Download E. Linked genes

TEST-QUESTIONS TO MODULE CONTROL 2 (LEVEL 1)
MEDICAL
1. The alternative forms of a gene are called
A. Homozygous
B. Heterozygous
C. Genotypic
D. Alleles
E. Loci
2. Trait which appears in the F1 generation in
crosses between true-breeding strains is defined
as
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Monohybrid
D. Genotypic
E. Phenotypic
3. A child inherits alternative alleles from the parents such genotype is called
A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous
C. Parental
D. Monohybrid
E. Genotypic
4. The physical appearance of an organism's
genes is its
A. environment
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. genetic code
E. number of chromosomes
5. By crossing Aa × Aa, what is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring produced? Assume
complete dominance for the trait.
A. 100% dominance
B. 100% recessive
C. 75% dominant: 25% recessive
D. 50% dominant: 50% recessive
E. 25% dominant: 75% recessive
6. The law of segregation states that
A. Each individual carries a single copy of
each "factor."
B. Pairs of factors fuse during the gametes
formation.
C. Pairs of factors separate during the gametes formation.
D. The sex chromosomes of males and females differ.
E. There is an independent assortment of
non-homologous chromosomes during
meiosis
7. Assuming complete dominance, the offspring
of the cross AA×Aa will show a phenotypic ratio:
A. 3:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:2:1
D. 9:3:3:1
E. none of the above, they will all have the
same phenotype
8. The 9:3:3:1 ratio is a ratio of
A. phenotypes in a test cross
B. phenotypes in a monohybrid cross
C. phenotypes in a dihybrid cross
D. genotypes in a monohybrid cross
E. genotypes in a dihybrid cross
9. In crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote individuals, the chance of getting a
recessive phenotype in the next generation is:
A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 100 percent
E. 0 percent
10. A dominant allele is defined as:
A. an allele that is lethal to individuals that
carry it
B. an allele that phenotype is shown only
when it is in the homozygous condition
C. an allele that phenotype is shown only
when it is in the heterozygous condition
D. an allele that phenotype is shown in
both the homozygous and heterozygous
condition
E. an allele that phenotype is shown even
when it is absent from the genome
11. How many different kinds of gametes may be
produced by an organism with the genotype
RrYY?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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12. A cross between two diheterozygous (AaBb)
parents produces offspring with an expected
phenotypic ratio (assume complete dominance)
A. 3 : 1
B. 1 : 2 : 1
C. 1 : 2 : 3 : 9
D. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
E. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
13. G.Mendel explained his dihybrid cross results
by assuming that two traits
A. are inherited independently of each other
B. are linked together
C. influence each other during gamete
formation
D. are always heterozygous
E. were part of the sex chromosomes
14. Segregation of alleles occurs during
A. mitosis
B. meiosis I
C. meiosis II
D. fertilization
E. pollination
15. Suppose two AaBb individuals are mated.
What fraction of the offspring will be homozygous recessive for the both traits?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
E. 1/32
16.
Determine the genotypes of parents, if the
observed ratio of their offspring is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.
A. AaBb × aabb
B. AaBB × aaBb
C. AaBb × Aabb
D. AaBb × AaBb
E. Aabb × aaBb
17. The Punnett square was used by Mendel to
A. record the results of his test crosses
B. develop the idea of the dihybrid cross
C. disprove pangenesis
D. predict the probabilities of different allele
combinations
E. none of the above
18. How many different types of gamete can be
formed by organism with genotype
AaBbCCDdEE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
19. The exact position of gene alleles of a gene
on a chromosome is known as a
A. locus
B. linkage point
C. centromere
D. translocation
E. site
20. Genes interaction is the relationship between
A. region of DNA molecule
B. region of RNA molecule
C. parts of chromosomes
D. molecules of enzymes
E. ribosomes and m-RNA.
21. A test cross is used to
A. demonstrate whether two genes are linked
B. show whether inheritance is polygenic or
Mendelian
C. determine whether a trait is sex-linked or
autosomal
D. test whether an organism expressing the
dominant phenotype is homozygous or
heterozygous
E. find out whether the trait is characterized
by incomplete dominance
22. Determine genotypes of parents, if the observed ratio of their offspring is 1 : 2.
A. AaBb × aabb
B. AA × aa
C. Aa × Aa
D. aaBB × aaBB
E. aaBb × aabb
23. Phenomenon, in which a single gene produces
multiple phenotypic effects, is called
A. Heterosis
B. Pleiotropy
C. Codominance
D. Overdominance
E. Incomplete dominance
24. The type of inheritance in which both heterozygotes and dominant homozygotes have the
same phenotype is
A. complete dominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. overdominance
D. codominance
E. none of the above
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25. Blue-eyed woman with blood type AB is Rhnegative. What is her genotype?
A. bbIAIBRR
B. BbIAIBRr
C. bbIAirr
D. bbIAIBRr
E. bbIAIBrr
26. Inheritance of ABO blood types illustrates
A. superdominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. multiple allelism
D. pleiotropy
E. compementation
27. A kind of gene interaction, when dominant
allele in heterozygous condition shows its action more intensively than in homozygous
condition is
A. complete dominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. superdominance
D. codominance
E. relative dominance
28. Blood type MN blood is an example of
A. codominance
B. complete dominance
C. incomplete dominance
D. blending of alleles
E. monogenic traits
29. In a population expressing 5 different alleles
for a particular gene, how many alleles may
be present in each organism in the population?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1
30. A example of multiple alleles is the inheritance of
A. Color of hair
B. Shape of nose
C. Blood types in system ABO
D. Ability to synthesize interferon
E. Pigmentation of skin
31. If father has blood type A (heterozygous) and
mother has blood type AB, what is the probability that child will have blood type B?
A. 1
B. 0
C. ¼
D. ½
E. ¾
32. An example of primary pleiotropy is
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Sickle-cell anemia
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Galactosaemia
E. none of the above
33. An example of secondary pleiotropy is
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Hartnup disease
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. none of the above
34. Alleles at one locus modify or prevent the expression of alleles at another. The preceding
is a definition for
A. epistasis
B. pleiotropy
C. recombinant DNA
D. selective breeding
E. gene therapy
35. A kind of gene interaction in which the manifestation of a character is determined by presence of two dominant nonallelic genes is
A. complementation
B. codominance
C. incomplete dominance
D. complete dominance
E. superdominance
36. The frequency with which a gene exhibits its
effect is called
A. Penetrance
B. Codominance
C. Pleiotropy
D. Polygenic inheritance
E. Expressivity
37. Variation in allelic expression is called
A. Codominance
B. Pleiotropy
C. Expressivity
D. Polygenic inheritance
E. Penetrance
38. Human beings have
A. 48 linkage groups
B. 46 linkage groups
C. 45 linkage groups
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D. 23 linkage groups
E. 22 linkage groups
39. T.H. Morgan formulated:
A. the law of segregation
B. the law of unit characters
C. the law of dominance
D. the chromosome theory of heredity
E. Murphy’s law
40. Crossing-over is a process of:
A. duplication of DNA
B. producing new alleles
C. gene recombination
D. nondisjunction
E. transcribing RNA
41. A centimorgan is unit of distance between
any two
A. Linkage groups
B. Chromatids
C. Allelic genes
D. Nonallelic genes
E. Linked genes
42. In a testcross, an animal with genotype AaBb
were mated with one of a doubly recessive
genotype: aabb. The offspring include: 442
AaBb, 458 aabb, 46 Aabb, and 54 aaBb.
What could you say about the gene location?
A. The genes are on separate chromosomes.
B. The genes A and B are linked and are 5
units apart.
C. The genes A and B are linked and 10 units
apart.
D. The genes A and B are linked and are 20
units apart.
E. The genes A and B are linked and are 2.5
units apart.
43. In humans, a number of autosomes is
A. 22
B. 44
C. 23
D. 46
E. 48
44. A linkage group
A. is a chromosome region in which crossing over cannot occur.
B. can occur only on a heterochromosome
C. represents all genes that are located on
the same chromosome.
D. is a collection of genes that never produce recombinant gametes.
E. can occur only on an autosome.
45. When a sufficient number of mutant genes are
analyzed, a number of linkage groups equals a
A. number of sex chromosomes.
B. number of autosomes.
C. diploid chromosome number.
D. size of the largest chromosome in centimorgans.
E. haploid number.
46. In humans, sex is determined in at moment of
A. formation of zygote
B. maturation of eggs
C. maturation of spermatozoans
D. formation of sex glands
E. activation of Y- chromosome genes responsible for the sex differentiation.
47. How many genes does a child receive from its
father?
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 25 %
E. 0 %
48. Homologous chromosomes similar in both
sexes are called
A. Autosomes
B. Androsomes
C. Centrosomes
D. Heterosomes
E. Lysosomes
49. In a family, the father and son are haemophiliacs, the mother is healthy. Determine the
genotypes of parents.
A. XHXH and XHY
B. XHY and XhXh
C. XHXh and XhY
D. XHY and XHXh
E. AaBb and aabb
50. Which of the following disorders does not an
example of X-linked inheritance?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Haemophilia A
D. Haemophilia B
E. Daltonism
51. Which one of these is sex-linked trait?
A. Arachnodactyly
B. Phenylketonuria
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C. Albinism
D. Anophthalmia
E. Colour blindness
52. A haemophiliac man (who suffers from haemophilia) is married to healthy homozygous
woman. What is the probability that their son
will be haemophiliac?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
E. 0%
53. From which parent(s) did a male with redgreen color blindness inherit the defective allele?
A. only his mother
B. only his father
C. the mother or father, but not both
D. both the mother and the father
E. it is impossible to determine with certainly
using only the given information
54. Why are traits controlled by sex-linked recessive genes more often expressed in males?
A. Males inherit these genes from their fathers.
B. Males are always homozygous for these
genes.
C. All male offspring of a female carrier get
the gene.
D. The male has only one gene for the trait.
E. Males get more doses of the recessive gene
than do females.
55. The condition when organism has single copy
of gene (e.g., one allele in male genotype) is
called
A. homozygous
B. heterozygous
C. hemizygous
D. sex-linked
E. autosomal
56. Example of holandric trait is
A. large eyes
B. wide nose
C. thick lips
D. hairy ears
E. curly hair
57. If husband and wife have normal vision, but
fathers of both were colourblind, the probability of their first daughter to be colourblind is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
0%.
25%
50%
75%
100%
58. Breast development in mammals is typically
only seen in females and the trait is inherited
on the autosomes. This is an example of a
A. Y-linked trait
B. X-linked trait
C. sex-influenced trait
D. sex-limited trait
E. none of the above
59. Example of multifactorial disorder is
A. phenylketonuria
B. diabetes
C. albinism
D. sickle-cell anaemia
E. galactosaemia.
60. Leber's hereditary optic atrophy is caused by
a mutation in:
A. chromosome 3
B. chromosome 12
C. chromosome 15
D. chromosome 19
E. mitochondrial DNA.
61. Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in
the gene which encodes
A. Collagen
B. Histone
C. Elastin
D. Fibrillin
E. Tubulin
62. Single point mutations can still cause dysfunctional proteins. For example, substitution mutation causes the production of abnormal hemoglobin in sickle-cell anemia. In the mutant
hemoglobin
A. glutamic acid is substituted by valine
B. valine is substituted by glutamate
C. glutamine is substituted by valine
D. alanine is substituted by valine
E. phenylalanine is substituted by glycine
63. The mode of inheritance shown by glucose6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is:
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
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D. X-linked recessive
E. Y-linked
64. In a pedigree chart, which is correct?
A. circles = males; squares = females
B. a line between a circle and a square represents a mating
C. a double line between a circle and a square
represents the second marriage
D. a carrier with a normal phenotype is represented by a black circle or square.
E. all the above are correct
65. A genetics specialist analyzed the genealogy
of a family and found that both males and females may have the illness, not across all the
generations, and that healthy parents may
have affected children. What is the mode of
inheritance in this illness?
A. Y-linked
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X-linked dominant
E. X-linked recessive
66. Both sickle-cell anemia and hemophilia
A. provide resistance to malaria infection
B. are seen in homozygous dominant individuals
C. are caused by genes coding for defective
protein
D. are extremely common throughout the
world
E. are sex-linked traites
67. In child's blood, high content of galactose and
low glucose concentration are presents. There are
cataract, mental deficiency, adipose degeneration
of liver in patient. What disease is it?
A. Galactosemia
B. Steroid diabetes
C. Lactosemia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Fructosemia
68. In what disease is sphingomyelinase a defective enzyme?
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. favism
C. acatalasia
D. talassemia
E. Niemann-Pick disease
69. Which of the following is an example of disorder of metal metabolism?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
albinism
hepatolenticular degeneration
amaurotic familial idiocy
cystinuria
galactosemia.
70. Which of the following is an example of disorder of copper transport, resulting in copper
accumulation and toxicity to the liver and
brain?
A. Brachydactyly
B. Daltonism
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Wilson's disease.
71. In some cases, the уellow-green colored ring
(the 'Kayser-Fleischer ring') in the periphery
of a patient’s cornea occurs to represent copper deposits. This gene disorder is
A. Brachydactyly
B. Daltonism
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Wilson's disease.
72. Which of the following is an example of disorder of lipid metabolism?
A. Wilson`s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Haemophilia
D. Diabetes
E. Galactosaemia
73. An example of multifactorial disorder is
A. Albinism
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Sickle-cell anaemia
D. Diabetes
E. Galactosaemia
74. Which is associated with the deficiency of
factor VIII in the blood?
A. male pattern baldness
B. sickle-cell disease
C. color blindness
D. hemophilia
E. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
75. Consanguinity shows a strong association
with which pattern of inheritance?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
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E. Y-linked
76. Phenylketonuria is said to be a recessive inherited disease because
A. the fraction of babies with the disease falls
in successive generations.
B. the disease is not observed in individuals
with one mutant gene and one normal one.
C. It results in lipid accumulation.
D. myelin recedes from axons, causing failure
of action potential transmission.
E. the condition only appears following meiotic
recombination.
77. Which of the following is an example of disorder of mucopolysaccharidoses metabolism?
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Wilson`s disease
C. Hurler`s syndrome
D. Favism
E. Sickle-cell anaemia
78. Which of the following is an example of
monosomy?
A. 46, XX
B. 46, XY
C. 47, XXX
D. 69, XYY
E. 45, X0
79. Which of the following karyotypes is not
compatible with survival to birth?
A. 47,XY,+13
B. 47,XX,+18
C. 47,XY,+21
D. 45,X0
E. 45,Y0
82. Which of the following is a Klinefelter syndrome’s karyotype?
A. 47,XXX
B. 47,XYY
C. 47,XXY
D. 45,Y0
E. 45,X0
83. Which of the following karyotypes corresponds to Down syndrome?
A. 47,XY,+13
B. 47,XX,+18
C. 47,XY,+21
D. 47,XXY
E. 45,Y0
84. Jacob's syndrome is a rare chromosomal disorder that is caused by
A. presence of a single Y chromosome in male
karyotype
B. presence of a single X chromosome in female
karyotype
C. one extra Y chromosome in male karyotype
D. one extra X chromosome in male karyotype
E. one extra X chromosome in female karyotype
85. A karyotype of a patient with Turner`s syndrome is
A. 47, XY, +18
B. 47, XY, +13
C. 45, X0
D. 47, XX, +21
E. 47, XXY.
80. Which type of mutation is a cause of Cri du
chat syndrome?
A. inversion
B. insertion
C. translocation
D. deletion
E. duplication
86. An individual has rounded face, broad forehead, a Mongolian type of eyelid fold, flattened nose bridge, permanently open mouth,
projecting lower lip, protruding tongue, short
neck, flat hands, and stubby fingers. What
disease can be diagnosed in the patient?
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Supermale
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Down’s syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome
81. The Cri du chat syndrome is caused by a deletion of which chromosome?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 15
E. 21
87. Which of these karyotypes corresponds to
Patau's syndrome?
A. trisomy 13
B. trisomy 18
C. trisomy 21
D. trisomy X
E. monosomy X
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88. Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which
of the following genetic disorders?
A. Down syndrome
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Hemophilia
89. An environmentally induced, nonhereditary
variation in an organism, closely resembling a
genetically determined trait is
A. mutation
B. genocopy
C. phenocopy
D. morphosis
E. multiple alleles
90. The three natural processes that form the basis evolution are
A. adaptation, natural selection, and inheritance
B. predation, genetic variation, and natural
selection
C. mutation, genetic variation, and adaptation
D. fossils, natural selection, and adaptation
E. genetic variation, inheritance, and natural
selection
91. Which refers to the mutation where a chromosome becomes reoriented 180° of normal
position?
A. inversion
B. translocation
C. deletion
D. duplication
E. monosomy
92. Point out a number of Barr bodies in cells of
female patient with Edward`s syndrome:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
93. The failure of chromosomes to separate is
A. synaptonemal complex
B. recombination
C. crossing over
D. nondisjunction
E. nondisjointment
94. A method used for diagnosis of Klinefelter`s
syndrome is:
A. Chromatography
B.
C.
D.
E.
Genealogical method
Twins method
Population method
Detection of sex chromatin.
95. A woman who was sick with rubella during
the pregnancy gave birth to a deaf child with
hare lip and cleft palate. This congenital defect is phenocopy of:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Edward's syndrome
C. Patau's syndrome
D. Klinefelter`s syndrome
E. Cri du chat syndrome
96. Cytogenetic analysis is used to diagnose
A. Sickle-cell anaemia
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Turner`s syndrome
D. Marfan’s syndrome
E. Hemophilia
97. The ridge patterns on hands and feet are completed
A. About the 13th week of gestation
B. About the 16th week of gestation
C. Not long before birth.
D. During first month of life
E. To 3 years
98. In patient with Down`s syndrome the atd angle is
A. 108°
B. 81°
C. 66°
D. 48°
E. 42°
99. A single transverse crease on palm, called
simian crease, is revealed in patient with
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
B. Jacob’s syndrome
C. Marfan’s syndrome
D. Down`s syndrome
E. Patau’s syndrome
100. If both parents are affected with the same
autosomal recessive disorder then the probability that each of their children will be affected equals
A. 1 in 4
B. 1 in 2
C. 2 in 3
D. 3 in 4
E. 1
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101. Phenylkertonuria (PKU) is an autosomal
recessive disease in which affected individuals
lack the enzyme necessary to metabolize the
amino acid phenylalanine. What is the probability of having a child who is a carrier (and
does not manifest the disease) if one parent is a
carrier and the other parent carries no alleles
for the disease?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
102. Chorionic villus sampling uses what tissue
to analyze the fetal cells and provide karyotyping?
A. fetal blood tissue
B. cells floating in the amniotic fluid
C. a small biopsy from the embryo itself but
it readily heals
D. membrane tissue from the embryo side of
the placenta
E. membrane tissue from the mother's side of
the placenta
103. The diet as method for managing genetic
disease is used in
A. Haemophilia
B. phenylketonuria
C. daltonism
D. achondroplasia
E. sickle-cell anaemia
104.A population is defined as
A. members of the same genus
B. members of the same species
C. members of the same genus, living in the
same area, that have the potential to interbreed
D. members of the same species, living in the
same area, that have the potential to interbreed
E. interbreeding members of the same species
105.In the Hardy-Weinberg formulas, the frequency of the dominant allele in the population is designated as
A. p
B. q
C. p2
D. q2
E. 2pq
106. In the Hardy-Weinberg formulas, the frequency of heterozygous individuals in the
population is designated as
A. p
B. q
C. p2
D. q2
E. 2pq
107. The percentage of the homozygous recessive
individuals in the population is 36%. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in
given population.
A. 0.06
B. 0.36
C. 0.60
D. 0.64
E. 0.86
108. The gene frequencies in this population are p
= 0.6 and q = 0.4. Calculate the percentage of
heterozygous individuals in given population.
A. 4 %
B. 6 %
C. 24 %
D. 48 %
E. 64 %
109. The only way that new alleles are created is
A. Natural selection
B. Genetic drift
C. Nonrandom mating
D. Migration
E. Mutation
110. The exchange of genes between populations,
which are usually of the same species, is
called
A. Recombination
B. Gene pool
C. Gene drift
D. Gene flow
E. Gene adaptation
111. Generally occurred mutations are
A. Recessive
B. Dominant
C. Harmful
D. Beneficial
E.
Somatic
112. Everything is true about ideal population,
except:
A.
infinitely large population size
B.
presence of gene drift
9
C.
D.
E.
absence of mutations, migrations, natural
selection
presence of panmixia
gender ratio in population is 1:1
113. Mutation is the essential prerequisite for
the evolution of life. Evolutionary significance of mutations is that they
A. ensure reproductive isolation of populations
B. maintain gene drift
C. generate genetic variation
D. ensure survival and adaptability of a species
E.
maintain of genes constancy in population
119. A number of chromosomes in primary spermatocytes is
A. The same as in spermatogonia
B. Half of that in spermatogonia
C. The same as in secondary spermatocyte
D. Half of that in secondary spermatocyte.
E. The same as in spermatid
120. An immature male gamete that is formed
from a spermatocyte is called
A. Spermatid
B. Spermatozoon
C. Spermagonium
D. Sperm cell
E. Germ cell
114.How many sperm cells come from a single
spermatogonia by meiosis?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Several hundred
E. Millions.
121. What occurs in parthenogenesis?
A. artificial fertilization occurs
B. egg is fertilized by a sperm
C. egg undergoes cleavage without fertilization
D. egg undergoes cleavage after fertilization
E. sperm dies before fertilization.
115. How many ova come from single oogonia by
meiosis?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Several hundred
E. Millions.
122. In spermatogenesis, correct sequence of cell
stages is
A. spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids,
spermatozoa
B. spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids,
spermatozoa
C. spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes,
spermatozoa
D. spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia,
spermatozoa
E. spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatocytes,
spermatozoa.
116.Mitochondria of a sperm are in its
A. Middle
B. Head
C. Acrosome
D. Centriole
E. Tail.
117.Ploidy in a secondary spermatocyte cells is
A. n
B. 2 n
C. 3 n
D. 4 n
E. 2 n -1.
118.An exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during
meiosis is called
A. Linkage
B. Conjugation
C. Duplication
D. Crossing-over
E. Maturation.
123. Acrosome function is
A. to contact and penetrate the egg
B. to provide energy for the movement of the
sperm
C. to carry genetic information
D. in the first cleavage of the zygote
E. in the second cleavage of the zygote.
124. What cells repeatedly divide mitotically during the spermatogenesis?
A. Spermatids
B. Primary spermatocytes
C. Secondary spermatocytes
D. Spermatogonia
E. Spermatozoa
125. What cells divide meiotically during the
spermatogenesis?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Spermatids
Spermatocytes
Spermatogonia
Sperm cell
Germ cell
126.The cellular organelle from which an acrosome is derived is the:
A. Golgi complex
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleolus
D. Centrosome
E. Peroxisome
127.The process resulting in production of female
gamete is called
A. Fertilization
B. Menstruation
C. Oogenesis
D. Spermatogenesis
E. Diakinesis
128. Release of the oocytes from ovarian follicles is
called
A. Ovulation
B. Menstruation
C. Maturation
D. Oogenesis
E. Ovum activation
129.In
in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
spermatozoon the centrioles are localized
Head
Tail
Neck
Perivitelline space
Acrosome
130.Physiological changes of spermatozoa in the
female reproductive tract before being capable of penetrating the ovum is
A. Acrosome reaction
B. Cortical reaction
C. Capacitation
D. Integration
E. Fusion
131. Period of spermatogenesis including both
meiotic divisions is called
A. Multiplication
B. Growth
C. Maturation
D. Formation
E. Integration
132. In humans the fertilization usually occurs in
A. Vagina
B. Uterus
C. Ovaries
D. Fallopian tubes
E. Cervix
133. The following statements are true about meiosis, except:
A. Occurs only in reproductive (sex) cells
B. Four daughter cells are produced
C. Consists of two sub-divisions
D. Daughter cells have identical chromosomes to parent cell
E. Chromosome number reduces to half
134. The early stage of oogenesis occurs in
A. 3-7 month of embryogenesis
B. 7-9 month of embryogenesis
C. neonatal period
D. infancy period
E. puberty period
135. The early stage of spermatogenesis occurs in
A. 3-7 month of embryogenesis
B. 7-9 month of embryogenesis
C. neonatal period
D. infancy period
E. puberty period
136. The following statements are true about characteristics of sexual reproduction, except:
A. It is generally biparental.
B. It involves formation of gametes.
C. During gamete formation the main cell division is mitosis.
D. The offspring is not genetically identical to
the parents.
E. Sexual reproduction is a source of variety
in population.
137. The following statements are true about characteristics of asexual reproduction, except:
A. Multiplication occurs rapidly.
B. It is generally uniparental.
C. It involves meiotic cell division.
D. Fertilization does not occur.
E. The offspring is a genetic copy of the parent.
138. The fusion of two unicellular organisms in
zygote formation is called
A. Cоpulation
B. Conjugation
C. Syngamy
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D.
E.
Endogamy
Parthenogenesis
139.The division of the parent into many small
daughter individuals simultaneously is
A. Multiple fission
B. Fragmentation
C. Conjugation
D. Parthenogenesis
E. Budding
140. A disease affecting exocrine secretions
A.
Cystic fibrosis
B.
Cystinuria
C.
Phenylketonuria
D.
Porphyria
E.
Color blindness
141. In a pedigree, a shaded circle or square indicates a person who has
A. an allele for a trait only
B. the trait as well as its allele
C. a male allele
D. a female allele
E. all of the above
C. XcXc
D. XCY
E. XcY
146. A "carrier" individual for a sex-linked recessive trait
A. shows the dominant phenotype
B. is always female
C. is heterozygous for recessive condition
D. can pass the gene on to daughters
E. All the above choices are correct
147. An individual with aneuploidy can have:
A. one less chromosome
B. one extra chromosome
C. an entire extra set of chromosomes
D. only one member of each chromosome
pair
E. exactly two copies of each chromosome
148. The scientific study of fingerprints is called
A. criminalistics
B. genealogy
C. printology
D. dermatoglyphics
E. detectology
142. Dominant lethal disorders both are
A. chondrodystrophy and brachidactyly
B. brachidactyly and sickle-cell anemia
C. sickle-cell anemia and thalassemia
D. cystic fibrosis and thalassemia
E. Huntington's disease and sickle-cell anemia
149. The sex chromatin is an inactivated
A. germ cell
B. Y chromosome present in most males
C. Y chromosome present in most females
D. X chromosome present in most males
E. X chromosome present in most females
143. The genes located at different loci on the
same chromosome are called
A. allelic
B. non-allelic genes
C. dominant
D. recessive
E. sex-linked
150. These all are the stages of medical genetic
counseling, except
A. diagnostics
B. prognosis
C. treatment
D. documentation
E. recommendation
144. One map unit is equal to
A. 10 centimorgans
B. 100 centimorgans
C. 1 nanometer
D. 1% recombination between two genes
E. the average length of the chromosome containing the genes
145. A color-blind man has a daughter with normal color vision. What is the daughter’s genotype?
A. XCXC
B. XCXc
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