Download Psy 215 Lifespan Development Section I Exam Study Guide 1. The

Psy 215 Lifespan Development
Section I Exam Study Guide
1.
The Christian doctrine of ________ is the basis for the theory that human development occurs as a result of
how well or how poorly someone does at overcoming their innately sinful nature.
a.
original sin
b.
blank slate
c.
behaviorism
d.
innate goodness
2.
As a developmental psychologist I believe that humans possess no inborn abilities and that a child's parents
can mold them into whatever they want them to be. Which of the following would best describe my beliefs?
a.
Empiricism
b.
Innate goodness
c.
Original sin
d.
Darwinism
3.
Which of the following best describes your text's approach to human development?
a.
Human development begins at birth and continues throughout the lifespan.
b.
Human development begins at birth and becomes relatively stable by adolescence.
c.
Human development begins slowly at birth and accelerates as we age.
d.
Human development begins with the onset of puberty.
4.
What term is used to describe changes in variable that are associated with the relationship of an individual to
others?
a.
Psychological domain
b.
Physical domain
c.
Cognitive domain
d.
Social domain
5.
Which of the following are central to the nature-nurture controversy?
a.
Environmental continuity and psychological comfort
b.
Change triggered by social processes or change caused by cultural influences
c.
Inborn biases and genetic predispositions
d.
Biological process and experiential factors
6.
Which of the following terms best describes a change in kind or type?
a.
Qualitative change
b.
Quantitative change
c.
Significant change
d.
Metric change
7.
Our sense of "the right time" to go to college, marry, have children, or retire is determined by our
a.
biological clock.
b.
intuition.
c.
social clock.
d.
cultural and cohort continuity.
8.
The basic idea that there may be significant periods in development when an organism is especially sensitive
to the presence or absence of some particular kind of experience or influence is referred to as a
a.
cohort influence.
b.
critical period.
c.
collectivist cultural influence.
d.
timing influence.
9.
Which of the following developmental outcomes would be illustrative of the concept of vulnerability?
a.
Very low IQ scores are more common among children who were born with a low birth weight and who
are reared in highly stressed, uninvolved families.
b.
Normal birth weight infants born into upper socioeconomic status families invariably have superior
levels of intelligence.
c.
Children born into caring, facilitative families rarely have sufficient protective factors to overcome or
offset all vulnerabilities that might potentially affect their development.
d.
Positive developmental outcome is possible only for children with few vulnerabilities and many
protective factors.
10.
Predictions that can be tested in an effort to explain human development are known as
a.
theories.
b.
hypotheses.
c.
experiments.
d.
constructs.
11.
Which of the following is a true statement about correlations?
a.
A correlation of zero indicates a strong relationship between two variables.
b.
A correlation of -1.00 indicates a weak relationship between two variables.
c.
A correlation of +1.00 provides clear evidence that one variable has a causative effect upon the other.
d.
Correlations can range from -1.00 to +1.00 and describe the strength of a relationship between two
variables.
12.
Cohort effects are most commonly associated with which type of research design?
a.
Cross-sectional designs
b.
Longitudinal designs
c.
Sequential designs
d.
Quasi-experimental designs
13.
Erikson's is a psychosocial theory because it involves which type of interactions?
a.
Between internal drives and environmental consequences
b.
Between internal drives and unregulated emotions
c.
Between internal drives and cultural demands
d.
Between internal drives and social instincts
14.
Which of the following is considered to be the major weakness of psychoanalytic theories?
a.
They contribute more to our understanding of how learning occurs than to our knowledge of human
development.
b.
Such theories do not explain social, emotional, or personality development.
c.
Few scientists have accepted or acknowledged their key principles.
d.
It has been very difficult to test their key concepts.
15.
Watson believed that children could be trained to do anything through
a.
manipulation of the environment.
b.
sensory deprivation.
c.
focus on meeting early basic needs.
d.
biological conditioning.
16.
Which of the following is a common mistake that parents make when trying to stop unwanted behaviors?
a.
They forget to use continuous schedules of reinforcement.
b.
They create intermittent schedules of reinforcement when they think they are punishing.
c.
They use intermittent punishment, when they should be using intermittent schedules of reinforcement.
d.
They use punishment too frequently.
17.
Which of the following is the best description of the process of accommodation?
a.
The use of multiple strategies to address new problems
b.
Changing an existing scheme as a result of new information or experiences
c.
Using symbols to represent the events from the real world
d.
Understanding the world in terms of one's senses and motor actions
18.
Five year old Elena can tie her shoes, but she needs her mother's help to untie them. She also needs her
mother's help to button her sweater. Vygotsky would suggest that this situation illustrates Elena's
a.
scaffold.
b.
zone of proximal development.
c.
adaptive processes of assimilation, accommodation, and equilibration.
d.
sensorimotor development.
19.
Which of the following is particularly useful in research that is the focus of behavioral genetics?
a.
Special learning environments
b.
Stem cells
c.
Multiple births from independent zygotes
d.
Identical twins
20.
Which of the following theories relies on the understanding of internal drives and emotions to answer the
"whys" of human development?
a.
Psychoanalytic
b.
Humanistic
c.
Biological
d.
Cognitive
21.
Which of the following is the best example of extinction?
a.
You change to a different slot machine because the one that you've been playing doesn't pay very often.
b.
You stop buying lottery tickets until the jackpot is greater than $10 million.
c.
You stop buying lottery tickets after spending several hundred dollars and never winning.
d.
You purchase mega bucks tickets instead of regular lottery tickets because the odds of winning are
greater.
22.
According to Bandura, which of the following terms best describes the expectancies we acquire about what
we can and cannot do?
a.
Self monitoring
b.
Self evaluation
c.
Self-efficacy
d.
Self-evidence
23.
In looking at the relationship between heredity and IQ, which of the following is the most true?
a.
Fraternal twins are more likely that identical twins to have similar IQs.
b.
Heredity appears to have the largest influence on childhood IQ scores and decreases with age.
c.
Contradicting earlier research findings, the correlation in IQ scores between identical twins is only
approximately +0.2.
d.
Heredity appears to have the largest influence on adult IQ scores and this influence increases with age.
24.
The idea that certain human behaviors have developed and persisted in order to ensure survival of the species
is drawn from which of the following?
a.
Behaviorism
b.
Classical conditioning
c.
Nativism
d.
Ethology
25.
The nucleus of the typical human cell contains how many chromosomes?
a.
46 pairs
b.
23 pairs
c.
48 pairs
d.
22 pairs
26.
What is the term used to describe cells that unite at conception?
a.
Chromosomes
b.
Gametes
c.
Zygotes
d.
Genes
27.
Which of the following terms describes physical traits which are influenced by both genes and the
environment?
a.
Polygenetic
b.
Dominant-Recessive
c.
Epifactorial
d.
Multifactorial
28.
Which of the following is a condition that can cause a baby to grow too rapidly and result in premature labor
or an infant that is too large for a vaginal birth?
a.
Ectopic pregnancy
b.
Gestational diabetes
c.
Hypothyroidism
d.
High blood pressure
29.
Which of the following is the best example of the proximodistal principle of development during the prenatal
period?
a.
The spinal cord develops before the arms.
b.
The digestive organs are formed before the heart.
c.
Male growth patterns proceed more quickly than female patterns.
d.
Differentiation of the gonads occurs before the eyes are formed.
30.
When does a developing infant begin to respond to sound?
a.
6 - 10 weeks
b.
13 - 16 weeks
c.
22-26 weeks
d.
36-40 weeks
31.
Synapses are formed following the development of which of the following neural structures?
a.
Cell bodies and axons
b.
Dendrites and neurons
c.
Axons and dendrites
d.
Cell bodies and dendrites
32.
Carmelita has smoked an average of one pack of cigarettes per day throughout her pregnancy. How is this
likely to affect her fetus?
a.
The infant will have an elevated risk for mental retardation and deafness.
b.
The infant is likely to be born with physical deformities.
c.
The infant may weigh less than normal at birth.
d.
The research is unclear as to the effects of smoking on fetuses.
33.
Which of the following correctly lists the stages of prenatal development in order of progression?
a.
Fetal, embryonic, germinal
b.
Zygotic, germinal, embryonic
c.
Germinal, embryonic, fetal
d.
Embryonic, fetal, germinal
34.
At what point does the fetal period begin?
a.
When the process of organogenesis is complete
b.
Immediately after the sex of the child can be determined
c.
After the dendritic arbor forms around the umbilical cord
d.
When implantation is complete
35.
Which of the following serve to hold neurons together?
a.
Axonal cells
b.
Glial cells
c.
Myelin sheath
d.
Dendritic cells
36.
Which of the following aspects of neonatal functioning is assessed by the Apgar scale?
a.
Weight
b.
Height
c.
Hair color
d.
Skin color
37.
Which of the following is true of synaptogenesis?
a.
It refers to the separation of connections between neurons.
b.
Once it begins shortly after birth, it continues at a steady and constant pace.
c.
It results in an decreases in brain size of four times by age four.
d.
Each period of synaptogenesis is followed by a period of pruning.
38.
Which of the following is a primary function of brain development in the first year of life?
a.
Development of neurons and glial cells
b.
Ossification
c.
Formation of synapses
d.
Proximodistal development
39.
Animal studies have shown which of the following to be true?
a.
Impoverished environments can actually help shield a young brain from damage caused by teratogens.
b.
Enriched environments, unfortunately, have no influence on brains damaged by a mother's drug use
during pregnancy.
c.
Enriched environments help the young overcome brain damage by increasing myelinization.
d.
Enriched environments can help the young brain overcome damage caused by some teratogens.
40.
Your brain has the ability to change in response to experience. This ability is known as
a.
flexibility.
b.
plasticity.
c.
responsiveness.
d.
reactivity.
41.
According to many neurophysiologists, which of the following will result in the pruning of redundant neural
pathways and the selective retention of the most efficient pathways in an infant's brain?
a.
Diet and nutrition
b.
Experiences
c.
Phenotype
d.
Inborn predispositions
42.
Which of the following processes is an emphasis of brain development in the second year of life?
a.
Development of neurons and glial cells
b.
Formation of synapses
c.
Myelinization
d.
Proximodistal development
43.
Which of the following is true regarding colic?
a.
Almost all infants develop colic.
b.
Colic is a pattern of intense daily periods of crying for one to three hours per day.
c.
The cause of colic is usually an allergy to infant formula.
d.
Colic typically begins at about two weeks of age and then disappears spontaneously at three or four
months of age.
44.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding motor skill development?
a.
Boys and girls are virtually identical in the rate at which they develop motor skills.
b.
Children with mental retardation will go through a different sequence of motor skill development than
normal children.
c.
Even though boys and girls may differ in the rate at which they develop motor skills, they still develop
these skills in the same sequence.
d.
The development of motor skills is most likely controlled by environmental circumstances.
45.
What is micronutrient malnutrition?
a.
Protein insufficiency
b.
Lack of sufficient vitamins and minerals
c.
Insufficient intake of carbohydrates
d.
Insufficiency of total calories
46.
Habituation is best defined by which of the following?
a.
Shaping behavior patterns through operant conditioning
b.
The decline in attention that occurs because a stimulus becomes too familiar
c.
The development of repetitive behaviors that are characteristic of the secondary circular reactions
substage
d.
Strengthening or increase in behaviors that results from reinforcement
47.
Of the following statements, which is an accurate description of an infant's perceptual abilities?
a.
When newborns gaze, they can see the edges of objects.
b.
Infants as young as one week of age seem to prefer attractive faces to less attractive faces.
c.
Infants will display habituation to an unfamiliar pattern of objects or features of objects.
d.
Infants develop depth perception only after a prolonged experience of walking toward and away from
objects.
48.
When a child combines information from several senses into one perception, this is called
a.
inhabituation.
b.
synesthesia.
c.
intermodal perception.
d.
sensory integration.
49.
By what age does your text suggest that most infants develop the understanding that objects still exist even
when they are out of the infant's sight?
a.
3 months
b.
4 months
c.
9 months
d.
12 months
50.
A child's understanding of the nature of objects, their properties, and how they work defines which of the
following?
a.
Object relations
b.
Object concept
c.
Object permanence
d.
Objectification
51.
Permanent changes in behavior that result from experience are examples of
a.
procession.
b.
learning.
c.
molding.
d.
conservation.
52.
Children learn rules of grammar before they learn the exceptions to them. In other words, the errors they
make in language are associated with rules, not random patterns, as behaviorists suggested. This criticism
represents the ideas of whom?
a.
Noam Chomsky
b.
Alfred Adler
c.
Melissa Bowerman
d.
Sigmund Freud
53.
Brody is entertaining himself and his mother with his repetitious "dadadada, babababa" as if he just likes the
sound of his own voice. What is Brody doing?
a.
Babbling
b.
Cooing
c.
Muttering
d.
Recasting
54.
Naming explosion typically occurs around what age?
a.
8 - 10 months
b.
12 - 18 months
c.
11 - 14 months
d.
16 - 24 months
55.
Which of the following statements is true regarding children who talk late?
a.
Less than half the children who talk late ever catch up with the mainstream.
b.
Among late talkers, delays in language development are unrelated to matters of general cognitive
development.
c.
Late talkers are usually suffering from organic deficits.
d.
The children who do not catch up with their peers usually have receptive language deficits.
56.
An interactionist would see which of the following as a shortcoming of the nativists' approach to language
development?
a.
They place too much emphasis on the environment.
b.
They rely too much on the parent-child interaction.
c.
The interactionists and the nativists use the same approach to language development.
d.
They pay too little attention to social context.
57.
The average two year old has a vocabulary of about how many words?
a.
175
b.
230
c.
320
d.
250
58.
"Mommy sick!" is an example of which type of language?
a.
Exclamatory meaning
b.
A compound sentence
c.
A hologram
d.
Telegraphic speech
59.
Which style is associated with strings of words that involve common interactions with adults?
a.
Suggestive
b.
Expressive
c.
Receptive
d.
Referential
60.
Which of the following statements is true with regard to bilingual children?
a.
Bilingual children who are fluent in both languages have only moderate learning difficulties in school.
b.
Bilingualism is associated with deficits in metalinguistic ability.
c.
For adults, the advantages of being bilingual outweigh any problems experienced in childhood.
d.
Compared to monolingual children, bilingual children show no differences in acquiring reading skills.
61.
According to Bowlby's theory of attachment, which of the following will a child have developed by age 5
years?
a.
An internal model that includes self, mother, and relationships in general
b.
An external model that includes self, mother, and relationships in general
c.
An internal model that includes only self and the primary caregiver
d.
An internal model that includes self, and mother, but excludes a model of the father
62.
According to your text, which statement about adopted children is true?
a.
Adopted children have fewer adjustment problems once they are old enough to understand that their
adoption means that they were "chosen."
b.
Children who are adopted by the age of 6 months, with no history of institutionalization or abuse, are
generally indistinguishable from nonadopted children.
c.
Children who are adopted by age 10 are indistinguishable from nonadopted children, provided that they
are adopted into loving homes.
d.
Only 10% of adoptive children who come from abusive backgrounds ever actually have problems later
on.
63.
A child shows no interest in contact with her mother following a separation. This child does not specifically
resist the mothers' efforts, but she will not seek much contact. She shows no preference for her mother over a
stranger. Which of the following best describes this child?
a.
Securely attached
b.
Insecure/avoidant
c.
Secure/resistant
d.
Insecure/disorganized
64.
According to your textbook, which of the following is LEAST likely to have an adverse effect on a child's
social and psychological wellness?
a.
Marital conflict
b.
Depression in the primary caregiver
c.
Neglect by the parents
d.
Living in a single parent household
65.
The emotional and behavioral predispositions present at birth are thought to be the foundation of personality.
These predispositions are collectively referred to as
a.
foundations.
b.
temperament.
c.
moods.
d.
motivations.
66.
Which of the following terms is used to describe the temperament of children who are less regular with their
body functions and slower to develop stable eating and sleeping patterns?
a.
Difficult
b.
Slow to warm
c.
Easy
d.
Secure
67.
Which of the following are described in terms of activity level, distractibility, and persistence?
a.
Types of infant personalities
b.
Personality dimensions
c.
Dimensions of temperament
d.
Characteristics of self-concept
68.
________ is the process of selecting experiences based on temperament.
a.
Self-fulfilling prophecy
b.
Self-regulation
c.
Hypothetical placement
d.
Niche-picking
69.
Research correlates neurological differences with differences in temperament. What is a basic argument
against the conclusions drawn from this data?
a.
The relationship between brain structure and shyness is illusory.
b.
Environmental influences can alter brain structure just as brain structure can alter behavior.
c.
Since it is correlational data, no conclusions can be drawn.
d.
environmental influences have a greater influence on behavior than do differences in brain structure.
70.
Which of the following best describes the toddler's understanding that he or she is defined by membership in
various categories, such as gender or personality characteristics?
a.
Subjective self
b.
Superficial self
c.
Objective self
d.
Inhibited self
71.
Research suggests that infants can identify changes in the emotions expressed in others' faces by what age?
a.
2-3 months
b.
4 months
c.
5 months
d.
6-9 months
72.
All-in-all, what seems to be the most important factor in cognitive development in children?
a.
Frequent interaction between caregiver and child
b.
Appropriate levels of stimulation
c.
The temperament of the caregiver
d.
The temperament of the child