Download Peds Practice Final

Peds Practice Final
Test ID: 22
Name: ___________________________
Date: _December 13, 2005_
1. (250). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage involves the
Intentional behavior of an infant as learned to obtain objects, create sounds, or engage in other
pleasurable activity.
(A). Primary Circular Reactions (1-4months)
(B). Secondary Circular Reactions (4-8months)
(C). Use of Reflexes(birth-1month)
(D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes (8-12months
2. (220). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage begins life with
a set of reflexes such as sucking, rooting, and grasping.
(A). Primary Circular Reactions(1-4months)
(B). Use of Reflexes(birth-1month)
(C). Secondary Circular Reactions(4-8months)
(D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes(8-12months)
3. (50). What is the leading cause of death in children age 1-14yrs old in the United States?
(A). Unintenional Injury
(B). Motor Vehicle Accidents
(C). Congenital Abnormalities
(D). Drowning
4. (370). At what point in life does weight double in 5 months and tripple with in a year
(A). It doesn't
(B). 1st year of life
(C). 2nd year of life
(D). 3 yr of life
5. (280). According to Piagets Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child display
the ability to think by using words as symbols, but logic is not well developed.
(A). Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
(B). Preoperational (2-7yrs)
(C). Concrete Operational (7-11yrs)
(D). Formal Operational (11-Adulthood)
6. (80). The definition: is a process established by a health care institution to identify, evaluate
and reduce the risk of injury to patients, staff, and visitors, and therby reduce the institutions
liablility. This is the definition for what term?
(A). Risk Assessment
(B). Risk Management
(C). Quality Improvement
(D). Risk Analisys
7. (60). What is the leading cause of death for children 1-14 yrs old under the unintential injury
catagorie?
(A). Fires and Burns
(B). Drowning
(C). Motor Vehicle Accidents
(D). Sufforcation
8. (540). When should meats be introduced?
(A). 4-6mos
(B). 6-8mos
(C). 8-10mos
(D). 10-12mos
9. (120). Parents or guardians have absolute authority to make choices about their childs health
care except? (choose all that apply)
(A). When the childs parents are unavailable
(B). When the child and parents do not agree on major treatment options
(C). When the parents choice of treatment does not permit lifesaving treatment for the
child
(D). When there is a potential conflict of interest between the child and parents, such as
with suspected child abuse or neglect
10. (360). What can a mother due to strive for the best possible outcome in pregnancy? (choose
all that apply)
(A). Seek early prenatal care
(B). avoid drugs, alcohol, tobacco, and excessive caffeine
(C). Good nutrition
(D). exercise regularly
(E). Complete bedrest
11. (30). How does pediatric care differ from that of an adult?
(A). The family is more involved in the nursing process
(B). The are just smaller adults
(C). They are more emotional
(D). They can compensate better
12. (150). When begining to examin a child what should one consider?
(A). Developmental Level
(B). Age
(C). Growth
(D). Need for Privacy
13. (470). Why do babies recieve a vitamin K injection after birth?
(A). Stimulate the immune system
(B). Promote adequate clotting
(C). Assist in growth and development
(D). Stimulate bowel motility
14. (140). The definition: intellectual or thinking processes
(A). Growth and Development
(B). Cognitive Development
(C). Motor Sensory Development
(D). Normal Development
15. (180). According to Erickson, what stage of child development does the young child initiate
new activities an considers new ideas. the interes in exploring the world creates a child who is
involved and busy. Constant criticism, on the other hand leads to feelings of guilt and lack of
purpose.
(A). Industry vs Inferiority
(B). Identity vs Role Confussion
(C). Initiative vs Guilt
(D). Autonomy vs shame
16. (310). Autosomal chromosomes are all chromosomes except the ones that determine sex.
(A). True
(B). False
17. (160). Which of the following stages according to Erickson is the following: The task of the
first year of life is to establish trust in the people providing care. Trust is fostered by provision of
food, clean clothing, touch, and comfort. If basic needs are not met, the infant will eventually learn
to mistrust others.
(A). Trust vs Mistrust
(B). Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
(C). Initiative vs Guilt
(D). Industry vs Inferiority
(E). Identity vs Role Confusion
18. (410). What age group are the following toys/activities appropriate for? Large blocks, teething
toys, toys that pop apart and back together, nesting cups and other objects that fit into one
another or stack, surprise toys such as jack in the box, social interaction with adults and other
children games such as peek aboo, soft balls, push and pull toys.
(A). birth-2 months
(B). 3-6 months
(C). 6-12months
(D). 12-18months
19. (70). Standards of Care for the Pediatric Nurse Include: (chose all that apply)
(A). Collecting health data
(B). Analyzing the assessment data in determining diagnoses
(C). Implementing the interventions identified in the care plan
(D). Evaluating the childs and familys progress toward attainment of outcomes
20. (350). The maternal use of illicit drugs can cause: (choose all that apply)
(A). neonatal addiction
(B). convulsions
(C). hyperirritability
(D). neurological disturbances
21. (210). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, Which stage do infants learn
about the world by input obtained through the senses and by their motor activity. This stage has 6
substages.
(A). Preoperational (2-7yrs)
(B). Sensorimotor (birth-1yr)
(C). Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
(D). Concrete Operational (7-11yrs)
22. (440). What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
(A). Pubic Hair
(B). Breast buds
(C). Mensus
(D). voice change
23. (260). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does the
infant display Curiosity, experimentation, and exploration predominate as the toddler tries out
actions to learn results. Objects are turned in every directions, placed in the mouth , used for
banging, and inserted in containers as their qualities and uses are explored
(A). Primary Circular Reactions (1-4months)
(B). Tertiary Circular Reactions (12-18months)
(C). Mental Combinations(18-14months)
(D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes(8-12months)
24. (290). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child
display a more accurate understanding of cause and effect.
(A). Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
(B). Preoperational (2-7yrs)
(C). Concrete Operational (7-11yrs)
(D). Formal Operational (11-Adulthood)
25. (380). How should a nurse help assist parents in preparation for the second year of life
(A). Provide anticipatory guidance
(B). Provide child development literature
(C). Assist them in childproofing their home
(D). Suggest toys to play with
26. (420). The term preschool aged refers to a child
(A). 1-3yrs
(B). 3-6yrs
(C). 6-12yrs
(D). 12-18yrs
27. (200). According to Erickson, the stage of development where as the body matures and
though processes become more complex, a new sense of identity or self is established. The self,
family, peer group, and community are all examined and redefined. The adolescent who is unable
to establish a meaningful definition on self will experience confusion in one or more roles of life.
(A). Identity vs Role Confussion
(B). Industry vs Inferiority
(C). Initiative vs Guilt
(D). Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
28. (550). At what age can a baby have honey?
(A). 6mos
(B). 8mos
(C). 12mos
(D). 18mos
29. (90). The definition: is the continuous study and improvement of the process and outcomes of
providing health care services to meet the nees of patients, by examining the systems and
process of how care and services are delivered
(A). Risk Management
(B). Quality Improvement
(C). Risk Assessment
(D). Risk Analisys
30. (130). The definition: directs health care institutions to inform hospitalized patients about their
rights, which include expressing a preference for treatment options and making advance
directives.
(A). Advanced Directives Act
(B). Self-Determination Act
(C). Good Samaritin Act
(D). Informed Consent
31. (520). When should rice cereal be introduced?
(A). 4-6mos
(B). 3-4mos
(C). birth
(D). 1-2month
32. (110). When are children 18-21yrs old permitted to give informed consent? (choose all that
apply)
(A). When they are minor parents of a child
(B). When the parents of the child are unavailable
(C). When they are emancipated minors
(D). When they are adolescents between 16-18yrs of age seeking birth conrtol, mental
health counseling, sor substance abuse treatment
33. (450). Who established DRI's and what are they used for
(A). established by the board of health. they are to be used to assess and plan intake for
individuals of different ages.
(B). established by the food and drug administration. they are to be used to assess and
plan intake for individuals of different ages.
(C). established by the food and nutrition board of the institute of medicine and the
national acadamy of science. they are to be used to assess and plan intake for
individuals of different ages
(D). established by the american acadamy of pediatrics, they are to be used to assess
and plan intake for individuals of different ages
34. (170). Which of the following stages according to Erickson follows? The toddlers sense of
autonomy or independence is shown by controlling body excretions, saying no when asked to do
something, and directing motor activity. Children who are consistently criticized for expressions of
autonomy for lack of control.
(A). Trust vs Mistrust
(B). Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
(C). Industry vs Inveriority
(D). Initiative vs Guilt
35. (270). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does
language provide a new tool for the toddler to use in understanding the world. language enables
the child to think aboiut events and objects before or after they occur. Object permanence is now
fully developed as the child actively searches for objects in various locations and out of view.
(A). Primary Circular Reactions (1-4months)
(B). Mental Combinations (18-24months)
(C). Secondary Circular Reactions (4-8months)
(D). Tertiary Circular Response (12-18months)
36. (500). When and how much fluoride should be given to a baby?
(A). 2 mos 0.25mg
(B). 4mos 0.25mg
(C). 6mos 0.25mg
(D). 8mos 0.25mg
37. (390). The following toys and activities are appropriate for what age Group? Mobiles, black
and white patterns, mirrors, music boxes, singing, tape players, soft voices, rocking and cuddling,
moving legs and arms while singing and talking, varying stimuli-different rooms, sounds, visual
changes
(A). birth to 2months
(B). 3 to 6 months
(C). 6-12 months
(D). 12-18months
38. (530). When should fruits and vegitables be introduced?
(A). 1-2mos
(B). 3-4mos
(C). 4-6 mos
(D). 6-8mos
39. (480). How many IU of vitamin D is required by an infant?
(A). 200
(B). 300
(C). 400
(D). 500
40. (320). The mothers poor nutritional status can effect a baby in many ways, choose all
answers that this can result in
(A). Low birth weight
(B). compromised neurologic performance
(C). birth defects
(D). slow development
(E). impaired immune status
41. (490). At what age does a baby need Iron supplements?
(A). 1-2mos
(B). 2-4mos
(C). 4-6mos
(D). 6-8mos
42. (190). According to Erickson, the stage of development that new interest an by involvement in
activities develop and the child takes pride in accomplishments in sports, school, home, and
community. If the child cannot accomplish what is expected, however, the result will be a sense of
inferiority.
(A). Initiative vs Guilt
(B). Industry vs Inferiority
(C). Identity vs Role Confussion
(D). Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
43. (430). The term school aged refers to a child
(A). 1-3 yrs
(B). 3-6yrs
(C). 6-12yrs
(D). 12-18yrs
44. (100). The definition: a formal preauthorization for an invasive procedure or participation in
research. Consent must be given voluntarily.
(A). Implied consent
(B). Informed consent
(C). Verbal consent
(D). Understood consent
45. (230). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does the
infant respond relexively, the pleasure gained from that response causes repetition of the
behavior.
(A). Primary Circular Reactions(1-4months0
(B). Secondary Circular Reactions(4-8months)
(C). Use of Reflexes(birth-1month)
(D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes(8-12months)
46. (40). What is the leading cause of death in the United States for infants?
(A). Motor Vehicle Accidents
(B). Congenital Abnormalities
(C). Unintential Injury
(D). Drowning
47. (10). When age range does the pediatric continum of care encumpus?
(A). Birth to 18
(B). Birth to 5
(C). Birth to College
(D). Birth to 12
48. (340). The maternal ingestion of alcohol can cause:
(A). Low Birth Weight
(B). Kidney failure
(C). Liver Failure
(D). fetal alcohol syndrome
49. (460). During life, at what time is the highest metabolic rate or highest intake requirements?
(A). Adolecents
(B). Infancy
(C). School Aged
(D). Teenagers
50. (400). What age group are the following toys/activities appropriate for: Rattles stuffed animals,
soft toys with contrasting colors, noise making objects that are easily grasped.
(A). Birth-2 months
(B). 3-6 months
(C). 6-12 months
(D). 12-18 months
51. (330). Maternal Smoking can cause:
(A). Cancer
(B). Low birth weight
(C). convulsions
(D). hyperirritability
52. (240). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, the substage where an infant
becomes aware of the environment begins to grow as the infant begins to connect cause and
effect. The sounds of bottle preperation will lead to excited behavior. If an object is partially
hidden the infant will attempt to retrieve it.
(A). Primary Circular Reactions (1-4months)
(B). Secondary Circular Reactions(4-8months)
(C). Use of Reflexes(birth-1month)
(D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes(8-12months)
53. (300). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child
become fully mature intellectuall thoughs have been attained.
(A). Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
(B). Preoperational (2-7yrs)
(C). Concrete Operational (7-11yrs)
(D). Formal Operational (11-Adulthood)
54. (20). What four roles does a nurse play in pediatrics?
(A). Caring for the patient, teaching the patient, advising the patient, managing their
progress
(B). Direct Nursing Care, Patient Management, Patient Education, Patient Advocacy
(C). Direct Nursing Care, Patient Education, Patient Advocacy, Case Management
(D). Giving Care, Patient Education, Client Advocacy, Case Management
55. (510). How are foods introduced?
(A). one at a time
(B). soft
(C). solid
(D). liquified
56. (270). What does a toddler understand about death?
(A). unable to understand death/separation anxiety
(B). may sense caregivers are tense, routines are altered
(C). believes it is reversable
(D). sleeps more
57. (570). The clinical manifestations of hyponatrimia are: (choose all that apply)
(A). anoresia, headache
(B). muscle weakness, decreased deep tendon reflexes
(C). lethargy, confusion
(D). coma/death
(E). vomiting
58. (470). Which of the following is an indicator of dehydration (choose all that apply)
(A). elevated hematocrit
(B). elveated bun
(C). edema
(D). low specific gravity
59. (400). What effect does a parents pressence have on the outcome?
(A). it allows the parents to take part in the care
(B). it reduces anxiety associated with pain and hospitalization
(C). It makes life easier on the nurse
(D). parents get in the way and impede the care
60. (820). What gamma globulin is useful in combating parasitic infections and is part of the
allergic response?
(A). IGG
(B). IGE
(C). IGA
(D). IGM
61. (480). What is the treatment of mild to moderate dehydration in a child? (choose all that
apply)
(A). oral rehydration 1-3tsp every 10-15min
(B). oral rehydration, 1 tsp every 2-3min even if vomiting
(C). iv, 50ml/hr
(D). iv, 60ml/hr
62. (490). If soft drinks or juices are used for rehydration how are they given?
(A). cold
(B). half/half
(C). warm
(D). flat
63. (240). During the period of bereavement, the nurses goal is to
(A). allow the family time to greave
(B). provide comfort and support and be physically present
(C). provide for privacy
(D). contact the mortuary
64. (810). Metabolic alkalosis exist if the HCO3 is
(A). >18mmol/L
(B). <18mmol/L
(C). <25mmol/L
(D). >25mmol/L
65. (150). an abnormal elimination pattern characterized by the recurrent soiling or passage of
stool at inappropriate times by a child who should have achieved bowel continence is the
definition of
(A). Stattorea
(B). Encopresis
(C). Diarrhea
(D). Lazzyness
66. (760). Clinical manifestations of hypomagnesemia are: (choose all that apply)
(A). tetany, hyperactive reflexes, cramps, twitching, tremors
(B). cardiac arrhythmias, seizures
(C). vomiting
(D). diarrhea
67. (850). How are immunosuppressed children best protected from infection? (choose all that
apply)
(A). frequent handwashing
(B). limit exposure to individuals with upper respiratory infections
(C). put them in a bubble
(D). vaccines (live viruses should be avoided)
68. (230). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
experience a period of emotions as the child recovers, improves steadily, and prepares for
transfer and discharge or dies or remains unresponsive
(A). anger and guilt
(B). deprivation and loss
(C). anticipatory waiting
(D). readjustment or mourning
69. (430). How is emla cream applied?
(A). 1-2hrs before the first needle stick
(B). under suran wrap
(C). 20mins before proceedure
(D). as needed
70. (320). What approach does hospice take with death?
(A). Provide pain relief
(B). Provide home care
(C). death is just an extension of life. they help patients be comfortable and prepare
(D). without death, there would be no life
71. (200). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
become more aware of their childs illness or injury and their anger may be directed toward
themselves, each other, health care providers, or other children or parents
(A). Anger and Guilt
(B). Deprivation and loss
(C). shock and disbelief
(D). anticipatory waiting
72. (60). What are the risk factors for child abuse? (choose all that apply)
(A). History of mental illness, domestic violence, incarceration, or substance abuse in the
home
(B). Family stresses, Inadequate child care or supervision, Inadequate family social
support
(C). Use of corporal punishment, Child abuse, Access to firearms, gang membership,
exposure to media violence, child hyperactivity
(D). bruises on legs, sunburns, scratches on arms
73. (340). What effect does pain have on the body?
(A). it lowers the pain threshold
(B). it initiates the stress response
(C). vital signs increase
(D). stimulates constipation
74. (620). hypokalemia exist when the lab values are:
(A). >5.8
(B). <5.8
(C). >3.5
(D). <3.5
75. (500). What are the clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume excess? (choose all
that apply)
(A). bounding pulse, distended neck veins
(B). hepatomegaly, dyspnea, orthopnea and lung crackles
(C). edema
(D). weak thready pulse
76. (980). What is the complication that can occur with Mumps?
(A). Airway obstruction
(B). Orchitis, testicular pain, sterility
(C). diarrhea
(D). cardiac arrhthmia's
77. (710). How is hypocalcemia treated?
(A). oral or iv supplimentation
(B). IM injection
(C). high calcium diet
(D). calcitonin
78. (790). Alkalosis exist if ABG CO2 levels are
(A). <27mmHg
(B). >27mmHg
(C). <41mmHg
(D). >41mmHg
79. (560). What are the clinical manifestations of hypernatremia? (choose all that apply)
(A). decreased LOC, seizures
(B). confusion
(C). lethargy
(D). coma/death
(E). vomiting
80. (390). When using a narcotic to manage pain, what should always be available?
(A). Ambu bag
(B). Entubation kit
(C). Narcan
(D). Defibrilator
81. (840). If a mother is known to have aids she is given ZDV after the first trimester, how long is
it given to the baby after delivery?
(A). 2wks
(B). 4wks
(C). 6wks
(D). 8wks
82. (420). a good way of evaluating the effectiveness of pain control is if the child sleeps.
(A). True
(B). False
83. (870). What are the clinical manifestations of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? (choose all
that apply)
(A). fever, chills, fatiue, malaise and weight loss
(B). butterfly rash on the face
(C). nausea/vomiting
(D). Diarrhea
84. (10). What is a common finding in a child that has been abused?
(A). The child is well behaved
(B). The child is developmentally delyayed
(C). The child has bruses
(D). The child runs from parents when they are attempting to get them to stop doing
something
85. (550). Treatment for hyponatremia is
(A). hypotonic sol.
(B). hypertonic sol
(C). isotonic sol
(D). oral rehydration
86. (590). When is hyperkalemia likely to occur?
(A). eatting to many bannana's
(B). vitamin overdose
(C). massive cell death (crush injury, sickle cell)
(D). eating to many green leafy vegies
87. (630). What can cause hypokalemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). eating large amounts of black licorice
(B). Diarrhea
(C). Vomiting
(D). not eating bannana's
88. (250). If a child is in a coma the nurse should
(A). tell the family to go home and we will call when they wake up
(B). encourage the family to communicate
(C). tell the family they should make plans to have a vegitable
(D). encourage the family to pray
89. (520). Hypernatremia occurs when the sodium level is
(A). >148
(B). <148
(C). >135
(D). <135
90. (920). The MMR Vaccine should be given at what ages?
(A). 18mos, 4-6yrs
(B). 12mos, 4-6yrs
(C). Birth, 4-6yrs
(D). 6mos, 4-6yrs
91. (210). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
go through the emotions of death before their child dies
(A). anger and guilt
(B). deprivation and loss
(C). anticipatory waiting
(D). readjustment or mourning
92. (30). How often should a child engage in moderate physical activity such as bike riding,
walking, baseball, or rollerblading?
(A). 20 min three times a week
(B). 30 min. three times a week
(C). 30 min five times a week
(D). daily
93. (690). Hypocalcemia exist if lab values are
(A). >5.3
(B). <5.3
(C). >4.4
(D). <4.4
94. (90). the deliberate maltreatment of another individual that inflicts pain or injuyr may result in
permanent or temporary disfigurement or even death is the definition of:
(A). emotional abuse
(B). physical abuse
(C). physical neglect
(D). emotional neglect
95. (1000). A fever isn't considered harmful until it reaches 105.9F
(A). True
(B). False
96. (40). How often should a child engage in vigorous physical activity?
(A). 20 min five times a week
(B). 30 min three times a week
(C). 20min three times a week
(D). 15 min three times a week
97. (640). What are the clinical manifestations of hypokalemia?(choose all that apply)
(A). decreased GI Motility, Abd destintion
(B). constipation, paralytic illius
(C). weakness, respiratory depression, abnormal ekg
(D). vomiting
98. (780). Acidosis exist if an ABG CO2 level is:
(A). <27mmHg
(B). >27mmHg
(C). <41mmHg
(D). >41mmHg
99. (860). When caring for a child that is immunosuppressed, it is important for the nurse to
(A). ensure handwashing is done frequently
(B). emphasize the importance of promoting the childs development
(C). ensure persons with colds due not have contact with the child
(D). ensure the childs meds are taken as perscribed
100. (70). Sahming, ridiculing, embarrassing, or insulting a child is the definition for:
(A). Emotional neglect
(B). emotional abuse
(C). sexual abuse
(D). physical neglect
101. (260). What does an infant understand about death?
(A). unable to understand the true concept of death
(B). aware someone is missing
(C). believes death is reversible
(D). stops walking or talking
102. (770). How is hypomagnesemia treated
(A). Malox
(B). Lasix
(C). administer magnesium, and treat the cause of the deficency
(D). IV solutions
103. (280). What do preschoolers understand about death?
(A). unable to understand the concept of death
(B). unable to distinguish fact from fantasy
(C). believes it is reversible
(D). separation anxiety
104. (940). The PCV vaccine should be given at what age?
(A). birth, 6mos, 1yr, 4-6yrs
(B). 2mos, 6mos 12mos, 18mos
(C). Birth, 2mos, 6mos, 12mos
(D). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 12mos
105. (530). The treatment for hypernatremia is
(A). hypotonic sol.
(B). hypertonic sol.
(C). isotonic sol
(D). oral rehydration
106. (700). What are the clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). tetany, twitchingcramping, tingling, carpal spasm, pedal spasm
(B). laryngospasm, seizures, cardiac arrhythmias
(C). death, chf, spontaneous fractures
(D). weak thready pulse
107. (50). How long should television be limited each day?
(A). 1hr
(B). 2hr
(C). 3hr
(D). 4hrs
108. (1030). How can a apnic episode be stopped in an infant?
(A). Tactile stimulation
(B). yelling
(C). pinching
(D). slapping
109. (740). how is hypermagnesemia managed?
(A). Increase urine output, dialysis
(B). multivitamins
(C). lasix
(D). st. johns wart
110. (120). Once a child has been identified as being abused, what is the goal?
(A). rehabilitation
(B). prevent further abuse
(C). treat the injuries and send them home
(D). Bitch slap the parents
111. (890). The DTAP vaccine should be given at what ages?
(A). Birth, 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 15mos
(B). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 15mos, 4-6yrs
(C). Birth, 6mos, 12mos, 18mos, 4-6yrs
(D). 2mos, 6mos, 15mos, 2yrs, 4-6yrs
112. (160). When a child has encopresis, how should the child be treated?
(A). embarrass them in front of their friends
(B). praise them when successful, don't punish when not
(C). make them wear thier dirty underware
(D). make them wear a diaper because it is easier to clean up
113. (370). What drugs should be avoided for pain management in children with chronic
conditions? (choose all that apply)
(A). Nubain
(B). Talwin
(C). Stadol
(D). morphine
114. (80). deliberate withholding of or failure to provide the necessary and available resources to
a child is the definition of:
(A). emotinal abuse
(B). emotinal neglect
(C). sexual abuse
(D). physical neglect
115. (100). the caretakers emotional unavailability to the child is the definition of:
(A). emotional abuse
(B). emotional neglect
(C). sexual abuse
(D). physical neglect
116. (540). Hyponatremia occurs when the sodium level is
(A). >148
(B). <148
(C). >135
(D). <135
117. (140). why may bulimia go unnoticed?
(A). they do it in private
(B). they may be of normal weight
(C). they eat with others
(D). Parents are stupid and don't pay attention
118. (440). What is the most significant problem with deep sedation in a child
(A). cardiac arrest
(B). incontenence
(C). respirtory depression
(D). bradycardia
119. (460). You know a infant is adequately hydrated when they urinate
(A). 2-4ml/kg
(B). 1-2ml/kg
(C). .5-1ml/kg
(D). 4-6ml/kg
120. (660). Hypercalcemia exist if the lab values are
(A). >5.3
(B). <5.3
(C). >4.4
(D). <4.4
121. (670). Clinical manifestions of hypercalcemia are: (choose all that apply)
(A). constipation, anorexia, nausea, vomiting
(B). fatigue, weakness, polyuria, cardiac arrhythmias/arrest
(C). confusion, lethargy and decreased attention span
(D). hemmorhage
122. (990). Clinical manifestations of Roseola are
(A). Nausea
(B). sudden high fever that diappears as a pale pink rash appears
(C). Vomiting
(D). Diarrhea
123. (170). Separation anxiety is likely to be seen in what age groups
(A). infant
(B). toddler
(C). preschooler
(D). school aged
124. (580). Hyperkalemia occurs when lab values are:
(A). >5.8
(B). <5.8
(C). <3.5
(D). >3.5
125. (1010). What complicatons can occur if a fever rises quickly?
(A). seizures
(B). lethargy
(C). cardiac arrhythmia
(D). Diarrhea
126. (330). What is not a reliable indicator of pain?
(A). Pain scale
(B). patients non-verbal behavior
(C). vital signs
(D). pictures drawn
127. (960). When can a child begin getting a yearly influenza vaccine?
(A). birth
(B). 1mo
(C). 6mos
(D). 18mos
128. (880). The Hepatitis B vaccine should be given at what ages?
(A). Birth, 2mos, 6mos
(B). Birth, 4mos, 8mos
(C). Birth, 6mos, 1yr
(D). Birth, 1mo. 2mos
129. (220). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
expierence a life suspended in time, and fear leaving the area because they may miss an
important procedure, physician visit, or decisions or changes in treatment.
(A). anger and guilt
(B). deprivation and loss
(C). anticipatory waiting
(D). readjustment or mourning
130. (310). What do young children fear more than dying?
(A). Pain
(B). desertion
(C). needles
(D). nurses
131. (180). When caring for a child in the hospital you should
(A). discuss all treatments with the parents
(B). Don't take any lip, tell them they are going to do what you tell them or else.
(C). Promote a sense of control, trust, and support
(D). tell the child everything you are going to do before you do it
132. (610). What are the treatments for hyperkalemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). potassium wasting diuretics
(B). kdur
(C). dialyisis
(D). k tab
133. (510). What is the treatment for extracellular fluid volume excess?
(A). compression hose
(B). treat the underlying cause
(C). diuretics
(D). elevation of the extremity
134. (1040). Cystic Fibrosis is definitively diagnosed by a possitive sweat test
(A). True
(B). False
135. (680). How is hypercalcemia treated? (choose all that apply)
(A). lasix, glucocorticoids
(B). calcitonin
(C). dialysis
(D). radiation
136. (350). What is the problem with using the oucher scale to indicate pain?
(A). the information may be unreliable
(B). the nurse should use nonverbal behaviors to varify the finding
(C). the child may point to how they want to feel
(D). The child doesn't understand
137. (190). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
experience a loss of control, an inability to regain their bearings, and feelings of immobility is
called
(A). Anger and guilt
(B). deprivation and loss
(C). Shock and disbelief
(D). anticipatory waiting
138. (380). When managing pain for a child, how should the medications be administered
(A). prn
(B). around the clock
(C). only when they are asked for
(D). as directed
139. (20). Signs that may indicate substance abuse in adolescents are: (chose all that apply)
(A). Withdrawl from sports activities, nodding off frequently during the day
(B). Teachers report a change in school work, Lack of personal hygene, lack of energy
(C). consistant classroom performance, occasional weepiness, disheveled look
(D). continued, consistent weepiness, red eyes, oral sores, respiratory discomfort
140. (290). What does a school aged child understand about death?
(A). lacks understanding
(B). unable to distinguish fact from fantasy
(C). separation anxiety
(D). acquires more realistic understanding of death
141. (730). Clinical manifestations of hypermagnesemia are: (choose all that apply)
(A). decreased muscle irritability, hypotension
(B). bradycardia, drowsiness, lethargy
(C). weak or absent deep tendon reflexes
(D). flaccid muscle paralysis, fatal repiratory depression, cardiac arythmias/arrest
(E). vomiting
142. (970). Of the following which is a clinical manifestation of Erythema Infectiosum (fifths
disease)?
(A). nasal drainage
(B). firery red rash on the cheeds giving a slapped face appearance
(C). fever
(D). lesions
143. (110). the exploitation of a child for the sexual gratification of an adult is the definition of:
(A). emotional abuse
(B). emotional neglect
(C). sexual abuse
(D). physical neglect
144. (450). A neonate has the highest % of water by weight
(A). True
(B). False
145. (720). Hypermagnesemia exist if lab values are:
(A). >2.4
(B). <2.4
(C). >1.5
(D). <1.5
146. (910). The IPV vaccine should be given at what ages?
(A). 2mos, 4mos, 12mos, 4-6yrs
(B). Birth, 2mos, 12mos, 4-6yrs
(C). 2mos, 6mos, 12mos, 4-6yrs
(D). Birth, 6mos, 12mos, 18mos, 4-6yrs
147. (360). What are common side effects to the use of opioids? (choose all that apply)
(A). sedation
(B). nausea/vomiting
(C). constipaton/itching
(D). hemorrhage
148. (130). What is the result of bulimia?
(A). Weight loss
(B). Heart attack
(C). Electrolyte imballance
(D). Problems with acid base balance
149. (830). How do most children aquire the AIDs Virus?
(A). Sexual Contact
(B). Blood transfussion
(C). perinatal transmittion
(D). infected needles
150. (800). Metabolic acidosis occurs if the HCO3 is
(A). <18mmol/L
(B). >18mmol/L
(C). <25mmol/L
(D). >25mmol/L
151. (950). When can a child start the Hep A series?
(A). 12mos
(B). 24mos
(C). 18mos
(D). 4-6yrs
152. (900). The HIB vaccine should be given at what ages?
(A). Birth, 6mos, 1yr, 4-6yrs
(B). 1mo, 4mos, 6mos. 18mos
(C). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 15mos
(D). 6mos, 8mos, 12mos, 18mos
153. (750). hypomagnesemia exist when lab values are:
(A). >2.4
(B). <2.4
(C). >1.5
(D). <1.5
154. (600). What are the clinical manifestations of hyperkalemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). hyperactivity of GI system, abd cramping, diarrhea
(B). weak muscles usually in the legs and progress to flaccid paralysis
(C). lethargic cardiac arrhythmias, abnormal ekg
(D). bradycardia, weak thready pulse, diaphoresis
155. (410). What are nonpharmacologic interventions for pain? (choose all that apply)
(A). ASA (asprin)
(B). distraction, cutaneous stimulation
(C). electroanalgesia, imagery
(D). relaxation techniques, hypnosis
156. (650). Treatments of hypokalemia are
(A). High potassium diet
(B). bannana's
(C). IV fluids
(D). lasix
157. (1020). What is the treatment for a high fever?
(A). antipyretics
(B). remove clothing
(C). increase fluid intake, tepid baths
(D). Ice bath
158. (300). What does a adolescent understand about death?
(A). believes death is reversible
(B). acquires more realistic understanding
(C). nightmares
(D). intellectually capable of understanding
159. (930). The varicella vaccine should be given at what age?
(A). Birth
(B). 2mos
(C). 15mos
(D). 20mos
160. (1320). Prior to discharge from the hospital for shunt placement for hydrocephalus, what
should be taught to the parents?(choose all that apply)
(A). signs and syptoms of shunt failure/infection
(B). dietary planning
(C). The shunt may need to be replaced as the child grows
(D). safe activity planning
161. (200). What is the most serous complication of Kawasaki disease?
(A). Cerebral involvement
(B). Cardiac involvement
(C). Spleen involvement
(D). Liver involvement
162. (90). How should a nurse monitor a child for impaired tissue perfussion post cardiac
catheterization?(choose all that apply)
(A). check capillary refill, estremity warmth
(B). pedal pulses, level of conciousness
(C). urinary output
(D). cyanosis
163. (50). After a child undergoes a cardiac catheterization, what should be monitored? (choose
all that apply)
(A). I&O's, Pedal pulses
(B). Capillary refill, sensation
(C). Warmth, and color of lower extremities
(D). Neurological status
164. (160). Once a client has been diagnosed with infective endocarditis, what should they be
taught?
(A). They should modify their exercise routine to minimize strain on the heart
(B). They should inform physicians and dentist about the history before invassive
proceedures
(C). They should take antibiotics before invasive proceedures
(D). They should perform frequent handwashing
165. (430). bleeding into a joint is refered to as:
(A). ecchymosis
(B). hemarthrosis
(C). intracapsular hemorrhage
(D). edematous joint
166. (1010). When should a small child be treated for a UTI if they are unable to tell you their
symptoms?
(A). if the urine is tea colored
(B). if the urine has a foul smell
(C). if they were continent after toilet training
(D). if bacteria is seen in the urine
167. (100). The combination of what four defects results in Tetralogy of Fallot?(choose all that
apply)
(A). Pulmonic stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy
(B). Hyperplastic left heart syndrome, tricuspid atresia
(C). Ventricular Septal Defect, Overriding of aorta
(D). Ventricular Septal Defect, Truncus Arteriosus
168. (510). What is the goal of treatment for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
(A). Normal clotting factors
(B). Normal platelet counts
(C). No hemorrhage
(D). Prevention of infection
169. (450). What medication is used to treat mild hemophillia?
(A). Fibrinogen Acetate (FBA)
(B). Desmopressin Acetate (DDAVP)
(C). Cologen Acetate (CGA)
(D). Methotrexate (MTXA)
170. (1040). What is a common concern of children with generalized edema
(A). their appearance
(B). their weight gain
(C). if they will live
(D). Social status change
171. (980). What should be taught to parents after an infant has under gone surgical repair of
Hypospadias or Epispadias and a stent is in place
(A). Proper wound care techniques
(B). Double diaper techniques
(C). Proper restraint techniques
(D). Weighing Diapers
172. (670). What are the cardinal signs of bone marrow failure?
(A). Petechiae
(B). Frank bleeding
(C). Joint Pain
(D). Hypergonadism
173. (170). The most common pathologic tachycardia, is the abrupt onset of a rapid, regular heart
rate, often to fast to count.
(A). Ventricular
(B). Atrial
(C). Supraventricular
(D). Rock heart
174. (710). How do children aquire Retinoblastoma?
(A). exposure to radiation
(B). exposure to chemicals
(C). inherited by an autosomal dominat gene
(D). prolonged exposure to the sun
175. (1270). When is Reye syndrom (encephalopathy) likely to develop?
(A). after asprin use
(B). after a mild viral illness, or aspirin use
(C). after head trauma
(D). with prolonged nausea and vomiting
176. (370). When caring for a child with sickle cell anemia, the nurse focuses on?(choose all that
apply)
(A). increasing tissue perfusion, promoting hydration
(B). controling pain, preventing infection
(C). administering transfusions and antibiotics
(D). ensuring adequate nutrition, preventing complications, providing emotional support
177. (460). When obtaining a history on a child with hemophillia, what information should be
obtained? (choose all that apply)
(A). Complete history
(B). previous episodes
(C). dietary habits
(D). Family history
178. (310). An exacerbation of the symptoms of sickle cell is termed?
(A). hemolytic crisis
(B). Sickle cell crisis
(C). hypoxic event
(D). hypoxic crisis
179. (720). What is the first sign of retinoblastoma?
(A). stigmatism
(B). white pupil, termed leukokoria or cats eye reflex
(C). nastigmus
(D). lazy eye
180. (1230). The primary nursing diagnosis for a child with otitis media is:?
(A). infection related to presence of pathogens
(B). Risk for caregiver role strain related to chronic disease
(C). Pain related to inflammation and pressure on the tympanic membrane
(D). Risk for infection related to knowledge deficit about infection in children
181. (900). Clinical manifestations of Appendicitis are? (choose all that apply)
(A). Rebound tenderness
(B). Nausea and vomiting
(C). Difficulty ambulating
(D). Painful passage of stool
182. (420). Since Iron overload is a major complication of Beta-Thalassemia, what medication
should be given?
(A). Lasix (furosemide)
(B). Dexferol (deferoxamine)
(C). Glucophage (metformin)
(D). Folic Acid
183. (1280). Signs of hydrocephalus are: (choose all that apply)
(A). Rapid head growth, bulging fontanel, split sutures
(B). Increased Itracraneal Pressure
(C). Diarrhea, hematuria, decreased bowel sounds
(D). Promininet scalp veins, translucent skin, increased tone or hyperreflexia
184. (20). What precautions should be taken when diuretics are used?
(A). Intake and Output
(B). Monitor sodium levels
(C). Monitor potassium levels
(D). Monitor mental status
185. (1110). What is the time frame from time infected with streptocaccus to the time Acute
Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis develops?
(A). 1-2 days
(B). 4-6 days
(C). 8-14 days
(D). 3-4 weeks
186. (770). How is an infant with Esophageal atresia hydrated?
(A). Orally
(B). Periferal IV
(C). Umbilical artery catheter
(D). Central Line
187. (340). What is the treatment for a child in sickle cell crisis?(choose all that apply)
(A). hydration, oxygen, pain management
(B). bedrest, blood transfussion
(C). apply ice to the joints
(D). compression bandages
188. (180). What age does Kawasaki disease occur?
(A). 10-15yrs
(B). <5yrs
(C). >5yrs
(D). >10yrs
189. (870). What is the treatment for Hirschsprugs disease? (choose all that apply)
(A). surgical removal of the aganglionic bowel and the creation of a colostomy
(B). Illiostomy
(C). TPN and a lactose free diet
(D). Diet high in fiber
190. (1100). What are the common cause of Acute Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis?
(A). blockage of urine in the urethera
(B). Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the skin or pharynix
(C). Staphylococcus
(D). Peumococcus, Coxasackie virus
191. (830). Why can't parents place a child with gastroesophageal reflux disease in a infant seat.
(A). it will interfere with the healing process
(B). it incrases intraabdominal pressure and will worsen the condition
(C). it makes the incission site prone to infection
(D). it prevents stomach contents from moving through the intestine
192. (1290). What factors can cause a shunt for hydrocephalus to fail? (choose all that apply)
(A). blockage at either end
(B). kink in the tubing
(C). bacterial infection
(D). valve breakdown
193. (910). A Diaphragmatic Hernia is life-threatening, Why?, What would you look for?
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
194. (730). When preparing an infant to feed after a cleft pallet surgery has been performed, how
should they be possitioned?
(A). Fowlers (setting up)
(B). Semi-Fowlers
(C). Trendellenburg
(D). Left lateral recumbant
195. (750). Medications for an infant after cleft pallet surgery are geared toward? (choose all that
apply)
(A). Pain Control
(B). ensure clotting at the incision
(C). Minimize crying
(D). ease the parental anxiety
196. (1330). What is the goal of clinical therapy for Cerebral Palsy?
(A). Prevention of the advancement of the disease
(B). curing the disease
(C). helping the child develop to his or her maximum level of independence
(D). Teaching the parents to adapt to a stressful environment
197. (590). What are some complications of the treatments for brain tumors? (choose all that
apply)
(A). impaired cognitive function, emotional or behavioral problems
(B). memory deficit, attention deficit
(C). nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
(D). Diabeties insipidus
198. (740). How should an infant post cleft pallet surgery be possitioned?
(A). supine with hands in soft restraints
(B). supine or sid-lying with elbows in soft restraints
(C). restrained on a papoose board
(D). seated possition to avoid aspiration
199. (120). What possition does a child with a cyanotic heart defect assume?
(A). Fowlers position
(B). Trendellenburg
(C). A knee to chest position while squating
(D). Left lateral recumbant
200. (250). What side effects of oral iron supplimentation should be taught to the child and
parents?(choose all that apply)
(A). black stools
(B). constipation
(C). flatulance
(D). foul after taste
201. (10). What medication is most commonly used to improve the hearts ability to contract and
therefore increase output?
(A). Furosemide
(B). Chloraothiazide
(C). Digoxin
(D). Spironolactone
202. (70). What treatment should be done post cardiac catheterization?(choose all that apply)
(A). Encourage fluids
(B). apply a sandbag to the operative site
(C). Permit quiet play
(D). prophalactic antibiotics
203. (800). When treating a child with Pyloric Stenosis, what diet should they be placed on?
(A). high fiber
(B). TPN
(C). High caloric
(D). High protein
204. (920). How is Necrotizing Enterocolitis Managed? (choose all that apply)
(A). discontinue all enteral feedings
(B). Antibiotics
(C). strict enteric precautions
(D). Monitor I&O's
205. (1210). What increases the incidnence of otitis media?
(A). cold air
(B). smoking
(C). swimming
(D). not drying the ears
206. (860). What are the clinical manifestations of Intussusception? (choose all that apply)
(A). acute onset of abdominal pain with vomiting and passage of brown stool
(B). increase in episodes of pain
(C). statorrhea, vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia
(D). stools are red and rsemble currant jelly , palpable mass may be present in the upper
right quadrant of the abdomen
207. (650). If a tumor is felt in the abdomen, the nurse should?
(A). Palpate the mass to determine size and shape
(B). Perform deep palpation to see if the mass moves
(C). Don't palpate notify the MD
(D). Perform gentle massage to break up the mass
208. (360). What effect does cytotoxic drugs have on someone in a sickle cell crisis?
(A). increases the production of normal blood cells
(B). decreases the production of abnormal blood cells and leads to less amount of pain
(C). destroys the abnormal cells prior to transfussion
(D). prevents vaso-occlusion
209. (660). The common initial symptoms of osteosarcoma are: (choose all that apply)
(A). Loss of function
(B). pain referred to the hip or back
(C). Edema
(D). Pulmonary metastasis
210. (1180). What causes Amblyopia (lazy eye)
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
211. (620). an asymptomatic, firm lobulated mass located to one side of the midline in the
abdomen is the definition of?
(A). Tumor in the lung
(B). Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
(C). Abdominal Aortic Anurisym
(D). Necrotic bowel syndrome
212. (220). What are the clinical manifestations of Iron deficiency anemia?
(A). Pallor, fatigue, irratability
(B). Pale, cool, clammy, cyanosis
(C). nailbed deformities, growth retardation, developmental delay
(D). tachycardia, systolic heart murmur
213. (810). After a pyloric stenosis repair, what should the parents be taught prior to going home?
(A). apply antibacterial ointment to the incission
(B). to fold the infants diaper so it does not touch the incission
(C). Proper wound care
(D). wash their hands frequently
214. (1250). after a tonsilectomy, what should the nurse monitor? (choose all that apply)
(A). vital signs, dehydration
(B). respiratory distress
(C). I&O's
(D). hemorrhage
215. (240). How should liquid iron preparations be taken?
(A). chilled to increase absorption
(B). warmed to increase absorption
(C). through a straw
(D). immediately after mixing
216. (580). What symptoms are likely to develop in a child with a brain tumor?(choose all that
apply)
(A). Headache, nausea, vomiting
(B). dizziness, change in vision or hearing
(C). Halucinations
(D). fatigue
217. (1130). What should be taught to the parents before discarge after hospitalization for acute
post infectous glomerulonephritis?
(A). Report any hematuria to the doctor immediately
(B). it may take up to 3 weeks for hypertension and gross hematuria to resolve
(C). watch for fever
(D). watch for a stone to pass
218. (390). What diet should a child be encouraged to eat while in sickle cell crisis?
(A). High Protein
(B). High calorie
(C). High Folic Acid
(D). High B12
219. (760). What possition should an infant be in prior to the repair of a Esophageal atresia?
(A). Fowlers (setting up)
(B). Semi-Fowlers (45 degrees)
(C). Trendellenburg (head slightly lower than body)
(D). Left lateral recumbant (left side)
220. (610). What congenital anomalis is associated with Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)?
(choose all that apply)
(A). aniridia (absence of the iris)
(B). hemihypertropy (abnormal growth of half of the body or body structure)
(C). genitourinary anomalies, nevi, and hamartomas (benign nodulelike growths)
(D). hypogonadism (enlargement of the gonads)
221. (630). When are Wilms' Tumors (nephroblastomas) discovered commonly?
(A). after the child begins complaining of a painful lump in their side
(B). during a bath
(C). at the doctors office
(D). at the swimming pool
222. (1140). What symptoms may an older child complain of with conjunctivitis?(choose all that
apply)
(A). ithing or burning, photophobia, mucopurulent discharge
(B). redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, pink sclera
(C). crusty cyelids
(D). green drainage
223. (130). What are the clinical manifestations of Rheumatic Fever? (choose all that apply)
(A). inflammed and painful joints, Sydenham chorea (aimless movements of the
extremities and facial grimacing
(B). Fever, painful joints, increased pulse, increased respirations
(C). Subcutaneous nodules near joints, fever, anemia
(D). Skin rash (pink macules and blanching in the middle of the lesions
224. (990). What complication is common of obstructive uropathy?
(A). nephrocalcification
(B). Hydronephrosis
(C). Kidney failure
(D). pylonephritis
225. (260). A child that undergoes a spleenectomy to treat sickle cell anemia is at risk
for?(choose all that apply)
(A). high rate of infection
(B). impaired immunity
(C). hemorrhage
(D). Death resulting from bacterial infection
226. (840). After the delivery of an infant with a omphalocele, what should be done?
(A). ensure airway is open
(B). cover the sac with sterile gauze soaked in normal saline
(C). monitor vital signs
(D). identification of additional problems
227. (1340). The primary nursing diagnosis for a child with cerebral palsy is:
(A). impaired physical mobility related to decreased muscle strength and control
(B). Sensory perceptual alteration related to cerebral damage
(C). altered nutrition less than body requirements related to difficulty in chewing and
swallowing and high metobolic needs
(D). ineffective management of thereapeutic regimen family related to excessive
demands made on family with childs complex care needs
228. (1070). When monitoring the fluid needs of a client with generalized edema, what should be
done? (choose all that apply)
(A). monitor I&O's, Vital Signs, watch for signs of respiratory distress, hypertension or
circulatory overload
(B). Urine cultures
(C). Daily Weights,
(D). Measure abdominal girth
229. (60). When teaching home care to parents of a child after cardiac catheterization, what
complications should they be instructed to observe for?(choose all that apply)
(A). fever, bleeding or bruising increasing in size at the catheterization site
(B). the foot on the side of the proceedure is cooler than the one on the opposite side
(C). cyanosis
(D). loss of feeling in the extremity the proceedure was performed on
230. (1050). What should be monitored if a client is receiving albumin intravenously?(choose all
that apply)
(A). elevated heart rate
(B). hypertension
(C). elevated respirations
(D). signs of volume overload
231. (700). What is Rhabdomyosarcoma?
(A). a tumor in the spinal cord
(B). a cancerous nodule on the skin
(C). A soft tissue cancer that is common in children
(D). a group of precancerous cells in the gonads
232. (110). What are the clinical manifestations of Tetralogy of Fallot?(choose all that apply)
(A). Polycythemia, exercise intollerance
(B). Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
(C). Metabolic Acidosis, poor rowth, clubbing
(D). Sickle cell anemia, kidney failure
233. (500). When peforming discharge teaching to a child and family members for hemophillia,
what should they be taught?(choose all that apply)
(A). Wear an medical identification tage
(B). Explain the disease process
(C). Teach how to identify internal and external bleeding
(D). Teach safety measures to prevent injury
234. (950). In Celiac's disease, the inabilty to digest glutenin and gliadin results in what?
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
235. (490). When treating a child with hemarthrois, the nurse would:
(A). keep the child on bed rest, and pad the hand rails
(B). imobilize and elevate the joint and apply ice packs
(C). perform daily range of motion exercises
(D). ensure adequate pain releif is achieved
236. (330). What prophalactic treatment is recomended for a child with sickle cell?
(A). Penicillin
(B). Antivirals
(C). Quinolones
(D). Sulfa drugs
237. (230). When should children be screened for Iron deficiency anemia?
(A). at 9 mos and again in adolesence
(B). at one year and at 12 yrs
(C). at one year and at 5yrs
(D). at 18 mos and at menarche
238. (320). What are the two most important steps in avoiding a sickle cell crisis?(choose all that
apply)
(A). Preventing exposure to infection
(B). Isolation in a possitive pressure room
(C). maintaining normal hydration
(D). frequent blood transfussions
239. (1000). What symptoms are likely to be expiernced if a child has obstructive uropathy?
(A). Abdominal Pain
(B). Hematuria
(C). Same as a UTI
(D). Proteinuria
240. (560). What medication is used in combination with methotrexate to protect normal cells?
(A). betamethasone
(B). Leucovorin
(C). epotin
(D). procrit
241. (940). A disease characterized by an intolerance for gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley,
rye and oats
(A). Protein intollerance
(B). Grain Intollerance
(C). Celiac Disease
(D). Gluten Intollerance
242. (1080). What possiton should be maintained if a client has generalized edema?
(A). Elevate the HOB
(B). Elevate Legs
(C). Seated
(D). Side lying
243. (350). What does a child with sickle cell gain from an early transfusion while in crisis?
(A). regains normal oxygen carring capacity of the blood
(B). gains immunity to fight disease
(C). Provides more energy to fight the infection
(D). relief from ischemia in major organs and body parts
244. (930). What should be monitored in a infant with Necrotizing Enterocolitis?
(A). Heart rate
(B). Respirations
(C). Abdominal Circumference every 4-8 hrs
(D). Bloos pressure
245. (40). What are the clinical manifestations of Coarctation of the Aorta?(choose all that apply)
(A). Low blood pressure in the legs
(B). High blood pressure in the arms
(C). Cyanotic Pallor
(D). Weak Femoral Pulses
246. (190). What are the clinical manifestations of Kawasaki disease?(choose all that apply)
(A). Bilateral conjunctivitis, intesnse erythema of the buccal and pharyngeal surfaces,
strawberry tongue, fever
(B). fever, conjunctivitis, erythemia, extensive ecchymosis throughout the body
(C). Dermatitis of the extremities, palmar and plantar erythema, induration of the hands
and feet
(D). Dermatitis of the trunk with an erythematous maculopapular rash, Acute cervical
lymphadenopathy, an illness not explained by another disease process
247. (820). What complications can occur with gastoesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (choose
all that apply)
(A). aspirations, pneumonia
(B). reactive airway disease
(C). color changes during feeding, apnea, hematemesis
(D). statorrhea, flatulence, irritability
248. (690). What effect does leukemic cells have on the testicles?
(A). They cause the testies to shrink
(B). They cause a painless enlargement
(C). The become painful and swollen
(D). Elephantitis
249. (570). What clinical manifestations should be reported to the oncologist if the child is
recieving chemotherapy? (choose all that apply)
(A). Temperature above 101F, any bleeding
(B). Pain with urination or defecation, sores in the mouth, vomiting or diarrhea
(C). persistent pain, signs of infection, exposure to communicaple disease
(D). hair begins to fall out
250. (640). What are some common clinical manifestations of Wilms' Tumors (nephroblastoma)?
(A). Hypertension
(B). proteinuria
(C). Hematuria
(D). kidney failure
251. (140). When caring for a child with Sydenham chorea, what should be done?
(A). restrain the child to prevent injury
(B). increase fluids
(C). monitor I&O's
(D). provide emotional support, encourage the family to participate in care
252. (30). If a child is having difficulty breathing, what possition should they be kept in?
(A). Fowlers
(B). Semi-Fowlers
(C). Trendellenburg
(D). Left lateral recumbant
253. (880). What should be taught to parents prior to discharge of an infant post surgical repair of
Hirschsprungs disease?
(A). Wound Care
(B). Potential complications
(C). Skin Care
(D). colostomy care and referal to support groups
254. (1090). acute inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidneys is termed
(A). hydronephrosis
(B). glomerulonepritis
(C). glomeruloritis
(D). nephritis
255. (680). What are the clinical manifestations of leukemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). fever, pallor, overt signs of bleeding
(B). Lethargy, malaise, anorexia
(C). Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea, general pain
(D). Joint pain, bone pain, enlargement of the liver and spleen and changes in the
lymphnodes
256. (1020). What causes Enuresis?(choose all that apply)
(A). neurological or congenital structural disorders
(B). illness, stress
(C). UTI
(D). Family history
257. (960). A early sign of celiac disease is:?
(A). Diarrhea
(B). Statorrhea
(C). Vomiting
(D). hematocezia
258. (1030). What are the clinical manifestations of Nephrotic Syndrome? (choose all that apply)
(A). Periorbital edema, weight gain, hypertension irritability
(B). anorexia, hematuria, malaise, pale shinny skin, veins are prominent, hair becomes
brittle
(C). foamy or frothy urine, generalized edema, respiratory distress
(D). increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate
259. (470). What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a child with hemophillia?
(A). Risk for impaired tissue perfusion
(B). Risk for injury
(C). Risk for hemorrhage
(D). Risk for failure to thrive
260. (1190). When working with a visually impaired child, what should the nurse do?
(A). call the childs name and identify yourself before touching the child
(B). Tell the child you are leaving the room, Describe wht each procedure will feel like
(C). Play games with them and try and scare them
(D). Let the child touch the equipment to establish familiarity, Describe wht foods are
present and their locations on the food tray
261. (970). What should parents be taught about celiac disease?
(A). Enema's may help reduce symptoms
(B). it is lifelong and will require a life long diet modification
(C). it will last up to six months and until then diet modification is needed
(D). Frequent diaper changes will be needed to prevent skin irritation
262. (520). What medications are used in the treatment of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic
Purpura?(choose all that apply)
(A). Corticosteroids
(B). cytotoxic drugs
(C). Intravenous immunoglobulins
(D). Methotrexate
263. (1200). What can a mother do to protect against otitis media?
(A). good personal hygene
(B). Breast feeding
(C). prophalactic antibiotics
(D). good ear care
264. (1220). What should be taught the the child and faimilies after a tympanostomy?(choose all
that apply)
(A). Encourage the child to drik genrous amounts of fluids, Reestablish a regular diet as
tolerated, give pain medication as ordered
(B). Place drops in childs ear as instructed, restrict the child to quiet activities, follow
instructions on swimming and bathing
(C). Qtips may be used to remove wax and drainage from the ear canal
(D). Ear plugs can be used, be alert for tubes becoming dislodged, report purulent
discharge from the ear
265. (280). In response to the constant formation and destruction of the childs red blood cells how
does the body attempt to compensate?(choose all that apply)
(A). increases bone marrow spaces
(B). respirations increase, heart rate increases
(C). increase production of RBC which results in hemolytic anemia
(D). blood pressure increases, temperature increases
266. (80). How should the nurse check a pulse in a child post cardiac catheterization?
(A). Palpation of the radial artery
(B). Apical
(C). Palpation of the femoral artery
(D). Palpation of the corotid artery
267. (440). The goal of treatment for hemophilia is to
(A). control blood loss
(B). control bleeding by replacing the missing clotting factor
(C). maintain blood pressure
(D). increase fluid intake
268. (1300). When is an infection most likely to occur after shunt placement for hydrocephalus?
(A). first week
(B). first 3 weeks
(C). first month
(D). first 2 months
269. (850). What can effect the outcome of an infant after omphalocele repair? (choose all that
apply)
(A). maintenance of normal vital signs, proper intake of fluids
(B). infection, pain control
(C). ability to pass stool
(D). establishment of an intake to support growth patterns
270. (400). What are the clinical manifestations of Beta-Thalassemia? (choose all that apply)
(A). Anemia, Skeletal changes
(B). heart failure,hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
(C). Neurological abnormalities
(D). Delayed sexual maturation, Darkening of the skin
271. (300). The clinical manifestations of sickle cell anemia are directly related to?
(A). shortened life span of blood cells
(B). tissue hypoxia
(C). tissue destruction resulting from vaso-occlusion
(D). immature RBC's
272. (600). How is Neuroblastoma diagnosed? (choose all that apply)
(A). desmopressin (DDAVP) levels
(B). Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) levels
(C). Homovanillic acid (HVA) levels
(D). Radiographic studies for calcification
273. (270). What can cause a sickle cell crisis?(choose all that apply)
(A). hypoxia, high altitude, emotionally stress full event
(B). poorly pressurized airplanes, hypoventilation
(C). injury
(D). vasconstriction due to cold
274. (530). What medications are used to treat the side effects of chemotherapy?
(A). Diuretics
(B). Antiemetics
(C). Beta-Blockers
(D). Alpha-Blockers
275. (210). What are the causes of Iron deficiency anemia?(choose all that apply)
(A). bleeding in the neonatal period, blood loss from hemophilia
(B). parasitic gastrointestinal illness, menorrhagia
(C). congenital defects, hemorrhage, sickle cell
(D). sickle cell, low iron diet, hemorrhage
276. (1150). What are the common infectous organisms involved with conjunctivitis?
(A). Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B). Staphylococcus aureus
(C). E-Coli
(D). Viruses
277. (1060). What should be monitored if a client is on diuretic therapy?
(A). observe for shock
(B). hypotension
(C). decreased heart rate
(D). decreased respirations
278. (380). What IV fluids are used prior to and after blood transfussion?(choose all the apply)
(A). D5W
(B). NS
(C). None if the child is small
(D). LR
279. (480). In the event that a child has a bleeding episode, what treatment should be performed?
(choose all that apply)
(A). Apply pressure for 15 min.
(B). immobilize and elevate the affected area
(C). apply clotting agents directly to the wound and apply a tourniquet
(D). apply ice packs, and assist with factor replacement therapy
280. (1170). What should be taught to the parents of a child with conjunctivitis? (choose all that
apply)
(A). the child should not return to school until they have been on an antibiotic for 24hrs
(B). how to apply antibiotic ointment to an eye patch and apply it to the affected eye
(C). frequent handwashing, avoid sharing towels
(D). the child should not rub their eyes, teach how to instill eye medications
281. (1260). What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure? (choose all that apply)
(A). Headache, visual disturbances, diplopia
(B). Bulging fontanel, Nausea vomiting
(C). diarrhea, tachycardia
(D). Vertigo, slight change in vital signs, pupils not as reactive or equal, sunsetting eyes,
Seizures, change in LOC
282. (1120). What are the clinical manifestations of acute postinfectous glomerulonephritis?
(A). microscopic hematuria, headache, costovertebral tenderness
(B). periorbital edema, lethargy, fever, abdominal pain
(C). Hypertension
(D). Nausea and vomiting
283. (890). What clinical manifestations indicate Anorectal malformations? (choose all that apply)
(A). UTI's
(B). stool in the urine
(C). ribbonlike stools
(D). blood in the stool
284. (150). How long does Sydenham chorea tipically last?
(A). 1-2 weeks
(B). 4-6 weeks
(C). 5-15 weeks
(D). 20-30 weeks
285. (550). What should the nurse try to do when they are caring for a child with
thrombocytopenia?
(A). use carfull handling when possitioning the client
(B). pad the handrails
(C). ensure adequate hydration
(D). minimize needle sticks and other intrusive proceedures
286. (1240). A child has been perscribed antibiotics for otitis media, what instructions should the
parents be given?
(A). 5ml is the same as a tsp
(B). Notify the md if a rash develops or nausea and vomiting develops
(C). notify the md if diarrhea develops
(D). use exactly as directed and complete the prescribed course
287. (290). An infant that is born with sickle cell anemia may not become symptomatic until?
(A). 2-4mos of age
(B). 6-10yrs of age
(C). 4-6mos of age
(D). 3-6yrs of age
288. (1310). children with venticuloatrial shunts are placed on_____________ to prevent shunt
infections
(A). plasma infussion
(B). prophylactic antibiotics
(C). prophylactic antivirals
(D). immunoglobulin therapy
289. (790). What are the clinical manifestations of Pyloric Stenosis?(choose all that apply)
(A). Projectile vomiting
(B). always hugary, irritable, fails to gain weight, fewer and smaller stools
(C). vomiting, Diarrhea, fever, macropapular rash
(D). Dehydration, alkalosis, hyperbilrubinemia
290. (1160). What comfort measures should be taken with conjunctivitis?(choose all that apply)
(A). cleaning drainage away with a warm clean cloth
(B). avoiding bright lights, avoiding reading
(C). apply an eye patch with opthalmic ointment
(D). antihistamines, topical steroids and vasoconstrictors
291. (540). A child who is receiving cranial radiation and intrathecal chemotherapy should be
evaluated for:?
(A). Anemia
(B). Skin irritation
(C). Scholastic evaluations
(D). neurologic damage
292. (780). What should be done post surgically for Esophageal atresia?
(A). maintain gastrostomy drainage
(B). Maintain IV fluids and antibiotics
(C). Monitor I&O's
(D). TPN is administered if needed
293. (410). All of the clinical manifestations of Beta-Thalassemia are the result of
(A). tissue hypoxia related to abnormal RBC's
(B). Vaso-Occlussion
(C). defective synthesis of hemoglobin, structurally impaired RBC'sand the shortened life
span of RBC's
(D). Abnormal immunity
294. (670). What clinical manifestations are likely to be seen in Autistic spectrum disorder?
(A). Mental Retardation
(B). repetitive behaviors (head banging, twirling, biting, flapping their hands)
(C). Absence Siezures
(D). Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea, Fever
295. (420). What are the clinical manifestations of Hyperthyroidism? (choose all that apply)
(A). Enlarged nontender thyroid gland, prominent or bulging eyes, auditory bruit on
auscutation
(B). Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea, Sweating, Fever
(C). eyelid lag, tachycardia, nervousness, emotional lability, heat intolerance, increased
sweating
(D). restlessness, irritability, increased appetite with weight loss, Insomnia, tremor,
muscle weakness
296. (300). When are growth hormone suplimentations stoped?
(A). At the age of 19
(B). when the child gets to acceptable height or growth slows to less than one inch/yr
(C). When the child reaches the height of their parents
(D). At the age of 21
297. (660). What is the key part of behavior modification?
(A). Strict environment
(B). Consistancy
(C). Reward system
(D). Stern disapline
298. (50). If bleeding or drainage is noted on a cast what is done?
(A). Remove the cast and apply a new one
(B). circle the area to determine the extent of drainage
(C). notify the MD
(D). pack the cast with gauze
299. (480). What is the goal of treatment for a child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
(A). Increase adrenal secretion of androgens by replacing deficient hormones, which is
accomplished by the life long oral administration of glucocorticoids
(B). Treating the child for disturbed body image
(C). Promoting normal growth and development
(D). suppress adrenal secretion of androgens by replacing deficient hormones, which is
accomplished by the lifelong oral administration of glucocorticoids
300. (580). A child is more likely to develop eczema if?
(A). He lives in the ohio valley
(B). is exposed to cigarette smoke
(C). there is a family history of allergies or asthma
(D). he is allergic to soap
301. (120). What is the treatment for knock-knees?
(A). casting
(B). surgery
(C). braces worn at night
(D). braces worn both day and night
302. (270). What complications can arise from a fracture? (choose all that apply)
(A). fat embolism
(B). Chest Pain
(C). decreased circulation
(D). SOA, compartment syndrome
303. (490). What are the clinical manifestations of Type one Diabetes Melitus?(choose all that
apply)
(A). polyuria
(B). polydipsia
(C). polyphagia, with weight loss
(D). Obesity
304. (160). Management of a client with developmental dysplagia of the hip includes? (choose all
that apply)
(A). maintaining traction, providing cast care, teaching the parents to care for the child at
home
(B). preventing complications resulting from immobility
(C). ROM exercises, and strength building
(D). promoting normal growth and development
305. (570). What is the first line treatment for itching
(A). calamine lotion
(B). cold compress
(C). warm moist compress
(D). antihistamine
306. (40). After casting is complete, what possition is the extremity left in?
(A). Pronated
(B). Lower than the heart
(C). elevated
(D). in a traction device
307. (340). As a result of increased fluid loss through the kidneys in Diabetes Insipidus, what is
the normal body response
(A). Polydipsia
(B). Polyphagia
(C). Polyuria
(D). Kidney Failure
308. (680). What are the two most common medications to treat ADHD?
(A). Ritalin
(B). MSIR
(C). SSRI's
(D). Concerta
309. (370). What is the major complication if hypothyroidism goes untreated in a child?
(A). obesity
(B). heart problems
(C). growth delay/mental retardation
(D). neurologic problems
310. (620). What symptoms does the client complain of with lice?
(A). pruritus
(B). bugs jumping
(C). Dandruff
(D). hair falling out
311. (390). When testing thyroid function, a TSH and a T4 are drawn, what would indicate a need
for supplimentation?
(A). low tsh, high t4
(B). high tsh, low t4
(C). high tsh, high t4
(D). low tsh, low t4
312. (290). What is the standard treatment for a child with a growth hormone difficiency?
(A). IM injections 3-7 times a week
(B). Sub Q Injections 3-7 times a week
(C). Oral medications 3-7 times a week
(D). IV Injections 3-7 times a week
313. (310). What should be taught to the parents of a child who is recieving growth hormone
supplimentation?
(A). the child will only have to take the injections for about 6 wks
(B). How to identify complications
(C). How to administer the injections at home
(D). how to provide support for their child
314. (180). When should Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease be suspected
(A). if an xray show degeneration of the femoral head
(B). any child from 2-12 that complains of hip pain and a limp
(C). if there is a family history
(D). if there is a history of chemotherapy treatment
315. (240). What is the best exercise for a child that has been diagnosed with Ostogenesis
Imperfecta (brittle bone disease)?
(A). aerobic
(B). calastinics
(C). swiming
(D). running
316. (500). What is considered to be an abnormal result of a fasting blood glucose test?
(A). <100
(B). >100
(C). >126
(D). >140
317. (700). What is the most accurate way to identify Mental Retardation?
(A). IQ testing
(B). Functional Assessment
(C). MRI
(D). Testing for Downs syndrome
318. (730). What drug class is typically prescribed to someone with depression?
(A). Psycotropics
(B). Mood enhancers
(C). SSRI's Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
(D). Beta Blockers
319. (280). What are the clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome?(choose all that apply)
(A). Paresthesia, Pain, Pressure
(B). Pallor, Paralysis
(C). Edema
(D). Pulselessness
320. (440). An increased pulse rate in a child with hyperthyroidism would indicate?
(A). A complication to the medication
(B). The medication needs to be increased
(C). The medication needs to be decreased
(D). Lab work needs to be done
321. (720). What are the clinical manifestions of schizophrenia? (choose all that apply)
(A). social withdrawal, impaired social relationships, flat affect
(B). regression, loose associations
(C). Suicidal and homicidal tendancies
(D). poor judegment, anxiety, delusions, and hallucinations
322. (10). You are caring for a client with a cast, upon inspection of the cast an area seems to be
warmer than the rest, what should be suspected?
(A). suspect the client wet the bed
(B). suspect the use of a heating pad
(C). suspect an infection
(D). suspect he is trying to avoid going to school for another day
323. (740).
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
324. (710). What are common characteristics seen in a child with fetal alcohol syndrome?(choose
all that apply)
(A). flat midface, low nasal bridge, long philtrum with narrow upper lip
(B). short upturned nose, poor coordination
(C). Mental retardation, Developmental Delays, Delayed Cognitive Development
(D). failure to thrive, skeletal and joint abnormalities, hearing loss
325. (400). Once a thyroid deficiency has been identified, what is it usually treated with?
(A). humulin
(B). synthroid
(C). loratadine
(D). dexamethazone
326. (190). What are the predisposing factors to a slipped capital femoral epiphysis? (choose all
that apply)
(A). obesity, recent growth spurt
(B). previous injury
(C). endocrine disorders
(D). family history
327. (140). What is the most common treatment of Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip when the
child is under 3mos?
(A). Skin traction
(B). Pavlik harness
(C). bone traction
(D). hans device
328. (80). How often is a cast changed?
(A). every week
(B). only when needed
(C). every 3 wks
(D). every 1-2 wks
329. (320). What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a teenager diagnosed with
hyperpituitarism?
(A). Disturbed body image
(B). Risk for infection
(C). Failure to thrive
(D). Developmental delay
330. (470). What symptoms may a child exhibit that would indicate congenital adrenal
hyperplasia?
(A). recurrent vomiting, dehydration, metabolic acidosis, hypotension, hypoglycemia
(B). diarrhea, fluid overload, metabolic alkalosis, hypertension, hyperglycemia
(C). polyuria, polidipsia, polyphagia
(D). nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever
331. (260). Once a fracture has been diagnosed, what is the most important symptom to be
managed?
(A). swelling
(B). drainage
(C). pain
(D). incision
332. (170). What are the early symptoms of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?(choose all that apply)
(A). mild pain in the hip or anterior thigh, relieved by bed rest
(B). decreased circulation in the affected leg
(C). limp
(D). neuropathy of the extremity
333. (430). What should be taught to the parents of a child diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
(A). how to promote growth and development
(B). how to assess for an increased pulse rate
(C). how to increase childs self esteam
(D). how to get their child to concentrate
334. (550). A child with PKU should avoid?(choose all that apply)
(A). high protein foods
(B). Potassium
(C). ASA
(D). aspartame
335. (650). What is the primary complaint of someone who under goes autografting?
(A). Pain at the burn site
(B). swelling at the burn site
(C). Pain at Donor site
(D). Edema at the donor site
336. (380). What is a goiter?
(A). The nerd that sat behind you in algebra
(B). Small nodule over a joint
(C). Painful enlargement of the thyroid
(D). Painless enlargement of the thyroid
337. (70).
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
338. (100). While examining a 18 month old child, you notice the legs are bowed, this finding is?
(A). Abnormal, will require surgery
(B). Normal, until 2-3yrs of age
(C). Abnormal, will require bracing
(D). Abnormal, will require casting
339. (90). How long should casting continue
(A). 3-6wks
(B). 6-8wks
(C). 8-12wks
(D). 12-14wks
340. (330). In diabetes insipidus, inadequate ADH has what effect on the kidneys resulting in
what?
(A). retention of water, decreased urinary output
(B). release of water, polyuria
(C). increased concentration, foul odor
(D). decreased urination, UTI
341. (60). The skin around the edges of a cast are checked for?
(A). redness/swelling
(B). lacerations
(C). drainage
(D). increased warmth
342. (210). What is the most important assessment on a child who is undergoing treatment for
scoliosis?
(A). capulary refill
(B). Neurvascular checks
(C). examine for pressure ulcers
(D). Vital signs
343. (540). How is PKU treated?
(A). Oral medications
(B). Special diet low in phenylalanine
(C). Enzyme therapy
(D). splenectomy
344. (560). What is the potential result if dietary control of PKU is lost before the age of 6?
(A). Developmental Delay
(B). Delayed Growth and Development
(C). Deminished IQ
(D). Exopthalmosis
345. (250). What is the most important thing that should be monitored in a child with Muscular
Dystorphies?
(A). Vital signs
(B). cardiac and respirtory function
(C). capulary refill
(D). neurologic status
346. (200). How much of a spinal curvature is required before it is considered to be abnormal?
(A). <5 degrees
(B). <10 degrees
(C). >10 degrees
(D). >15 degrees
347. (450). What is a major clinical indicator for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia in a female?
(A). Breast are enlarged
(B). clitoris is enlarge and labial fusions
(C). clitoris is small and labial detachment
(D). clitoris is not present
348. (230). How long should a child recieving antibiotics for osteomylitis continue the treatment?
(A). 1 wk
(B). 10 days
(C). 20 days
(D). 6 wks
349. (130). What are the signs and symptoms of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
(choose all that apply)
(A). limited abduction of the hip, Limp,
(B). asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh fat folds
(C). decreased circulation
(D). telescoping or pistoning of the thigh
350. (30). When handling a cast, how is it handled?(choose all that apply)
(A). With the fingertips
(B). With the palms of the hands
(C). gentle technique
(D). with force
351. (600). What is the treatment for celulitis?(choose all that apply)
(A). warm compress QID
(B). elevation
(C). coumadin
(D). bedrest
352. (350). How is a child with precocious puberty identified?(choose all that apply)
(A). short stature
(B). premature skeletal maturation
(C). curiosity of sex
(D). secondary sex characteristics
353. (690). What are the side effects of the medications used to treat ADHD?
(A). anorexia, insomnia, tachycardia
(B). polyphagia, lethargy, bradycardia
(C). drooling, incontenence
(D). head banging, twirling, absence siezures
354. (220). What is the initial treatment for osteomylitis?
(A). oral antibiotics
(B). wide spectrum oral antibiotics
(C). IV antibiotics
(D). Wide spectrum IV antibiotics
355. (410). How long must thyroid replacement be taken?
(A). 6 wks
(B). 2yrs
(C). 10 yrs
(D). throughout life
356. (20). How long does it take for a cast to dry?
(A). 12 hrs
(B). 6 hrs
(C). 24-48hrs
(D). 48-72hrs
357. (460). What is a major clinical indicator for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia in a male?
(A). slightly enlarged penis and hyperpigmented scrotum
(B). slightly enlarged penis, testicular enlargement
(C). small penis, hyperpigmented scrotum
(D). small penis, testicular enlargement
358. (510). What is considered to be an abnormal result of a 2hr glucose tollerance test?
(A). >100
(B). >150
(C). >200
(D). >250
359. (520). When planning the management of a child with type one diabetes melitus, what
should be considered?
(A). injections sites
(B). disturbed body image
(C). developmental level and cognitive abilities
(D). Self Esteem
360. (150). What is the most common treatment for a child over 3mos of age with developmental
dysplasia of the hip
(A). skin traction
(B). Pavlick harnes
(C). bone traction
(D). hans device
361. (360). How is precocious puberty treated?
(A). Magnesium Sulfate
(B). Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog
(C). Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(D). Estrogen
362. (630). How is lice treated?(choose all that apply)
(A). pediculicide shampoo
(B). shaving the childs head
(C). fine toothed comb
(D). retreatment in 7 days
363. (590). How long is Impetigo contageous?
(A). 24hrs
(B). 48 hrs
(C). untill 48 hours after treatment began
(D). forever
364. (110). What is the treatment for bowlegs?
(A). casting
(B). surgery
(C). braces worn at night
(D). braces worn both day and night
365. (640). Who is most likely to contract Oral Candidiasis (thrush)
(A). those that put everything in their mouths
(B). those with immune disorders, corticosteroid inhailer, antibiotics
(C). children of a woman with STD's
(D). Those with a large amout of mushrooms in their diet
366. (530). What are the clinical manifestions of PKU?(choose all that apply)
(A). musty or mousey body and urine odor
(B). irritability, vomiting, hyperactivty, seizures
(C). eczemalike rash, mental retardation
(D). nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever
367. (610). How is Pediculosis Capitis (lice) Spread?(choose all that apply)
(A). the bugs jump from one person to another
(B). by contact with dirty people
(C). direct contact
(D). use of hair accessories shared by another
Peds Practice Final
Practice Test Answer Details
Test ID: 22
1. (250). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage involves the
Intentional behavior of an infant as learned to obtain objects, create sounds, or engage in other
pleasurable activity.
Answer: (D). Coordination of Secondary Schemes (8-12months
2. (220). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage begins life with
a set of reflexes such as sucking, rooting, and grasping.
Answer: (B). Use of Reflexes(birth-1month)
3. (50). What is the leading cause of death in children age 1-14yrs old in the United States?
Answer: (A). Unintenional Injury
4. (370). At what point in life does weight double in 5 months and tripple with in a year
Answer: (B). 1st year of life
5. (280). According to Piagets Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child display
the ability to think by using words as symbols, but logic is not well developed.
Answer: (B). Preoperational (2-7yrs)
6. (80). The definition: is a process established by a health care institution to identify, evaluate
and reduce the risk of injury to patients, staff, and visitors, and therby reduce the institutions
liablility. This is the definition for what term?
Answer: (B). Risk Management
7. (60). What is the leading cause of death for children 1-14 yrs old under the unintential injury
catagorie?
Answer: (C). Motor Vehicle Accidents
8. (540). When should meats be introduced?
Answer: (C). 8-10mos
9. (120). Parents or guardians have absolute authority to make choices about their childs health
care except? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). When the child and parents do not agree on major treatment options
Answer: (C). When the parents choice of treatment does not permit lifesaving treatment
for the child
Answer: (D). When there is a potential conflict of interest between the child and parents,
such as with suspected child abuse or neglect
10. (360). What can a mother due to strive for the best possible outcome in pregnancy? (choose
all that apply)
Answer: (A). Seek early prenatal care
Answer: (B). avoid drugs, alcohol, tobacco, and excessive caffeine
Answer: (C). Good nutrition
Answer: (D). exercise regularly
11. (30). How does pediatric care differ from that of an adult?
Answer: (A). The family is more involved in the nursing process
12. (150). When begining to examin a child what should one consider?
Answer: (A). Developmental Level
13. (470). Why do babies recieve a vitamin K injection after birth?
Answer: (B). Promote adequate clotting
14. (140). The definition: intellectual or thinking processes
Answer: (B). Cognitive Development
15. (180). According to Erickson, what stage of child development does the young child initiate
new activities an considers new ideas. the interes in exploring the world creates a child who is
involved and busy. Constant criticism, on the other hand leads to feelings of guilt and lack of
purpose.
Answer: (C). Initiative vs Guilt
16. (310). Autosomal chromosomes are all chromosomes except the ones that determine sex.
Answer: (A). True
17. (160). Which of the following stages according to Erickson is the following: The task of the
first year of life is to establish trust in the people providing care. Trust is fostered by provision of
food, clean clothing, touch, and comfort. If basic needs are not met, the infant will eventually learn
to mistrust others.
Answer: (A). Trust vs Mistrust
18. (410). What age group are the following toys/activities appropriate for? Large blocks, teething
toys, toys that pop apart and back together, nesting cups and other objects that fit into one
another or stack, surprise toys such as jack in the box, social interaction with adults and other
children games such as peek aboo, soft balls, push and pull toys.
Answer: (C). 6-12months
19. (70). Standards of Care for the Pediatric Nurse Include: (chose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Collecting health data
Answer: (B). Analyzing the assessment data in determining diagnoses
Answer: (C). Implementing the interventions identified in the care plan
Answer: (D). Evaluating the childs and familys progress toward attainment of outcomes
20. (350). The maternal use of illicit drugs can cause: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). neonatal addiction
Answer: (B). convulsions
Answer: (C). hyperirritability
Answer: (D). neurological disturbances
21. (210). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, Which stage do infants learn
about the world by input obtained through the senses and by their motor activity. This stage has 6
substages.
Answer: (C). Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
22. (440). What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Answer: (B). Breast buds
23. (260). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does the
infant display Curiosity, experimentation, and exploration predominate as the toddler tries out
actions to learn results. Objects are turned in every directions, placed in the mouth , used for
banging, and inserted in containers as their qualities and uses are explored
Answer: (B). Tertiary Circular Reactions (12-18months)
24. (290). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child
display a more accurate understanding of cause and effect.
Answer: (C). Concrete Operational (7-11yrs)
25. (380). How should a nurse help assist parents in preparation for the second year of life
Answer: (A). Provide anticipatory guidance
26. (420). The term preschool aged refers to a child
Answer: (B). 3-6yrs
27. (200). According to Erickson, the stage of development where as the body matures and
though processes become more complex, a new sense of identity or self is established. The self,
family, peer group, and community are all examined and redefined. The adolescent who is unable
to establish a meaningful definition on self will experience confusion in one or more roles of life.
Answer: (A). Identity vs Role Confussion
28. (550). At what age can a baby have honey?
Answer: (C). 12mos
29. (90). The definition: is the continuous study and improvement of the process and outcomes of
providing health care services to meet the nees of patients, by examining the systems and
process of how care and services are delivered
Answer: (B). Quality Improvement
30. (130). The definition: directs health care institutions to inform hospitalized patients about their
rights, which include expressing a preference for treatment options and making advance
directives.
Answer: (B). Self-Determination Act
31. (520). When should rice cereal be introduced?
Answer: (A). 4-6mos
32. (110). When are children 18-21yrs old permitted to give informed consent? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). When they are minor parents of a child
Answer: (C). When they are emancipated minors
Answer: (D). When they are adolescents between 16-18yrs of age seeking birth conrtol,
mental health counseling, sor substance abuse treatment
33. (450). Who established DRI's and what are they used for
Answer: (C). established by the food and nutrition board of the institute of medicine and
the national acadamy of science. they are to be used to assess and plan intake
for individuals of different ages
34. (170). Which of the following stages according to Erickson follows? The toddlers sense of
autonomy or independence is shown by controlling body excretions, saying no when asked to do
something, and directing motor activity. Children who are consistently criticized for expressions of
autonomy for lack of control.
Answer: (B). Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
35. (270). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does
language provide a new tool for the toddler to use in understanding the world. language enables
the child to think aboiut events and objects before or after they occur. Object permanence is now
fully developed as the child actively searches for objects in various locations and out of view.
Answer: (B). Mental Combinations (18-24months)
36. (500). When and how much fluoride should be given to a baby?
Answer: (C). 6mos 0.25mg
37. (390). The following toys and activities are appropriate for what age Group? Mobiles, black
and white patterns, mirrors, music boxes, singing, tape players, soft voices, rocking and cuddling,
moving legs and arms while singing and talking, varying stimuli-different rooms, sounds, visual
changes
Answer: (A). birth to 2months
38. (530). When should fruits and vegitables be introduced?
Answer: (D). 6-8mos
39. (480). How many IU of vitamin D is required by an infant?
Answer: (C). 400
40. (320). The mothers poor nutritional status can effect a baby in many ways, choose all
answers that this can result in
Answer: (A). Low birth weight
Answer: (B). compromised neurologic performance
Answer: (D). slow development
Answer: (E). impaired immune status
41. (490). At what age does a baby need Iron supplements?
Answer: (C). 4-6mos
42. (190). According to Erickson, the stage of development that new interest an by involvement in
activities develop and the child takes pride in accomplishments in sports, school, home, and
community. If the child cannot accomplish what is expected, however, the result will be a sense of
inferiority.
Answer: (B). Industry vs Inferiority
43. (430). The term school aged refers to a child
Answer: (C). 6-12yrs
44. (100). The definition: a formal preauthorization for an invasive procedure or participation in
research. Consent must be given voluntarily.
Answer: (B). Informed consent
45. (230). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which substage does the
infant respond relexively, the pleasure gained from that response causes repetition of the
behavior.
Answer: (A). Primary Circular Reactions(1-4months0
46. (40). What is the leading cause of death in the United States for infants?
Answer: (B). Congenital Abnormalities
47. (10). When age range does the pediatric continum of care encumpus?
Answer: (C). Birth to College
48. (340). The maternal ingestion of alcohol can cause:
Answer: (D). fetal alcohol syndrome
49. (460). During life, at what time is the highest metabolic rate or highest intake requirements?
Answer: (B). Infancy
50. (400). What age group are the following toys/activities appropriate for: Rattles stuffed animals,
soft toys with contrasting colors, noise making objects that are easily grasped.
Answer: (B). 3-6 months
51. (330). Maternal Smoking can cause:
Answer: (B). Low birth weight
52. (240). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, the substage where an infant
becomes aware of the environment begins to grow as the infant begins to connect cause and
effect. The sounds of bottle preperation will lead to excited behavior. If an object is partially
hidden the infant will attempt to retrieve it.
Answer: (B). Secondary Circular Reactions(4-8months)
53. (300). According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which stage does a child
become fully mature intellectuall thoughs have been attained.
Answer: (D). Formal Operational (11-Adulthood)
54. (20). What four roles does a nurse play in pediatrics?
Answer: (C). Direct Nursing Care, Patient Education, Patient Advocacy, Case
Management
55. (510). How are foods introduced?
Answer: (A). one at a time
56. (270). What does a toddler understand about death?
Answer: (A). unable to understand death/separation anxiety
57. (570). The clinical manifestations of hyponatrimia are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). anoresia, headache
Answer: (B). muscle weakness, decreased deep tendon reflexes
Answer: (C). lethargy, confusion
Answer: (D). coma/death
58. (470). Which of the following is an indicator of dehydration (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). elevated hematocrit
Answer: (D). low specific gravity
59. (400). What effect does a parents pressence have on the outcome?
Answer: (B). it reduces anxiety associated with pain and hospitalization
60. (820). What gamma globulin is useful in combating parasitic infections and is part of the
allergic response?
Answer: (B). IGE
61. (480). What is the treatment of mild to moderate dehydration in a child? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). oral rehydration 1-3tsp every 10-15min
Answer: (B). oral rehydration, 1 tsp every 2-3min even if vomiting
62. (490). If soft drinks or juices are used for rehydration how are they given?
Answer: (B). half/half
63. (240). During the period of bereavement, the nurses goal is to
Answer: (B). provide comfort and support and be physically present
64. (810). Metabolic alkalosis exist if the HCO3 is
Answer: (D). >25mmol/L
65. (150). an abnormal elimination pattern characterized by the recurrent soiling or passage of
stool at inappropriate times by a child who should have achieved bowel continence is the
definition of
Answer: (B). Encopresis
66. (760). Clinical manifestations of hypomagnesemia are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). tetany, hyperactive reflexes, cramps, twitching, tremors
Answer: (B). cardiac arrhythmias, seizures
67. (850). How are immunosuppressed children best protected from infection? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). frequent handwashing
Answer: (B). limit exposure to individuals with upper respiratory infections
Answer: (D). vaccines (live viruses should be avoided)
68. (230). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
experience a period of emotions as the child recovers, improves steadily, and prepares for
transfer and discharge or dies or remains unresponsive
Answer: (D). readjustment or mourning
69. (430). How is emla cream applied?
Answer: (A). 1-2hrs before the first needle stick
70. (320). What approach does hospice take with death?
Answer: (C). death is just an extension of life. they help patients be comfortable and
prepare
71. (200). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
become more aware of their childs illness or injury and their anger may be directed toward
themselves, each other, health care providers, or other children or parents
Answer: (A). Anger and Guilt
72. (60). What are the risk factors for child abuse? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). History of mental illness, domestic violence, incarceration, or substance
abuse in the home
Answer: (B). Family stresses, Inadequate child care or supervision, Inadequate family
social support
Answer: (C). Use of corporal punishment, Child abuse, Access to firearms, gang
membership, exposure to media violence, child hyperactivity
73. (340). What effect does pain have on the body?
Answer: (B). it initiates the stress response
74. (620). hypokalemia exist when the lab values are:
Answer: (D). <3.5
75. (500). What are the clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume excess? (choose all
that apply)
Answer: (A). bounding pulse, distended neck veins
Answer: (B). hepatomegaly, dyspnea, orthopnea and lung crackles
Answer: (C). edema
76. (980). What is the complication that can occur with Mumps?
Answer: (B). Orchitis, testicular pain, sterility
77. (710). How is hypocalcemia treated?
Answer: (A). oral or iv supplimentation
78. (790). Alkalosis exist if ABG CO2 levels are
Answer: (A). <27mmHg
79. (560). What are the clinical manifestations of hypernatremia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). decreased LOC, seizures
Answer: (B). confusion
Answer: (C). lethargy
Answer: (D). coma/death
80. (390). When using a narcotic to manage pain, what should always be available?
Answer: (C). Narcan
81. (840). If a mother is known to have aids she is given ZDV after the first trimester, how long is
it given to the baby after delivery?
Answer: (C). 6wks
82. (420). a good way of evaluating the effectiveness of pain control is if the child sleeps.
Answer: (B). False
83. (870). What are the clinical manifestations of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? (choose all
that apply)
Answer: (A). fever, chills, fatiue, malaise and weight loss
Answer: (B). butterfly rash on the face
84. (10). What is a common finding in a child that has been abused?
Answer: (B). The child is developmentally delyayed
85. (550). Treatment for hyponatremia is
Answer: (B). hypertonic sol
86. (590). When is hyperkalemia likely to occur?
Answer: (C). massive cell death (crush injury, sickle cell)
87. (630). What can cause hypokalemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). eating large amounts of black licorice
Answer: (B). Diarrhea
88. (250). If a child is in a coma the nurse should
Answer: (B). encourage the family to communicate
89. (520). Hypernatremia occurs when the sodium level is
Answer: (A). >148
90. (920). The MMR Vaccine should be given at what ages?
Answer: (B). 12mos, 4-6yrs
91. (210). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
go through the emotions of death before their child dies
Answer: (B). deprivation and loss
92. (30). How often should a child engage in moderate physical activity such as bike riding,
walking, baseball, or rollerblading?
Answer: (C). 30 min five times a week
93. (690). Hypocalcemia exist if lab values are
Answer: (D). <4.4
94. (90). the deliberate maltreatment of another individual that inflicts pain or injuyr may result in
permanent or temporary disfigurement or even death is the definition of:
Answer: (B). physical abuse
95. (1000). A fever isn't considered harmful until it reaches 105.9F
Answer: (A). True
96. (40). How often should a child engage in vigorous physical activity?
Answer: (C). 20min three times a week
97. (640). What are the clinical manifestations of hypokalemia?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). decreased GI Motility, Abd destintion
Answer: (B). constipation, paralytic illius
Answer: (C). weakness, respiratory depression, abnormal ekg
98. (780). Acidosis exist if an ABG CO2 level is:
Answer: (D). >41mmHg
99. (860). When caring for a child that is immunosuppressed, it is important for the nurse to
Answer: (B). emphasize the importance of promoting the childs development
100. (70). Sahming, ridiculing, embarrassing, or insulting a child is the definition for:
Answer: (B). emotional abuse
101. (260). What does an infant understand about death?
Answer: (A). unable to understand the true concept of death
102. (770). How is hypomagnesemia treated
Answer: (C). administer magnesium, and treat the cause of the deficency
103. (280). What do preschoolers understand about death?
Answer: (C). believes it is reversible
104. (940). The PCV vaccine should be given at what age?
Answer: (D). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 12mos
105. (530). The treatment for hypernatremia is
Answer: (A). hypotonic sol.
106. (700). What are the clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). tetany, twitchingcramping, tingling, carpal spasm, pedal spasm
Answer: (B). laryngospasm, seizures, cardiac arrhythmias
Answer: (C). death, chf, spontaneous fractures
107. (50). How long should television be limited each day?
Answer: (B). 2hr
108. (1030). How can a apnic episode be stopped in an infant?
Answer: (A). Tactile stimulation
109. (740). how is hypermagnesemia managed?
Answer: (A). Increase urine output, dialysis
110. (120). Once a child has been identified as being abused, what is the goal?
Answer: (B). prevent further abuse
111. (890). The DTAP vaccine should be given at what ages?
Answer: (B). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 15mos, 4-6yrs
112. (160). When a child has encopresis, how should the child be treated?
Answer: (B). praise them when successful, don't punish when not
113. (370). What drugs should be avoided for pain management in children with chronic
conditions? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Nubain
Answer: (B). Talwin
Answer: (C). Stadol
114. (80). deliberate withholding of or failure to provide the necessary and available resources to
a child is the definition of:
115. (100). the caretakers emotional unavailability to the child is the definition of:
Answer: (B). emotional neglect
116. (540). Hyponatremia occurs when the sodium level is
Answer: (D). <135
117. (140). why may bulimia go unnoticed?
Answer: (B). they may be of normal weight
118. (440). What is the most significant problem with deep sedation in a child
Answer: (C). respirtory depression
119. (460). You know a infant is adequately hydrated when they urinate
Answer: (B). 1-2ml/kg
120. (660). Hypercalcemia exist if the lab values are
Answer: (A). >5.3
121. (670). Clinical manifestions of hypercalcemia are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). constipation, anorexia, nausea, vomiting
Answer: (B). fatigue, weakness, polyuria, cardiac arrhythmias/arrest
Answer: (C). confusion, lethargy and decreased attention span
122. (990). Clinical manifestations of Roseola are
Answer: (B). sudden high fever that diappears as a pale pink rash appears
123. (170). Separation anxiety is likely to be seen in what age groups
Answer: (A). infant
Answer: (B). toddler
Answer: (C). preschooler
124. (580). Hyperkalemia occurs when lab values are:
Answer: (A). >5.8
125. (1010). What complicatons can occur if a fever rises quickly?
Answer: (A). seizures
126. (330). What is not a reliable indicator of pain?
Answer: (C). vital signs
127. (960). When can a child begin getting a yearly influenza vaccine?
Answer: (C). 6mos
128. (880). The Hepatitis B vaccine should be given at what ages?
Answer: (A). Birth, 2mos, 6mos
129. (220). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
expierence a life suspended in time, and fear leaving the area because they may miss an
important procedure, physician visit, or decisions or changes in treatment.
Answer: (C). anticipatory waiting
130. (310). What do young children fear more than dying?
Answer: (B). desertion
131. (180). When caring for a child in the hospital you should
Answer: (C). Promote a sense of control, trust, and support
132. (610). What are the treatments for hyperkalemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). potassium wasting diuretics
Answer: (C). dialyisis
133. (510). What is the treatment for extracellular fluid volume excess?
Answer: (B). treat the underlying cause
134. (1040). Cystic Fibrosis is definitively diagnosed by a possitive sweat test
Answer: (A). True
135. (680). How is hypercalcemia treated? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). lasix, glucocorticoids
Answer: (B). calcitonin
Answer: (C). dialysis
136. (350). What is the problem with using the oucher scale to indicate pain?
Answer: (C). the child may point to how they want to feel
137. (190). When the parents react to a life threatening illness or injury, the stage where parents
experience a loss of control, an inability to regain their bearings, and feelings of immobility is
called
Answer: (C). Shock and disbelief
138. (380). When managing pain for a child, how should the medications be administered
Answer: (B). around the clock
139. (20). Signs that may indicate substance abuse in adolescents are: (chose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Withdrawl from sports activities, nodding off frequently during the day
Answer: (B). Teachers report a change in school work, Lack of personal hygene, lack of
energy
Answer: (D). continued, consistent weepiness, red eyes, oral sores, respiratory
discomfort
140. (290). What does a school aged child understand about death?
Answer: (D). acquires more realistic understanding of death
141. (730). Clinical manifestations of hypermagnesemia are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). decreased muscle irritability, hypotension
Answer: (B). bradycardia, drowsiness, lethargy
Answer: (C). weak or absent deep tendon reflexes
Answer: (D). flaccid muscle paralysis, fatal repiratory depression, cardiac
arythmias/arrest
142. (970). Of the following which is a clinical manifestation of Erythema Infectiosum (fifths
disease)?
Answer: (B). firery red rash on the cheeds giving a slapped face appearance
143. (110). the exploitation of a child for the sexual gratification of an adult is the definition of:
Answer: (C). sexual abuse
144. (450). A neonate has the highest % of water by weight
Answer: (A). True
145. (720). Hypermagnesemia exist if lab values are:
Answer: (A). >2.4
146. (910). The IPV vaccine should be given at what ages?
Answer: (A). 2mos, 4mos, 12mos, 4-6yrs
147. (360). What are common side effects to the use of opioids? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). sedation
Answer: (B). nausea/vomiting
Answer: (C). constipaton/itching
148. (130). What is the result of bulimia?
Answer: (C). Electrolyte imballance
149. (830). How do most children aquire the AIDs Virus?
Answer: (C). perinatal transmittion
150. (800). Metabolic acidosis occurs if the HCO3 is
Answer: (A). <18mmol/L
151. (950). When can a child start the Hep A series?
Answer: (B). 24mos
152. (900). The HIB vaccine should be given at what ages?
Answer: (C). 2mos, 4mos, 6mos, 15mos
153. (750). hypomagnesemia exist when lab values are:
Answer: (D). <1.5
154. (600). What are the clinical manifestations of hyperkalemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). hyperactivity of GI system, abd cramping, diarrhea
Answer: (B). weak muscles usually in the legs and progress to flaccid paralysis
Answer: (C). lethargic cardiac arrhythmias, abnormal ekg
155. (410). What are nonpharmacologic interventions for pain? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). distraction, cutaneous stimulation
Answer: (C). electroanalgesia, imagery
Answer: (D). relaxation techniques, hypnosis
156. (650). Treatments of hypokalemia are
Answer: (A). High potassium diet
157. (1020). What is the treatment for a high fever?
Answer: (A). antipyretics
Answer: (B). remove clothing
Answer: (C). increase fluid intake, tepid baths
158. (300). What does a adolescent understand about death?
Answer: (D). intellectually capable of understanding
159. (930). The varicella vaccine should be given at what age?
Answer: (C). 15mos
160. (1320). Prior to discharge from the hospital for shunt placement for hydrocephalus, what
should be taught to the parents?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). signs and syptoms of shunt failure/infection
Answer: (C). The shunt may need to be replaced as the child grows
161. (200). What is the most serous complication of Kawasaki disease?
Answer: (B). Cardiac involvement
162. (90). How should a nurse monitor a child for impaired tissue perfussion post cardiac
catheterization?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). check capillary refill, estremity warmth
Answer: (B). pedal pulses, level of conciousness
Answer: (C). urinary output
163. (50). After a child undergoes a cardiac catheterization, what should be monitored? (choose
all that apply)
Answer: (A). I&O's, Pedal pulses
Answer: (B). Capillary refill, sensation
Answer: (C). Warmth, and color of lower extremities
164. (160). Once a client has been diagnosed with infective endocarditis, what should they be
taught?
Answer: (B). They should inform physicians and dentist about the history before invassive
proceedures
165. (430). bleeding into a joint is refered to as:
Answer: (B). hemarthrosis
166. (1010). When should a small child be treated for a UTI if they are unable to tell you their
symptoms?
Answer: (C). if they were continent after toilet training
167. (100). The combination of what four defects results in Tetralogy of Fallot?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). Pulmonic stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy
Answer: (C). Ventricular Septal Defect, Overriding of aorta
168. (510). What is the goal of treatment for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Answer: (B). Normal platelet counts
169. (450). What medication is used to treat mild hemophillia?
Answer: (B). Desmopressin Acetate (DDAVP)
170. (1040). What is a common concern of children with generalized edema
Answer: (A). their appearance
171. (980). What should be taught to parents after an infant has under gone surgical repair of
Hypospadias or Epispadias and a stent is in place
Answer: (B). Double diaper techniques
172. (670). What are the cardinal signs of bone marrow failure?
Answer: (A). Petechiae
Answer: (B). Frank bleeding
Answer: (C). Joint Pain
173. (170). The most common pathologic tachycardia, is the abrupt onset of a rapid, regular heart
rate, often to fast to count.
Answer: (C). Supraventricular
174. (710). How do children aquire Retinoblastoma?
Answer: (C). inherited by an autosomal dominat gene
175. (1270). When is Reye syndrom (encephalopathy) likely to develop?
Answer: (B). after a mild viral illness, or aspirin use
176. (370). When caring for a child with sickle cell anemia, the nurse focuses on?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). increasing tissue perfusion, promoting hydration
Answer: (B). controling pain, preventing infection
Answer: (D). ensuring adequate nutrition, preventing complications, providing emotional
support
177. (460). When obtaining a history on a child with hemophillia, what information should be
obtained? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Complete history
Answer: (B). previous episodes
Answer: (D). Family history
178. (310). An exacerbation of the symptoms of sickle cell is termed?
Answer: (B). Sickle cell crisis
179. (720). What is the first sign of retinoblastoma?
Answer: (B). white pupil, termed leukokoria or cats eye reflex
180. (1230). The primary nursing diagnosis for a child with otitis media is:?
Answer: (C). Pain related to inflammation and pressure on the tympanic membrane
181. (900). Clinical manifestations of Appendicitis are? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Rebound tenderness
Answer: (C). Difficulty ambulating
182. (420). Since Iron overload is a major complication of Beta-Thalassemia, what medication
should be given?
Answer: (B). Dexferol (deferoxamine)
183. (1280). Signs of hydrocephalus are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Rapid head growth, bulging fontanel, split sutures
Answer: (B). Increased Itracraneal Pressure
Answer: (D). Promininet scalp veins, translucent skin, increased tone or hyperreflexia
184. (20). What precautions should be taken when diuretics are used?
Answer: (C). Monitor potassium levels
185. (1110). What is the time frame from time infected with streptocaccus to the time Acute
Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis develops?
Answer: (C). 8-14 days
186. (770). How is an infant with Esophageal atresia hydrated?
Answer: (C). Umbilical artery catheter
187. (340). What is the treatment for a child in sickle cell crisis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). hydration, oxygen, pain management
Answer: (B). bedrest, blood transfussion
188. (180). What age does Kawasaki disease occur?
Answer: (B). <5yrs
189. (870). What is the treatment for Hirschsprugs disease? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). surgical removal of the aganglionic bowel and the creation of a colostomy
Answer: (C). TPN and a lactose free diet
190. (1100). What are the common cause of Acute Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis?
Answer: (B). Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the skin or pharynix
Answer: (C). Staphylococcus
Answer: (D). Peumococcus, Coxasackie virus
191. (830). Why can't parents place a child with gastroesophageal reflux disease in a infant seat.
Answer: (B). it incrases intraabdominal pressure and will worsen the condition
192. (1290). What factors can cause a shunt for hydrocephalus to fail? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). blockage at either end
Answer: (B). kink in the tubing
Answer: (D). valve breakdown
193. (910). A Diaphragmatic Hernia is life-threatening, Why?, What would you look for?
Answer: Severe respiratory distress occurs shortly after birth. As the infant cries,
abdominal organs extend into the thorax, decreasing the size of the thoracic
cavity. the infant becomes dyspneic and cyanotic. Characteristic findings include
a barrel shaped chest and sunken abdomen
194. (730). When preparing an infant to feed after a cleft pallet surgery has been performed, how
should they be possitioned?
Answer: (A). Fowlers (setting up)
195. (750). Medications for an infant after cleft pallet surgery are geared toward? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). Pain Control
Answer: (C). Minimize crying
196. (1330). What is the goal of clinical therapy for Cerebral Palsy?
Answer: (C). helping the child develop to his or her maximum level of independence
197. (590). What are some complications of the treatments for brain tumors? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). impaired cognitive function, emotional or behavioral problems
Answer: (B). memory deficit, attention deficit
Answer: (D). Diabeties insipidus
198. (740). How should an infant post cleft pallet surgery be possitioned?
Answer: (B). supine or sid-lying with elbows in soft restraints
199. (120). What possition does a child with a cyanotic heart defect assume?
Answer: (C). A knee to chest position while squating
200. (250). What side effects of oral iron supplimentation should be taught to the child and
parents?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). black stools
Answer: (B). constipation
Answer: (D). foul after taste
201. (10). What medication is most commonly used to improve the hearts ability to contract and
therefore increase output?
Answer: (C). Digoxin
202. (70). What treatment should be done post cardiac catheterization?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Encourage fluids
Answer: (C). Permit quiet play
203. (800). When treating a child with Pyloric Stenosis, what diet should they be placed on?
Answer: (B). TPN
204. (920). How is Necrotizing Enterocolitis Managed? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). discontinue all enteral feedings
Answer: (C). strict enteric precautions
205. (1210). What increases the incidnence of otitis media?
Answer: (B). smoking
206. (860). What are the clinical manifestations of Intussusception? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). acute onset of abdominal pain with vomiting and passage of brown stool
Answer: (B). increase in episodes of pain
Answer: (D). stools are red and rsemble currant jelly , palpable mass may be present in
the upper right quadrant of the abdomen
207. (650). If a tumor is felt in the abdomen, the nurse should?
Answer: (C). Don't palpate notify the MD
208. (360). What effect does cytotoxic drugs have on someone in a sickle cell crisis?
Answer: (B). decreases the production of abnormal blood cells and leads to less amount
of pain
209. (660). The common initial symptoms of osteosarcoma are: (choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). pain referred to the hip or back
Answer: (C). Edema
Answer: (D). Pulmonary metastasis
210. (1180). What causes Amblyopia (lazy eye)
Answer: visual deprivation to one eye, commonly untreated strabismus, congenital
cataract, or visual differences between eyes
211. (620). an asymptomatic, firm lobulated mass located to one side of the midline in the
abdomen is the definition of?
Answer: (B). Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
212. (220). What are the clinical manifestations of Iron deficiency anemia?
Answer: (A). Pallor, fatigue, irratability
Answer: (C). nailbed deformities, growth retardation, developmental delay
Answer: (D). tachycardia, systolic heart murmur
213. (810). After a pyloric stenosis repair, what should the parents be taught prior to going home?
Answer: (B). to fold the infants diaper so it does not touch the incission
214. (1250). after a tonsilectomy, what should the nurse monitor? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). vital signs, dehydration
Answer: (B). respiratory distress
Answer: (D). hemorrhage
215. (240). How should liquid iron preparations be taken?
Answer: (C). through a straw
216. (580). What symptoms are likely to develop in a child with a brain tumor?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). Headache, nausea, vomiting
Answer: (B). dizziness, change in vision or hearing
Answer: (D). fatigue
217. (1130). What should be taught to the parents before discarge after hospitalization for acute
post infectous glomerulonephritis?
Answer: (B). it may take up to 3 weeks for hypertension and gross hematuria to resolve
218. (390). What diet should a child be encouraged to eat while in sickle cell crisis?
Answer: (A). High Protein
Answer: (B). High calorie
Answer: (C). High Folic Acid
219. (760). What possition should an infant be in prior to the repair of a Esophageal atresia?
Answer: (C). Trendellenburg (head slightly lower than body)
220. (610). What congenital anomalis is associated with Wilms' Tumor (Nephroblastoma)?
(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). aniridia (absence of the iris)
Answer: (B). hemihypertropy (abnormal growth of half of the body or body structure)
Answer: (C). genitourinary anomalies, nevi, and hamartomas (benign nodulelike growths)
221. (630). When are Wilms' Tumors (nephroblastomas) discovered commonly?
Answer: (B). during a bath
222. (1140). What symptoms may an older child complain of with conjunctivitis?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). ithing or burning, photophobia, mucopurulent discharge
Answer: (B). redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, pink sclera
Answer: (C). crusty cyelids
223. (130). What are the clinical manifestations of Rheumatic Fever? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). inflammed and painful joints, Sydenham chorea (aimless movements of the
extremities and facial grimacing
Answer: (C). Subcutaneous nodules near joints, fever, anemia
Answer: (D). Skin rash (pink macules and blanching in the middle of the lesions
224. (990). What complication is common of obstructive uropathy?
Answer: (B). Hydronephrosis
225. (260). A child that undergoes a spleenectomy to treat sickle cell anemia is at risk
for?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). high rate of infection
Answer: (B). impaired immunity
Answer: (D). Death resulting from bacterial infection
226. (840). After the delivery of an infant with a omphalocele, what should be done?
Answer: (B). cover the sac with sterile gauze soaked in normal saline
227. (1340). The primary nursing diagnosis for a child with cerebral palsy is:
Answer: (A). impaired physical mobility related to decreased muscle strength and control
228. (1070). When monitoring the fluid needs of a client with generalized edema, what should be
done? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). monitor I&O's, Vital Signs, watch for signs of respiratory distress,
hypertension or circulatory overload
Answer: (C). Daily Weights,
Answer: (D). Measure abdominal girth
229. (60). When teaching home care to parents of a child after cardiac catheterization, what
complications should they be instructed to observe for?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). fever, bleeding or bruising increasing in size at the catheterization site
Answer: (B). the foot on the side of the proceedure is cooler than the one on the opposite
side
Answer: (D). loss of feeling in the extremity the proceedure was performed on
230. (1050). What should be monitored if a client is receiving albumin intravenously?(choose all
that apply)
Answer: (B). hypertension
Answer: (D). signs of volume overload
231. (700). What is Rhabdomyosarcoma?
Answer: (C). A soft tissue cancer that is common in children
232. (110). What are the clinical manifestations of Tetralogy of Fallot?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Polycythemia, exercise intollerance
Answer: (C). Metabolic Acidosis, poor rowth, clubbing
233. (500). When peforming discharge teaching to a child and family members for hemophillia,
what should they be taught?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Wear an medical identification tage
Answer: (B). Explain the disease process
Answer: (C). Teach how to identify internal and external bleeding
234. (950). In Celiac's disease, the inabilty to digest glutenin and gliadin results in what?
Answer: the acccumulation of the amino acid glutamine, which is toxic to mucosal cells in
the intestine. Damage to the villi ultimately impairs the absorptive process in the
small intestines.
235. (490). When treating a child with hemarthrois, the nurse would:
Answer: (B). imobilize and elevate the joint and apply ice packs
236. (330). What prophalactic treatment is recomended for a child with sickle cell?
Answer: (A). Penicillin
237. (230). When should children be screened for Iron deficiency anemia?
Answer: (A). at 9 mos and again in adolesence
238. (320). What are the two most important steps in avoiding a sickle cell crisis?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). Preventing exposure to infection
Answer: (C). maintaining normal hydration
239. (1000). What symptoms are likely to be expiernced if a child has obstructive uropathy?
Answer: (C). Same as a UTI
240. (560). What medication is used in combination with methotrexate to protect normal cells?
Answer: (B). Leucovorin
241. (940). A disease characterized by an intolerance for gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley,
rye and oats
Answer: (C). Celiac Disease
242. (1080). What possiton should be maintained if a client has generalized edema?
Answer: (A). Elevate the HOB
243. (350). What does a child with sickle cell gain from an early transfusion while in crisis?
Answer: (D). relief from ischemia in major organs and body parts
244. (930). What should be monitored in a infant with Necrotizing Enterocolitis?
Answer: (C). Abdominal Circumference every 4-8 hrs
245. (40). What are the clinical manifestations of Coarctation of the Aorta?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Low blood pressure in the legs
Answer: (B). High blood pressure in the arms
Answer: (D). Weak Femoral Pulses
246. (190). What are the clinical manifestations of Kawasaki disease?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Bilateral conjunctivitis, intesnse erythema of the buccal and pharyngeal
surfaces, strawberry tongue, fever
Answer: (C). Dermatitis of the extremities, palmar and plantar erythema, induration of the
hands and feet
Answer: (D). Dermatitis of the trunk with an erythematous maculopapular rash, Acute
cervical lymphadenopathy, an illness not explained by another disease process
247. (820). What complications can occur with gastoesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (choose
all that apply)
Answer: (A). aspirations, pneumonia
Answer: (B). reactive airway disease
Answer: (C). color changes during feeding, apnea, hematemesis
248. (690). What effect does leukemic cells have on the testicles?
Answer: (B). They cause a painless enlargement
249. (570). What clinical manifestations should be reported to the oncologist if the child is
recieving chemotherapy? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Temperature above 101F, any bleeding
Answer: (B). Pain with urination or defecation, sores in the mouth, vomiting or diarrhea
Answer: (C). persistent pain, signs of infection, exposure to communicaple disease
250. (640). What are some common clinical manifestations of Wilms' Tumors (nephroblastoma)?
Answer: (A). Hypertension
Answer: (C). Hematuria
251. (140). When caring for a child with Sydenham chorea, what should be done?
Answer: (D). provide emotional support, encourage the family to participate in care
252. (30). If a child is having difficulty breathing, what possition should they be kept in?
Answer: (B). Semi-Fowlers
253. (880). What should be taught to parents prior to discharge of an infant post surgical repair of
Hirschsprungs disease?
Answer: (D). colostomy care and referal to support groups
254. (1090). acute inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidneys is termed
Answer: (B). glomerulonepritis
255. (680). What are the clinical manifestations of leukemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). fever, pallor, overt signs of bleeding
Answer: (B). Lethargy, malaise, anorexia
Answer: (D). Joint pain, bone pain, enlargement of the liver and spleen and changes in
the lymphnodes
256. (1020). What causes Enuresis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). neurological or congenital structural disorders
Answer: (B). illness, stress
Answer: (D). Family history
257. (960). A early sign of celiac disease is:?
Answer: (B). Statorrhea
258. (1030). What are the clinical manifestations of Nephrotic Syndrome? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Periorbital edema, weight gain, hypertension irritability
Answer: (B). anorexia, hematuria, malaise, pale shinny skin, veins are prominent, hair
becomes brittle
Answer: (C). foamy or frothy urine, generalized edema, respiratory distress
259. (470). What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a child with hemophillia?
Answer: (B). Risk for injury
260. (1190). When working with a visually impaired child, what should the nurse do?
Answer: (A). call the childs name and identify yourself before touching the child
Answer: (B). Tell the child you are leaving the room, Describe wht each procedure will
feel like
Answer: (D). Let the child touch the equipment to establish familiarity, Describe wht foods
are present and their locations on the food tray
261. (970). What should parents be taught about celiac disease?
Answer: (B). it is lifelong and will require a life long diet modification
262. (520). What medications are used in the treatment of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic
Purpura?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Corticosteroids
Answer: (C). Intravenous immunoglobulins
263. (1200). What can a mother do to protect against otitis media?
Answer: (B). Breast feeding
264. (1220). What should be taught the the child and faimilies after a tympanostomy?(choose all
that apply)
Answer: (A). Encourage the child to drik genrous amounts of fluids, Reestablish a regular
diet as tolerated, give pain medication as ordered
Answer: (B). Place drops in childs ear as instructed, restrict the child to quiet activities,
follow instructions on swimming and bathing
Answer: (D). Ear plugs can be used, be alert for tubes becoming dislodged, report
purulent discharge from the ear
265. (280). In response to the constant formation and destruction of the childs red blood cells how
does the body attempt to compensate?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). increases bone marrow spaces
Answer: (C). increase production of RBC which results in hemolytic anemia
266. (80). How should the nurse check a pulse in a child post cardiac catheterization?
Answer: (B). Apical
267. (440). The goal of treatment for hemophilia is to
Answer: (B). control bleeding by replacing the missing clotting factor
268. (1300). When is an infection most likely to occur after shunt placement for hydrocephalus?
Answer: (D). first 2 months
269. (850). What can effect the outcome of an infant after omphalocele repair? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). maintenance of normal vital signs, proper intake of fluids
Answer: (B). infection, pain control
Answer: (D). establishment of an intake to support growth patterns
270. (400). What are the clinical manifestations of Beta-Thalassemia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Anemia, Skeletal changes
Answer: (B). heart failure,hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
Answer: (D). Delayed sexual maturation, Darkening of the skin
271. (300). The clinical manifestations of sickle cell anemia are directly related to?
Answer: (A). shortened life span of blood cells
Answer: (C). tissue destruction resulting from vaso-occlusion
272. (600). How is Neuroblastoma diagnosed? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) levels
Answer: (C). Homovanillic acid (HVA) levels
Answer: (D). Radiographic studies for calcification
273. (270). What can cause a sickle cell crisis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). hypoxia, high altitude, emotionally stress full event
Answer: (B). poorly pressurized airplanes, hypoventilation
Answer: (D). vasconstriction due to cold
274. (530). What medications are used to treat the side effects of chemotherapy?
Answer: (B). Antiemetics
275. (210). What are the causes of Iron deficiency anemia?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). bleeding in the neonatal period, blood loss from hemophilia
Answer: (B). parasitic gastrointestinal illness, menorrhagia
276. (1150). What are the common infectous organisms involved with conjunctivitis?
Answer: (A). Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: (B). Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: (D). Viruses
277. (1060). What should be monitored if a client is on diuretic therapy?
Answer: (A). observe for shock
278. (380). What IV fluids are used prior to and after blood transfussion?(choose all the apply)
Answer: (B). NS
Answer: (C). None if the child is small
279. (480). In the event that a child has a bleeding episode, what treatment should be performed?
(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Apply pressure for 15 min.
Answer: (B). immobilize and elevate the affected area
Answer: (D). apply ice packs, and assist with factor replacement therapy
280. (1170). What should be taught to the parents of a child with conjunctivitis? (choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). the child should not return to school until they have been on an antibiotic for
24hrs
Answer: (C). frequent handwashing, avoid sharing towels
Answer: (D). the child should not rub their eyes, teach how to instill eye medications
281. (1260). What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Headache, visual disturbances, diplopia
Answer: (B). Bulging fontanel, Nausea vomiting
Answer: (D). Vertigo, slight change in vital signs, pupils not as reactive or equal,
sunsetting eyes, Seizures, change in LOC
282. (1120). What are the clinical manifestations of acute postinfectous glomerulonephritis?
Answer: (A). microscopic hematuria, headache, costovertebral tenderness
Answer: (B). periorbital edema, lethargy, fever, abdominal pain
Answer: (C). Hypertension
283. (890). What clinical manifestations indicate Anorectal malformations? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). stool in the urine
Answer: (C). ribbonlike stools
284. (150). How long does Sydenham chorea tipically last?
Answer: (C). 5-15 weeks
285. (550). What should the nurse try to do when they are caring for a child with
thrombocytopenia?
Answer: (D). minimize needle sticks and other intrusive proceedures
286. (1240). A child has been perscribed antibiotics for otitis media, what instructions should the
parents be given?
Answer: (D). use exactly as directed and complete the prescribed course
287. (290). An infant that is born with sickle cell anemia may not become symptomatic until?
Answer: (C). 4-6mos of age
288. (1310). children with venticuloatrial shunts are placed on_____________ to prevent shunt
infections
Answer: (B). prophylactic antibiotics
289. (790). What are the clinical manifestations of Pyloric Stenosis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Projectile vomiting
Answer: (B). always hugary, irritable, fails to gain weight, fewer and smaller stools
Answer: (D). Dehydration, alkalosis, hyperbilrubinemia
290. (1160). What comfort measures should be taken with conjunctivitis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). cleaning drainage away with a warm clean cloth
Answer: (B). avoiding bright lights, avoiding reading
Answer: (D). antihistamines, topical steroids and vasoconstrictors
291. (540). A child who is receiving cranial radiation and intrathecal chemotherapy should be
evaluated for:?
Answer: (C). Scholastic evaluations
292. (780). What should be done post surgically for Esophageal atresia?
Answer: (A). maintain gastrostomy drainage
Answer: (B). Maintain IV fluids and antibiotics
Answer: (D). TPN is administered if needed
293. (410). All of the clinical manifestations of Beta-Thalassemia are the result of
Answer: (C). defective synthesis of hemoglobin, structurally impaired RBC'sand the
shortened life span of RBC's
294. (670). What clinical manifestations are likely to be seen in Autistic spectrum disorder?
Answer: (B). repetitive behaviors (head banging, twirling, biting, flapping their hands)
295. (420). What are the clinical manifestations of Hyperthyroidism? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Enlarged nontender thyroid gland, prominent or bulging eyes, auditory bruit
on auscutation
Answer: (C). eyelid lag, tachycardia, nervousness, emotional lability, heat intolerance,
increased sweating
Answer: (D). restlessness, irritability, increased appetite with weight loss, Insomnia,
tremor, muscle weakness
296. (300). When are growth hormone suplimentations stoped?
Answer: (B). when the child gets to acceptable height or growth slows to less than one
inch/yr
297. (660). What is the key part of behavior modification?
Answer: (B). Consistancy
298. (50). If bleeding or drainage is noted on a cast what is done?
Answer: (B). circle the area to determine the extent of drainage
299. (480). What is the goal of treatment for a child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Answer: (D). suppress adrenal secretion of androgens by replacing deficient hormones,
which is accomplished by the lifelong oral administration of glucocorticoids
300. (580). A child is more likely to develop eczema if?
Answer: (C). there is a family history of allergies or asthma
301. (120). What is the treatment for knock-knees?
Answer: (D). braces worn both day and night
302. (270). What complications can arise from a fracture? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). fat embolism
Answer: (B). Chest Pain
Answer: (D). SOA, compartment syndrome
303. (490). What are the clinical manifestations of Type one Diabetes Melitus?(choose all that
apply)
Answer: (A). polyuria
Answer: (B). polydipsia
Answer: (C). polyphagia, with weight loss
304. (160). Management of a client with developmental dysplagia of the hip includes? (choose all
that apply)
Answer: (A). maintaining traction, providing cast care, teaching the parents to care for the
child at home
Answer: (B). preventing complications resulting from immobility
Answer: (D). promoting normal growth and development
305. (570). What is the first line treatment for itching
Answer: (B). cold compress
306. (40). After casting is complete, what possition is the extremity left in?
Answer: (C). elevated
307. (340). As a result of increased fluid loss through the kidneys in Diabetes Insipidus, what is
the normal body response
Answer: (A). Polydipsia
308. (680). What are the two most common medications to treat ADHD?
Answer: (A). Ritalin
Answer: (D). Concerta
309. (370). What is the major complication if hypothyroidism goes untreated in a child?
Answer: (C). growth delay/mental retardation
310. (620). What symptoms does the client complain of with lice?
Answer: (A). pruritus
Answer: (C). Dandruff
311. (390). When testing thyroid function, a TSH and a T4 are drawn, what would indicate a need
for supplimentation?
Answer: (B). high tsh, low t4
312. (290). What is the standard treatment for a child with a growth hormone difficiency?
Answer: (B). Sub Q Injections 3-7 times a week
313. (310). What should be taught to the parents of a child who is recieving growth hormone
supplimentation?
Answer: (C). How to administer the injections at home
314. (180). When should Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease be suspected
Answer: (B). any child from 2-12 that complains of hip pain and a limp
315. (240). What is the best exercise for a child that has been diagnosed with Ostogenesis
Imperfecta (brittle bone disease)?
Answer: (C). swiming
316. (500). What is considered to be an abnormal result of a fasting blood glucose test?
Answer: (C). >126
317. (700). What is the most accurate way to identify Mental Retardation?
Answer: (B). Functional Assessment
318. (730). What drug class is typically prescribed to someone with depression?
Answer: (C). SSRI's Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
319. (280). What are the clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). Paresthesia, Pain, Pressure
Answer: (B). Pallor, Paralysis
Answer: (D). Pulselessness
320. (440). An increased pulse rate in a child with hyperthyroidism would indicate?
Answer: (B). The medication needs to be increased
321. (720). What are the clinical manifestions of schizophrenia? (choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). social withdrawal, impaired social relationships, flat affect
Answer: (B). regression, loose associations
Answer: (D). poor judegment, anxiety, delusions, and hallucinations
322. (10). You are caring for a client with a cast, upon inspection of the cast an area seems to be
warmer than the rest, what should be suspected?
Answer: (C). suspect an infection
323. (740).
324. (710). What are common characteristics seen in a child with fetal alcohol syndrome?(choose
all that apply)
Answer: (A). flat midface, low nasal bridge, long philtrum with narrow upper lip
Answer: (B). short upturned nose, poor coordination
Answer: (D). failure to thrive, skeletal and joint abnormalities, hearing loss
325. (400). Once a thyroid deficiency has been identified, what is it usually treated with?
Answer: (B). synthroid
326. (190). What are the predisposing factors to a slipped capital femoral epiphysis? (choose all
that apply)
Answer: (A). obesity, recent growth spurt
Answer: (C). endocrine disorders
Answer: (D). family history
327. (140). What is the most common treatment of Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip when the
child is under 3mos?
Answer: (B). Pavlik harness
328. (80). How often is a cast changed?
Answer: (D). every 1-2 wks
329. (320). What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a teenager diagnosed with
hyperpituitarism?
Answer: (A). Disturbed body image
330. (470). What symptoms may a child exhibit that would indicate congenital adrenal
hyperplasia?
Answer: (A). recurrent vomiting, dehydration, metabolic acidosis, hypotension,
hypoglycemia
331. (260). Once a fracture has been diagnosed, what is the most important symptom to be
managed?
Answer: (C). pain
332. (170). What are the early symptoms of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). mild pain in the hip or anterior thigh, relieved by bed rest
Answer: (C). limp
333. (430). What should be taught to the parents of a child diagnosed with hyperthyroidism?
Answer: (B). how to assess for an increased pulse rate
334. (550). A child with PKU should avoid?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). high protein foods
Answer: (D). aspartame
335. (650). What is the primary complaint of someone who under goes autografting?
Answer: (C). Pain at Donor site
336. (380). What is a goiter?
Answer: (D). Painless enlargement of the thyroid
337. (70).
338. (100). While examining a 18 month old child, you notice the legs are bowed, this finding is?
Answer: (B). Normal, until 2-3yrs of age
339. (90). How long should casting continue
Answer: (C). 8-12wks
340. (330). In diabetes insipidus, inadequate ADH has what effect on the kidneys resulting in
what?
Answer: (B). release of water, polyuria
341. (60). The skin around the edges of a cast are checked for?
Answer: (A). redness/swelling
342. (210). What is the most important assessment on a child who is undergoing treatment for
scoliosis?
Answer: (B). Neurvascular checks
343. (540). How is PKU treated?
Answer: (B). Special diet low in phenylalanine
344. (560). What is the potential result if dietary control of PKU is lost before the age of 6?
Answer: (C). Deminished IQ
345. (250). What is the most important thing that should be monitored in a child with Muscular
Dystorphies?
Answer: (B). cardiac and respirtory function
346. (200). How much of a spinal curvature is required before it is considered to be abnormal?
Answer: (C). >10 degrees
347. (450). What is a major clinical indicator for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia in a female?
Answer: (B). clitoris is enlarge and labial fusions
348. (230). How long should a child recieving antibiotics for osteomylitis continue the treatment?
Answer: (D). 6 wks
349. (130). What are the signs and symptoms of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). limited abduction of the hip, Limp,
Answer: (B). asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh fat folds
Answer: (D). telescoping or pistoning of the thigh
350. (30). When handling a cast, how is it handled?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (B). With the palms of the hands
Answer: (C). gentle technique
351. (600). What is the treatment for celulitis?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). warm compress QID
Answer: (B). elevation
Answer: (D). bedrest
352. (350). How is a child with precocious puberty identified?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). short stature
Answer: (B). premature skeletal maturation
Answer: (D). secondary sex characteristics
353. (690). What are the side effects of the medications used to treat ADHD?
Answer: (A). anorexia, insomnia, tachycardia
354. (220). What is the initial treatment for osteomylitis?
Answer: (D). Wide spectrum IV antibiotics
355. (410). How long must thyroid replacement be taken?
Answer: (D). throughout life
356. (20). How long does it take for a cast to dry?
Answer: (C). 24-48hrs
357. (460). What is a major clinical indicator for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia in a male?
Answer: (A). slightly enlarged penis and hyperpigmented scrotum
358. (510). What is considered to be an abnormal result of a 2hr glucose tollerance test?
Answer: (C). >200
359. (520). When planning the management of a child with type one diabetes melitus, what
should be considered?
Answer: (C). developmental level and cognitive abilities
360. (150). What is the most common treatment for a child over 3mos of age with developmental
dysplasia of the hip
Answer: (A). skin traction
361. (360). How is precocious puberty treated?
Answer: (B). Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog
362. (630). How is lice treated?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). pediculicide shampoo
Answer: (C). fine toothed comb
Answer: (D). retreatment in 7 days
363. (590). How long is Impetigo contageous?
Answer: (C). untill 48 hours after treatment began
364. (110). What is the treatment for bowlegs?
Answer: (C). braces worn at night
365. (640). Who is most likely to contract Oral Candidiasis (thrush)
Answer: (B). those with immune disorders, corticosteroid inhailer, antibiotics
366. (530). What are the clinical manifestions of PKU?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (A). musty or mousey body and urine odor
Answer: (B). irritability, vomiting, hyperactivty, seizures
Answer: (C). eczemalike rash, mental retardation
367. (610). How is Pediculosis Capitis (lice) Spread?(choose all that apply)
Answer: (C). direct contact
Answer: (D). use of hair accessories shared by another