensive Review Flashcards Name the lymph disorder 1) Cancer of the lymph nodes; many enlarged lymph nodes that do not feel tender DISORDERS OF LYMPH SYSTEM Hodgkins disease: Cancer of the lymph nodes; many enlarged lymph nodes that do not feel tender 2) Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes and causes inflammation of lymph vessels. Mononucleosis: Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes and causes inflammation of lymph vessels. 3) Accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connective tissue EDEMA is the accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connective tissue. 4) Lymph vessel inflammation; usually from infection Lymphangitis: lymph vessel inflammation; usually from infection. 5) An infected lymph node that contains a large number of pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed Name respiratory disorder BUBO is an infected lymph node that contains a large number of pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed. RESPIRATORY DISORDER 1) Inflamed vocal cords LARYNGITIS: inflamed vocal cords (↓ sound production). 2) ASTHMA: In allergic conditions, bronchioles will constrict, blocking air flow to the lungs. In allergic conditions, bronchioles will constrict, blocking air flow to the lungs. 3) The #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer LUNG CANCER: the #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer. 4) Lack of surfactant in premature babies RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME: lack of surfactant in premature babies 5) The rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranes that produces a stabbing pain in the chest PLEURISY is the rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranes that produces a stabbing pain in the chest. 6) Collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura PNEUMOTHORAX: collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura When you are advised to get flu shots for this year’s strain of flu virus, but you do not get the shot and then you get the flu, this flu is actually what? What three features is Mononucleosis characterized by? INFLUENZA 1) Inflammation of lymph vessels 2) Painful lymph nodes 3) Infection of B-lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus 9 Comprehensive Review Flashcards Inspiration – what muscles produce inspiration? What is inflammation of the bronchi called? What respiratory conditions is loss of elastic tissue on the bronchioles and alveoli, which collapse now during exhalation What condition is characterized by a person with a large, “barrel” chest? Bacteria eat away at the enamel If the cavity extends into the pulp cavity. Bacteria cause inflammation of the gums What is the major cause of tooth loss, and how does it occur? Bacterial infection that erodes the stomach lining a small pouch in the large intestine becomes inflamed inflammation of the colon The #1 most deadly cancer because it metastasizes with no symptoms. It can be diagnosed by seeing blood in the stool. Used to looks for POLYPS, which are precancerous growths. varicose veins along the rectum Infection of the liver Liver cells die; often from alcoholism This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver disorder. It first shows up as a yellow color in the sclera of the eye because it is white there. Which cells in the Stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes which kill bacteria? Which vitamin requires an Intrinsic Factor in order to be absorbed? Lack of B12 causes what disorder? What do Chief Cells secrete? The diaphragm and the external intercostals are the muscle group that produces inspiration. Bronchitis Emphysema (a form of COPD) Emphysema (a form of COPD) CAVITY (cary) ROOT CANAL GINGIVITIS PERIODONTITIS gingiva pulls away from the tooth and extends down to the periodontal ligament. GASTRIC ULCER DIVERTICULITIS COLITIS COLON CANCER COLONOSCOPY HEMORRHOIDS HEPATITIS: Infection of the liver = (can be deadly) CIRRHOSIS: liver cells die; often from alcoholism. JAUNDICE: This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver disorder. It first shows up as a yellow color in the sclera of the eye because it is white there. PARIETAL CELLS Vitamin B-12 Pernicious (megaloblastic) Anemia Chief cells secrete an enzyme called Pepsinogin. When Pepsinogin is exposed to hydrochloric acid, it is cleaved into PEPSIN, it’s active form. Pepsin digests proteins. 10