Download Principles of cytology

Module 1. Principles of cytology, general embryology and general histology
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Text test questions
What are main chemical components of biologic membrane?
A. Acids, proteins, polysaccharides
B. Phospholipids, acids, proteins
C. Phospholipids, polysaccharides, cholesterol
D. Polysaccharides, acids, cholesterol
E. *Phospholipids, proteins, cholesterol
How many layers are there in cell membrane?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
Which layer of plasmalemma is responsible for the cell exo- and
endocytosis?
A. Lipoprotein layer
B. Supramembranous
C. Integral layer
D. Glycocalix
E. *Cortical layer
Which cell compound has phospholipid bilayer?
A. Nuclear pore
B. Chromosome
C. Nuclear envelope
D. Ribosome
E. *Biologic membrane
Which modern theory describes the structure of cell membrane?
A. *Fluid mosaic model
B. Bilaminar model
C. Multilayered model
D. Complex model
E. Functional model
Specify the process of useful material effusion of the cell.
A. Recreation
B. Excretion
C. Transcytosis
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Secretion
Specify the process of some structural components effusion of cell.
A. Secretion
B. Recreation
C. Excretion
D. Transcytosis
E. *Clasmatosis
Specify the process of some hard material capture by cell.
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A. Pinocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Cytopempsis
E. *Phagocytosis
Sample of intercellular adherent junction:
A. Nexus
B. Compound
C. Tight
D. Synapse
E. *Interdigital
Sample of intercellular adherent junction:
A. Compound
B. Tight
C. Nexus
D. Synapse
E. *Desmosome
Sample of intercellular adherent junction:
A. Compound
B. Tight
C. Nexus
D. Synapse
E. *Hemidesmosome
Which type of cell junctions does the tight junction belong to?
A. Desmosomal
B. Synapse
C. Communicative
D. Adhesive
E. *Isolative
Which types of communicative junctions do You know?
A. Tight and loose
B. Desmosome and hemidesmosome
C. Simple and compound
D. Interdigital and adherent
E. *Nexus, synapse
What are main cell components:
A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma
B. Plasmalemma, organelles, nucleus
C. Nucleus, organelles, inclusions, hyaloplasm
D. Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, organelles, inclusions
E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus
Plasmalemma components:
A. Biologic membrane, glycocalix
B. Glycocalix, structural proteins, lipids
C. Lipids, protein complexes, carbohydrates
D. Phospholipid bilayer, cortical layer
E. *Biologic membrane, glycocalix, cortical layer
16 Innermost layer of cell membrane:
A. Biologic membrane
B. Glycocalix
C. Lipids
D. Phospholipid bilayer
E. *Cortical layer
17 What does glycocalix mainly consist of?
A. Biologic membrane
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. Phospholipid bilayer
E. *Carbohydrates
18 Main cell components:
A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma
B. Plasmalemma, organelles, cytoplasm, nucleus
C. Nucleus, hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions
D. Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus, organelles, inclusions
E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus
19 Which types of noncellular structures do You know?
A. Filaments
B. Cytoplasm
C. Organelles
D. Plasmalemma
E. *Intercellular substance
20 Which types of noncellular structures do You know?
A. Organelles
B. Filaments
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasmalemma
E. *Syncitium
21 Outermost layer of cell membrane:
A. Biologic membrane
B. Cortical layer
C. Lipids
D. Phospholipid bilayer
E. *Glycocalix
22 Which types of noncellular structures do You know?
A. Organelles
B. Filaments
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasmalemma
E. *Symplast
23 Symplast belongs to:
A. Intercellular substance
B. Nuclearless noncellular structures
C. Organelles
D. Cell junctions
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E. *Nuclear noncellular structures
Sycitium belongs to:
A. Intercellular substance
B. Nuclearless noncellular structures
C. Organelles
D. Cell junctions
E. *Nuclear noncellular structures
Intercellular substance belongs to:
A. Cells
B. Nuclear noncellular structures
C. Organelles
D. Cell junctions
E. *Nuclearless noncellular structures
Specify the process of toxic material effusion of cell.
A. Secretion
B. Recreation
C. Transcytosis
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Excretion
Specify the process of some material transport into the cell.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Cytopempsis
E. *Endocytosis
Specify the process of some fluid material capture by the cell.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Cytopempsis
E. *Pinocytosis
Which type of cell junctions does the interdigital junction belong to?
A. Desmosomal
B. Isolative
C. Synapse
D. Communicative
E. *Adherent
Specify the isolative junction of cells.
A. Desmosome
B. Synapse
C. Nexus
D. Interdigital
E. *Tight
Specify the epithelial cells junction with basement membrane.
A. Tight
B. Desmosome
C. Nexus
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D. Interdigital
E. *Hemidesmosome
Which proteins are responsible for adhesive cell junction?
A. Desmoplacins, desmogleins
B. Adenilatcyclase
C. Globulins
D. Albumins
E. *Lectins, cadherins
Which layer of plasmalemma is responsible for the cell shape support?
A. Glycocalix
B. Bilipid layer
C. Hydrophobic layer
D. Tonofibrilles
E. *Cortical layer
What does cell shape mainly depend on?
A. On nucleus and cytoplasm structure
B. On cell functions
C. On disposition and size of the cell
D. On conditions of cell existence
E. *On organelles and inclusions presence
Eukaryotic cell components:
A. Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions, plasmalemma
B. Plasmalemma, nucleus
C. Nucleus, organelles, inclusions, hyaloplasm
D. Plasmalemma, inclusions
E. *Plasmalemma, cytoplasm, nucleus
Multinuclear structure, which is surrounded by cell membrane, is seen in
histological specimen. What is this structure?
A. Cell
B. Group of cells
C. Intercellular substance
D. Ground substance
E. *Symplast
Specify the process of unchanged material transport through the cell.
A. Secretion
B. Recreation
C. Excretion
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Transcytosis
Specify the process of some material effusion of cell.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Cytopempsis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Endocytosis
E. *Exocytosis
General types of intercellular junctions:
A. Desmosomal and hemidesmosomal
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B. Isolative and communicative
C. Synapse and nexus
D. Communicative
E. *Adherent, isolative and communicative
Eosin belongs to:
A. * Cytoplasmic dyes
B. Nuclear dyes
C. Specific dyes
D. Histochemical dyes
E. Neutral dyes
Which method is used for detection of specific chemical groups in tissues?
A. General investigations
B. Ligt microscopy
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
What does eosin stain in the cell?
A. Cell membrane
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. Lipid inclusions
D. * Cytoplasm
E. Nucleus
Which method is used for ultrastructural investigations?
A. General investigations
B. Ligt microscopy
C. Research of smear
D. * Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
Acidophilic structures could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. * Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. Hematoxylin and eosin
What does orcein stain?
A. * Elastic fibers
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. Lipid inclusions
D. Cytoplasm
E. Nucleus
Basophilic structures could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. * Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. Hematoxylin and eosin
What does sudan stain in the cell?
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A. Cell membrane
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. * Lipid inclusions
D. Cytoplasm
E. Nucleus
Elastic fibers could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. * Orcein
E. Iron hematoxylin
Neutrophilic structures could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. * Hematoxylin and eosin
Cell cytoplasm could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. * Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. Iron hematoxylin
Cell nucleus could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. * Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. Iron hematoxylin
Lipid inclusions could be stained with:
A. * Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. Iron hematoxylin
Glycogen inclusions could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
D. Orcein
E. * Schiff-reaction
Silver impregnation is used for the staiment of:
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Lipid inclusions
D. Elastic fibers
E. * Neurofibrills
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Iron hematoxylin is used for the staiment of:
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Lipid inclusions
D. Elastic fibers
E. * Proteins
Hematoxylin and eosin are used for:
A. * General investigations
B. Special investigations
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
Sudan is used for:
A. General investigations
B. * Special investigations
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
Orcein is used for:
A. General investigations
B. * *pecial investigations
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
Histochemistry is used for:
A. General investigations
B. Special investigations
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. * Detection of specific chemical groups in tissues
Electronmicroscopy is used for:
A. General investigations
B. Ligt microscopy
C. Research of smear
D. * Ultrastructural investigations
E. Histochemical investigations
Which method is used for detection of specific chemical groups in tissues?
A. General investigations
B. Ligt microscopy
C. Research of smear
D. Electronmicroscopy
E. Histochemical investigations
Which method is used for ultrastructural investigations?
A. General investigations
B. Ligt microscopy
C. Research of smear
D. * Electronmicroscopy
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E. Histochemical investigations
Which type of cell junctions does the nexus belong to?
A. Desmosomal
B. Isolative
C. Synapse
D. Adhesive
E. *Communicative
Specify the type of nerve cells junction
A. Tight
B. Desmosome
C. Nexus
D. Interdigital
E. *Synapse
What are the desmosomal proteins?
A. Lectins, cadherins
B. Adenilatcyclase
C. Globulins
D. Albumins
E. *Desmoplacins, desmogleins
What does hematoxylin stain in cell?
A. Cell membrane
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. Lipid inclusions
D. Cytoplasm
E. *Nucleus
What does eosin stain in cell?
A. Cell membrane
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. Lipid inclusions
D. Nucleus
E. *Cytoplasm
What does orcein stain?
A. Glycogen inclusions
B. Lipid inclusions
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus
E. *Elastic fibers
What does sudan stain in cell?
A. Cell membrane
B. Glycogen inclusions
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus
E. *Lipid inclusions
Elastic fibers could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Hematoxylin
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D. Iron hematoxylin
E. *Orcein
What does cristae mean?
A. Matrix of mitochondrion
B. Inner content of mitochondrion
C. Outer membrane of mitochondrion
D. Mitochondrial DNA
E. *Folds of inner membrane
Cell cytoplasm could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Hematoxylin
C. Orcein
D. Iron hematoxylin
E. *Eosin
Cell nucleus could be stained with:
A. Sudan
B. Eosin
C. Orcein
D. Carmine
E. *Hematoxylin
Lipid inclusions could be stained with:
A. Eosin
B. Hematoxylin
C. Orcein
D. Iron hematoxylin
E. *Sudan
What main components of cell cytoplasm do You know?
A. Cytoplasm, nucleus
B. Cell membrane, organelles, inclusions
C. Nucleus, hyaloplasm, organelles
D. Hyaloplasm, organelles, nucleus
E. *Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions
What is main function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Detoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. Proteins production
E. *Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
What types of lysosomes do You know?
A. Smooth, rough
B. Trans-, medial-, cisC. Mitochondrial, nuclear
D. Caveolial, vesical
E. *Primary, secondary, residual body
What is main function of lysosomes?
A. Detoxication
B. Synthesis of energy
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C. Proteins synthesis
D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
E. *Intracellular digestion
What does lysosome contain?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Energy
C. Proteins
D. Lipids
E. *Enzymes
What does mitochondrion consist of?
A. Two subunits
B. Microfilaments
C. Microtubules
D. One membrane
E. *Two membranes
What does mitochondrion contain?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Energy
C. Proteins
D. Lipids
E. *Matrix
Which organell contains cristae?
A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. *Mitochondrion
Which organelles does intermembranous space have?
A. Lysosome
B. Centriole
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Peroxisome
E. *Mitochondria
General organelle?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Golgi body
General organelle?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. * Mitochondrion
D. Cilium
E. Flagella
Microscopic organelle is:
A. Lysosome
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B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. * Golgi body
D. Ribosome
E. Peroxisome
Microscopic organelle is:
A. Lysosome
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. * Cell center
E. Peroxisome
Microscopic organelle is:
A. Ribosome
B. Peroxisome
C. Lysosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. * Mitochondrion
Membrane-bound organelle is:
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. * Golgi body
D. Cell center
E. Ribosome
Membrane-bound organelle is:
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. * Mitochondrion
D. Cell center
E. Ribosome
Membrane-bound organelle is:
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Ribosome
D. Cell center
E. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Membrane-bound organelle is:
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. Ribosome
Membrane-bound organelle is:
A. * Lysosome
B. Myofibril
C. Neurofibril
D. Cell center
E. Ribosome
Membrane-bound organelle is:
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A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
E. * Peroxisome
What components does the nuclear envelope have?
A. Nuclear membrane, nuclear pores
B. Double nuclear membrane, perinuclear space
C. Nuclear membrane, chromosome
D. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome
E. vNuclear lamina, nuclear pores, perinuclear space
How many granules does the nuclear pore have?
A. 8x3+0
B. 8x3+2
C. 9x3+0
D. 9x3+2
E. *8x3+1
Mitochondrial cristae mean:
A. Matrix of mitochondrion
B. Inner content of mitochondrion
C. * Folds of inner membrane
D. Outer membrane of mitochondrion
E. Mitochondrial DNA
Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Lysosome
Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Cilium
C. Neurofibril
D. Flagella
E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Flagella
B. Myofibril
C. Neurofibril
D. Cilium
E. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Ribosome
102 Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Cell center
103 Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Proteasome
104 Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cilium
D. Flagella
E. *Mitochondrion
105 Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
E. *Golgi body
106 Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
E. *Mitochondrion
107 Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Ribosome
D. Cell center
E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum
108 Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
E. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
109 Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
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E. *Lysosome
Which organelle is membrane-bound?
A. Myofibril
B. Neurofibril
C. Cell center
D. Ribosome
E. *Peroxisome
Which organelle is microscopic?
A. Lysosome
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. Peroxisome
E. *Golgi body
Which organelle is microscopic?
A. Lysosome
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. Peroxisome
E. *Cell center
Which organelle is microscopic?
A. Ribosome
B. Peroxisome
C. Lysosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. *Mitochondrion
Chemical composition of ribosome:
A. Structural proteins
B. Lipids
C. M-RNA
D. T-RNA
E. *R-RNA
Types of ribosomes in cell:
A. Simple and compound
B. Cis- and transC. Juvenile and old
D. Active and inactive
E. *Free and fixed
Location of free ribosomes:
A. Over endoplasmic reticulum
B. In nucleolus
C. In nucleus
D. In mitochondrion
E. *In cytoplasm
Location of fixed ribosomes:
A. In nucleolus
B. In nucleus
C. In mitochondrion
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D. In cytoplasm
E. *Over endoplasmic reticulum
What does polisome mean:
A. Ribosomes in nucleolus
B. Ribosomes in nucleus
C. Ribosomes in mitochondrion
D. Ribosomes precursors
E. *Group of free ribosomes
What are the main structural components of nucleus?
A. Karyolemma, chromatin, nucleoli, chromosomes
B. Karyolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli.
C. Karyolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms.
D. Karyolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms.
E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleoli.
Which structures of somatic cells can give information about the sex?
A. Peripheral chromatin
B. Euchromatin
C. Decondensed chromatin
D. Optional chtomatin
E. *Barr's body (sex chromatin)
One segment of neutrophil’s nucleus in the peripheral blood looks like a
drumstick. What is the name of this structure?
A. Lyon’s body
B. Decondensed chromatin
C. Euchromatin
D. Paccinian corpuscle
E. *Barr's body
What is lyonization?
A. Formation of euchromatin
B. Destruction of nucleus
C. Pyknosis of nucleus.
D. Condition of paranecrosis
E. *Inactivation and condensation of one of female X-chromosome in
embryogenesis
What structural elements of cell are providing proteins synthesis?
A. Nucleus, agranular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes
B. Golgi complex, polyribosomes
C. Nucleus, Golgi complex, polyribosomes
D. Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisome
E. *Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes
What is peroxisome function?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Synthesis of energy
C. Proteins synthesis
D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
E. *Detoxication
Which organelle contains cristae?
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A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Centriole
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Peroxisome
E. *Mitochondrion
What main components does nucleus have?
A. Pars granulosa, pars fibrosa, pars amorpha
B. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome
C. Nucleolus, organelles, chromatin
D. Euchromatin, heterochromatin
E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleolus
Which special organelle do You know?
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Myofibril
Which special organelle do You know?
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Tonofibril
Which special organelle do You know?
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Neurofibril
Which special organelle do You know?
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Flagella
What does centriole consist of?
A. Two membranes
B. Two subunits
C. Microfilaments
D. One membrane
E. *Microtubules
What type of endoplasmic reticulum do You know?
A. Trans, medial, cis
B. Mitochondrial, nuclear
C. Caveolial, vesical
D. Primary, secondary, residual body
E. *Smooth, rough
133 Which organelle is of general meaning?
A. Cilium
B. Flagella
C. Neurofibril
D. Tonofibril
E. *Mitochondrion
134 What is main function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Detoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
E. *Proteins synthesis
135 Main function of lysosomes
A. * Intracellular digestion
B. Detoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. Proteins synthesis
E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
136 What does lysosome contain?
A. * Enzymes
B. Carbohydrates
C. Energy
D. Proteins
E. Lipids
137 Main function of peroxisome
A. Intracellular digestion
B. * Detoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. Proteins synthesis
E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
138 Cell cytoskeleton consists of:
A. * Microfilaments, microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Two centrioles
D. Ribosomes
E. Lysosomes, peroxisomes
139 Special organelle is the next:
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. * Myofibril
140 Special organelle is the next:
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
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E. * Tonofibril
Special organelle is the next:
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. * Neurofibril
E. Mitochondrion
Special organelle is the next:
A. Lysosome
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. * Flagella
Mitochondria prove next function?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Detoxication
C. * Synthesis of energy
D. Proteins synthesis
E. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
How many microtubules does the centriole have?
A. 8x3+0
B. 8x3+1
C. 8x3+2
D. * 9x3+0
E. 9x3+2
What is main function of ribosomes?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Detoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. * Proteins synthesis
E. Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids
Which organelles does cytoskeleton include?
A. Microfilaments, mitochondria
B. Two centrioles
C. Ribosomes, rough ER
D. Lysosomes, peroxisomes
E. *Microfilaments, microtubules
What is male chromosomal set?
A. 46 autosomes
B. 44 autosomes
C. 46 autosomes and XY gonosomes
D. 46 gonosomes
E. *44 autosomes and XY gonosomes
What is inactive chromatin name?
A. Euchromatin
B. Fixed chromatin
C. Optional chromatin
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D. Marginal chromatin
E. *Heterochromatin
Chemical composition of chromosomes:
A. DNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates
B. Proteins, lipids, RNA
C. RNA, proteins, carbohydrates
D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA.
E. *DNA, proteins-histones, RNA
What is function of nucleolus?
A. Synthesis of messenger RNA and ribosome precursors
B. Synthesis of transfer RNA and ribosome precursors
C. Place of DNA formation and ribosome precursors
D. Place of all types RNA formation, formation of ribosome
E. *Place of ribosomal RNA and ribosoms formation
What are main cytoplasm components?
A. Hyaloplasm, inclusions
B. Hydrophilic, hydrophobic
C. Integral, peripheral
D. Endocytosis, exocytosis
E. *Hyaloplasm, organelles, inclusions
What does ribosome consist of?
A. Two membranes
B. Microfilaments
C. Microtubules
D. One membrane
E. *Two subunits
What type of Golgi apparatus cisternae do You know?
A. Smooth, rough
B. Mitochondrial, nuclear
C. Caveolial, vesical
D. Primary, secondary, residual body
E. *Trans, medial, cis
What does Golgi apparatus consist of?
A. Two membranes
B. RNA molecules
C. Membrane, enzymes
D. Glycolipids, lipid bilayer
E. *Flat cisternae, vesicles
What is main function of mitochondria?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Intoxication
C. Proteins synthesis
D. Carbohydrates and lipids synthesis
E. *Synthesis of energy
How many microtubules does the centriole have?
A. 8x3+0
B. 8x3+1
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C. 8x3+2
D. 9x3+2
E. *9x3+0
What is human somatic cell chromosomal set?
A. 23
B. 44
C. 48
D. 24
E. *46
What is function of ribosomes?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Intoxication
C. Synthesis of energy
D. Production of carbohydrates and lipids
E. *Proteins synthesis
Which organelle does usually tubuli have?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxisome
E. *Centriole
Which organelle does canaliculi have?
A. Centriole
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxysome
E. *Endoplasmic reticulum
What components does the nucleolus have?
A. Double nuclear membrane, chromosome
B. Nucleolus, organelles, chromatin
C. Karyolemma, karyoplasm, chromatin, nucleolus
D. Euchromatine, heterochromatine
E. *Pars granulosa, pars fibrosa, pars amorpha
A nuclear membrane is formed by:
A. Perinuclear space
B. Cytolemma
C. Internal membrane
D. External membrane
E. *Karyolemma
What does sex chromatin appear from in the period of cell division?
A. From autosome
B. From a nuclear chromosome
C. From Х-male chromosome
D. From Y-heterochromosome
E. *From Х-female heterochromosome
Significance of nucleus in the vital functions of cell:
A. Adjusting centre, synthesis of lipids
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B. Synthesis and usage of energy
C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids
D. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes
E. *Storage of the heredity information
Structural components of nuclear pore complex?
A. Areas of external and internal karyolemma membranes fusion
B. Globular lipids structures
C. Polysaccharide structures
D. Fibrillar proteins and lipids structures
E. *Globular and fibrillar proteins structures
Chemical composition of chromatin:
A. DNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates
B. Histons, lipids, RNA
C. RNA, histones, carbohydrates
D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA.
E. *DNA, proteins-histons, RNA
In the culture of tissue a nuclear irradiation had damage the nucleoli of
nucleus. Which organelles will regenerate with problem?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Microtubule
C. Golgi complex
D. Lysosome
E. *Ribosome
The synthesis of histone proteins have been artificially blocking in the cell.
What structure of cell will be damaged?
A. Nucleoli
B. Golgi complex
C. Cell membrane
D. Nuclear membrane
E. *Nuclear chromatin
What are the main structural components of cell nucleus?
A. Karyolemma, chromatin, nucleoli, chromosomes
B. Karyolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli.
C. Karyolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms.
D. Karyolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms.
E. *Karyolemma, karyoplasm , chromatin, nucleoli.
In cell dying such changes of nucleus are distinguished morphologically:
A. Karyopyknosis, karyolysis, paranecrosis
B. Karyorrhexis, paranecrosis, Karyopyknosis
C. Karyorrhexsis, paranecrosis, karyolysis
D. Karyopyknosis, karyorrhexis, paranecrosis
E. *Karyopyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis
For determination of sex, sometimes it is necessary to do research of somatic
cells. What their structures can give information about the sex?
A. Peripheral chromatin
B. Euchromatin
C. Decondensed chromatin
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D. Optional chtomatin
E. *Barr's body (granule of sex chromatin)
On the surface of neutrophil, in the peripheral blood, during the forensic
medical examination the chromatin comes forward as a drumstick. What is
the name of this structure?
A. Layon’s body
B. Decondensed chromatin
C. Euchromatin
D. Paccinian corpuscle
E. *Barr's body
What does process of lyonization result in?
A. Formation of euchromatin
B. Destruction of nucleus
C. Piknosis of nuclei.
D. Paranecrosis
E. *Inactivation and condensation of one X-chromosome in embryogenesis
Which cell components are producing proteins?
A. Nucleus, agranular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes
B. Golgi complex, polyribosomes
C. Nucleus, Golgi complex, polyribosomes
D. Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes
E. *Nucleus, granular endoplasmic reticulum, polyribosomes
What does determine specificity of proteins, which are synthesized in cell?
A. Molecules of transfer RNA and messenger RNA
B. Molecules of ribosomal RNA and DNA
C. Molecule of DNA and transfer RNA
D. Molecule of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA
E. *Molecule of DNA and messenger RNA
How many granules does the nuclear pore have?
A. 8x3+0
B. * 8x3+1
C. 8x3+2
D. 9x3+0
E. 9x3+2
What will happen to fragments of cell after dividing into two portions: with
nucleus and without it?
A. Both fragments will die
B. Both fragments will live
C. The nuclear-free will divide
D. Part with nucleus will divide
E. *The nuclear-free will dye, and with nucleus will survive
Main function of nucleus in:
A. Synthesis of lipids
B. Synthesis and usage of energy
C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids
D. * Storage of the heredity information
E. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes
179 At cell dying first changes of nucleus will be the next:
A. Karyorrhexis
B. Karyolysis
C. Paranecrosis
D. Karyokinesis
E. *Karyopyknosis
180 A nuclear envelope is formed by:
A. External membrane
B. Cytolemma
C. Internal membrane
D. Perinuclear space
E. Karyolemma
181 Main structural components of nucleus:
A. Chromatin, karyolemma, nucleoli, chromosomes
B. Kariolemma, heterochromatin, euchromatin, nucleoli.
C. Kariolemma, nucleoli, heterochromatin, karyoplasms.
D. Kariolemma, chromosomes, euchromatin, karyoplasms.
E. * Kariolemma, karyoplasm , chromatin, nucleoli.
182 What does chromosome consist of?
A. DNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates
B. Proteins-histons, lipids, RNA
C. RNA, proteins-histons, carbohydrates
D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA
E. *DNA, proteins-histons, RNA
183 What does nucleolus do?
A. Synthesis of massanger RNA and ribosome precursors
B. Synthesis of transfer RNA and ribosome precursors
C. DNA formation and ribosome precursors
D. All types RNA formation, formation of ribosomes
E. *Produces ribosomal RNA and ribosomes
184 Cell nucleus main function is:
A. Adjusting centre, synthesis of protein
B. Synthesis and piling up of energy
C. Synthesis of proteins and lipids
D. Synthesis of membranes components and enzymes
E. *Storage of the heredity information
185 What chromosome does sexual chromatin appear from in the period of cell
division?
A. From autosome
B. From Y-heterochromosome
C. From a nuclear chromosome
D. From Х-male chromosome
E. *From Х-female heterochromosome
186 What is the euchromatin:
A. Decondensed, functionally inactive
B. Condensed, functionally inactive
C. Condensed, functionally active
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D. Spiralized, functionally active.
E. *Decondensed, functionally active
Structural components of the nuclear pore complex:
A. Areas of external and internal karyolemma membranes fusion
B. Globular lipids structures
C. Polysaccharide structures
D. Fibrillar proteins and lipids structures
E. *Globular and fibrillar proteins
The external membrane of karyolemma is connected with:
A. Myofibrils
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi complex
D. * Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Ribosomes
Karyolemma main functions:
A. Structural
B. Storage of the heredity information
C. Synthesis of ribosome RNA
D. Synthesis of transfer RNA
E. *Restrictive and transport
The internal membrane of karyolemma is connected with:
A. With ribosomes
B. With nucleolus organizers
C. With microfibrils
D. With nucleus
E. * With chromosomes
Which structural components of cytoplasm are connected with the external
membrane of karyolemma?
A. Myofibrils
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi complex
D. *Ribosomes
E. Endoplasmic reticulum
What elements does the internal membrane of karyolemma contact with?
A. With ribosomes
B. With nucleolus organizer
C. With microfibrils
D. With nucleus
E. *With chromosomes or heterocromatine
What are the functions of chromosomes?
A. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA and ATP
B. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of DNA and ATP
C. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of DNA and АDP
D. Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA and АDP
E. *Storage of the inherited information, synthesis of RNA та DNA
What areas of chromosomes are named heterochromatine?
A. Ring-shaped in dividing nucleus
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B. Despiralized in dividing nucleus
C. Separated in nondividing cell
D. Ring-shaped in a nondividing cell
E. *Condensed
What is the light chromatin name?
A. Heterochromatin
B. Fixed chromatin
C. Optional chromatin
D. Marginal chromatin
E. *Euchromatin
What is the dark chromatin name?
A. Euchromatin
B. Fixed chromatin
C. Optional chromatin
D. Marginal chromatin
E. *Heterochromatin
What is the active chromatin name?
A. Heterochromatin
B. Fixed chromatin
C. Optional chromatin
D. Marginal chromatin
E. *Euchromatin
What is the non-active chromatin name?
A. Euchromatin
B. Fixed chromatin
C. Optional chromatin
D. Marginal chromatin
E. *Heterochromatin
What does chromosome consist of?
A. DNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates
B. Proteins, lipids, RNA
C. RNA, proteins-histones, carbohydrates
D. RNA, carbohydrates, DNA.
E. *DNA, proteins-histones, RNA
What does nucleolus do?
A. Synthesis of massage RNA and develop predecessors of ribosome
B. In Synthesis of transfer RNA and develop predecessors of ribosome
C. Place of DNA formation and develop predecessors of ribosome
D. Place of all RNA types formation, formation of ribosome
E. *Ribosomal RNA formation and ribosomes
Cell cycle includes:
A. G1 and G2 phases
B. G1 and S phases
C. G2 and S phases
D. Mitosis and S phases
E. *Interphase and mitosis
Main processes in mitosis:
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A. Mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
B. Duplication of DNA
C. Cell center duplication
D. Cell growth
E. *Cytokinesis and karyokinesis
Cytokinesis means:
A. cell membrane division
B. division of nuclear envelope
C. nucleus division
D. organelles division
E. *division of cell body
Karyokinesis means:
A. division of cell body
B. organelles division
C. cell membrane division
D. division of nuclear envelope
E. *nucleus division
Somatic cells division usually is:
A. amitosis
B. meiosis
C. endomitosis
D. irregular
E. *mitosis
Germ cells division usually is:
A. mitosis
B. amitosis
C. endomitosis
D. irregular
E. *meiosis
Main aim of mitosis:
A. germ cells reproduction
B. production of especially active cells
C. fast production of a lot of cells
D. production of different cells
E. *reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
Main aim of amitosis:
A. germ cells reproduction
B. production of especially active cells
C. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
D. production of different cells
E. *fast production of a lot of cells
Main aim of meiosis:
A. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
B. production of especially active cells
C. fast production of a lot of cells
D. production of different cells
E. *germ cells reproduction
210 Main aim of endomitosis:
A. germ cells reproduction
B. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
C. fast production of a lot of cells
D. production of different cells
E. *production of especially active cells
211 Cell cycle lasts:
A. from prophase to telophase
B. from methaphase to S-phase
C. from telophase to G2 -phase
D. from G1 to G2 -phase
E. *from previous cell division to the next one
212 Cell cycle lasts:
A. from prophase till telophase
B. from methaphase till S-phase
C. from telophase till G2-phase
D. from G1 till G2-phase
E. *from the “birth” of cell till the death
213 Main process in G1-phase of cell cycle:
A. DNA duplication
B. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
C. separation of chromosomes
D. cell body division
E. *enlargement of cell body
214 Main process in G2-phase of cell cycle:
A. DNA duplication
B. enlargement of cell body
C. separation of chromosomes
D. cell body division
E. *mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
215 Main process in S-phase of cell cycle:
A. enlargement of the cell body
B. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
C. separation of chromosomes
D. cell body division
E. *DNA duplication
216 Interphase of cell cycle includes:
A. G1 and G2 phases
B. G1 to S phases
C. S and G2 phases
D. mitosis
E. *G1, S and G2 phases
217 In which phase of cell cycle cell is performing its functions?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. mitosis
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E. *G0
In which phase of cell cycle cell is “resting”?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. mitosis
E. *G0
In which phase of cell cycle cell is dividing?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. *mitosis
Which cells occupy G0-phase of cell cycle?
A. dividing somatic cells
B. dividing germ cells
C. abnormal cells
D. none of above mentioned
E. *stem cells and active functioning cells
In which phase of cell cycle cell enlarges itself?
A. G0
B. S
C. G2
D. mitosis
E. G1
In which phase of cell cycle duplication of DNA occurs?
A. G0
B. G1
C. G2
D. mitosis
E. *S
In which phase of cell cycle cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. mitosis
E. *G2
In which phase of cell cycle cell performs its typical functions?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. mitosis
E. *G0
Phases of mitosis (in order):
A. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase
B. anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
C. telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
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D. prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
E. *prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Nuclear envelope in interphase of cell cycle:
A. is absent
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. irregular
E. *is of usual structure
Nuclear envelope in prophase of cell cycle:
A. is absent
B. is enlarged
C. is coiled
D. is of usual structure
E. *is fragmented
Nuclear envelope in methaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. irregular
E. *is absent
Nuclear envelope in anaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. irregular
E. *is absent
Nuclear envelope in early telophase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. is absent
E. *is renewing
Nuclear envelope in late telophase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. is absent
E. *reappears
Nucleolus in the interphase of cell cycle:
A. is renewing
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. is absent
E. *is of usual structure
Nucleolus in the prophase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
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C. is fragmented
D. is absent
E. *disappears
Nucleolus in the metaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is renewing
C. is enlarged
D. is fragmented
E. *is absent
Nucleolus in the anaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is smaller
C. is enlarged
D. is fragmented
E. *is absent
When does nucleolus disappear in cell?
A. in G0 phase
B. in G1 phase
C. in S phase
D. in G2 phase
E. *in prophase of mitosis
In which phase of cell cycle DNA is duplicating?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in G2 phase
E. *in S phase
In which phase of cell cycle cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. *in G2 phase
In which phase of cell cycle cell is enlarging?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in S phase
D. in G2 phase
E. *in G1 phase
In which phase of cell cycle cell center is duplicating?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. *in G2 phase
Chromosomal set of normal somatic cell in interphase:
A. 23-s chromosomes
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B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes
Chromosomal set of normal germ cell:
A. 46 chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *23-s chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G1-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G0-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in G2-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-d chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in S-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-d chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in prophase of
mitosis?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-d chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in metaphase of
mitosis?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
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E. *46-d chromosomes
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in anaphase of
mitosis?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes x2
How many chromosomes are there in normal somatic cell in telophase of
mitosis?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 23-d chromosomes
C. 44-s chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes x2
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G1-phase?
A. doubled chromosomes
B. decondensed chromosomes
C. active chromosomes
D. abnormal chromosomes
E. *single chromosomes
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G2-phase?
A. single chromosomes
B. decondensed chromosomes
C. active chromosomes
D. abnormal chromosomes
E. *doubled chromosomes
Which chromosomes appear in normal somatic cell in S-phase?
A. single chromosomes
B. decondensed chromosomes
C. active chromosomes
D. abnormal chromosomes
E. *doubled chromosomes
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in prophase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 46-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-d chromosomes
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in metaphase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 46-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-d chromosomes
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in anaphase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
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B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 46-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes x2
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G1-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 46-s chromosomes x2
E. *46-s chromosomes
Which chromosomes are present in normal somatic cell in G0-phase?
A. 23-s chromosomes
B. 44-s chromosomes
C. 23-d chromosomes
D. 44-d chromosomes
E. *46-s chromosomes
Cell center components in G0-phase of cell cycle:
A. 2 centrioles
B. centrosphere
C. mitotic spindle filaments
D. 2 diplosomes and 2 centrospheres
E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere
Cell center components in G1-phase of cell cycle:
A. 2 centrioles
B. centrosphere
C. mitotic spindle filaments
D. 2 diplosomes and 2centrospheres
E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere
Main processes in G1 -phase of cell cycle:
A. DNA duplication
B. *enlargement of the cell body
C. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
D. separation of chromosomes
E. cell body division
Main processes in G2 -phase of cell cycle:
A. DNA duplication
B. enlargement of the cell body
C. * mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
D. separation of chromosomes
E. cell body division
Main processes in S -phase of cell cycle:
A. * DNA duplication
B. enlargement of the cell body
C. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
D. separation of chromosomes
E. cell body division
Cell center components in S-phase of cell cycle:
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A. 2 centrioles
B. centrosphere
C. mitotic spindle filaments
D. 2 diplosomes and 2centrospheres
E. *1 diplosoma and 1 centrosphere
Cell center components in G2-phase of cell cycle:
A. 2 centrioles
B. centrosphere
C. mitotic spindle filaments
D. 1 diplosoma and centrosphere
E. *2 diplosomes and 2 centrospheres
How many cell centers are there in mitotically dividing cell?
A. one
B. 3
C. 4
D. half
E. *2
What is main sign of nuclear envelope in prophase of mitosis:
A. is irregular
B. is enlarged
C. decreases in size
D. well prominent
E. *is fragmented
Main sign of nucleolus in prophase of mitosis:
A. is irregular
B. is enlarged
C. decreases in size
D. well prominent
E. *it disappears
In which phase of cell cycle the cell is performing its functions?
A. * G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. mitosis
In which phase of cell cycle the cell is “resting”?
A. * G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. mitosis
Cell center in prophase:
A. disappears
B. is irregular
C. includes microtubules
D. lies in equatorial plate
E. *diplosomes migrate to opposite poles
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In which phase of cell cycle the cell is dividing”?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. * mitosis
Which cells occupy G0-phase of cell cycle?
A. * stem cells and active functioning cells
B. dividing somatic cells
C. dividing germ cells
D. abnormal cells
E. none of above mentioned
Main sign of cell in metaphase:
A. 2 daughter stars in poles
B. separation of daughter cells
C. nucleus well prominent
D. nucleolus disappears
E. *chromosomes lie in metaphase plate
Main sign of cell in anaphase:
A. separation of daughter cells
B. nucleus well prominent
C. nucleolus disappears
D. chromosomes in metaphase plate
E. *2 daughter stars in poles
Main sign of cell in telophase:
A. 2 daughter stars in poles
B. nucleus well prominent
C. nucleolus disappears
D. chromosomes in metaphase plate
E. *separation of daughter cells
Mitotic spindle of cell includes:
A. interpolar microtubules
B. kinetochore microtubules
C. microfilaments
D. central and peripheral microtubules
E. *interpolar, kinetochore and astral microtubules
Interpolar microtubules of mitotic spindle connect:
A. kinetochore and pole
B. two kinetochores
C. two centrioles in one pole
D. kinetochore and diplosoma
E. *diplosomes of opposite poles
Kinetochore microtubules of mitotic spindle connect:
A. diplosomes in opposite poles
B. two kinetochores
C. two centrioles in one pole
D. kinetochore and diplosoma
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E. *kinetochores and pole
Metaphase plate lies:
A. in opposite poles
B. in one pole
C. irregularly
D. under cell membrane
E. *in equatorial plate of cell
Chemical composition of mitotic spindle:
A. carbohydrates
B. phospholipids
C. actin filaments
D. myosin filaments
E. *tubulins
Shape of mitotic spindle:
A. round
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. irregular
E. *fusiform
Main event of anaphase:
A. cell growth
B. DNA duplication
C. separation of daughter cells
D. karyokinesis
E. *separation of sister chromatids
Main event of telophase:
A. cell growth
B. DNA duplication
C. separation of sister chromatids
D. karyokinesis
E. *cytokinesis
How many chromatids are there in cell in prophase?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 69
D. 23 pairs
E. *92
How many chromatids are there in cell in metaphase?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 69
D. 23 pairs
E. *92
How many chromatids are there in the cell in anaphase?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 92
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D. 69
E. no one
How many chromatids are there in the cell in telophase?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 92
D. 69
E. *no one
Maternal star could be seen in cell:
A. in interphase
B. in prophase
C. in anaphase
D. in telophase
E. *in metaphase
Daughter stars could be seen in cell:
A. in metaphase
B. in telophase
C. in interphase
D. in prophase
E. *in anaphase
Nuclear envelope reappears in:
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. interphase
E. *telophase
What does mitotic spindle of cell consist of?
A. interpolar microtubules
B. kinetochore microtubules
C. microfilaments
D. * interpolar and kinetochore microtubules
E. central and peripheral microtubules
Interpolar microtubules of mitotic spindle connect:
A. kinetochore and pole
B. * diplosomes in opposite poles
C. two kinetochores
D. two centrioles in one pole
E. kinetochore and diplosoma
Kinetochore microtubules of mitotic spindle connect:
A. * kinetochore and pole
B. diplosomes in opposite poles
C. two kinetochores
D. two centrioles in one pole
E. kinetochore and diplosoma
Metaphase plate lies:
A. in opposite poles
B. in one pole
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C. irregularly
D. * in equatorial plate
E. under cell membrane
Chemical composition of mitotic spindle:
A. carbohydrates
B. phospholipids
C. * tubulins
D. actin filaments
E. myosin filaments
Shape of mitotic spindle:
A. round
B. triangular
C. * fusiform
D. rectangular
E. irregular
Cleavage furrow in mitosis means:
A. separation of diplosomes
B. separation of chromosomes
C. karyokinesis
D. spindle of division
E. *constriction of cell body in telophase
Midbody in mitosis means:
A. cell membrane of dividing cell
B. maternal star of chromosomes
C. daughter star in anaphase
D. remnant of nucleus
E. *bundle of spindle microtubules connecting daughter cells in telophase
Karyokinesis is completed in:
A. early prophase
B. metaphase
C. telophase
D. late prophase
E. *anaphase
Cytokinesis is completed in:
A. early prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. late prophase
E. *telophase
Nucleus in early prophase looks like:
A. maternal star
B. daughter star
C. two stars in poles
D. normal one
E. *dense nodule of fibers
Nucleus in late prophase looks like:
A. maternal star
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B. daughter star
C. two stars in poles
D. normal one
E. loose nodule of fibers
DNA in mitosis is:
A. duplicating 2 times
B. not duplicating
C. multiplying
D. duplicating a lot of times
E. *duplicating 1 time
DNA in meiosis is:
A. duplicating 2 times
B. not duplicating
C. multiplying
D. duplicating a lot of times
E. *duplicating 1 time
Meiosis includes:
A. 1 division
B. 3 divisions
C. 4 divisions
D. no division
E. *2 divisions
Mitosis includes:
A. 2 divisions
B. 3 divisions
C. 4 divisions
D. no division
E. *1 division
When does DNA duplication occur in meiosis?
A. in 2nd division
B. in 3rd division
C. in 4th division
D. never
E. *in 1st division
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1 division of meiosis is:
A. subequal
B. reductive
C. abnormal
D. full
E. *equal
nd
2 division of meiosis is:
A. equal
B. subequal
C. abnormal
D. full
E. *reducive
Midbody in mitosis means:
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A. * bundle of spindle microtubules connecting daughter cells in telophase
B. cell membrane of dividing cell
C. maternal star of chromosomes
D. daughter star in anaphase
E. remnant of nucleus
Cell cycle lasts:
A. from telophase to G2 -phase
B. from G1 to G2 -phase
C. from prophase to telophase
D. from methaphase to S-phase
E. * from previous cell division to the next one
Cell cycle lasts:
A. from telophase to G2 -phase
B. from G1 to G2 -phase
C. from prophase to telophase
D. from methaphase to S-phase
E. * from previous cell division to the next one
Cytokinesis is completed in:
A. early prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. * telophase
E. late prophase
Meiosis includes:
A. 1 division
B. * 2 divisions
C. 3 divisions
D. 4 divisions
E. no division
Mitosis includes:
A. * 1 division
B. 2 divisions
C. 3 divisions
D. 4 divisions
E. no division
Endomitosis main feature is:
A. cytokinesis
B. cytokynesis and karyokynesis
C. decrease of cell size
D. chromosomes condensation
E. *karyokynesis without cytokynesis
Endomitosis results in appearance of:
A. two cells
B. a lot of cells
C. inactive cell
D. resting cell
E. *cell with multiplying chromosomal set
319 Cell, which originates as a result of endomitosis usually is:
A. inactive cell
B. resting cell
C. stem cell
D. dying cell
E. *very active cell
320 Amitosis means:
A. indirect division of the cell with DNA duplication
B. division of germ cells
C. normal somatic cell division
D. chromosomes duplication without cell division
E. *direct division of the cell without DNA duplication
321 Amitosis usually occurs:
A. everywhere
B. in heart
C. in muscles
D. in epithelia
E. *in healing wounds
322 Amitosis under control of macrophages results in:
A. development of neoplasm
B. connective tissue development
C. development of scar
D. multinucleated cells appearance
E. *in fast production of a lot of cells
323 Noncontroled amitosis results in:
A. connective tissue development
B. development of scar
C. multinucleated cells appearance
D. in fast production of a lot of cells
E. *development of neoplasm
324 Total chromosomal set of daughter cells in amitosis comprises:
A. 23
B. 92
C. 44
D. 48
E. *chromosomal set of maternal cell (46)
325 Normally daughter cells after amitosis undergo:
A. further development
B. next division
C. return to normal cell cycle
D. increase of activity
E. *destruction by macrophages
326 Endomitosis promotes:
A. decrease of cell activity
B. death of the cell
C. next cell division
D. anabiosis
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E. increase of cell activity
Types of cell dying:
A. paranecrosis and necrosis
B. anabiosis and parabiosis
C. genetically programmed death of the cell
D. probiosis and necrosis
E. *necrosis and apoptosis
Stages of nucleus changes in necrosis:
A. karyorhexis, karyolisis, karyopicnosis
B. karyolisis, karyopicnosis, karyorhexis
C. karyorhexis, karyopicnosis, karyolisis
D. karyolisis, karyorhexis, karyopicnosis
E. *karyopicnosis, karyorhexis, karyolisis
Paranecrosis means:
A. special cell division
B. genetically programmed death of the cell
C. cell death under some influence
D. anabiosis of cell
E. *reversible changes of cell
Endomitosis result in::
A. germ cells reproduction
B. reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
C. * production of especially active cells
D. fast production of a lot of cells
E. production of different cells
Apoptosis is:
A. necrosis of cell
B. paranecrosis of cell
C. cell death under some influence
D. irreversible changes of cell
E. genetically programmed death of cell
Reversible changes of cell:
A. necrosis
B. genetically programmed death of the cell
C. cell death under some influence
D. probiosos
E. *paranecrosis
Necrosis is:
A. reversible changes of cell
B. paranecrosis of cell
C. genetically programmed death of the cell
D. irreversible changes of cell
E. *cell death under some influence
Usual type of somatic cells division:
A. amitosis
B. * mitosis
C. meiosis
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D. endomitosis
E. irregular
Cell synthesizes proteins of mitotic spindle in the next phase of cell cycle:
A. G1
B. S
C. * G2
D. mitosis
E. G0
Cell performs its typical functions in the next phase of cell cycle:
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. mitosis
E. * G0
Main processes in mitosis:
A. mitotic spindle proteins synthesis
B. duplication of DNA
C. cell center duplication
D. * cytokinesis and karyokinesis
E. cell growth
Cytokinesis means:
A. cell membrane division
B. division of nuclear envelope
C. nucleus division
D. organelles division
E. * division of cell body
Karyokinesis means:
A. division of cell body
B. organelles division
C. * nucleus division
D. cell membrane division
E. division of nuclear envelope
Nucleolus in the interphase of cell cycle:
A. * is of usual structure
B. is renewing
C. is enlarged
D. is fragmented
E. is absent
Nucleolus in the prophase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is enlarged
C. is fragmented
D. * disappears
E. is absent
Nucleolus in the metaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is renewing
C. is enlarged
D. is fragmented
E. * is absent
343 Nucleolus in the anaphase of cell cycle:
A. is of usual structure
B. is smaller
C. is enlarged
D. is fragmented
E. * is absent
344 When does nucleolus disappear in cell?
A. * in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. in G2 phase
345 37. In which phase of cell cycle DNA is duplicating?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. * in S phase
E. in G2 phase
346 When does cell synthesize proteins of mitotic spindle?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. * in G2 phase
347 In which phase of cell cycle the cell is enlarging?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. * in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. in G2 phase
348 Mitosis means:
A. germ cells reproduction
B. * reproduction of two cells absolutely adequate to maternal one
C. production of especially active cells
D. fast production of a lot of cells
E. production of different cells
349 In which phase of cell cycle cell center is duplicating?
A. in prophase of mitosis
B. in G0 phase
C. in G1 phase
D. in S phase
E. * in G2 phase
350 How many chromosomes does androspermium have?
A. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome
B. 22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome
C. 22 autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome
D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome.
E. *22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome
351 Which structure lies at the top of spermatozoon head?
A. proximal centriole
B. microtubules
C. distant centriole
D. axial fibers
E. *acrosome
352 Axonema of spermatozoon consists of:
A. acrosome
B. microfilaments
C. proximal centriole
D. changed Golgi apparatus
E. *specially changed distant centriole
353 Which structure promotes motility of spermatozoon?
A. head
B. neck
C. acrosome
D. centriole
E. *tail
354 What is the type of human oocyte?
A. polilecithal, oligolecithal, II type
B. alecithal, izolecithal, I type
C. polilecithal, alecithal, II type
D. izolecithal, polilecithal, I type
E. *olygolecithal, izolecithal, II type
355 Which tunics does oocyte have?
A. Theca externa, theca interna, oolema
B. Theca externa, theca interna, follicular antrum
C. Corona radiata, tunica of fertilization, oolema
D. Corona radiata, zona pelucida, cortical granules
E. *Corona radiata, zona pelucida, oolema
356 Which inclusions are mainly present in oocyte?
A. protein
B. lipids
C. glycogen
D. pigmental
E. *yolk
357 Which structures are disposed in the cortical layer of oocyte?
A. yolk inclusions
B. dictiosomes of Golgi body
C. mitochondria
D. axial fibers
E. *cortical granules
358 What does not spermatozoon do in fertilization?
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A. Adds half chromosome
B. Determines sex
C. Stimulates cleavage
D. Adds centriole
E. *Adds acrosome.
What is capacitation?
A. rheotaxis
B. stygmotaxis
C. chemotaxis
D. adhesion of spermatozoa
E. *special activation of spermatozoa
What is fertilization?
A. cortical reaction of oocyte
B. spermatozoa movement toward
C. oocyte nutrition
D. none of above mentioned
E. *fusion of germ cells
Contact stage of fertilization begins with:
A. rheotaxis
B. stygmotaxis
C. chemotaxis
D. capacitation
E. *denudation
What is the function of acrosomal reaction?
A. denudation of corona radiata
B. penetration of corona radiata
C. penetration of zona pelucida
D. penetration of oolema
E. *penetration of oocyte tunics
Specify the stages of fertilization.
A. early and late
B. uterine and tubal
C. adhesion and invasion
D. capacitation and stygmotaxis
E. *distant and contact
Where is periviteline space disposed?
A. between oolema and corona radiata
B. between trophoblast and embryoblast
C. between trophoblast and tunica of fertilization
D. between two uterine glands
E. *between oolema and zona pelucida
What is synkarion?
A. zygote
B. multicellular organism
C. group of cells
D. spermatozoon, which penetrates the ovum
E. *cell with two pronuclei
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Name the unicellular organism with two pronuclei, which appear in
fertilization.
A. oocyte
B. zygote
C. morula
D. blastocyst
E. *synkarion
What is male pronucleus?
A. synkarion nucleus
B. oocyte nucleus
C. zygote nucleus
D. polar body nucleus
E. *nucleus of spermatozoon
What does fertilization result in?
A. cortical reaction
B. acrosomal reaction
C. denudation
D. penetration
E. *zygote formation
Which structure appear as a result of cortical reaction?
A. female pronucleus
B. male pronucleus
C. zygote
D. cell center
E. *tunic of fertilization
When does two-cell stage of cleavage begin?
A. immediately after fertilization
B. 3 hours after fertilization
C. 3 days after fertilization
D. immediately after implantation
E. *30 hours after fertilization
What does morula mean?
A. unicellular organism
B. vesicle
C. trophoblast and embryoblast
D. blastocoel
E. *multicellular blastula without space
What does blastocyst consist of?
A. trophoblast
B. embryoblast
C. blastoderm
D. blastocyst cavity
E. *trophoblast and embryoblast
How many chromosomes does gynicospermium have?
A. autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome
B. 22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome
C. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome
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D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome
E. *22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome
What does neck of spermatozoon consist of?
A. acrosomes
B. microtubules
C. distant centriole
D. axial fibers
E. *proximal centriole
What does not spermatozoon do in fertilization?
A. gives chromosomes
B. determines sex
C. stimulates cleavage
D. givess centriole
E. *adds tail
Where does mitochondrial sheath of spermatozoon lie?
A. in the head
B. in the neck
C. at the top of acrosome
D. in the centriole
E. *in the tail
Flagella of spermatozoon is:
A. general organelle
B. cell inclusion
C. temporary structure
D. cell membrane evagination
E. *special organelle
What does sex of embryo depend on?
A. chromosomes of oocyte
B. autosomes of oocyte
C. autosomes of spermatozoon
D. gonosome of oocyte
E. *gonosome of spermatozoon
What organelle does not oocyte have?
A. mitochondria
B. granules
C. inclusions
D. nucleus
E. *centrosome
When does periviteline space appear in embryogenesis?
A. after ovulation
B. during oocyte maturation
C. after cleavage
D. after implantation
E. *in fertilization
What is the function of cortical reaction?
A. provides polyspermy
B. provides penetration
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C. provides denudation
D. provides second meiotic division
E. *provides monospermy
What are oocyte functions?
A. adds centriole
B. adds acrosome
C. determines sex
D. movement
E. *adds chromosomes, nutrition and protection
Location of nucleus in human oocyte:
A. at the centre
B. right under cell membrane
C. at the animal pole
D. at the vegetative pole
E. *eccentrically
Which organelle produces yolk inclusions in oocyte?
A. acrosome
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. free ribosomes
D. fixed ribosomes
E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body
Where does fertilization usually occur?
A. in Graafian follicle
B. in peritoneal cavity
C. in uterus
D. in vagina
E. *in uterine tube
Which process the distant stage of fertilization begins with?
A. stygmotaxis
B. capacitation
C. chemotaxis
D. denudation
E. *rheotaxis
What does cortical reaction result in?
A. denudation
B. capacitation
C. penetration
D. twins
E. *tunic of fertilization appearance
Which special process promotes the monospermy?
A. acrosomal reaction
B. denudation
C. penetration
D. chemotaxis
E. *cortical reaction
Name the unicellular organism, which appear in fertilization after two
pronuclei fusion?
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392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
A. synkarion
B. oocyte
C. morula
D. blastocyst
E. *zygote
What is female pronucleus?
A. nucleus of spermatozoon
B. synkarion nucleus
C. zygote nucleus
D. polar body nucleus
E. *oocyte nucleus
Which layers of 14-17 days germ disk do you know?
A.
Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
B.
Embryoblast and trophoblast
C.
Ectoderm and entoderm
D.
Synkaryon and zygote
E.
*Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
What does acrosome mean?
A. Special granules
B. Mitochondria
C. Inclusions
D. Part of nucleus.
E. *Changed Golgi apparatus
Specify life span of human zygote
A. 2 days
B. 3-4 hours
C. 7 days
D. 10 hours
E. *30 hours
When does cleavage occur?
A. 1 – 3 hours after fertilization
B. 1 – 30 hours after fertilization
C. 1 – 5th days after fertilization
D. 1 –7th days after fertilization
E. *30 h - till 7th day after fertilization
What is the type of human cleavage?
A. full, synchronic, subequal
B. partlial synchronic, subequal
C. partial, asynchronic, subequal
D. full, synchronic, equal
E. *full, asynchronic, subequal
What stages of implantation do you know?
A. primary and secondary
B. early and late
C. cleavage and gastrulation
D. growth and maturation
E. *adhesion and invasion
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403.
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Normal site of implantation
A. uterine tube ampullar part
B. uterine tube isthmic part
C. uterine cervix
D. vagina
E. *uterine body or fundus
What does “free blastocyst” mean?
A. morula in uterine cavity
B. blastula in uterine tube
C. blastula without space inside
D. implanting blasocyst
E. *blastocyst at the 5th -7th days
How many chromosomes does oocyte have?
A. 22 autosomes + 1 X or Y sex chromosome
B. 22 autosomes + 1 Y sex chromosome
C. 22 autosomes + 1 X + 1 Y sex chromosome
D. 22 pairs autosomes+ 1 pair sex chromosome
E. *22 autosomes + 1 X sex chromosome
Which cells are motile?
A. oocytes
B. spermatogonies
C. spermatocytes
D. spermatids
E. *spermatozoa
Which structures lie in the head of spermatozoon?
A. microtubules and nucleus
B. acrosome and proximal centriole
C. distant centriole and nucleus
D. acrosome and axial fibers
E. *acrosome and nucleus
How many microtubules does axial fiber of spermatozoon have?
A. 9+0
B. 9x2+0
C. 9x3+0
D. 9x3+2
E. *9x2+2
Types of oocytes
A. multilecithal, alecithal
B. centrolecithal, multilecithal
C. centrolecithal, alecithal
D. oligolecithal, multilecithal
E. *alecithal, oligolecithal, polilecithal
Location of inclusions in oocyte:
A. in large granules
B. in the pole of cell
C. under the ovolemma
D. around nucleus
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E. *dispersed
Which types of amniotic epithelium do you know?
A. Supportive, secretory
B. Squamous, cuboidal
C. Endocrine, exocrine
D. Simple, stratified
E. *Cuboidal, columnar
Female oocyte is nourished by:
A. surrounding tissues
B. mucous
C. glycogen inclusions
D. cortical granules
E. *yolk inclusions
What are the components of spermatozoon tail?
A. nucleus, mitochondria, distant centriole
B. axial fibers, nucleus, mitochondria
C. acrosome, mitochondria, centrosome
D. axial fiber, mitochondria, centrosome
E. *axial fiber, mitochondria, distant centriole
Where is periviteline space?
A. between oolema and corona radiata
B. between trophoblast and embryoblast
C. between trophoblast and tunica of fertilization
D. between two uterine glands
E. *between oolema and zona pelucida
Usual place of fertilization:
A. in ovary
B. in uterine
C. In uterine gland
D. in uterine mucosa
E. *in uterine tube
Main result of fertilization is:
A. protection of zygote
B. nourishment of zygote
C. movement of zygote
D. renewing of haploid chromosomal set
E. *renewing of diploid chromosomal set
What does cortical reaction mean?
A. disappearance of granulosa cells
B. solution of oolemma
C. second meiotic division of oocyte
D. fusion of germ cells
E. *releasing of cortical granules into the perivitelline space
When is perivitelline space formed?
A. after ovulation
B. during oocyte maturation
C. after cleavage
D. after implantation.
E. *during fertilization
413.
Name the unicellular organism with two pronuclei, which appear in
fertilization.
A. zygote
B. oocyte
C. morula
D. blastocyst
E. *synkarion
414.
What is zygote?
A. unicellular organism with male and female pronuclei
B. double cellular organism with diploid chromosomal set
C. unicellular organism with haploid chromosomal set
D. double cellular organism with haploid chromosomal set
E. *unicellular organism with diploid chromosomal set
415.
Type of human embryo cleavage is:
A. full, synchronic, subequal
B. partial, synchronic, subequal
C. partial, asynchronic, subequal
D. full, synchronic, equal
E. *full, asynchronic, subequal
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Which structure is bigger?
A. oocyte
B. synkarion
C. zygote
D. morula
E. *all are equal
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How many blastomers does morula have?
A. 1-8
B. 2-8
C. 64-99
D. 64-107
E. *16-32
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When does implantation begin?
A. During the 1st day after fertilization
B. During 3rd day after fertilization
C. During 12th day after fertilization
D. During 14th day after fertilization
E. *During 6th day after fertilization
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Human embryo cleavage lasts:
A. 1 – 3 hours after fertilization
B. 1 – 30 hours after fertilization
C. 1 – 5th days after fertilization
D. 1 –7th days after fertilization
E. *30 h - till 7th day after fertilization
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Most typical abnormal site of implantation:
A. vagina
B.
C.
D.
E.
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uterine fundus
uterine cervix
uterine body
*uterine tube
What is the type of human blastula?
A. celoblastula
B. periblastula
C. amphyblastula
D. discoblastula
E. *blastocyst
What does fertilization result in?
A. cortical reaction
B. acrosome reaction
C. denudation
D. penetration
E. *zygote formation
Which stages of gastrulation do you know?
A. Primary and secondary
B. Cleavage and gastrulation
C. Adhesion and invasion
D. Growth and maturation
E. *Early and late
When does early gastrulation begin?
A. During 3rd day after fertilization
B. During 1st day after fertilization
C. During 14th day after fertilization
D. During 27th day after fertilization
E. *During 7th day after fertilization
When does late gastrulation begin?
A. During 3rd day after fertilization
B. During 7th day after fertilization
C. During 1st day after fertilization
D. During 27th day after fertilization
E. *During 14th day after fertilization
Which types of cells in blastocyst do you know?
A. Syncarion and zygote
B. Oocyte and spermatozoa
C. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
D. Morula and blastula
E. *Embryoblast and trophoblast
Which layers of 7-14 days germ disk do you know?
A. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
B. Embryoblast and trophoblast
C. Syncarion and zygote
D. Ectoderm, mesoderm and entoderm
E. *Epiblast and hypoblast
When does amnion originate?
2nd week
1st week
4th week
5th week
*3rd week
What does chorion with villi term?
A. chorion degenerative
B. chorion leave
C. stem chorion
D. nonbranched chorion
E. *chorion frondosum
What does chorion without villi term?
A. chorion frondosum
B. chorion degenerative
C. stem chorion
D. branched chorion
E. *chorion leave (smooth)
Which types of villi do you know?
A. frondosum and laeve
B. chorionic and amniotic
C. basalis, parietalis, capsularis
D. maternal and fetal
E. *primary, secondary, tertiary
Which types of chorion do you know?
A. maternal and fetal
B. chorionic and amniotic
C. basalis, parietalis, capsularis
D. primary, secondary, tertiary
E. *frondosum and laeve
What is the origin of umbilical cord?
A. trophoblast
B. chorion
C. embryoblast
D. yolk sac
E. *amniotic stalk
Which vessels does umbilical cord have?
A. one artery and two veins
B. one artery and one vein
C. two arteries and two veins
D. no one
E. *two arteries and one vein
What does umbilical cord is filled with?
A. allantois
B. vessels
C. amniotic cavity
D. yolk sac
E. *jelly of Wharton
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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443.
When does yolk sac appear?
A. 2nd week
B. 1st week
C. 4th week
D. 5th week
E. *3rd week
When does allantois begin its development?
A. 1st week
B. 2nd week
C. 4th week
D. 5th week
E. *3rd week
Which decidual layers of uterus do you know?
A. frondosum and laeve
B. chorionic and amniotic
C. maternal and fetal
D. primary, secondary, tertiary
E. *basalis, parietalis, capsularis
What is the structural unit of placenta?
A. amnion
B. allantois
C. decidual plate
D. umbilical cord
E. *cotyledon
What is the origin of stomach?
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. neural tube
D. notochord
E. *endoderm
What is the origin of skeletal muscles?
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. dermatome
D. sclerotome
E. *myotome
What is the origin of connective tissue?
A. mesoderm
B. endoderm
C. ectoderm
D. sclerotome
E. *mesenchyme
What is the origin of nervous system?
A. mesoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
444.
445.
446.
447.
448.
449.
450.
451.
E. *ectoderm
What is the origin of myocardium?
A. mesoderm
B. ectoderm
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *myoepicardial plate
What is the origin of epidermis?
A. mesoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *ectoderm
What is the origin of blood cells?
A. mesoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *mesenchyme
What is the origin of smooth muscles?
A. mesoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *mesenchyme
What is the origin of bones?
A. mesoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. ectoderm
E. *sclerotome
What is the origin of derma?
A. mesoderm
B. ectoderm
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *dermatome
What is the origin of kidney?
A. ectoderm
B. dermatome
C. myotome
D. sclerotome
E. *ephrogonotome
Choose the special tissues
A. epithelium and muscular
B. connective tissues
C. blood and lymph
452.
453.
454.
455.
456.
457.
458.
459.
D. tissues of inner environment
E. *muscular and nerve
Choose the general tissues.
A. epithelium and muscular
B. muscular and nervous
C. connective tissues and muscular
D. blood and lymph
E. *epithelia and tissues of inner environment
Epithelia belong to:
A. special tissues
B. connective tissues
C. contractile tissues
D. specific tissues
E. *general tissues
Morphofunctional classification of epithelial tissues is based on:
A. polarity of epitheliocytes
B. special junctions of epitheliocytes
C. blood and lymph supply
D. special organelles of epitheliocytes
E. *epitheliocytes attitude to basement membrane
Morphofunctional types of epithelial tissues:
A. dry and mucous
B. simple and stratified
C. cuboidal and columnar
D. special and general
E. *lining and glandular epithelia
Morphofunctional types of lining epithelial tissues:
A. squamous and columnar
B. cuboidal and columnar
C. dry and mucous
D. special and general
E. *simple and stratified
What epithelium is named simple (unilayered)?
A. keratinized
B. in which not all cells lie on a basement membrane
C. in which cells do not lie on a basement membrane
D. urothelium
E. *in which all cells lie on a basement membrane
Choose the simple epithelium.
A. nonkeratinized
B. secretory
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *squamous
Choose the simple epithelium.
A. nonkeratinized
B. secretory
460.
461.
462.
463.
464.
465.
466.
467.
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *cuboidal
Choose the simple epithelium.
A. nonkeratinized
B. secretory
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *columnar
Which type of simple epithelium is named isomorphic?
A. columnar
B. nonkeratinized
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *which consists of similar cells
Which type of simple epithelium is named unisomorphic?
A. columnar
B. nonkeratinized
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *which consists of different cells
Which type of simple epithelium belongs to unisomorphic?
A. squamous
B. cuboidal
C. mesothelium
D. transitional
E. *columnar
Which type of epithelium is named pseudostratified?
A. nonkeratinized
B. secretory
C. keratinized
D. transitional
E. *columnar
Choose special organelles of epitheliocytes.
A. neurofibrilles
B. myofibrilles
C. microvilli
D. tonofilaments
E. *tonofibrilles
Choose special organelles of epitheliocytes.
A. neurofibrilles
B. myofibrilles
C. microvilli
D. tonofilaments
E. *cilia
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. has a lot of intercellular substance
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
469.
470.
471.
472.
473.
474.
475.
regeneration is slow
has no nerve endings
has blood vessels
*consists mainly of epitheliocytes
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. regeneration is slow
B. has no nerve endings
C. has blood vessels
D. has fibers
E. *has no intercellular substance
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. has blood vessels
B. regeneration is slow
C. has no nerve endings
D. has a lot of intercellular substance
E. *is underlined by basement membrane
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. has no nerve endings
B. regeneration is slow
C. has blood vessels
D. has a lot of intercellular substance
E. *polarity (apical and basal poles)
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. regeneration is slow
B. has fibers
C. has blood vessels
D. has a lot of intercellular substance
E. *has a lot of nerve endings
Typical feature of epithelium:
A. has no nerve endings
B. has fibers
C. has blood vessels
D. has a lot of intercellular substance
E. *has active regeneration
Epithelium is nourished by:
A. blood vessels
B. lymphatics
C. by intercellular substance
D. by nerve endings
E. *diffusion from underlying connective tissue
Main function of lining epithelia:
A. nutritive
B. structural
C. supportive
D. contractile
E. *protective
Specify the poles of epitheliocytes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
476.
477.
478.
479.
480.
481.
482.
ecto- and endoplasm
nuclear and perinuclear
perinuclear and peripheral
nuclear and organelles
*basal and apical
What structure underlies an epithelium?
A. cytolemma
B. amorphic substance
C. elastic membrane
D. collagen fibers
E. *basement membrane
What structure is located between an epithelium and connective tissue?
A. collagen fibers
B. elastic membrane
C. cytolemma
D. amorphic substance
E. *basement membrane
Which poles are distinguished in epitheliocyte?
A. ecto- and endoplasm
B. nuclear and perinuclear zone
C. perinuclear and organelles
D. nuclear and organelles
E. *basal and apical
What epithelium is named stratified (multilayered)?
A. in which all cells lie on a basement membrane
B. in which cells do not lie on a basement membrane
C. cuboidal
D. squamous
E. *in which not all cells lie on a basement membrane
Choose stratified epithelium.
A. squamous
B. cuboidal
C. columnar
D. pseudostratified
E. *keratinized
Choose stratified epithelium.
A. squamous
B. cuboidal
C. columnar
D. pseudostratified
E. *nonkeratinized
Choose stratified epithelium.
A. squamous
B. cuboidal
C. columnar
D. pseudostratified
E. *transitional
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
489.
490.
How many layers are there in stratified nonkeratinized epithelium?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. *3
Specify the layers of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
A. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
C. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular
D. basement, squamous, granular, lucidum
E. *basal, spinosum, squamous
How many layers are there in stratified keratinized epithelium?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. *5
1st layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. spinosum
D. granular
E. *basal
2nd layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. *spinosum
D. granular
E. basal
3rd layer of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. spinosum
D. *granular
E. basal
Specify the layers of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. basal, squamous, granular, lucidum
B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
C. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
D. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular
E. *basal, spinosum, granular, lucidum, corneum
1st layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. spinosum
D. granular
491.
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
498.
E. *basal
2nd layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. *spinosum
D. granular
E. basal
3rd layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. spinosum
D. *granular
E. basal
4th layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. squamous plates
B. *lucidum
C. spinosum
D. granular
E. basal
5th layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A. *squamous plates
B. lucidum
C. spinosum
D. granular
E. basal
How many layers are there in transitional epithelium?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. *2
Specify the layers of transitional epithelium
A. basal, squamous, granular, lucidum
B. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
C. spinosum, squamous, granular, lucidum
D. basement, spinosum, squamous, granular
E. *basal and superficial
Location of simple squamous epithelium:
A. intestinal epithelium
B. renal tubuli
C. skin
D. oral cavity, cornea
E. *mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
Specify the location of simple cuboidal epithelium:
A. oral cavity, cornea
B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
C. intestinal epithelium
499.
500.
501.
502.
503.
504.
505.
506.
D. skin
E. *renal tubuli
Specify the location of simple columnar epithelium:
A. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
B. serous glands
C. skin
D. oral cavity, cornea
E. *intestinal epithelium
Specify the location of ciliated epithelium:
A. renal tubuli
B. intestinal epithelium
C. skin
D. oral cavity, cornea
E. *respiratory mucosa
Specify the location of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium:
A. skin
B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
C. renal tubuli
D. intestinal epithelium
E. *oral cavity, cornea
Specify the location of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium:
A. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
B. renal tubuli
C. intestinal epithelium
D. oral cavity, cornea
E. *skin
Specify the location of transitional epithelium:
A. intestinal epithelium
B. mesothelium of peritoneum, pleura and pericardium
C. renal tubuli
D. oral cavity, cornea
E. *ureter, urinary bladder
Transitional epithelium is known as:
A. intestinal epithelium
B. simple squamous epithelium
C. simple cuboidal epithelium
D. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
E. *urothelium
Glands are mainly classified in:
A. simple and compound
B. active and resting
C. major and minor
D. permanent and temporary
E. *exocrine and endocrine
General classification of glands depends on:
A. type of secretory products
B. mode of secretion
507.
508.
509.
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
C. stage of secretory process
D. type of cells
E. *excretory ducts presence
Classification of exocrine glands mainly depends on:
A. type of blood supply
B. cells arrangement
C. surrounding structures
D. capsule
E. *excretory ducts structure
Classification of endocrine glands depends on:
A. mode of secretion
B. type of cells
C. type of secretory products
D. stage of secretory process
E. *arrangement of parenchymal cells
What is the main structural feature of endocrine glands?
A. synthesized substances belong to proteins
B. synthesized substances are discharged outside
C. have excretory ducts
D. have excretory ducts and secretory portions
E. *have no excretory ducts
What is the main structural feature of exocrine glands?
A. synthesized substances enter the blood
B. synthesized substances belong to proteins
C. have no excretory ducts
D. consist of glandulocytes
E. *have excretory ducts
Simple exocrine gland has:
A. 1 type of cells
B. 1 type of secretory products
C. exact mode of secretion
D. 1 stage of secretory process
E. *simple nonbranched excretory duct
Main peculiarity of branched exocrine gland:
A. has 1 type of cells
B. produces 1 type of secretory products
C. has alveolar secretory portions
D. has tubular secretory portions
E. *excretory duct has few secretory portions
Nonbranched exocrine gland has:
A. few types of cells
B. few types of secretory products
C. alveolar secretory portions
D. tubular secretory portions
E. *one excretory duct has one secretory portion
Alveolar exocrine gland has:
A. one excretory duct has few secretory portions
B.
C.
D.
E.
515.
516.
517.
518.
519.
520.
521.
522.
few types of cells
few types of secretory products
tubular secretory portions
*alveolar secretory portions
Tubular exocrine gland has:
A. few types of secretory products
B. one excretory duct collects has few secretory portions
C. few types of cells
D. alveolar secretory portions
E. *has tubular secretory portions
Mixed exocrine gland has:
A. has tubular secretory portions
B. few types of cells
C. 1 type of secretory product
D. alveolar secretory portions
E. *alveolar and tubular secretory portions
What does “merocrine mode of secretion” mean?
A. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes
B. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes
C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes
D. secret is discharged to the blood
E. *secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes
What does “macroaporocrine mode of secretion” mean?
A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes
B. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes
C. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes
D. secret is discharged to the blood
E. *secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes
What does it mean “microaporocrine mode of secretion”?
A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes
B. secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes
C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes
D. secret is discharged to the blood
E. *secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes
What does it mean “holocrine mode of secretion”?
A. secret is discharged without destruction of glandulocytes
B. secret is discharged with destruction of microvilli of glandulocytes
C. secret is discharged with destruction of apical pole of glandulocytes
D. secret is discharged to the blood
E. *secret is discharged with complete destruction of glandulocytes
Exocrine gland portions are the next:
A. secretory and terminal
B. upper and lower
C. secretory and beginning
D. upper and terminal
E. *secretory portion and excretory duct
Compound glands always are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
nonbranched
simple
endocrine
exocrine
*branched
523.
What is the shape of alveolar (acinar) secretory portion of exocrine
gland?
A. tubular
B. flat
C. irregular
D. lobulated
E. *round
524.
What does alveolar secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of?
A. squamous cells
B. mucocytes
C. myoepithelial cells
D. endocrine cells
E. *serocytes
525.
What secretory product does alveolar secretory portion of exocrine gland
produce?
A. water
B. mucus
C. hormones
D. ions
E. *proteins
526.
Which organelles are well developed in serocytes of exocrine gland?
A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. lisosomes
D. peroxysomes
E. *rough endoplasmic reticulum
527.
Serocytes of exocrine gland could be stained with:
A. acidic dye
B. neutral dye
C. orcein
D. sudan
E. *alkaline dye
528.
What is the shape of tubular secretory portion of exocrine gland?
A. round
B. flat
C. irregular
D. lobulated
E. *tubular
529.
What does tubular secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of?
A. serocytes
B. squamous cells
C. myoepithelial cellse
530.
531.
532.
533.
534.
535.
536.
537.
D. endocrine cells
E. *mucocytes
What does acinar exocrine gland produce?
A. mucus
B. hormones
C. water
D. ions
E. *proteins
Which organelles are well developed in mucocytes of exocrine gland?
A. rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. lisosomes
D. peroxysomes
E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Mucocytes of exocrine gland could be stained with:
A. alkaline dye
B. acidic dye
C. orcein
D. sudan
E. *special dye
Stages of secretory process:
A. accumulation of precursors and synthesis
B. synthesis and renewal
C. synthesis and secretion
D. accumulation of precursors and renewal
E. *accumulation of precursors, synthesis, secretion and renewal
Large excretory ducts of exocrine glands are covered with:
A. simple squamous epithelium
B. cuboidal epithelium
C. keratinized epithelium
D. urothelium
E. *pseudostratified epithelium
Which organelle of glandulocytes is responsible for protein synthesis?
A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. lisosomes
D. cell center
E. *rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which organelle of mucocytes is responsible for mucus synthesis?
A. rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. lisosomes
D. cell center
E. *smooth endoplasmic reticulum
What does secretory portion of exocrine gland consist of?
A. endocrine glandulocytes
B. excretory cells
538.
539.
540.
541.
542.
543.
544.
545.
C. secretory cells
D. lining cells
E. *exocrine glandulocytes
What does endocrine gland consist of?
A. exocrine glandulocytes
B. excretory cells
C. secretory cells
D. lining cells
E. *endocrine glandulocytes
Hemogram (blood picture) means:
A. Registration of blood components in human body
B. Registration of different leucocytes in %
C. Circulating blood volume
D. Blood clotting
E. *Registration of blood components per 1 liter
Leucogram (differentiated leucocytes count) means:
A. Blood clotting
B. Registration of blood components in human body
C. Registration of blood components per 1 liter
D. Circulating blood volume
E. *Registration of different types of leucocytes in %
What does hematocrit mean?
A. Registration of blood components in human body
B. Registration of blood components per 1 liter
C. Circulating blood volume
D. Registration of different types of leucocytes in %
E. *Ratio of blood formed elements and plasma
Hematocrit of human blood:
A. 35:65%
B. 30:70%
C. 20:80%
D. 10:90%
E. *45:55%
Plasma constitutes in peripheral blood:
A. 45%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 70%
E. *55 %
Blood formed elements constitute in peripheral blood:
A. 55%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 70%
E. *45 %
What are the blood formed elements?
A. erythrocytes and macrophages
B.
C.
D.
E.
546.
547.
548.
549.
550.
551.
552.
553.
microphages and macrophages
histiocytes and macrophages
leucocytes and platelets
*erythrocytes, leucocytes, platelets
Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
A. Anemia
B. Anisocytosis
C. Erythropenia
D. Poikylocytosis
E. *Erythrocytosis
Specify the erythrocytes amount in men.
A. 3,7-4,7 x 10`12 l
B. 2,8-3,5 x 10`12 l
C. 4,5-6,0 x 10`12 l
D. 3,0-4,0 x 10`12 l
E. *4,0-5,1 x 10`12 l
Specify the erythrocytes amount in women.
A. 2,8-3,5 x 10`12 l
B. 4,0-5,1 x 10`12 l
C. 4,5-6,0 x 10`12 l
D. 3,0-4,0 x 10`12 l
E. *3,7-4,7 x 10`12 l
Specify the name of young erythrocyte.
A. Acidophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. *Reticulocyte
What is the structural peculiarity of reticulocyte?
A. Golgi body presence
B. Mitochondria presence
C. Hb presence
D. Nucleus presence
E. *Presence of RER remnant
What is the Main erythrocytes function?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Protective
C. Immune
D. Blood clotting
E. *Gases transport
What is the most typical shape of erythrocytes?
A. Flat
B. Round
C. Polygonal
D. Oval
E. *Discoid
What is the shape of blood planocyte?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
554.
555.
556.
557.
558.
559.
560.
Discoid
Round
Polygonal
Oval
*Flat
What is the shape of blood spherocyte?
A. Flat
B. Discoid
C. Polygonal
D. Oval
E. *Round
What is the shape of blood discocyte?
A. Flat disc
B. Round
C. Polygonal
D. Oval disc
E. *Biconcave disc
What is the shape of echinocyte?
A. Discoid
B. Flat
C. Round
D. Oval
E. *With spines
What is the most typical shape of aging erythrocytes?
A. Biconcave disc
B. Spherocyte
C. Polygonal
D. Oval
E. *With spines
What is the name of old erythrocyte with spines?
A. Discocyte
B. Spherocyte
C. Planocyte
D. Spinocyte
E. *Echinocyte
What is color of erythrocytes in native blood:
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Violet
E. *Red
Which blood formed element makes it red?
A. Platelets
B. Monocytes
C. Leucocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. *Erythrocytes
561.
562.
563.
564.
565.
566.
567.
568.
Which pigmental inclusion is present in erythrocyte?
A. Myoglobin
B. Lipids
C. Glycogen
D. Mucus
E. *Hemoglobin
Which type of inclusions does hemoglobin belong to?
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Secretory
D. Nutritive
E. *Pigmental protein
Which types of hemoglobin do you know?
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. F and D
D. B and C
E. *A and F
Hemoglobin A is typical for:
A. newborn
B. child
C. 3 years
D. 14 years
E. *adult
Hemoglobin F is typical for?
A. newborn
B. child
C. 3 years
D. 14 years
E. *fetus
What is hemoglobin A?
A. Fetal hemoglobin
B. Hb connected with oxygen
C. Hb connected with carbon monoxide
D. Hb connected with carbon dioxide
E. *Hemoglobin of blood of adult person
What is hemoglobin F?
A. Hemoglobin of blood of adult person
B. Hb connected with oxygen
C. Hb connected with carbon monoxide
D. Hb connected with carbon dioxide
E. *Fetal hemoglobin
What is oxyhemoglobin?
A. Hb connected with carbon monoxide
B. Hb connected with carbon dioxide
C. Free Hb
D. Hb connected with cell membrane
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
575.
576.
E. *Hb connected with oxygen
What is methemoglobin ?
A. Hb connected with oxygen
B. Hb connected with carbon dioxide
C. Free Hb
D. Hb connected with cell membrane
E. *Hb connected with carbon monoxide
Gases transport by erythrocytes is performed by:
A. cell membrane
B. ribosomes
C. cell sceleton
D. nucleus
E. *hemoglobin
Antigens transport by erythrocytes is performed by:
A. hemoglobin
B. ribosomes
C. cell sceleton
D. nucleus
E. *cell membrane
Drugs and nutrients transport by erythrocytes is performed by:
A. hemoglobin
B. ribosomes
C. cell sceleton
D. nucleus
E. *cell membrane
Special shape of erythrocytes is mainly supported by:
A. hemoglobin
B. ribosomes
C. tonofilaments
D. nucleus
E. *spectrins and ankerins
Life-span of erythrocyte is:
A. 30 days
B. 40 days
C. 60 days
D. Few hours
E. *120 days
Blood smear usually is stained with:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Orcein
C. Silver impregnation
D. Iron hematoxylin
E. *Romanovsky-Himsa stain
Specify the leucocytes amount in peripheral blood.
A. 3,9-5,5 x 109/l
B. 200-300x10 x 109/l
C. 10,0-30,0 x 109/l
577.
578.
579.
580.
581.
582.
583.
584.
D. 6,0-8,0 x 109/l
E. *4,0-9,0 x 109/l
Leucocytes in peripheral blood are classifying:
A. Due to motility
B. Due to the shape
C. Due to the nucleus shape
D. Due to the inclusions
E. *Due to specific granules presence
Which blood formed elements belong to agranulocytes?
A. Erythrocytes and platelets
B. Platelets and lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
D. Lymphocytes and platelets
E. *Monocytes and lymphocytes
Which blood formed elements belong to granulocytes?
A. Monocytes and lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes and platelets
C. Platelets and lymphocytes
D. Lymphocytes and platelets
E. *Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
Specify the lymphocytes amount in blood.
A. 0-1,0%
B. 0,5-5%
C. 3-11%
D. 47-72%
E. *18-37%
Main function of lymphocytes.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Protective
C. Gases transport
D. Blood clotting
E. *Immune
Lymphocytes of peripheral blood are:
A. Acidophilic
B. Neutral
C. Polichromatophilic
D. Metachromatophilic
E. *Basophilic
Next lymphocytes could be identifying in light microscope:
A. B and T lymphocytes
B. Active and passive
C. Fixed and motile
D. Juvenile and mature
E. *Small, middle-sized and large
Next lymphocytes could be identifying histochemically:
A. Small, middle-sized and large
B. Active and passive
C. Fixed and motile
D. Juvenile and mature
E. *B and T lymphocytes
585.
Large lymphocytes are known as:
A. T lymphocytes
B. Passive lymphocytes
C. Motile lymphocytes
D. Juvenile lymphocytes
E. *B-plasma cells
586.
Which blood formed elements fulfill their maturation outside of red bone
marrow?
A. Platelets
B. Erythrocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
E. *Monocytes and lymphocytes
587.
Specify the monocytes amount in blood.
A. 0-1,0%
B. 0,5-5%
C. 18-37%
D. 47-72%
E. *3-11%
588.
What is the Main function of monocyte?
A. Protective
B. Gases transport
C. Immune
D. Blood clotting
E. *Phagocytosis
589.
Which organelle is well developed in monocyte?
A. Mitochopndria
B. Ribosomes
C. Cell center
D. Microtubuli
E. *Golgi body
590.
What is the shape of monocyte nucleus?
A. Round
B. Segmented
C. Elongated
D. Irregular
E. *Bean-like
591.
What is the size of monocyte in peripheral blood smear?
A. 15-20 mkm
B. 10-15 mkm
C. 5-10 mkm
D. Over 50 mkm
E. *20-25 mkm
592.
Neutrophils amount in peripheral blood.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
593.
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
0-1,0%
0,5-5%
18-37%
3-11%
*47-72%
Main structural feature of neutrophil:
A. Nucleus presence
B. Metachromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
C. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
D. Ortochromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
E. *Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm
Staiment of primary granules of neutrophil:
A. Neutral
B. Metachromatic
C. Polichromatic
D. Ortochromatic
E. *Azurophilic
What are primary granules of neutrophil:
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi body
D. Inclusions
E. *Lysosomes
Nucleus shape of mature neutrophil:
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Horse shoos-like
D. Absent
E. *Segmented
Nucleus shape of juvenile neutrophil:
A. Round
B. Segmented
C. Horse shoos-like
D. Absent
E. *Oval
Nucleus shape of band neutrophil:
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Segmented
D. Absent
E. *Horse shoos-like
Main function of neutrophils.
A. Take part in allergic reactions
B. Gases transport
C. Immune
D. Blood clotting
E. *Microphagocytosis
600.
601.
602.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
Which types of neutrophils are present in peripheral blood?
A. Motile and fixed
B. Juvenile and segmented
C. Band and segmented
D. Dividing and nondividing
E. *Juvenile, band and segmented
Amount of basophils in blood.
A. 18-37%
B. 3-11%
C. 0,5-5%
D. 47-72%
E. *0-1,0%
Main function of basophils.
A. Immune
B. Gases transport
C. Phagocytosis
D. Blood clotting
E. *Prevent blood clotting
Main structural feature of basophil:
A. Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm
B. Presence of large eosinophilic granules in cytoplasm
C. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
D. Ortochromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
E. *Presence of large basophilic (metachromatic) granules in cytoplasm
Which matters are present in granules of basophils.
A. Lisozyme
B. Hb
C. Arginin
D. Tromboplastin
E. *Histamine, heparin
Special features of basophil’s granules:
A. Small round
B. Small elongated
C. Have dense core inside
D. Have arginin
E. *Large membrane-bound
Amount of eosinophils in blood.
A. 0-1,0%
B. 3-11%
C. 18-37%
D. 47-72%
E. *0,5-5%
Main structural feature of eosinophil:
A. Presence of small azurophilic and special granules in cytoplasm
B. Nucleus presence
C. Metachromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
D. Polichromatophilic granules in cytoplasm
608.
609.
610.
611.
612.
613.
614.
615.
E. *Large oxiphilic granules in cytoplasm
Which matters are present in granules of eosinophils?
A. Lisozyme
B. Hb
C. Histamine, heparin
D. Tromboplastin
E. *Arginin
Special features of eosinophils granules:
A. Small round
B. Small elongated
C. Large membranebounded
D. Small membranebounded
E. *Have dense core inside
Main function of eosinophils.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Gases transport
C. Immune
D. Blood clotting
E. *Take part in allergic reactions
Specify the amount of platelets in blood.
A. 3,9-5,5 x 10 9/l
B. 10,0-30,0 x 10 9/l
C. 4,0-9,0 x 10 9/l
D. 6,0-8,0 x 10 9/l
E. *200-300 x 10 9/l
What is the Main function of platelets?
A. Protective
B. Gases transport
C. Immune
D. Phagocytosis
E. *Blood clotting
Shape of blood platelet:
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Segmented
D. With pseudopodies
E. *Flat with small spines
Which zones are present in platelet:
A. Body and spines
B. Inner and superficial
C. Active and passive
D. Membranebounded and membraneless
E. *Granulomere and hyalomere
Which matters are present in granules of platelet?
A. Lisozyme
B. Hb
C. Histamine, heparin
D. Arginin
E. *Tromboplastin, protrombin
616.
Why does blood has fluid consistency?
A. Has a lot of plasma
B. Plasma contains salts
C. Has different cells
D. Is actively renewing
E. *It has no fibers
617.
Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
over 20%
A. Erythropenia
B. Anemia
C. Anisocytosis
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Poikylocytosis
618.
Anisocytosis of peripheral blood means:
A. Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount over 20%
B. Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
C. Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
D. Hb amount increase
E. *Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes in peripheral blood over 25%
619.
Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood over
25%
A. Erythrocytosis
B. Erythropenia
C. Anemia
D. Poikylocytosis
E. *Anisocytosis
620.
Poikylocytosis of peripheral blood means:
A. Increase of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
B. Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
C. Increase of abnormal-sized erythrocytes in peripheral blood over 25%
D. Hb amount increase
E. *Increase of abnormal-shaped erythrocytes amount over 20%
621.
What is normal size of erythrocyte in peripheral blood?
A. 6-7 mkm
B. 7-9 mkm
C. 8-9 mkm
D. 8,1-8,9 mkm
E. *7,1-7,9 mkm
622.
Decrease of erythrocytes amount in peripheral blood
A. Anemia
B. Anisocytosis
C. Poikylocytosis
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Erythropenia
623.
What is the name of normal-sized erythrocyte in peripheral blood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microcyte
Macrocyte
Planocyte
Echinocyte
*Normocyte
624.
What is the name of large erythrocyte in peripheral blood (over 8 mkm)?
A. Microcyte
B. Normocyte
C. Planocyte
D. Echinocyte
E. *Macrocyte
625.
What is the name of small erythrocyte in peripheral blood (less than 7
mkm)?
A. Normocyte
B. Macrocyte
C. Planocyte
D. Echinocyte
E. *Microcyte
626.
Normal-sized erythrocytes constitute in peripheral blood
A. 80 %
B. 60%
C. 55%
D. 90%
E. *75%
627.
Normal-shaped erythrocytes constitute in peripheral blood
A. 75 %
B. 90%
C. 45%
D. 60%
E. *80%
628.
Speed of male blood sedimentation:
A. 1-2 mm/hour
B. 7-10 mm/hour
C. 10-20 mm/hour
D. 2-12 mm/hour
E. *2-7 mm/hour
629.
Speed of female blood sedimentation:
A. 7-10 mm/hour
B. 10-20 mm/hour
C. 2-7 mm/hour
D. 1-2 mm/hour
E. *2-12 mm/hour
630.
What does speed of blood sedimentation depend on?
A. Platelets amount
B. Basophils amount
C. Erythrocytes amount
D. Leucocytes amount
631.
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
E. *Viscosity of plasma
Increase of leucocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Leucocytosis
Decrease of leucocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Leucopenia
Increase of monocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Monocytosis
Decrease of monocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Lymphopenia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Monocytopenia
Increase of lymphocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Lymphocytosis
Decrease of lymphocytes in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythropenia
E. *Lymphopenia
Increase of neutrophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Neutrophilia
Decrease of neutrophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
639.
640.
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
646.
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Neutropenia
Increase of juvenile and band neutrophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Leucocytosis
E. *Left-shift of leucogram
Prominent increase of segmented neutrophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Leucocytosis
C. Eosinophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Right-shift of leucogram
Increase of basophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Basophilia
Increase of eosinophils in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Eosinophilia
Increase of platelets in peripheral blood:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Eosinophilia
C. Basophilia
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Trombocytosis
Decrease of platelets in peripheral blood:
A. Leucopenia
B. Leucocytosis
C. Eosinophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Trombopenia
Embryonic hematopoiesis is:
A. Physiologic regeneration of blood
B. Reparative regeneration of blood
C. Blood coagulation
D. Blood sedimentation
E. *Histogenesis of blood
Postembryonic hematopoiesis is:
A. Histogenesis of blood
B. Reparative regeneration of blood
647.
648.
649.
650.
651.
652.
653.
654.
C. Blood coagulation
D. Blood sedimentation
E. *Physiologic regeneration of blood
Primary hematocytoblast originate:
A. In ectoderm
B. In endoderm
C. In mesoderm
D. In notochord
E. *In the wall of yolk sac
Name the process of erythrocytes development.
A. Granulocytopoiesis
B. Agranulocytopoiesis
C. Lymphocytopoiesis
D. Trombocytopoiesis
E. *Erythrocytopoiesis
Name the process of leucocytes development.
A. Trombocytopoiesis
B. Granulocytopoiesis
C. Agranulocytopoiesis
D. Lymphocytopoiesis
E. *Leucocytopoiesis
Name the process of platelets development.
A. Granulocytopoiesis
B. Agranulocytopoiesis
C. Lymphocytopoiesis
D. Erythrocytopoiesis
E. *Trombocytopoiesis
Embryonic source of blood development:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Notochord
E. *Mesenchyme
Which cell gives rise to different blood cells?
A. Unipotential colony forming cell
B. Blast cell
C. Differentiating cell
D. Mesenchymal cell
E. *Hemopoietic stem cell
How many classes does differon of blood include?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. *6
Which cells constitute II class of blood differon?
A. Blasts
B.
C.
D.
E.
655.
656.
657.
658.
659.
660.
661.
662.
Colony forming unipotential cells
Maturing cells
Mature cells
*Hemistem cells
Which cells constitute III class of blood differon?
A. Hemistem cells
B. Blasts
C. Maturing cells
D. Mature cells
E. *Colony forming unipotential cells
Which cells constitute IV class of blood differon?
A. Hemistem cells
B. Colony forming unipotential cells
C. Maturing cells
D. Mature cells
E. *Blasts
Which cells constitute V class of blood differon?
A. Blasts
B. Colony forming unipotential cells
C. Hemistem cells
D. Mature cells
E. *Maturing cells
Which cells constitute VI class of blood differon?
A. Blasts
B. Colony forming unipotential cells
C. Maturing cells
D. Hemistem cells
E. *Mature blood cells
How does blood stem cell look-like?
A. As erythroblast
B. As monocyte
C. As platelet
D. As neutrophil
E. *As small lymphocyte
Connective tissues belongs to:
A. special tissues
B. lining tissues
C. contractile tissues
D. specific tissues
E. *general tissues
Origin of connective tissues:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Notochord
E. *Mesenchyme
Main types of connective tissues:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
663.
664.
665.
666.
667.
668.
669.
Fibrous and special
Loose and dense
Chondroid and bony
Reticular and adipose
*Proper and skeletal
Types of fibrous connective tissues:
A. Proper and skeletal
B. Fibrous and special
C. Chondroid and bony
D. Reticular and adipose
E. *Loose and dense
Connective tissues with special properties:
A. Proper and skeletal
B. Fibrous and special
C. Loose and dense
D. Chondroid and bony
E. *Reticular and adipose
Connective tissues with special properties:
A. Proper and skeletal
B. Fibrous and special
C. Loose and dense
D. Chondroid and bony
E. *Mucous and pigmental
Differon of connective tissue includes:
A. Plasma cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte
B. Histiocyte, fibroblast and fibrocyte
C. Must cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte
D. Stem cell, hemistem cell, must cell
E. *Stem cell, hemistem cell, fibroblast and fibrocyte
Main cells of connective tissue:
A. Must cells
B. Pigmental cells
C. Histiocytes
D. Plasma cells
E. *Fibroblast, fibrocyte
Migrating cells of connective tissue:
A. Pigmental cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Fibrocytes
D. Hemistem cells
E. *Histiocytes
Migrating cells of connective tissue:
A. Pigmental cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Fibrocytes
D. Hemistem cells
E. *Must cells
670.
671.
672.
673.
674.
675.
676.
677.
Migrating cells of connective tissue:
A. Fibroblast
B. Fibrocyte
C. Histiocyte
D. Pigmental
E. *Plasma cells
Fibrocytes main function is:
A. Antibodies synthesis
B. Thermoregulation
C. Phagocytosis
D. Histamine synthesis
E. *Structural
Fibroblasts main function is:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Antibodies synthesis
C. Thermoregulation
D. Histamine synthesis
E. *Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds
Fibroblasts cytoplasm particularly has:
A. a lot of lysosomes
B. basophilic granules
C. well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. well developed mytochondria
E. *well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
What does intercellular substance of connective tissue consist of?
A. Elastic fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Capillaries
D. Reticular fibers
E. *Ground substance and fibers
Intercellular substance of connective tissue includes:
A. Reticular fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Bandles of fibers
D. Mesh of fibers
E. *Ground substance and fibers
Which cells of connective tissue are producing collagen fibers?
A. Plasma cells
B. Melanocytes
C. Reticular cells
D. Macrophages
E. *Fibroblasts
Which cells of connective tissue are producing elastic fibers?
A. Plasma cells
B. Melanocytes
C. Reticular cells
D. Macrophages
E. *Fibroblasts
678.
Which connective tissue cells are mainly producing intercellular
substance components?
A. Plasma cells
B. Melanocytes
C. Reticular cells
D. Macrophages
E. *Fibroblasts
679.
Plasma cell structural peculiarity:
A. Presence of numerous mitochondria
B. Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Few mitochondria in cytoplasm
D. A lot of lysosomes and inclusions
E. *Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum
680.
Plasma cells main function is:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Thermoregulation
C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds
D. Histamine synthesis
E. *Antibodies synthesis
681.
Which connective tissue cell produces antibodies (gamma-globulins)?
A. Reticular cell
B. Fibrocyte
C. Fibroblast
D. Macrophage
E. *Plasma cell
682.
Which cells of connective tissue take part in immune reactions?
A. Reticular cells
B. Fibrocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Pigmental cells
E. *Plasma cells
683.
What is the shape of plasma cell in connective tissue?
A. Round
B. Elongated
C. Stellate
D. Pyramidal
E. *Oval
684.
Staiment of plasma cell is:
A. Metachromatic
B. Oxyphilic
C. Neutrophilic
D. Polichromatophilic
E. *Basophilic
685.
Must cells main function is:
A. Antibodies synthesis
B. Thermoregulation
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
691.
692.
693.
C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds
D. Phagocytosis
E. *Heparin and histamine synthesis
Which connective tissue cells contain histamine and heparin?
A. Plasma cells
B. Reticular cells
C. Histiocytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. *Must cells
Must cell cytoplasm has:
A. Well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Well developed mytochondria
C. A lot of lisosomes
D. Well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. *Basophilic granules
Must cell structural peculiarity:
A. Presence of numerous mitochondria
B. Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D. A lot of lysosomes and inclusions
E. *Presence of basophilic granules in cytoplasm
What is the origin of must cells of connective tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Macrophages
E. *Basophils of blood
What is the origin of histiocytes (macrophages) of connective tissue?
A. Endodermal
B. From plasma cells
C. Ectodermal
D. Mesodermal
E. *Mesenchymal
Histiocytes main function is:
A. Antibodies synthesis
B. Thermoregulation
C. Synthesis of intercellular substance compounds
D. Histamine synthesis
E. *Phagocytosis
Which connective tissue cells have of a lot of lysosomes?
A. Plasma cells
B. Reticular cells
C. Fibrocytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. *Histiocytes
Histiocyte structural peculiarity:
A. Presence of numerous mitochondria
B.
C.
D.
E.
694.
695.
696.
697.
698.
699.
700.
701.
Well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum
Few mitochondria in cytoplasm
Well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum
*Well developed Golgi complex and a lot of lysosomes
A lot of lysosomes are present in the next cells of connective tissue:
A. Plasma cells
B. Fibrocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Reticular cells
E. *Macrophages
Which connective tissue cells belong to macrophages?
A. Fibrocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Plasma cells
D. Reticular cells
E. *Histiocytes
Sertify the Main cells of adipose tissue.
A. Plasma cells
B. Melanocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Macrophages
E. *Adipocytes
Types of adipose tissue.
A. Loose and dense
B. Pigmental and reticular
C. Regular and irregular
D. Simple and compound
E. *White and brown
Lipid inclusions in white adipose tissue:
A. Lie around nucleus
B. Have yellowish color
C. Are arranged in small granules
D. Have irregular shape
E. *Are arranged in large vacuole
Lipid inclusions in brown adipose tissue:
A. Are arranged in large vacuole
B. Have irregular shape
C. Lie around nucleus
D. Have yellowish color
E. *Are arranged in small granules
Main function of white adipose tissue:
A. Surrounding
B. Thermoregulation
C. Supportive
D. Lining
E. *Protective
Main function of brown adipose tissue:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
702.
703.
704.
705.
706.
707.
708.
Surrounding
Protective
Supportive
Lining
*thermoregulation
Special feature of adipocytes of brown adipose tissue.
A. Large lipid vacuole
B. Lipid inclusions
C. Irregular shape
D. Nucleus presence
E. *Mitochondria have cytochroms
Sertify main cell of reticular tissue.
A. Plasma cells
B. Adipocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Macrophages
E. *Reticular cell
Sertify the main cell of pigmental tissue.
A. Adipocyte
B. Fibroblast
C. Macrophage
D. Plasma cell
E. *Melanocyte
Which pigment is produced by melanocytes:
A. hemoglobin
B. myoglobin
C. cytochrom
D. chlorophyll
E. *melanin
Melanin belongs to next type of cell inclusions:
A. secretory
B. excretory
C. nutritive
D. incretory
E. *pigmental
Which cells of connective tissue are producing melanin?
A. fibroblasts
B. must cells
C. histiocytes
D. adipocytes
E. *melanocytes
Which cells of connective tissue contain lipid inclusions?
A. melanocytes
B. fibroblasts
C. must cells
D. histiocytes
E. *adipocytes
709.
Which cells of connective tissue contain large vacuole of lipid
inclusions?
A. melanocytes
B. fibroblasts
C. must cells
D. brown adipocytes
E. *white adipocytes
710.
Which cells of connective tissue contain small vacuoles of lipid
inclusions?
A. melanocytes
B. fibroblasts
C. white adipocytes
D. histiocytes
E. *brown adipocytes
711.
Dense connective tissue mainly has next fibers:
A. Coiled
B. Irregular
C. Elastic
D. Reticular
E. *Collagen
712.
Reticular tissue mainly has next fibers:
A. Collagen
B. Elastic
C. Coiled
D. Irregular
E. *Reticular
713.
Main characteristic feature of collagen fiber:
A. Delicate
B. Thin and branched
C. Thick and branched
D. Thin and coiled
E. *Thick and strong
714.
Main characteristic feature of elastic fiber:
A. Delicate
B. Thick and strong
C. Thick and branched
D. Thin and coiled
E. *Thin and branched
715.
Main characteristic feature of reticular fiber:
A. Delicate
B. Thick and strong
C. Thick and branched
D. Thin and branched
E. *Thin branched and strong
716.
Embryonic source of chondroid tissue formation:
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
717.
718.
719.
720.
721.
722.
723.
724.
C. entoderm
D. somit
E. *mesenchyme
Chondroid tissue is classified due to:
A. place in organism
B. cell structure
C. cells location
D. ground substance
E. *peculiarities of intercellular substance
Which cells belong to the chondroid tissue?
A. osteocytes, odontocytes
B. osteocytes, chondrocytes
C. chondroclasts, fibroblasts
D. osteocytes, osteoclasts, chondroblasts
E. *chondroblasts, chondrocytes
Which tissue has no blood vessels?
A. Sceletal muscular
B. Smooth muscular
C. Nervous
D. Bony tissue
E. *Chondroid
Most specific feature of chondroid tissue:
A. has ground substance
B. has fibers
C. has blood vessels
D. has a lot of salts
E. *has no blood vessels
Differon of chondroid tissue includes:
A. osteocytes, odontocytes
B. osteocytes, chondrocytes
C. chondroclasts, fibroblasts
D. osteocytes, osteoclasts, chondroblasts
E. *stem cell, hemistem cells, chondroblasts, chondrocytes
Cartillage is nourished by:
A. proper vessels
B. vessels of bones
C. its own cells
D. lymphatics
E. *by diffusion
Main cells of chondroid tissue:
A. adipocytes
B. monocytes
C. osteocytes
D. fibroblasts
E. *chondrocytes
Structural compounds of chondroid tissue
A. fibroblasts
B.
C.
D.
E.
chondroblasts, chondromucoid
osteocytes chondrine fibers
collagen, elastic fibers and chondromucoid
*chondrocytes, chondroblasts, intercellular substance
725.
Intercellular substance of chondroid tissue has:
A. fibroblasts, and chondromucoid
B. chondrocytes and fibers
C. chondroblasts, chondromucoid
D. reticular fibers and chondromucoid
E. *chondromucoid and chondrine fibers
726.
Surface of joints is covered with:
A. bony tissue
B. proper connective tissue
C. epithelial tissue
D. elastic cartilage
E. *hyaline cartilage
727.
Chondrocytes in cartilage are arranged in:
A. cords
B. lie alone
C. in islets
D. follicles
E. *isogenous groups
728.
Chondroblasts of perychondrium functions are the next:
A. protective
B. trophic
C. glycogen deposition
D. resorption of cartilage
E. *appositional growth
729.
Elasticity of chondroid tissue depends on:
A. perichondrium
B. cells location
C. peculiarities of chondromucoid
D. collagen presence
E. *elastic fibers
730.
Chondroblasts function in cartilage:
A. protective
B. trophic
C. glycogen deposition
D. resorption of cartilage
E. *intercellular substance production
731.
Cells of chondroid tissue have well developed rough endoplasmic
reticulum and Golgi body. What is their function?
A. protective
B. trophic
C. glycogen deposition
D. resorption of cartilage
E. *intercellular substance production
732.
Layers of perichondrium:
A. cellular and noncellular
B. amorphic and cellular
C. fibrous and amorphic
D. noncellular and fibrous
E. *fibrous and cellular
733.
Main function of young cells in perychondrium:
A. protective
B. nutritive
C. glycogen deposition
D. resorption of cartilage
E. *appositional growth
734.
Hyalin cartilage mainly has:
A. elastic fibers
B. reticular fibers
C. brounched fibers
D. thin fibers
E. *collagen fibers
735.
In histolocic specimen tissue with isogenous groups of cells in the
intercellular substance and invisible fibers is seen . What is this tissue?
A. elastic cartilage
B. fibrocartilage
C. epithelial tissue
D. bony tissue
E. *hyaline cartilage
736.
In histolocic specimen tissue with isogenous groups of cells and thick
bandles of fibers in the intercellular substance is seen. What is this tissue?
A. hyaline cartilage
B. elastic cartilage
C. epithelial tissue
D. bony tissue
E. *fibrocartilage
737.
Histolocic specimen is stained with orcein. Tissue with isogenous groups
of cells and brownish fibers in the intercellular substance is seen. What is this
tissue?
A. hyaline cartilage
B. fibrocartilage
C. epithelial tissue
D. bony tissue
E. *elastic cartilage
738.
Hyaline cartilage location:
A. auricle
B. intervertebral disc
C. small bronchi
D. bronchioles
E. *trachea
739.
Special feature of hyaline cartilage over joint surface:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
blood vessels
isogenous groups of cells
no intercellular substance
absence of periostium
*absence of perichondrium
740.
Age changes of hyaline cartilage:
A. increase of cells amount
B. increase of chondromucoid hydrophily
C. appearance of hemocapillaries
D. intercellular substance distruction
E. *deposition of Са salts in intercellular substance
741.
Which skeletal tissue may depose Ca salts?
A. elastic cartilage fibers
B. fibrous cartilage
C. loose connective tissue
D. dense connective tissue
E. *hyaline cartilage
742.
What is main difference between hyaline and elastic cartilage?
A. elastic one has collagen fibers
B. elastic one has perichondrium
C. cells are arranged in groups.
D. well prominent ground substance
E. *elastic one has elastic fibers
743.
Elastic cartilage is stained with orcein, hyaline one – with hematoxylin
and eosin. How to distinguish them?
A. by isogenous groups of cells
B. by perichondrium
C. by ground substance
D. by metaepyphiseal plate
E. *by elastic fibers
744.
Elastic cartilage mainly has:
A. collagen fibers
B. reticular fibers
C. brounched fibers
D. thin fibers
E. *elastic fibers
745.
Elastic cartilage location:
A. trachea
B. intervertebral disc
C. small bronchi
D. bronchioles
E. *auricle
746.
Chondrocytes in elastic cartilage are arranged in:
A. cords
B. lie alone
C. in islets
D. follicles
E. *isogenous groups
747.
Fibro-cartilage is located in:
A. In vertebra
B. In trachea
C. In joints
D. Between tendons
E. *Intervertebral discs
748.
Which fibers predominate in fibro-cartilage?
A. oxythalan
B. elaynin
C. elastic
D. reticular
E. *collagen
749.
Which type of chondroid tissue growth takes place in regeneration of
joints?
A. interstitial
B. owergrowth
C. appositional and interstitial
D. slow growth
E. *appositional
750.
Regeneration of chondroid tissue mainly occurs by:
A. cells of young cartilage
B. outer layer of perichondrium
C. cells of isogenous groups
D. cells from blood
E. *cells of inner layer of perichondrium
751.
Restriction of movements in joints is connected with such changes of
cartilage:
A. increase of isogenous groups
B. increase of cells amount
C. perichondrium thickening
D. increase of ground substance hydrophily
E. *Ca salts deposition
752.
Cartilage is nourished by:
A. blood vessels in cartilage
B. vessels of underlying bones
C. cells activity
D. lymph vessels in cartilage
E. *diffusion from vessels of perichondrium
753.
Elastic cartilage Main feature:
A. blood vessels in cartilage
B. solidity
C. strength
D. transparency
E. *elasticity
754.
Fibro-cartilage Main feature:
A. blood vessels in cartilage
B.
C.
D.
E.
755.
756.
757.
758.
759.
760.
761.
762.
elasticity
strength
transparency
*solidity
Main types of bony tissue:
A. compact and circular
B. compact and spongy
C. trabecular and spongy
D. fibrous and lattice
E. *fibrous and lamellar
Structural unit of lamellar tubular bone:
A. bony lamella
B. osteoclasts
C. osteoblasts
D. osteocytes
E. *osteon
Which changes may occur in bone in notable destruction of periosteum?
A. innervation disorders
B. calcinations disorders
C. distruction of proteins
D. no changes
E. *disorders of nourishment
Metaepiphysial plate function:
A. periosteum production
B. hemopoiesis
C. osteoblasts development
D. fibroblasts development
E. *growth and regeneration of bone
Changes of bony tissue in the case of periosteum destruction:
A. regeneration disorders
B. calcination disorders
C. innervation disorders
D. no changes
E. *disorders of nourishment
Which cells of bony tissue are calcitonin-sensitive?
A. osteocytes
B. osteoclasts
C. fibroblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. *osteoblasts
Bones growth in length depends on:
A. osteoblasts
B. osteoclasts
C. chondrocytes
D. osteocytes
E. *chondroblasts of metaepiphiseal plate
Reparative regeneration of bones is promoted by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
763.
764.
765.
766.
767.
768.
769.
epiphysis
diaphysis
outer layer of general lamellas
inner layer of general lamellas
*periosteum
Which cells of bony tissue have a lot of lysosomes?
A. osteocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. fibroblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. *osteoclasts
Which cells of bony tissue are responsible for osteoporosis?
A. osteocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. fibroblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. *osteoclasts
Which cells of bony tissue have a lot of nuclei?
A. osteocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. fibroblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. *osteoclasts
Main types of bony tissue:
A. Trabecular and spongy
B. Compact and circular
C. Compact and trabecular
D. Fibrous and spongy
E. *Lamellar and fibrous
Main differences between lamellar and fibrous bony tissue:
A. different cells
B. source of origin
C. chemical composition of intercellular substance
D. cells disposition
E. *intercellular substance structural organisation
Embryonic source of bony tissue formation
A. ectoderm
B. coelomic mesoderm
C. entoderm
D. nephrogonotom
E. *sclerotome
Bony tissue is classified due to:
A. place in organism
B. cell structure
C. cells location
D. ground substance
E. *peculiarities of intercellular substance
770.
771.
772.
773.
774.
775.
776.
777.
Which cells belong to the bony tissue?
A. osteocytes, odontocytes
B. osteocytes, chondrocytes
C. chondroblasts, chondrocytes
D. chondroclasts, fibroblasts
E. *osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts
Differon of bony tissue includes:
A. osteocytes, chondrocytes
B. chondroblasts, chondrocytes
C. osteocytes, fibroblasts
D. osteocytes, osteoclasts
E. *stem cell, hemistem cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
Bony tissue is nutrited by:
A. ground substance
B. by diffusion
C. own cells
D. lymphatics
E. *vessels of bones
Main cells of bony tissue:
A. adipocytes
B. chondrocytes
C. monocytes
D. fibroblasts
E. *osteocytes
Structural compounds of bony tissue
A. fibroblasts, osteocytes
B. osteoblasts, osteocytes, chondromucoid
C. chondrine fibers
D. collagen, elastic fibers and osteomucoid
E. *osteoblasts, osteocytes, intercellular substance
Intercellular substance of bony tissue has:
A. osteoblasts and osteomucoid
B. osteocytes and fibers
C. chondroblasts, chondromucoid
D. reticular fibers and osteomucoid
E. *osteomucoid and ossein fibers
Solidity of bony tissue depends on:
A. periosteum
B. cells location
C. fibers location
D. collagen presence
E. *Ca salts presence
Osteoblasts function in bony tissue:
A. protective
B. trophic
C. glycogen deposition
D. resorption of cartilage
778.
779.
780.
781.
782.
783.
784.
785.
E. *intercellular substance production
Osteoclasts function in bony tissue:
A. protective
B. trophic
C. intercellular substance production
D. glycogen deposition
E. *resorption of bony tissue
Criterion of lamellar bony tissue division in compact and spongy:
A. intercellular substance compounds correlations
B. cells and intercellular substance correlations
C. salts amount in the intercellular substance
D. intercellular substance compounds disposition
E. *bony lamellas disposition
Fibrous bony tissue disposition:
A. in sceleton
B. bones of hands and feet
C. in ribs
D. in breast bone
E. *tendons junction with bones
Thickness of tubular bone depends on:
A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. endosteum
D. metaepiphysial plate
E. *periosteum
Length of tubular bone depends on:
A. diaphysis
B. periosteum
C. epiphysis
D. endosteum
E. *metaepiphysial plate
Osteoclasts originate from:
A. osteoblasts
B. osteocytes
C. fibroblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. *monocytes
Structural compounds of bony tissue osteoid:
A. bony matrix without fibers
B. matrix around osteoblast
C. hydroxiappatites connected with collagen fibers
D. groups of cells
E. *noncalcified bony matrix
Lamellar bones mainly consist of:
A. collagen fibers, osteoblasts
B. hydroxiappatites connected with collagen fibers
C. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, ossein
786.
787.
788.
789.
790.
791.
792.
793.
D. octeons, periosteum
E. *bony lamellas, osteocytes
Bony lamellas in spongy bone are arranged:
A. Parallely
B. In cords
C. In follicles
D. In groups
E. *Irregularly
Morphofunctional unit of compact bone:
A. osteocyte
B. osteoblast
C. osteoclast
D. bony lamella
E. *osteon
Lamellar bony tissue structural compounds:
A. collagen fibers, osteoblasts, osteocytes
B. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, ossein fibers
C. osteons
D. osteocytes ,osteoclasts
E. *osteocytes, bony lamellas
Which tissue promotes regeneration of bone after the fracture?
A. loose connective tissue
B. reticular tissue
C. lamellar bony tissue
D. dense regular tissue
E. *fibrous bony tissue
What does bone growth in length depend on?
A. periosteum
B. bony lamella
C. osteon
D. inner layer of general lamellas
E. *metaepiphysial plate
What does bone thickness depend on?
A. bony lamella
B. osteon
C. metaepiphysial plate
D. inner layer of general lamellas
E. *periosteum
What is bony lamela?
A. Bandle of irregular arranged fibers
B. Osteocyte with nearest fibers
C. Group of osteoblasts
D. Cell of Haversial canal
E. *Plate of parallely arranged fibers impregnated with Ca salts
Which salts are mainly present in bony tissue?
A. Na
B. К
794.
795.
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
C. Fe
D. F
E. *Ca
Functional peculiarity of muscular tissues:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Presence of reticular fibers
C. Energy production
D. Protein synthesis
E. *Ability to contractions
Main structural peculiarity of muscular tissues:
A. Macrophages
B. Presence of reticular fibers
C. Myoglobin
D. Glycogen
E. *Myofibrils
Morphological types of muscular tissues:
A. Smooth and skeletal
B. Contractile and noncontractile
C. Skeletal and cardiac
D. Smooth and cardiac
E. *Smooth, striated skeletal and cardiac
Embryonic source of smooth muscular tissue
A. ectoderm
B. entoderm
C. nerve tissue
D. epithelial tissue
E. *mesenchyme
Structural unit of smooth muscular tissue
A. Satellite cell
B. Striated myocyte
C. Myofiber
D. Cardiomyocyte
E. *Smooth myocyte
Structural unit of skeletal muscular tissue:
A. Smooth myocyte
B. Satellite cell
C. Striated myocyte
D. Cardiomyocyte
E. *Myofiber
Embryonic source of cardiac muscular tissue
A. ectoderm
B. entoderm
C. myotom of somit
D. epithelial tissue
E. *myoepicardial plate
Structural unit of cardiac muscular tissue:
A. Smooth myocyte
B.
C.
D.
E.
802.
803.
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
Satellite cell
Striated myocyte
Myofiber
*Cardiomyocyte
Special organelles of myofiber:
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Neurofibrils
D. Tonofibrils
E. *Myofibrils
Special organelles of smooth myocyte:
A. Neurofibrils
B. Tonofibrils
C. Cilia
D. Flagella
E. *Myofibrils
Special organelles of cardiomyocyte:
A. Neurofibrils
B. Tonofibrils
C. Cilia
D. Flagella
E. *Myofibrils
Cell membrane of myofiber provides:
A. Reception
B. Contractions
C. Actin synthesis
D. Myosin synthesis
E. *Nerve impulse passage
Physiologic regeneration of cardiac muscular tissue:
A. By smooth myocytes division
B. By satellite cells division
C. By actin and myosin
D. By connective tissue
E. *Intracellular regeneration
Myofiber of myocardium consists of:
A. Skeletal myofibers
B. Smooth myocytes
C. Satellite cells
D. Fibroblasts
E. *Cardiac myocytes
What does intercalated disc connect?
A. Two myofibers
B. Two smooth myocytes
C. Myocyte and nerve fiber
D. Myofiber and nerve fiber
E. *Two nearest cardiomyocytes
What does anastomosis connect in myocardium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
810.
811.
812.
813.
814.
815.
816.
Two nearest cardiomyocytes
Two smooth myocytes
Myocyte and nerve fiber
Myofiber and nerve fiber
*Two myofibers
Morphological types of muscular tissue:
A. One
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. *2
Endomisium consists of:
A. elastic fibers
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. collagen fibers
D. endotendinium
E. *collagen and reticular fibers
Physiologic regeneration of smooth muscular tissue:
A. By satellite cells division
B. Intracellular regeneration
C. By actin and myosin
D. By connective tissue
E. *By smooth myocytes division
Physiologic regeneration of skeletal muscular tissue:
A. By actin and myosin
B. By connective tissue
C. By smooth myocytes division
D. Intracellular regeneration
E. *By satellite cells division
Which proteins does myofibril mainly consist of?
A. actin and filagrin
B. keratin and elastin
C. collagen and elastin
D. myosin and elastin
E. *actin and myosin
What is intercalated disc?
A. sarcomeres junction
B. two myofibers junction
C. telophragm
D. mesophragm
E. *junction of two cardiomyocytes
Contractile apparatus of cardiac muscular tissue consists of:
A. thin filaments
B. smooth myofibrilles
C. thock filaments
D. cardiomyocytes
E. *striated myofibrils
817.
Main functional peculiarity of muscular tissues:
A. mechanical solidity
B. elasticity
C. rigidity
D. ability for amortization
E. *ability for contractions
818.
Structural unit of striated myofibril:
A. A disc
B. I disc
C. myofilament
D. telophragm
E. *sarcomere
819.
Myosin filaments are damaged in experiment. Which structure of
sarcomere will change most of all?
A. disc І
B. H line
C. mesophragm
D. telophragm
E. *A disc
820.
Smooth muscular tissue contractions are:
A. voluntary
B. fast
C. rapid
D. regular
E. *involuntary
821.
Sceletal muscular tissue contractions are:
A. tonic
B. slow
C. irregular
D. regular
E. *voluntary
822.
Myofibril consists of:
A. Collagen
B. Ellastin
C. Reticulin
D. Tropocollagen
E. *Actin and myosin
823.
Nerve tissue belongs to:
A. general tissues
B. skeletal tissues
C. lining tissues
D. contractile tissues
E. *special tissues
824.
Main morphofunctional component of nerve tissue:
A. nerve fiber
B. glial cell
C. macrophages
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
831.
832.
D. ganglion
E. *nerve cell
Embryonic source of nerve tissue:
A. endoderm
B. mesoderm
C. mesenchyme
D. somit
E. *ectoderm
Neural tube layers:
A. ependymal and mantial
B. mantial and marginal
C. mesenchymal, and mantial
D. ependymal and mesenchymal,
E. *ependymal, mantial and marginal
Multipolar nerve cells originate from:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer
C. neural tube marginal layer
D. microglial cells
E. *neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer
Ependymal cells originate from:
A. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer
B. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer
C. neural tube marginal layer
D. microglial cells
E. *neural tube ependymal layer
Astrocytes originate from:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer
C. neural tube marginal layer
D. microglial cells
E. *spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer
Microglial cells originate from:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. neuroblasts of neural tube mantial layer
C. spongioblasts of neural tube mantial layer
D. neural tube marginal layer
E. *monocytes
Nerve tissue consists of:
A. nerve cells
B. glial cells
C. nerve fibers
D. macrophages
E. *nerve and glial cells
Perikaryon of nerve cell means:
A. long nerve process
B. short nerve process
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
838.
839.
840.
C. branched nerve process
D. nonbranched nerve process
E. *nerve cell body
Axon of nerve cell means:
A. long nerve process
B. short nerve process
C. branched nerve process
D. nerve cell body
E. *nonbranched nerve process
Dendrite of nerve cell means:
A. long nerve process
B. short nerve process
C. nerve cell body
D. nonbranched nerve process
E. *branched nerve process
Nerve cell has next processes:
A. axons
B. dendrites
C. short nerve process
D. long nerve process
E. *axon and dendrites
Location of ependymoblasts in neural tube:
A. neural tube mantial layer
B. neural tube marginal layer
C. neural tube superficial layer
D. neural tube middle layer
E. *neural tube ependymal layer
Location of neurooblasts in neural tube:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. neural tube marginal layer
C. neural tube superficial layer
D. neural tube inner layer
E. *neural tube mantial layer
Location of spongioblasts in neural tube:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. neural tube marginal layer
C. neural tube superficial layer
D. neural tube inner layer
E. *neural tube mantial layer
Predominant location of fibers in neural tube:
A. neural tube ependymal layer
B. neural tube mantial layer
C. neural tube superficial layer
D. neural tube middle layer
E. *neural tube marginal layer
How many processes are there in unipolar neurons?
A. Two
B.
C.
D.
E.
841.
842.
843.
844.
845.
846.
847.
848.
Many
No one
Two closely disposed
*One
How many processes are there in multipolar neurons?
A. One
B. Two
C. None
D. Two closely disposed
E. *Many
How many processes are there in pseudounipolar neurons?
A. One
B. Two
C. Many
D. No one
E. *Two closely disposed
Main feature of axon.
A. Branched
B. Two
C. Ramifying
D. Irregular-shaped
E. *Nonbranched
How many axons are there in multipolar neurons?
A. Two
B. Many
C. None
D. Two closely disposed
E. *One
How many axons are there in bipolar neurons?
A. Two
B. Many
C. No one
D. Two closely disposed
E. *One
How many axons are there in unipolar neurons?
A. Two
B. Many
C. None
D. Two closely disposed
E. *One
How many axons are there in pseudounipolar neurons?
A. Two
B. Many
C. None
D. Two closely disposed
E. *One
Main feature of dendrite
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
849.
850.
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
One
Nonbranched
Thin
Irregular-shaped
*Branched
Morphological classification of nerve cells is based on:
A. nuclei size
B. perikaryon shape
C. RER localization
D. shape of axon
E. *processes amount
Chromatophilic substance of nerve cell is:
A. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
B. lysosomes
C. Golgy body
D. phagosomes
E. *granular endoplasmic reticulum
Chromatophilic substance in nerve cells is disposed:
A. in perikaryon
B. in processes
C. in axons
D. in dendrites
E. *in perikaryon and dendrites
Neurofibrilles in nerve cells are disposed:
A. in axons and perikaryon
B. in dendrites and perikaryon
C. in perikaryon
D. in axons
E. *in perikaryon and processes
Ultrastructural difference of axon and dendrite:
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Cell membrane
E. *Presence of chromatophilic substance
Which general organell is absent in nerve cell?
A. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
B. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosome
D. Golgy body
E. *Cell center
Most numerous type of nerve cells in human body:
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Pseudounipolar
D. Trepolar
E. *Multipolar
856.
Most typical shape of nerve cells in human body:
A. Oval
B. Triangular
C. Round
D. Rectangular
E. *Irregular with processes
857.
Special organelles of nerve cell:
A. Tonofibrilles
B. Myofibrilles
C. Cilia
D. Flagella
E. *Neurofibrils
858.
Special structure of nerve cell:
A. Tonofibrils
B. Myofibrils
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosomes
E. Nissle substance
859.
Which structure of neuron conducts the impulse?
A. Nissle’s bodies
B. Golgy body
C. Mitochondria
D. Neurofibrilles
E. *Plasmalemma
860.
Which organelles promote some matters transport in processes of nerve
cells?
A. neurolemma
B. Golgi body
C. tonofibrils
D. microvesicles
E. *neurofibrils and neurotubuli
861.
Which nerve cell contains secretory granules?
A. bipolar
B. multipolar
C. pseudounipolar
D. efferent
E. *neurosecretory
862.
Types of astrocytes:
A. large and small
B. stellate and fusiform
C. active and passive
D. central and peripheral
E. *fibrous and protoplasmic
863.
Protoplasmic astrocytes are mainly disposed in:
A. white matter of brain and spinal cord
B. nerve endings
C. nerve fibers
864.
865.
866.
867.
868.
869.
870.
871.
D. nerve ganglia
E. *grey matter of brain and spinal cord
Fibrous astrocytes are mainly disposed in:
A. grey matter of brain and spinal cord
B. nerve endings
C. nerve fibers
D. nerve ganglia
E. *white matter of brain and spinal cord
Ependymal cells are disposed in:
A. nerve endings
B. nerve fibers
C. nerve ganglia
D. white matter of brain and spinal cord
E. *brain ventricles and spinal channel
Mantial cells are disposed in:
A. grey matter of brain and spinal cord
B. white matter of brain and spinal cord
C. nerve endings
D. nerve fibers
E. *dorsal root ganglia
Ependymal cell belongs to:
A. Glial macrophages
B. Multipolar nerve cells
C. Unipolar nerve cells
D. Bipolar nerve cells
E. *Macroglial cells
Protoplasmic astrocytes belong to:
A. Glial macrophages
B. Multipolar nerve cells
C. Unipolar nerve cells
D. Bipolar nerve cells
E. *Macroglial cells
Fibrous astrocytes belong to:
A. Glial macrophages
B. Multipolar nerve cells
C. Unipolar nerve cells
D. Bipolar nerve cells
E. *Macroglial cells
Schwann cell belongs to:
A. Multipolar nerve cells
B. Unipolar nerve cells
C. Bipolar nerve cells
D. Glial macrophages
E. *Oligodedrocytes
Schwann cells are disposed in:
A. brain ventricles and spinal channel
B. white matter of brain and spinal cord
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
878.
879.
C. nerve endings
D. nerve ganglia
E. *nerve fibers
Mantial satellite cells are disposed in:
A. brain ventricles and spinal channel
B. white matter of brain and spinal cord
C. nerve endings
D. nerve fibers
E. *dorsal root ganglia
Mantial cells belong to:
A. Multipolar nerve cells
B. Unipolar nerve cells
C. Bipolar nerve cells
D. Macroglial cells
E. *Oligodendrocytes
Microglial cells belong to:
A. Macroglial cells
B. Multipolar nerve cells
C. Unipolar nerve cells
D. Bipolar nerve cells
E. *Glial macrophages
Nerve cells are interconnecting by:
A. Interdigital junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Nexuses
D. Intercalated discs
E. *Synapses
Type of nerve tissue physiologic regeneration:
A. By nerve cell division
B. By glial cell division
C. By connective tissue
D. By macroglial cells
E. *Intracellular
Nerve fiber mainly consists of:
A. Multipolar nerve cells
B. Nerve cell process and glial macrophages
C. Nerve cell process and astrocytes
D. Astrocytes and glial macrophages
E. *Nerve cell process and Schwann cells
Axis of nerve fiber consists of:
A. nerve cell perikaryon
B. neurofibrilles
C. Schwann cells
D. microglial cells
E. *axon or dendrite
Histological types of nerve fibers:
A. Branched and nonbranched
B.
C.
D.
E.
880.
881.
882.
883.
884.
885.
886.
887.
Long and short
Bipolar and multipolar
Unipolar and multipolar
Myelinated and nonmyelinated
Speed of nerve impulse in unmyelinated fiber:
A. 5-120 m/sec
B. 5-10 m/sec
C. 10-20 m/sec
D. 20-200 m/sec
E. *1-2 m/sec
Speed of nerve impulse in myelinated fiber:
A. 1-5 m/sec
B. 5-10 m/sec
C. 10-20 m/sec
D. 20-200 m/sec
E. *5-120 m/sec
Myelin of nerve fibers mainly consists of:
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. salts
D. water
E. *lipids
Myelin of nerve fibers is produced by:
A. nerve cells
B. glial macrophages
C. astrocytes
D. ependymal cells
E. *Schwann cells
Myelin structure:
A. basement membrane of nerve fiber
B. glial macrophages
C. extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell
D. bare areas of axon between myelin sheaths
E. *spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon
Node of Ranvier means:
A. basement membrane of nerve fiber
B. glial macrophages
C. spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon
D. extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell
E. *bare areas of axon devoid of myelin
Node of Ranvier function:
A. protective
B. isolative
C. trophic
D. source of regeneration
E. *promotes rapid conduction of impulse
Nerve fiber consists of few axial fibers in one neurolemmocyte. Type of
it.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
collagen
myelinated
component
simple
*nonmyelinated
888.
Place of two lemmocytes junction in nerve fiber:
A. Schmidt-Lantermann incisure.
B. Mesaxon folds
C. Myelin sheath
D. Deep fold of neurolemma
E. *Ranvier node
889.
What does axial fiber of nerve fiber consist of?
A. Schwann cell
B. Mesaxon
C. Perineurium
D. Axolemma
E. *Nerve cell process
890.
General types of nerve endings:
A. simple and component
B. excitatory and inhibiting
C. isolative and protective
D. myelinated and unmyelinated
E. *sensory, motor and synapses
891.
Axial fiber of nerve fiber has corpuscles of rough endoplasmic
reticulum. What is this process?
A. axon
B. long
C. short
D. coiled
E. *dendrite
892.
Principle component of sensory ending:
A. axon
B. synaptic cleft
C. glial sheath
D. capsule
E. *dendrite
893.
Principle component of motor ending:
A. dendrite
B. synaptic cleft
C. glial sheath
D. capsule
E. *axon
894.
Nerve synapse consists of:
A. presynaptic pole and postsynaptic pole
B. postsynaptic pole and synaptic cleft
C. presynaptic pole and synaptic cleft
895.
896.
897.
898.
899.
900.
901.
902.
D. synaptic cleft
E. *presynaptic pole, synaptic cleft and postsynaptic pole
Functional types of nerve synapses:
A. Active and inactive
B. Presynaptic and postsynaptic
C. Simple and compound
D. Alkaline and acidic
E. *Excitatory and inhibiting
Typical feature of presynaptic pole of synapse:
A. Mitochondria
B. Receptors
C. Vesicles
D. Ca
E. *Presence of transmitter
Typical feature of postsynaptic pole of synapse:
A. Transmitter
B. Mitochondria
C. Vesicles
D. Ca
E. *Presence of receptors
Simple (free) sensory ending consists of:
A. axon
B. dendrite and glial sheath
C. axon and glial sheath
D. dendrite, glial sheath and capsule
E. *dendrite
Nonfree sensory ending consists of:
A. axon
B. dendrite
C. axon and glial sheath
D. dendrite, glial sheath and capsule
E. *dendrite and glial sheath
Encapsulated sensory ending consists of:
A. axon
B. dendrite
C. dendrite and glial sheath
D. axon and glial sheath
E. *dendrite, glial sheath and capsule
Capsule of sensory ending consists of:
A. glial sheath
B. epithelial tissue
C. dendrites
D. axon
E. *connective tissue
Pacinian corpuscle belongs to:
A. free sensory endings
B. dendrites
903.
904.
905.
906.
907.
908.
909.
910.
C. motor endings
D. secretory endings
E. *encapsulated sensory endings
Meissner’s corpuscle belongs to:
A. free sensory endings
B. dendrites
C. motor endings
D. secretory endings
E. *encapsulated sensory endings
Bulb of Krause belongs to:
A. free sensory endings
B. dendrites
C. motor endings
D. secretory endings
E. *encapsulated sensory endings
Pacinian corpuscle detects:
A. touch
B. pain
C. temperature
D. taste
E. *pressure
Meissner’s corpuscle detects:
A. pain
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. taste
E. *touch
Bulb of Krause detects:
A. touch
B. pain
C. pressure
D. taste
E. *temperature
Free nerve ending detects:
A. touch
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. taste
E. *pain
Effector nerve endings include:
A. receptors of pain
B. temperature receptors
C. receptors of pressure
D. taste receptors
E. *motor and secretory endings
Motor nerve ending mainly consists of:
A. dendrite and capsule
B.
C.
D.
E.
911.
912.
913.
914.
915.
916.
917.
dendrite and glial sheath
axon and glial sheath
dendrite, glial sheath and capsule
*axon
Motor nerve ending usually is connected with:
A. glands
B. skin
C. connective tissue
D. inner organs
E. *muscular tissue
Types of nerve cells due to their location in reflex arc
A. efferent, afferent, associative
B. efferent, associative, afferent
C. associative, afferent, efferent
D. associative, efferent, afferent
E. *afferent, associative, efferent
Encapsulated nerve ending of skin is of 2 mm in size. Name it.
A. Mercel’s corpuscle
B. Bulb of Krause
C. Meisner’s corpuscle
D. Ruffini corpuscle
E. *Pacinian corpuscle.
Which nerve ending detects cold:
A. Meisner’s corpuscle
B. Pacinian corpuscle
C. Ruffini corpuscle
D. Mercel’s corpuscle
E. *Bulb of Krause
Which nerve ending detects delicate touch?
A. Bulb of Krause
B. Pacinian corpuscle
C. Ruffini corpuscle
D. Mercel’s corpuscle
E. *Meisner’s corpuscle
Mesaxon of nerve fiber means:
A. Basement membrane of nerve fiber
B. Glial macrophages
C. Spiral of membrane wrapped around an axon
D. Bare areas of axon between myelin sheaths
E. *Extension of cell membrane of myelin-forming cell
Schmidt-Lantermann incisures are located:
A. In unmyelinated nerve fiber
B. In nerve ganglion
C. In nerve ending
D. In nerve cell
E. *In myelinated nerve fibers
Real-life situation tasks
1. A chemical factor acted on the cytolemma of the cell. As a result the cell changed
its shape. What layer of cytolemma is responsible for this?
A. Glycocalyx
B. Trilaminar
C. Hydrophilic
D. Hydrophobic
E. *Cortical
2. Cells that are lining digestive tube have microvilli. Some diseases may destroy
them. What function of sells will be violated most of all?
A. Excretion
B. Receptor
C. Demarcation
D. Division
E. *Endocytosis
3. . In an electronic microscope you can see numerous invaginations of the cell's
cytolemma and dense structures in the cytoplasm. What process is it?
A. Excretion
B. Pinocytosis
C. Intermembranous digestion
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Phagocytosis
4. In a histological specimen you can see the nuclei which are stained with
haematoxyline (violet coloured). What property of the nuclei does it depend on?
A. Oxyphilia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Metachromasy
D. Osmiophilia
E. *Basofily
5. In a histological specimen you can see the cytoplasm which is stained with eosine
(pink coloured). What property of the cytoplasm does it depend on?
A. Eosinophilia
B. Metachromasy
C. Osmiophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Oxyphilia
6. In an electrone micrograph you can see invaginations of the cytolemma and dense
structures in the cytoplasm. What process is it?
A. Exocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Cytopempsis
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Phagocytosis
7. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains basofilic leucocytes
with violet granules. What property of granules is it?
A. Oxyphilia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Metachromasy
D. Osmiophilia
E. *Neutrophilia
8. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains eosinofilic leucocytes
with pink granules. What property of granules is it?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Metachromasy
C. Osmiophilia
D. Basofily
E. *Oxyphilia
9. The smear of blood, stained with azur and eosine, contains neutrophilic
leucocytes with pink and violet granules. What property of granules such staiment
provides?
A. Oxyphilia
B. Basophilia
C. Sudanophilia
D. Polychromatophilia
E. *Neutrophilia
10. Exocrine pancreatocytes, stained with haematoxyline and eosine, contain pink
granules. What property of granules such staiment provides?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Metachromasy
C. Osmiophilia
D. Basophilia
E. *Oxyphilia
11. In exocrine pankreatocytes, stained with haematoxyline and eosine, a
homogeneous area is stained in a violet color. What property of this structure such
staiment provides?
A. Oxyphilia
B. Sudanophilia
C. Metachromasia
D. Osmiophylia
E. *Basophilia
12. Harmful ecological factors resulted in the fast falling of endocytosis and
exocytosis in the cells of liver and blood. What layer of cytolemma is destroying
first of all?
A. Lipoproteins
B. Outer membrane
C. Bilipid layer
D. Glycocalyx
E. *Cortical layer
13. A histological structure is seen in the specimen. It is limited by a cell membrane
and contains a lot of cytoplasm and numerous nuclei. What is this?
A. Cell
B. Group of the cells
C. Intercellular substance
D. Amorphous component
E. *Symplast
14. A histological structure is seen in the specimen. It consists of cells which are
connected by cytoplasmic bridges. What is this?
A. Group of the cells
B. Symplast
C. Intercellular substance
D. Amorphous component
E. *Syncytium
15. What is the minimal distance between two points in histological specimen, which
is distinguishable in a light microscope like two separate points which are not
fused?
A. Ultramicroscopic unit
B. Morphometric unit
C. Artefact
D. Angstrom unit
E. *Microscope's resolution
16. Cells in heart specimen are connected by intercellular junction. What type of
junction promotes exchanges of small molecules between neighboring cells?
A. Desmosome
B. Hemidesmosome
C. Synaps
D. Adhezive junction
E. *Nexus
17. Artificial formation appeared in the histological specimen during its preparation.
It may cause wrong results of research. What is the name of this structure?
A. Antibody
B. Angstrom unit
C. Fold
D. Nexus
E. *Artefact
18. In an electronic microscope you can see the numerous small outgrowthes of cell
cytolemma and light vesicles in the cytoplasm. What process is it typical for?
A. Excretion
B. Phagocytosis
C. Intermembranous digestion
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Pinocytosis
19. The specific proteins or polysaccharides are located on the outer surface of
plasmalemma of the cell. What is their typical function?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Excretion
D. Clasmatosis
E. *Receptor
20. In histological specimen the vesicles of air and particles of dye are seen, which
are not typical for this specimen. What is it?
A. Angstrom unit
B. Exocytosis
C. Clasmatosis
D. Invasion
E. *Artefact
21.As a result of ionizing radiation influence on organism cells structural components
are destroying . Which cell organell will utilize these remnants?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mitochondria
Golgi complex
Cytoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
*Lysosomes
22. During the forensic research of blood one segment of neutrophilic granulocytes
nuclei is like a drumstick. What is it?
A. Body of Layon
B. Uncondensed chromatine
C. Euchromatine
D. Body of Paccini
E. *Body of Barr
23. Labeled amino acids alanin and tryptophane were injected to mise for indication
of albumen biosyntesis in the cells localization. What organell will accumulate
marked amino acid?
A. Mitochondria
B. Cell center
C. Lysosomes
D. Smooth endoplasmatic reticulum
E. *Ribosomes
24. You know that Golgi complex displays different substances from the cell after
fusion of cell membrane and cyst of Golgi apparatus. What is the name of this
process?
A. Endocytosis
B. No correct answer
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. *Exocytosis
25. A doctor did the byopsy of liver of 42-years old man. During the research of this
tissue evident basophilia of cytoplasm was found. What does it mean?
A. Deposition of lipids
B. Active transport of substances
C. Active breaking up of substances
D. Process of mitotical division
E. *Active synthesis of albumens (proteins)
26. In the electrone micrograph in cell cytoplasm you can see nonmembranous
organelles that consist of two subunits. What is the name of this organoids?
A. Golgi complex
B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasmic reticulum
E. *Ribosomes
27. In the electrone micrograph in cell cytoplasm you can see nonmembranous
organelles that look like thin thread. What is the name of this organoids?
A. Golgi complex
B. Lysosomes
C. Proteasomes
D. Ribosomes
E. *Microfilaments
28. The epithelium of patient airways lost ability to move mucus to the surface.
Disfunction of which organelles of epitheliocytes of bronchial tubes is it due to?
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi complex
D. Lysosomes
E. *Cilia
29. The nucleolus of the cell was affacted by radiation. Renewal of which organelles
will be violated in such case?
A. Lysosomes
B. Cytoplasmic reticulum
C. Microtubes
D. Golgi complex
E. *Ribosomes
30. The main morphological manifestation of mushrooms poison impact on liver is
destruction of lysosomes membranes of hepatocytes. What may happen to cells at
destruction of membranes of majority of lysosomes?
A. Stop of albumines synthesis
B. Stop of secretory products synthesis
C. Active atomic oxygen utilization will be violated
D. Piling up of energy will be violated
E. *Autolisis of the cell will result in death
31. In an experiment the synthesis of gistone albumens is artificially blocked in the
cell. What structure of the cell will be damaged most of all?
A. Nuclear matrix
B. Golgi complex
C. Cell membrane
D. Nuclear envelope
E. *Nuclear chromatine
32. In electon microscopic research of the cell a lot of doublemembranous organelles
with cristae were found in a cytoplasm . What are they?
A. Golgi complex
B. Lysosomes
C. Cytoplasmatic reticulum
D. Proteasomes
E. *Mitochondria
33. In electon microscopic research of the cell a lot of doublemembranous organelles
with cristae were found in a cytoplasm. What is the function of these organelles?
A. Deposition of secrets, lysosomes production
B. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport
C. Destruction of peroxides
D. Intracellular digestion
E. *Energy production and accumulation in ATP
34. In electon microscopic research of the cell near a nucleus complex of flat closely
packed cysternae is found. What is the function of these organelle?
A. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport
B. Destruction of peroxides
C. Intracellular digestion
D. Energy production and accumulation in ATP
E. *Deposition and package of secrets, lysosomes production
35. In electon microscopic research of the cell complex of flat closely packed
cysternae, vacuoles and vesicles is found near a nucleus. What is this organell?
A. Lysosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytoplasmatic reticulum
D. Proteasome
E. *Golgi complex
36. In the area of burn wound of patient there are plenty of cells which contain
primary and secondary lysosomes. What is the function of these organelles?
A. Synthesis of proteins and intracellular transport
B. Destruction of peroxides
C. Energy production and accumulation in ATP
D. Deposition and package of secrets, lysosomes production
E. *Intracellular digestion
37.The temperature of body of a patient rises to 38 per Celsium. Which cell organell
is responsible for this?
A. Cytoplasmatic reticulum
B. Lysosomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Peroxisomes
E. *Mitochondria
38.. Researcher made a smear of oral cavity mucosa and stained it with methylene
blue. Hemispherical corpuscles of heterochromatine were found near the internal
membrane of epitheliocytes nucleiwe. What are these structures?
A. Spots of Fordeys
B. Body of Bish
C. Y-chromosome
D. Ribosomes
E. *Sex chromatine
39. In the culture of tissue a nuclear irradiation had damaged the nucleoli of nucleus.
Which organelles will regenerate with problem?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Microtubule
C. Golgi complex
D. Lysosome
E. *Ribosome
40. One segment of neutrophil’s nucleus in the peripheral blood looks like a
drumstick. What is the name of this structure?
A. Lyon’s body
B. Decondensed chromatin
C. Euchromatin
D. Paccinian corpuscle
E. *Barr's body
41.During forensic research of the blood smear in some neutrophils chromatin was
seen on the surface of one segment of the nucleus that looks like a drumstick.
What is the name if this structural formation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lyon’s body
Dispersed chromatin
Euchromatin
Paccinian body
*Sex chromatin (Barr’s body)
42.During morphological research of cell mitotic chromosomes the secondary
constriction was revealed. It separates the end area of the chromosome shoulder.
What is the name of this part of the chromosome?
A. Nuclear matrix protein
B. Microtubule of mitotic spindle
C. Kinetochore
D. Primary constriction of chromosome
E. *Chromosome's satellite
43.During the morphological research of cell mitotic chromosomes it was revealed
that chromosome's centromere divides it into two similar shoulders. What is the
name of this chromosome?
A. Akrocentric
B. Submetacentric
C. Noncentric
D. Polycentric
E. *Metacentric
44.During the morphological research of the cell's mitotic chromosomes it was
revealed that chromosome centromere divides it into the two different shoulders.
One shoulder is shorter, and another is longer. What is the name of this
chromosome?
A. Akrocentric
B. Noncentric
C. Metacentric
D. Polycentric
E. *Submetacentric
45.During the morphological research of cells, chromosomes are found at the stage of
prophase of the mitotic division. Arround which proteins DNA molecule locates
for the formation of chromosomes?
A. Integrins
B. Cadherins
C. Albumins
D. Globulins
E. *Histones
46.During the morphological research of the epithelial cells of the oral cavity the
rounded bodies appear on the inner surface of some nuclei. It means that cells was
taken from the woman's mouth. How this formation of chromatin usually is
called?
A. Decondenced chromatin
B. Herring’s body
C. Euchromatin
D. Paccinian body
E. *Barr’s body
47. Somatic cells morphological research is necessary for identification of human
karyotype. What are the structures that can give us the information about the sex
of a person?
A. Heterochromatin
B. Decondensed chromatin
C. Euchromatin
D. Peripheral chromatin
E. *Barr’s body
48. Histoproteins synthesis in cells was artificially blocked in the experiment. What
cell structure is mainly damaged?
A. Nuclear matrix
B. Golgi complex
C. Cell membrane
D. Nuclear envelope
E. *Nuclear chromatin
49.The cell in the electron micrograph containes the nucleus with barely visible
nucleolus. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph?
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
E. *Interphase
50.The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in
the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are freely placed in cytoplasm, centrioles
migrate to the poles. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph?
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase
E. *Prophase
51. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in
the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are located at the center of the cell,
forming the metaphase plate, centrioles locate at the opposite poles and forme the
spindle of division. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the micrograph?
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase
E. *Metaphase
52. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in
the electron micrograph. Chromosomes move to the opposite poles. What phase of
the cell cycle is seen in the cell?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase
E. *Anaphase
53. The cell which has no distinct nuclear membrane and visible nucleolus is seen in
the electron micrograph. Chromosomes are placed at the opposite poles. The
cytokinesis process is seen in the cell. What phase of the cell cycle is seen in the
cell?
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Interphase
E. *Telophase
54. The method of the differential staining of the mitotic chromosomes allowes to
study their morphology and size, and divides them into the groups. How many
groups of the chromosomes do you know?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
E. *7
55. The nucleoli were damaged in tissue culture with a nuclear radiation. What
organelles formation in the cytoplasm of the cells becomes problematic?
A. Lysosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Microtubules
D. Golgi complex
E. *Ribosomes
56. The picture of nodule of the most tightly coiled chromosomes is seen in the cell.
What stage of cell division is interrupted at this time:
A. Metaphase
B. Early telophase
C. Interphase
D. Late telophase
E. *Prophaze
57. The smear was made from the mucosa of the cheek and it was stained with
methylene blue. At the inner membrane of epithelial cells nuclei heterochromatin
is seen as hemispherical corpuscle in microscope. What is this structure?
A. Fordeys spots
B. Bish lipid body
C. Y-chromosome
D. Ribosomes
E. *Sex chromatin
58. Cell nucleus was infiltrated with a fluid which damages the histones-proteins.
What structure of the nucleolus will be damaged first of all?
A. Nuclear matrix
B. Nuclear envelope
C. DNA
D. RNA
E. *Chromatin
59. Cell nucleus was infiltrated with a fluid which damages the nonhistones-proteins
in it. What structure of the nocleolus will be damaged first of all?
A. Nuclear pores
B. Chromatin
C. DNA
D. RNA
E. *Nuclear matrix
60. 67 year old woman has a tumour of the uterus. During histological research of
specimen a multipolar mitosis was found in the tumor cells - picture with the few
poles. Which oragannelle disorder caused the multipolar mitosis?
A. Secondary lysosomes
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Peroxisomes
E. *Centrioles
61. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological research of
spermatozoa smear. What may it cause?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Increase of motility
Spermatozoa dying
Loss of flagellae
Genetical disorders
*Violation of purposeful movement
62. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules of
oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process?
A. Capacitation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Oocyte completes meiosis
E. *Cortical reaction
63. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward
oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement?
A. Thermotaxis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Capacitation
D. Acrosomal reaction
E. *Rheotaxis
64. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space. Its
wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What is
the name of embryo at this stage?
A. Morula
B. Zygote
C. Gastrula
D. Embryonic disc
E. *Blastocyst
65. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is typical
for human embryogenesis?
A. Morula.
B. Celoblastula
C. Discoblastula
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Blastocyst
66. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain
characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this
process.
A. Capacitation
B. Reception
C. Determination
D. Adhesion
E. *Differentiation
67. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have
different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte?
A. Polilecital
B. Moderate telolecital
C. Prominent telolecital
D. Alecital
E. *Oligolecital, secondary isolecital
68.In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to
endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis?
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Gastrula
D. Neurula
E. *“Free blastocyst”
69.In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround oocyte
and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process?
A. Penetration
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis
E. *Denudation
70. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization
suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it
result in?
A. Embryo dying
B. Invagination of blastocyst wall
C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule
D. Appearance of two blastocysts
E. *Implantation in uterine tube
71. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at the
top of heads. What are these structures?
A. Centrioles
B. Mitochondria
C. Glycocalix
D. Cortical layer
E. *Acrosomes
72. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is main result of this process?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Zygote formation
73. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization?
A. Abdominal cavity
B. At the surface of ovary
C. In uterus
D. In isthmic part of uterus
E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube
74. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is
usual localization of such embryo in normal condition?
A. Uterine wall
B. Space of uterus
C. Abdominal cavity
D. Ovary
E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion
75. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. What is the name of this embryo?
A. Celoblastula
B. Periblastula
C. Blastocyst
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Morula
76.Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica?
A. Corona radiata
B. Zona pellucida
C. Plasmalemma
D. Oolemma
E. *Tunica of fertilization
77. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why? What
is it due to?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization
78. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages. What
is morphological evidence of first stage?
A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue
B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes
C. Increase of uterine gland secretion
D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion
E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface
79. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic
specimen. What is the name of this process?
A. Denudation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis с
E. *Penetration
80. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move faster.
What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Denudation
C. Penetration
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Capacitation
81. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological research of
spermatozoa smear. What may it cause?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Increase of motility
Spermatozoa dying
Loss of flagellae
Genetical disorders
*Violation of purposeful movement
82. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules of
oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process?
A. Capacitation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Oocyte completes meiosis
E. *Cortical reaction
83. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward
oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement?
A. Thermotaxis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Capacitation
D. Acrosomal reaction
E. *Rheotaxis
84. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space. Its
wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What is
the name of embryo at this stage?
A. Morula
B. Zygote
C. Gastrula
D. Embryonic disc
E. *Blastocyst
85. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is typical
for human embryogenesis?
A. Morula.
B. Celoblastula
C. Discoblastula
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Blastocyst
86. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain
characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this
process.
A. Capacitation
B. Reception
C. Determination
D. Adhesion
E. *Differentiation
87. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have
different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte?
A. Polilecital
B. Moderate telolecital
C. Prominent telolecital
D. Alecital
E. Oligolecital, secondary isolecital
88.In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to
endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis?
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Gastrula
D. Neurula
E. *“Free blastocyst”
89.In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround oocyte
and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process?
A. Penetration
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis
E. *Denudation
90. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization
suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it
result in?
A. Embryo dying
B. Invagination of blastocyst wall
C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule
D. Appearance of two blastocysts
E. *Implantation in uterine tube
91. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at the
top of heads. What are these structures?
A. Centrioles
B. Mitochondria
C. Glycocalix
D. Cortical layer
E. *Acrosomes
92. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is main result of this process?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Zygote formation
93. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization?
A. Abdominal cavity
B. At the surface of ovary
C. In uterus
D. In isthmic part of uterus
E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube
94. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is
usual localization of such embryo in normal condition?
A. Uterine wall
B. Space of uterus
C. Abdominal cavity
D. Ovary
E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion
95. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. What is the name of this embryo?
A. Celoblastula
B. Periblastula
C. Blastocyst
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Morula
96.Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica?
A. Corona radiata
B. Zona pellucida
C. Plasmalemma
D. Oolemma
E. *Tunica of fertilization
97. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why? What
is it due to?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization
98. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages. What
is morphological evidence of first stage?
A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue
B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes
C. Increase of uterine gland secretion
D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion
E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface
99. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic
specimen. What is the name of this process?
A. Denudation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis с
E. *Penetration
100. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move
faster. What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Denudation
C. Penetration
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Capacitation
101. A lot of spermatozoa with spherical head were revealed in histological
research of spermatozoa smear. What may it cause?
A. Increase of motility
B. Spermatozoa dying
C. Loss of flagellae
D. Genetical disorders
E. *Violation of purposeful movement
102. After spermatozoon head introduction into oocyte content of cortical granules
of oocyte is released outside. What is the name of this process?
A. Capacitation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Oocyte completes meiosis
E. *Cortical reaction
103. At distant stage of fertilization spermatozoa move against fluid flow toward
oocyte. What is the name of this addressed movement?
A. Thermotaxis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Capacitation
D. Acrosomal reaction
E. *Rheotaxis
104. At some stage of embryogenesis human embryo looks like vesicle with space.
Its wall consists of light small blastomeres and larger dark ones at one pole. What
is the name of embryo at this stage?
A. Morula
B. Zygote
C. Gastrula
D. Embryonic disc
E. *Blastocyst
105. Cleavage of zygote result in blastula formation. Which type of blastula is
typical for human embryogenesis?
A. Morula.
B. Celoblastula
C. Discoblastula
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Blastocyst
106. Due to expression of cell genome components embryonic cells obtain
characteristic morphological, biochemical and fuctional peculiarities. Name this
process.
A. Capacitation
B. Reception
C. Determination
D. Adhesion
E. *Differentiation
107. Histological specimens are stained with hematoxylin and eosin. They have
different oocytes. Which one is human oocyte?
A. Polilecital
B. Moderate telolecital
C. Prominent telolecital
D. Alecital
E. *Oligolecital, secondary isolecital
108. In endoscopy of uterine space embryo was revealed. It was not attached to
endometrium. What is this stage of embryogenesis?
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Gastrula
D. Neurula
E. *“Free blastocyst”
109. In experiment in vivo it is fixed a moment in which spermatozoa surround
oocyte and corona radiate disappears. What is the name of this process?
A. Penetration
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis
E. *Denudation
110. In first crucial period of embryogenesis (5th -6th day) tunic of fertilization
suddenly disappear. Embryo at this time was placed in uterine tube. What may it
result in?
A. Embryo dying
B. Invagination of blastocyst wall
C. Blastocyst return to uterine tube ampule
D. Appearance of two blastocysts
E. *Implantation in uterine tube
111. In histological research of spermatozoa smear dense structures are revealed at
the top of heads. What are these structures?
A. Centrioles
B. Mitochondria
C. Glycocalix
D. Cortical layer
E. *Acrosomes
112. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is main result of this process?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Zygote formation
113. In histological specimen it is seen oocyte at moment of fertilization by
spermatozoon. What is usual place of fertilization?
A. Abdominal cavity
B. At the surface of ovary
C. In uterus
D. In isthmic part of uterus
E. *Ampullar portion of uterine tube
114. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of two cells was found in histological research of these organs. What is
usual localization of such embryo in normal condition?
A. Uterine wall
B. Space of uterus
C. Abdominal cavity
D. Ovary
E. *Uterine tube near ampullar portion
115. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. What is the name of this embryo?
A. Celoblastula
B. Periblastula
C. Blastocyst
D. Amphyblastula
E. *Morula
116. Inner sex organs of woman were excised in surgical operation. Embryo which
consists of 16 tightly packed blastomeres was found in histological research of
these organs. It is cowered with special tunica. What is the name of this tunica?
A. Corona radiata
B. Zona pellucida
C. Plasmalemma
D. Oolemma
E. *Tunica of fertilization
117. Multiple penetrations of spermatozoa into one oocyte are impossible. Why?
What is it due to?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Oocyte completes meiosis
C. Spermatozoon penetration of oolemma
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Appearance of tunic of fertilization
118. Process of embryo implantation into uterine mucosa consists of two stages.
What is morphological evidence of first stage?
A. Destruction of endometrial connective tissue
B. Destruction of endometrial epitheliocytes
C. Increase of uterine gland secretion
D. Decrease of uterine gland secretion
E. *Blastocyst attachment to endometrium surface
119. Process of spermatozoon head penetration into oocyte is seen in histologic
specimen. What is the name of this process?
A. Denudation
B. Acrosomal reaction
C. Cortical reaction
D. Chemotaxis с
E. *Penetration
120. When spermatozoa are placed in vagina after ovulation they begin to move
faster. What is the name of this process (special activation of spermatozoa)?
A. Acrosomal reaction
B. Denudation
C. Penetration
D. Cortical reaction
E. *Capacitation
121. 53 years old patient was diagnosed with malignant epithelial tumor of
pericardium. Epithelium of which type does it originate from?
A. Pseudostratified ciliated
B. Transitional
C. Stratified squamous keratinized
D. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
E. *Simple squamous
122. 60 years old patient is treated on chronicle gastritis. Prominent changes of
gastric mucosa were revealed in endoscopy. Which type of epithelium is involved
in process?
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Stratified squamous keratinized
C. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
D. Simple squamous
E. *Simple columnar glandular
123. 66 years old patient was diagnosed with malignant epithelial tumor which
originate from medium sized bronchus. Which type of epithelium is involved in
process?
A. Simple squamous
B. Stratified transitional
C. Stratified squamous keratinized
D. Simple transitional
E. *Pseudostratified ciliated
124. After long term inflammation of nasal cavity mucosa epithelial cells of patient
are changed. Which type of epithelium is involved in process?
A. Stratified squamous
B. Simple squamous
C. Stratified cuboidal
D. Stratified columnar
E. *Pseudostratified
125. Chromosomes of ectoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine. Epithelium of
which organs will contain this label?
A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. In liver
D. Uterus
E. *Skin
126. Chromosomes of endoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine. Epithelium
of which organs will contain this label?
A. Kidneys
B. Vessels
C. Skin
D. Uterus
E. *Intestine
127. Chromosomes of ventral mesoderm cells are labeled with Н3-thymidine.
Epithelium of which type will contain this label?
A. Simple brushed
B. Pseudostratified ciliated
C. Stratified keratinized
D. Stratified nonkeratinized
E. *Mesothelium
128. Chronicle rhinitis is accompanied with damage of mucosal epithelium of nasal
cavity respiratory portion. Epithelium of which type is damaged in such case?
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
C. Stratified squamous keratinized
D. Simple squamous
E. *Pseudostratified ciliated
129. Cylindrical secretory cells are seen in histological specimen of gland. Their
apical portions have secretory granules and protrude into the lumen, some of them
are damaged. What is this mode of secretion?
A. Merocrine
B. Microapocrine
C. Holocrine
D. Meroholocrine
E. *Macroapocrine
130. Epithelium of respiratory system conducting portion has ciliated, Goblet, basal
and endocrine cells. All of them rest on the basement membrane. What is the type
of this epithelium?
A. Stratified columnar
B. Stratified squamous
C. Simple columnar
D. Simple squamous
E. *Simple pseudostratified ciliated
131. In electron micrograph secretory cells have different organelles, well
developed Golgi apparatus among them with numerous vacuoles and small
vesicles. Cell membrane is not damaged. What is this mode of secretion?
A. Macroapocrine
B. Microapocrine
C. Holocrine
D. Cryptocrine
E. *Merocrine
132. In electron micrograph secretory cells have microvilli with secretory granules
inside. Some microvilli are damaged. What is this mode of secretion?
A. Merocrine
B. Macroapocrine
C. Holocrine
D. Meroholocrine
E. *Microapocrine
133. Layers of epidermis are damaged at a shot distance. How does regeneration
will occur?
A. By blood stem cells
B. By basement membrane
C. By cells of connective tissue
D. Epidermis will not regenerate
E. *By cells of hair follicles and cells of skin glands ducts
134. Patient has dry pleurisy. Pleural murmur is auscultated. Which type of
epithelium is involved in process?
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Simple columnar
C. Transitional
D. Stratified
E. *Simple squamous
135. Patient has mycosis. Skin is hyperemic, superficial cells are splitting from the
surface. Boundaries of affected areas are well distinct, painless. Which type of
epithelium is involved in process?
A. Transitional
B. Stratified cuboidal
C. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
D. Stratified columnar ciliated
E. *Stratified squamous keratinized
136. Protein producing cells are seen in specimen of exocrine gland. How could
you explain basophilic coloring of cytoplasm?
A. Some DNA go out in cytoplasm through nuclear pores
B. Increase of acidic proteins
C. Increase of biologic membranes permeability
D. This is artefact
E. *Cytoplasm contains a lot of RNA
137. Stratum corneum, lucidum and granulosum of epidermis are dissected at
surgical treatment of wound. Which type of regeneration will occur?
A. Physiological regeneration
B. Pathological regeneration
C. Regeneration will not happen
D. Malignent transformation will occur
E. *Reparative regeneration
138. Stratum corneum, lucidum and granulosum of epidermis are damaged. How
does regeneration will occur?
A. By cells of stratum spinosum
B. By cells of skin glands
C. By cells of connective tissue
D. Epidermis will not regenerate
E. *By basal cells and cells of stratum spinosum
139. Tumor was revealed in rectoromanoscopy of some patient. It arises from
mucosa of anal portion of rectum. Which epithelium does it originate from?
A. Simple columnar glandular
B. Simple columnar brushed
C. Simple cuboidal
D. Transitional
E. *Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
140. Wall of urinary bladder is lined with epithelium whose cells may change their
shape due to the functional condition of bladder. What is the type of this
epithelium?
A. Simple columnar glandular
B. Simple columnar brushed
C. Simple cuboidal
D. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
E. *Transitional
141. Blood of 26 year old man contains 18% of red blood cells of spherical,
flattened spherical shape and with spines. Other red blood cells are biconcaved .
What is the name of this blood picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Erythrocytosis
Abnormal anizocytosis
Physiological anizocytosis
Abnormal poykilocytosis
*Physiological poykilocytosis
142. 12.5% of erythrocytes of the patient blood have a diameter over 8mkm, 12.5%less than 6 mkm, the other red blood cells have a diameter of 7.1-7.9 microns.
What is the name of this blood picture?
A. Abnormal anizotsytosis
B. Physiological poykilotsytosis
C. Abnormal poykilotsytosis
D. Erythrocytosis
E. *Physiological anizotsytosis
143. Man lived long time in high mountains. What changes in the blood system will
appear ?
A. Increase of leukocytes number
B. Reduction of leukocytes number
C. Increase of blood vessels diameter
D. The deceleration pulse
E. *Hemoglobin increase
144. In adult blood smear next cellular components were revealed: red blood cells,
reticulocytes, segmented neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophilic
metamyelocytes and myelocytes. Which of these elements can not be found in
normal blood?
A. Reticulocytes
B. Metamielocytes neutrophilic
C. Lymphocytes
D. Myelocytes neutrophilic
E. *All are found in the blood
145. Aspirin violates function of platelets: even with normal amount they can not
participate adequately in homeostasis. What changes of platelets are observed?
A. Reduction, re-formed
B. Reduction of mitochondria in them
C. Reduction of period of their life
D. Increase of old and defective forms number
E. *Violation of aggregation
146. 38 years old woman has uterine bleeding. What changes of blood picture will
occur in such case?
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukopenia
C. Polycythemia
D. Thrombocytosis
E. *Erytropeniya
147. Blood picture of patient with lymphogranulomatosis shows 10% of young,
15% band and 40% segmented neutrophils. What is this condition?
A. The right shift of leukocytes
B. Neytrophilocytosis
C. Neutrophilopenia
D. Norm
E. *The left shift of leukocytes
148. People with low culture often have tattoos (picture on skin). Which blood cells
may leave vessels and absorb the dye corpuscles which were introduced under the
skin?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
E. *Macrophages
149. Chronic malnutrition causes decrease of human blood osmotic pressure thus
resulting protein-free edema. Decrease of which blood proteins is it due to?
A. Albumin
B. Globulins
C. Fibrinogen
D. Protrombin
E. *All these
150. A constant osmotic pressure of plasma depends on certain concentration of
electrolytes in it. What is percent of salts in the norm which allows to use saline in
the clinic?
A. 0.09%
B. 9%
C. 0.5%
D. 0.05%
E. *0.9%
151. Mostly human red blood cells contain an antigen named the Rh factor. In some
people it is absent (Rh-negative blood). What effector immune cells are activated
by transfusion of Rh-positive blood to Rh-negative recipient most of all?
A. T lymphocytes supressors
B. T-lymphocytes killers
C. T-lymphocyte helpers
D. T-lymphocytes memory
E. *B-lymphocytes
152. In the specimen of human red bone marrow clusters of giant cells are defined
in close contact with sinusoidal capillaries. What blood formed elements are they
producing?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Monocytes
E. *Platelets
153. Histological research of 35 year old patient red bone marrow puncture was
made. Significant reduction in megakaryocytes number was found. What changes
will be revealed in peripheral blood?
A. Reduction of leukocytes number
B. Increase of erythrocytes number
C. Increase of platelets number
D. Reduction of granulocytes number
E. *Reduction of platelets number
154. Student has two specimens (smears). The first one contains mature
erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, the second – blood formed elements of varying
degrees of maturity. What are these smears?
A. The blood of the frog and human blood
B. Blood and lymph
C. Blood and yellow bone marrow smear
D. Yellow and red bone marrow smears
E. *Blood and red bone marrow
155. In the red bone marrow blood cells are arranged in islets. Some of them are
associated with macrophages. What blood formed elements are developing in
these islets?
A. Basphilic granulocytes.
B. T-and B-lymphocytes predecessors
C. Monocytes.
D. Platelets.
E. *Erythrocytes.
156. 46 year old patient of hematology ward has disorders of granulocytopoesis and
trombocytopoesis. Which of the above mentioned organs is affected with
pathological process?
A. Lymph node
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Liver
E. Red bone marrow
157. Parenchyma of red bone marrow consists of hematopoietic cells of different
classes. Which class of cell differon is regulated by hemopoetins most of all?
A. Class V-maturing cells
B. Class II-polipotentnyh partially determined progenitor cell
C. I class-polipotent blood stem cells
D. Class VI-mature cells
E. *Class III-unipotent progenitor cell
158. Punctate of myeloid tissue of 6 year old child contains cells whose
differentiation includes piknosis and expel of nucleus. What kind of hematopoiesis
is characterized by such morphological changes?
A. Trombocytopoesis
B. Granulcytopoesis
C. Lymphocytopoesis
D. Monocytopoesis
E. *Erythropoiesis
159. Significant number of red bone marrow stem cells were destroyed in
experiment. Renewal of which cells within loose connective tissue will be broken?
A. Pigment cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Lipocytes
D. Pericytes
E. *Macrophages
160. In morphologic research of human blood smear in the case of inflammatory
process you can see numerous rounded cells with segmented nuclei (three or more
segments) and small pink-purple granules in cytoplasm. What are cells?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Eosinophilic granulocytes
C. Basophilic granulocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. *Neutrophilic granulocytes
161. After irradiation blood stem cells of patient are damaged. Regeneration of
which cells of connective tissue will suffer most of all?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adipocytes
Fibrocytes
Adventitial cells
Reticular cells
*Macrophages
162. Live vaccine is introduced in human body. Which cells of connective tissue
will be involved in immune process most of all?
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Adipocytes
D. Monocytes
E. *Lymphocytes
163. At cerebrospinal puncture doctor-neurologist make a puncture of dura mater.
What kind of tissue does it consist of?
A. Loose connective
B. Adipose
C. Pigmental
D. Reticular
E. *Dense regular
164. At physical training sportsmen had damaged his foot. Doctor made a diagnosis
of tendon rupture. What kind of tissue does tendon consist of?
A. Dense irregular
B. Adipose
C. Loose connective
D. Reticular
E. *Dense regular
165. At research of wound content of patient with acute inflammatory process of
foot it was revealed a lot of cells of irregular elongated shape with dense nuclei
and numerous lysosomes, phagosomes and vacuoles in basophilic cytoplasm.
What are these cells?
A. Adipocytes
B. Fibrocytes
C. Endotheliocytes
D. Basophils
E. *Macrophages
166. At surgical operation there is the risk of thrombus formation. Which cells of
loose connective tissue are synthesizing heparin for the prevention of such
complication?
A. Adipocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells
E. *Basophils
167. At the place of foreign corpuscle introduction into human body inflammation
begins with participation of blood and connective tissue cells. Which cells of
blood and connective tissue mainly will be revealed at the centre of inflammation?
A. Macrophages, fibroblasts, adipocytes
B. Macrophages, neutrophils, adipocytes
C. Macrophages, fibroblasts
D. Macrophages, basophils
E. *Macrophages, neutrophils
168. At trichinellosis calcified connective tissue capsule originate around
trichinellae in muscles. Which connective tissue cells activity is it due to?
A. Adipocytes
B. Basophils
C. Macrophages
D. Reticular cells
E. *Fibroblasts
169. Blood analysis of patient with flu shows very few specific antibodies.
Function of which cells of connective tissue is suppressed?
A. Adipocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Basophils
D. Macrophages
E. *Plasma cells
170. Clinical syndrome of Ehlers-Danlos is characterized by abnormally extensible
skin, fragile blood vessels and joint laxity. What kinds of fibers are damaged most
of all?
A. Reticular
B. Oxytalan
C. Elaunin
D. Elastic
E. *Collagen
171. During pregnancy uterine total weight may increase very much. A lot of large
cells with processes and smooth myofibrilles and rough endoplasmic reticulum
could be revealed in myometrium. What are these cells?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Smooth myocytes
C. Chondrocytes
D. Basophils
E. *Myofibroblasts
172. Histamine is main clinical manifestation of allergy in connective tissue. Which
cells are producing histamine?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. Reticular cells
E. *Basophils
173. In aging human skin undergoes changes which are accompanied by decrease
of its elasticity. Which components of connective tissue are responsible for this?
A. Cells of epidermis
B. Ground substance
C. Cells of connective tissue
D. Reticular fibers
E. *Collagen and elastic fibers
174. In histological specimen large cells with basophilic metachromatic granules
are seen in loose connective tissue. Heparin and histamine are revealed
histochemically. Which cells are present in this specimen?
A. Adipocytes
B. Fibrocytes
C. Endotheliocytes
D. Reticular cells
E. *Basophils
175. Local constriction of esophagus had appearing after chemical burn as a result
of scar development. Which cells of connective tissue are responsible for scars
production?
A. Young non specialized fibroblasts
B. Fibrocytes
C. Myofibroblasts
D. Reticular cells
E. *Mature specialized fibroblasts
176. Numerous basophils are revealed in histological examination of connective
tissue. What is the function of these cells after they enter connective tissue from
blood?
A. Supporting
B. Trophic
C. Phagocytosis of microbes
D. Immune
E. *Blood vessels widening
177. One of the general laws of surgery is – to make incisures along so called lines
of Langer (lines of skin strains). Which tissue produces reticular layer for this
purpose?
A. Dense regular
B. Adipose
C. Loose connective
D. R eticular
E. *Dense irregular
178. Platelets are known to participate in blood coagulation. Which cells of
connective tissue may prevent this?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Myofibroblasts
C. Smooth myocytes
D. Chondrocytes
E. *Basophils
179. Tendon ruptures often appear as a result of trauma. Is regeneration possible
and thanks to which cells?
A. Fibrocytes of endotendinium
B. Myofibroblasts of endotendinium
C. Plasma cells of endotendinium
D. Adipocytes of endotendinium
E. *Fibroblasts of endotendinium
180.
Thin exhausted patients with severe chronicle processes usually have
endocrine problem. Which function of adipose tissue disorders is it due to?
A. Protective
B. Mechanical
C. Blood deposition
D. Storage of lipids
E. *Deposition of fat soluble hormones
181. In histological research of specimen it was revealed tissue, in which cells are
placed both separately and in some isogenic groups, fibrous structures of extracellular
matrix are not visible. Which tissue is this?
A. Smooth muscular tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Fibrous cartilage
D. Bony tissue
E. *Hyaline cartilage tissue
182. Problem of old age woman movement was medically diagnosed, because of age
changes in hyaline cartilage. What age changes resulted in movement disorders of
this person joints?
A. Increase of the amount of isogenic groups
B. Increase of the amount of cartilage tissue
C. Thickening of the perichondrium
D. Increase of the hydrophilic matters of the ground substance
E. *Precipitation of calcium salts in the extracellular matrix
183. There are two histological specimens: elastic cartilage (stained with orsein) and
hyaline cartilage (stained with hematoxylin and eosin). What are their most
distinguishable features?
A. Presence of the isogenous groups
B. Presence of the area of the new cartilage
C. Presence of the perichondrium
D. Presence of the metaepiphysial plate
E. *Presence of the elastic fibrers
184. Patient with arthritis has disorders of sliding function of joints surface . Which
tissue is damaged in this case?
A. Loose сonnective tissue
B. Bony tissue
C. Fibrous cartilage tissue
D. Reticular tissue
E. *Hyaline cartilage
185. In histological examination of the long bone at the place of fracture some features
of regeneration were discovered. What tissue forms this structure?
A. Loose сonnective tissue
B. Reticular tissue
C. Epithelium tissue
D. Special bony tissue
E. *Fibrous bony tissue
186. In histological examination of facial muscles the myosymplasts were found. What
type of contractile tissue is this?
A. Muscular epithelial tissue
B. Smooth muscular tissue
C. Visceral muscular tissue
D. Cardiac muscle tissue
E. *Striated muscular tissue
187. In histological examination of specimen one can see a tissue, the main structural
unit of which is (fiber) consists of symplasts and satelitocytes which are covered by
basement membrane. What tissue is this structure typical for?
A. A. Cardiac muscle tissue
B. Smooth muscular tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Reticular tissue
E. *Skeletal striated muscular tissue
188. Striated muscle fiber was researched after the influence of the hydrolytic enzymes.
At that time there was a destruction of the thin miofilaments. What structures were
mostly damaged?
A. Tonofibrils
B. T-systems
C. Reticulum sarcoplasmatic
D. Myosin miofilaments
E. *Actin miofilaments
189. In embryogenesis of muscular tissue the process of myoblastes transformation into
myosymplasts was broken. The development of what tissue will be damaged?
A. Muscle tissue of the neural origin
B. Muscle tissue of the epidermic origin
C. Smooth muscular tissue of the mesenchymal origin
D. Cardiac muscle tissue
E. *Skeletal muscular tissue
190. After heart attack patient myocardium is damaged. What cells elements will
provide the regeneration of defect after the myocardial infarction (cardiac cells
dying)?
A. Cardiomyocytes
B. Myosatelitocytes
C. Epitheliocytes
D. Smooth myocytes
E. *Fibroblasts
191. What cellular elements are responsible for healing of produced defect after the
myocardial infarction?
A. Cardiomyocyts
B. Miosatelitocytes
C. Epitheliocytes
D. Smooth myocytes
E. *Fibroblasts
192. In the specimen of striated muscle fiber, after mechanical trauma, destruction of
thick miofilaments is observed. What supporting structures, connected with myosin
filaments, can be also damaged?
A. Myosin miofilaments
B. Tonofibrils
C. Tropocollagen complexes
D. Nucleoprotein complexes
E. *Actin miofilaments
193. The patient has damaged muscles of feet. Which cells will provide reparative
regeneration of muscular fibers and renewal of muscle function?
A. Myoblastus
B. Myosin myofilaments
C. Tonofibrils
D. Nucleoprotein’s complex
E. *Myosatelitocytes
194. The patient, with complex trauma of upper extremities has violation of bony tissue
regeneration because of cartilage differon cambial cells damage. Which cells were
damaged?
A. Cells of the outer layer of perychondrium
B. Cells of isogenic group
C. Cells cartilage
D. Cells that come from blood vessels
E. *Cells of the inner layer of perychondrium
195. New-born boy (10 days) has numerous defects of the growth of skeleton. What
embryonic source does this pathology depend on?
A. Myotome
B. Dermatome
C. Ectoderm
D. Entoderm
E. *Mesenchyme
196. In examination of histological specimen of cross-striated fiber after mechanical
trauma destruction of thick myofilaments is observed. What is the localition of
pathological changes in fibers in polarized light using?
A. In disk I.
B. In half of a disk A.
C. In half of the disk A and I
D. In half of a disk I
E. *In disk A
197. In experiment on animal some muscle was dissected. It was whiped and mass was
placed in channel of muscle. After 3-4 weeks muscle was reformed. What is the
source of this skeletal muscle reparative regeneration?
A. Myosatelitocytes
B. Actin myofilaments
C. Myosin myofilaments
D. Sarcomeres
E. *T-system of muscular fibers
198. The chemical factory worker has fast tiredness, sleepiness, atony and adynamia.
Such changes were caused by the locking of some ions admission to sarcoplasm.
What are these ions?
A. K
B. Na
C. Mg
D. P
E. *Ca
199. In experiment on animal development of the mesenchymal cells were totally
inhibited. Development of what type of muscular tissue is impossible?
A. Muscular tissue of the heart
B. Skeletal muscular tissue
C. Muscular tissue of neural origin
D. Muscular tissue of epidermal origin
E. *Smooth muscular tissue
200. In experiment on animal process of myoblasts merge in symplasts were totally
inhibited. Development of what type of muscular tissue is impossible?
A. Muscular tissue of the heart
B. Muscular tissue of neural origin
C. Muscular tissue of epidermal origin
D. Smooth muscular tissue
E. *Skeletal muscular tissue
201. In examination of histological specimen of cross-striated fiber after mechanical
trauma destruction of thick myofilaments is observed. What structure is well
connected with these filaments and is damaged too?
A. Mesophgragm and telophragm
B. Telophragm
C. Cytolemma
D. Cytolemma and telophragm
E. *Mesophgragm
202. Axial fiber with granular endoplasmic reticulum is detected in
electronmicrograph. Which process of nerve cell this cylinder forms ?
A. Axon
B. Long
C. Short
D. Wavy
E. *Dendrite
203. Central nervous system mainly consist of multipolar nerve cells. What are
main characteristic features of them?
A. The size of neurocyte perikaryon
B. Length of axons and dendrites
C. Localisation of neurocyte
D. Neurocyte function
E. *The number of processes
204. Experimentally substance that blocks the neurotransmitter synthesis in
sensitive neurons was injected. What ultrastructural changes can be seen in reflex
arch?
A. Decrease of synaptic vesicles number in axon endings
B. Increasing the number of synaptic vesicles in axon endings
C. A few number of synaptic vesicles in axon endings
D. A lot of synaptic vesicles in axon endings
E. *Disappearance of synaptic vesicles in axon endings
205. In experiment nerve fiber was sected and two weeks later substance which
inhibits the reproduction of neurolemmocytes was injected. How does it affect the
process of regeneration of the fiber?
A. Myelination does not change.
B. Myelination will be fragmented.
C. Myelination held only at the axial cylinder.
D. Myelination held on the periphery of fibers.
E. *Myelination process of fiber will be violated
206. In functional depletion of neuron tigrolysis is observed – neuroplasm
enlightenment, due to the collapse of basophilic substance. Changes of which
organell is it due to?
A. Lysosomes.
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria.
D. Neurofibriles
E. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum
207. In nervous tissue perikaryons and processes of nerve cells are surrounded by
small cells. What is the name of these cells?
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymocytes.
C. Microgliocytes
D. Neurolemmocytes
E. *Oligodendrocytes.
208. In severe burns of the skin lack of response to pain stimulation is observed.
Which nerve endings are damaged in such case?
A. Meisner’s corpuscle
B. Paccinian corpuscle
C. Bulb of Кrause
D. Ruffini corpuscle
E. *Free nerve endings.
209. In the neural tube of human embryo there are three zones. What is the location
of neuroblasts?
A. Ependymal zone
B. Marginal zone
C. White matter.
D. Grey matter
E. *Mantial zone
210. In the specimen of spinal cord cross section spinal canal is surrounded by a
layer of cells. What are cells?
A. Neurogliocytes
B. Astrocytes.
C. Oligodendrocytes.
D. Neurolemmocytes
E. *Ependymocytes.
211. Nerve ending is seen in the connective tissue it has a slight thickening of the
axial cylinder - internal bulb and concentric layers of collagen fibers - a thick
outer bulb. What is this nerve ending?
A. Mercel’s corpuscle
B. Bulb of Кrause
C. Meisner’s corpuscle
D. Ruffini corpuscle.
E. *Paccinian corpuscle
212. Nerve fiber in histological specimen has axial cylinder inside. What does it
consist of?
A. Schwann cell.
B. Mesaxon.
C. Perineurium.
D. Axolema.
E. *Process of nerve cell
213. Nerve fiber is present in microspecimen, it has several axial cylinders
surrounded by cytoplasm of one neurolemmocytes. Name this fiber.
A. Collagen.
B. Myelinated
C. Compound
D. Simple
E. *Unmyolinated
214. Neurocyte overactivity is accompanied with neuroplasm enlightenment due to
the damage of basophilic substance. Changes of which organell is it due to?
A. Neurofibril.
B. Lysosomes.
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondria.
E. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum
215. After frostbite patient has no response for cold stimulation. Damage of which
nerve endings is it due to?
A. Meisner’s corpuscle
B. Paccinian corpuscle
C. Ruffini corpuscle.
D. Mercel’s corpuscle
E. *Bulb of Кrause
216. Speed of nerve transmission was determined in unmyolinated fibers in
experiment. What is the speed of nerve impulse passage in unmyolinated nerve
fibers?
A. 50-100 m / sec.
B. 100-250 m / sec.
C. 200-300 m / sec.
D. 5-120 m / sec.
E. *1-2 m / sec.
217. Synapse function is transmission of nerve impulses in one direction. Which
special feature of synapse structural organization proves this?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Postsynaptic membrane
C. Postsynaptic pole
D. Receptor proteins on the postsynaptic membrane
E. *The presence of synaptic vesicles in presynaptic pole
218. Tendons are damaged in knee injury. Tendon integrity was restored, but the
motions - no. Damage of which nerve endings is it due to?
A. Paccinian corpuscle
B. Meisner’s corpuscle
C. Bulb of Кrause
D. Ruffini corpuscle.
E. *Golgi tendon organs.
219. Thick connective tissue scar appeared in patient with mechanical injury at
place of nerve fiber section. How does it affect the process of regeneration of
nerve fiber?
A. Regeneration will take part.
B. Full regeneration.
C. Physiological regeneration.
D. Regeneration is very slow.
E. *Regeneration will not happen
220. With electron microscopic study of myelinated fibers it was found that the
myelin membrane has a folded structure. What does it consist of?
A. Ranvier node
B. Neurolemma
C. Schmidt- Lantermann incisure
D. Endoneurium
E. *Mesaxon
221. With electron microscopic study synaptic vesicles were revealed in synaps.
Name the structure of the object.
A. Perikaryon
B. End dendrit
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Postsynaptic pole
E. *Presynaptic pole
Test questions for figures
1. Which structural component of cell is labeled No 2 at Fig.51?
A. Nucleus
B. *Nucleolus
C. Lysosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Golgi apparatus
2. Which cell organelle is labeled No13 at Fig.51?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. *Lysosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Golgi apparatus
3. Which cell organelle is labeled No7 at Fig.51?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Lysosome
D. *Mitochondrion
E. Golgi apparatus
4. Which cell organelle is labeled No11 at Fig.51?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Lysosome
D. *Ribosome
E. Golgi apparatus
5. Which cell organelle is labeled No10 at Fig.51?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Lysosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Golgi apparatus
6. Which cell organelle is labeled No8 at Fig.51?
A. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondrion
E. Cell membrane
7. Which cell organelle is labeled No9 at Fig.51?
A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. *Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondrion
E. Cell membrane
8. Which cell organelle is labeled No4 at Fig.52?
A. *Granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Lysosome
9. Which cell organelle is labeled No10 at Fig.52?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Microfilaments
C. *Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Microtubules
10.Which cell organelle is labeled No3 at Fig.52?
A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. *Mitochondrion
E. Lysosome
11.Which cell organelle is labeled No1 at Fig.52?
A. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
C. Microfilaments
D. Mitochondrion
E. *Lysosome
12.Which cell organelle is labeled No11 at Fig.52?
A. *Golgi apparatus
B. Microfilaments
C. Centrosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Proteasome
13. Which cell organelle is labeled No4 at Fig.52?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. *Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Centrosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Proteasome
13.Which cell organelle is labeled No12 at Fig.52?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. *Centrosome
D. Mitochondrion
E. Proteasome
14.Which cell component is labeled No9 at Fig.52?
A. Nucleus
B. *Nucleolus
C. Karyoplasm
D. Karyolemma
E. Nuclear pore
15.Which cell component is labeled No8 at Fig.52?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. *Keryoplasm
D. Karyolemma
E. Nuclear pore
16.Which cell component is labeled No14 at Fig.52?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Keryoplasm
D. *Karyolemma
E. Nuclear pore
17.Which cell component is labeled No7 at Fig.52?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Keryoplasm
D. Karyolemma
E. *Nuclear pore
18.Which cell organelle do you see at Fig53?
A. Mitochondrion
B. *Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Centrosome
E. Lysosome
19.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No1 at Fig.53?
A. *Cis- face (forming)
B. Trans-face (maturing)
C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
D. Secretory granules
E. Transport vesicles of RER
20.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No2 at Fig.53?
A. Cis- face (forming)
B. *Trans-face (maturing)
C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
D. Secretory granules
E. Transport vesicles of RER
21.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No6 at Fig.53?
A. Cis- face (forming)
B. Trans-face (maturing)
C. *Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
D. Secretory granules
E. Transport vesicles of RER
22.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No5 at Fig.53?
A. Cis- face (forming)
B. Trans-face (maturing)
C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
D. *Secretory granules
E. Dictyosoma
23.Which component of Golgi apparatus is labeled No3 at Fig.53?
A. Cis- face (forming)
B. Trans-face (maturing)
C. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
D. Dictyosoma
E. *Transport vesicles of RER
24.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No1 at Fig.83?
A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. *Cholesterol molecule
D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein
E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids
25.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No2 at Fig.83?
A. *Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. Cholesterol molecule
D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein
E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids
26.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No3 at Fig.83?
A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. *Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. Cholesterol molecule
D. Carbohydrates of glycoprotein
E. Carbohydrates of glycolipids
27.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No8 at Fig.83?
A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. Cholesterol molecule
D. Peripheral proteins
E. *Integral proteins
28.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No7 at Fig.83?
A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. Cholesterol molecule
D. *Oligosaccharides chains
E. Peripheral proteins
29.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No4 at Fig.83?
A. Hydrophilic chain of phospholipid
B. Hydrophobic chain of phospholipid
C. Cholesterol molecule
D. *Peripheral proteins
E. Integral proteins
30.Which organelle do you see at Fig.84?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Centrosome
D. *Mitochondrion
E. Proteasome
31.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No2 at Fig.84?
A. *External membrane
B. Internal membrane
C. Crista
D. Intermembrane space
E. Matrix
32.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No1 at Fig.84?
A. External membrane
B. *Internal membrane
C. Crista
D. Intermembrane space
E. Matrix
33.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No5 at Fig.84?
A. External membrane
B. Internal membrane
C. *Crista
D. Intermembrane space
E. Matrix
34.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No3 at Fig.84?
A. External membrane
B. Internal membrane
C. Crista
D. *Intermembrane space
E. Matrix
35.Which component of mitochondrion is labeled No4 at Fig.84?
A. External membrane
B. Internal membrane
C. Crista
D. Intermembrane space
E. *Matrix
36.Which cell organelle is labeled No2 at Fig.85?
A. *Centrosome
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosome
E. Mitochondrion
37.Which structure of cell center is labeled No3 at Fig.85?
A. *Centriole
B. Centrosphere
C. Microfilaments
D. Triplet of microtubules
E. Dynein linking protein
38.Which structure of cell center is labeled No4 at Fig.85?
A. Centriole
B. *Centrosphere
C. Microfilaments
D. Triplet of microtubules
E. Dynein linking protein
39.Which structure of cell center is labeled No1 at Fig.85?
A. Centriole
B. Centrosphere
C. Microfilaments
D. *Triplet of microtubules
E. Dynein linking protein
40.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No 3 at Fig.86?
A. Oligosaccharides chains
B. Cholesterol molecule
C. Phospholipid molecules
D. *Integral proteins
E. Peripheral proteins
41.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No2 at Fig.86?
A. Oligosaccharides chains
B. Cholesterol molecule
C. Phospholipid molecules
D. Integral proteins
E. *Peripheral proteins
42.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No1 at Fig.86?
A. Oligosaccharides chains of proteins
B. Oligosaccharides chains of lipids
C. *Phospholipid molecules
D. Integral proteins
E. Peripheral proteins
43.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No4 at Fig.86?
A. Oligosaccharides chains of proteins
B. *Oligosaccharides chains of lipids
C. Phospholipid molecules
D. Integral proteins
44.Which component of cell membrane is labeled No6 at Fig.86?
A. *Oligosaccharides chains of proteins
B. Oligosaccharides chains of lipids
C. Phospholipid molecules
D. Integral proteins
E. Peripheral proteins
45.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No 1 at Fig.87?
A. Interphase
B. *Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
46.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No2 at Fig.87?
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. *Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
47.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No3 at Fig.87?
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. *Anaphase
E. Telophase
48.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No4 at Fig.87?
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. *Telophase
49.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No4 at Fig.88?
A. Interphase
B. *Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
50.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No3 at Fig.88?
A. Interphase
B. Anaphase
C. *Metaphase
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
51.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No2 at Fig.88?
A. Interphase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. *Prophase
E. Telophase
52.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No5 at Fig.88?
A. Interphase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase
E. *Telophase
53.Which stage of mitosis is labeled No 1 at Fig.88?
A. *Interphase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
54.Which process of cell cycle do you see at Fig.88?
A. Meiosis
B. *Mitosis
C. Amitosis
D. Endomitosis
E. Crossing-over
55.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No6 at Fig.4?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. *Nuclear vacuoles
D. Acrosome
E. Cell center
56.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No7 at Fig.54?
A. Nucleus
B. Axonemal complex
C. Abundant nuclear membrane
D. *Acrosome
E. Karyolemma
57.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No5 at Fig.54?
A. *Nucleus
B. Axonemal complex
C. Abundant nuclear membrane
D. Acrosome
E. Karyolemma
58.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No9 at Fig.54?
A. *Axonemal complex
B. Cell membrane
C. Abundant nuclear membrane
D. Acrosome
E. Cytolemma
59.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No11 at Fig.54?
A. External dense fibers
B. Internal dense fibers
C. Axial fiber
D. Segmented columns
E. *Mitochondrial sheath
60.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No3 at Fig.54?
A. Neck
B. Connecting piece
C. Midpiece of tail
D. *Principal piece of tail
E. Endpiece of tail
61.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No4 at Fig.54?
A. Neck
B. Connecting piece
C. Midpiece of tail
D. Principal piece of tail
E. *Endpiece of tail
62.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No1 at Fig.54?
A. Neck
B. *Head
C. Midpiece of tail
D. Principal piece of tail
E. Endpiece of tail
63.Which structure of spematozoon is labeled No2 at Fig.54?
A. Neck
B. Head
C. *Midpiece of tail
D. Principal piece of tail
E. Endpiece of tail
64.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No1 at Fig.55?
A. *Nucleus
B. Ooplasm
C. Oolemma
D. Cortical granules
E. Yolk inclusions
65.Which structure of ooplasm is labeled No4 at Fig.55?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Oolemma
D. Cell center
E. *Yolk inclusions
66.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No2 at Fig.55?
A. Nucleus
B. *Oolemma
C. Ooplasm
D. Zona pellucida
E. Corona radiata
67.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No4 at Fig.55?
A. Nucleus
B. Oolemma
C. *Ooplasm
D. Zona pellucida
E. Corona radiata
68.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No5 at Fig.55?
A. Nucleus
B. Oolemma
C. Ooplasm
D. Zona pellucida
E. *Corona radiata
69.Which structure of oocyte is labeled No3 at Fig.55?
A. Nucleus
B. Oolemma
C. Ooplasm
D. *Zona pellucida
E. Corona radiata
70.Which embryonic structure do you see at Fig.57?
A. Morula
B. Sygote
C. *Blasocyst
D. Amphiblastula
E. Celoblastula
71.Which structure of blastula is labeled No1 at Fig.57?
A. Trophoblast
B. *Embryoblast
C. Blastocele
D. Blasocyst
E. Blastopore
72.Which structure of blastula is labeled No2 at Fig.57?
A. Trophoblast
B. Embryoblast
C. *Blastocele
D. Blasocyst
E. Blastopore
73.Which structure of blastula is labeled No3 at Fig.57?
A. *Trophoblast
B. Embryoblast
C. Blastocele
D. Blasocyst
E. Blastopore
74.Epithelium of which type do you see at Fig.58?
A. *Simple
B. Stratified
C. Epidermis
D. Transitional
E. Pseudostratified ciliated
75.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No1 at Fig.56?
A. *Simple tubular nonbranched
B. Simple tubular branched
C. Simple alveolar nonbranched
D. Simple alveolar branched
E. Endoepithelial
76.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No2 at Fig.56?
A. *Simple tubular nonbranched
B. Simple tubular branched
C. Simple alveolar nonbranched
D. Simple alveolar branched
E. Endoepithelial
77.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No3 at Fig.56?
A. Simple tubular nonbranched
B. *Simple tubular branched
C. Simple alveolar nonbranched
D. Simple alveolar branched
E. Compound tubular branched
78.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No4 at Fig.56?
A. Simple tubular nonbranched
B. Simple tubular branched
C. Simple alveolar nonbranched
D. *Simple alveolar branched
E. Compound alveolar branched
79.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No5 at Fig.56?
A. Simple tubular branched
B. Simple tubular-alveolar branched
C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched
D. *Compound tubular-alveolar branched
E. Compound tubular nonbranched
80.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No6 at Fig.56?
A. Simple tubular branched
B. Simple alveolar branched
C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched
D. Compound alveolar branched
E. *Compound tubular branched
81.Exocrine gland of which type is labeled No7 at Fig.56?
A. Simple tubular branched
B. Simple alveolar branched
C. Compoundальвеолярна nonbranched
D. Compound tubular nonbranched
E. *Compound alveolar branched
82.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.89?
A. Dense regular
B. Dense irregular
C. Adipose
D. *Loose connective
E. Reticular
83.Adipose tissue of which type do you see at Fig.90?
A. Dense regular
B. Dense irregular
C. *White adipose
D. Brown adipose
E. Reticular
84.Which structural component of white adipose tissue cell is labeled No 3 at Fig.90?
A. Nucleus
B. *Lipid drop
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm
E. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
85.Which structural component of white adipose tissue cell is labeled No 1 at Fig.90?
A. *Nucleus
B. Lipid drop
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm
E. Granular endoplasmic reticulum
86.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.91?
A. Dense regular
B. Dense irregular
C. *Adipose
D. Loose connective
E. Reticular
87.Which cells of connective tissue do you see at Fig.93?
A. *Adipocytes
B. Fibrocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Mast cells
E. Reticular cells
88.Connective tissue of which type do you see at Fig.94?
A. *Dense regular
B. Dense irregular
C. Adipose
D. Loose connective
E. Reticular
89.Which structural components of dense regular connective tissue are labeled No2 at
Fig.94?
A. Reticular fibers
B. *Collagen fibers
C. Fibrilla
D. Elastic fibers
E
90.Which cells of dense regular connective tissue are labeled No1 at Fig.94?
A. Adipocytes
B. *Fibrocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Mast cells
E. Reticular cells
91.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No2 at Fig. No95?
A. *Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Striated
D. Unmyelinated
E. No correct answer
92.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No3 at Fig. No95?
A. Smooth
B. *Cardiac
C. Striated
D. Unmyelinated
E. No correct answer
93.Which type of muscular fiber is labeled No1 at Fig. No95?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. *Striated
D. Unmyelinated
E. No correct answer
ANSWER: СWhich component of chondroid tissue is labeled No2 at Fig.81?
A. Isogenous groops of cells
B. *Elastic fibers
C. Ground substance
D. Intercellular substance
E. Calcified matrix
94.Which component of chondroid tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.81?
A. Isogenous groops of cells
B. Elastic fibers
C. Collagen fibers
D. *Intercellular substance
E. Calcified matrix
95.What is elastic fiber number at Fig.No81?
A. 1
B. *2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Not labeled
96.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No1 at Fig.100?
A. Osteon
B. Central channel of osteon
C. Intercalated lamella
D. *Bony lamella
E. Osteocytes
97.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No2 at Fig.100?
A. Osteoblasts
B. *Central channel of osteon
C. Intercalated lamella
D. Bony lamella
E. Osteocytes
98.Which component of bony tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.100?
A. Osteon
B. Central channel of osteon
C. *Intercalated lamella
D. Bony lamella
E. Osteocytes
What is bony lamella No at Fig.100?
A. *1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
99.Which component of muscular tissue do you see at Fig.96?
A. Myofibrilles
B. Myofilaments
C. *Muscular fiber
D. Smooth myocyte
E. Osteocyte
100. Which tissue do you see at Fig.99?
A. *Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Connective tissue
E. Muscular tissue
101. Which tissue do you see at Fig.98?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. *Fibrocartilage
D. Connective tissue
E. Muscular tissue
102. Which component of hyaline cartilage is labeled No1 at Fig.99?
A. *Perichondrium
B. Periosteum
C. Proper cartilage
D. Intercellular substance
E. Young chondroblasts
103. Which component of hyaline cartilage is labeled No4 at Fig.99?
A. Perichondrium
B. Periosteum
C. Proper cartilage
D. *Intercellular substance
E. Young chondroblasts
104. Which structure of nerve fiber is labeled No1 at Fig.71?
A. Axial fiber
B. Neurolemma
C. Axolemma
D. *Myelin sheath
E. Connective tissue
105. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.73?
A. Neurosecretory
B. Pseudounipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Bipolar
E. *Unipolar
106. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.74?
A. Bipolar
B. Multipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Neurosecretory
E. *Pseudounipolar
107. Which structure of nerve tissue is labeled No3 at Fig.75?
A. Dendrite
B. *Axon
C. Myelinated nerve fiber
D. Unmyelinated nerve fiber
E. Nerve
108. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at cross section at Fig.77?
A. Unmyelinated nerve fiber
B. *Myelinated nerve fiber
C. Nerve
D. Blood vessel
E. Tendon
109. Which structural type of nerve cell is labeled 1 at Fig. 78?
A. Multipolar nerve cell
B. Bipolar nerve cell
C. *Pseudounipolar nerve cell
D. Unipolar nerve cell
E. Gliocyte
110. Which structural type of nerve cell do you see at Fig.79?
A. Multipolar nerve cell
B. Bipolar
C. *Pseudounipolar
D. Unipolar
E. Neurosecretory
111. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at Fig. 80 (longitudinal section)?
A. *Myelinated nerve fiber
B. Unmyelinated nerve fiber
C. Nerve
D. Blood vessel
E. Tendon
112. Which structure of nerve tissue do you see at Fig. 82?
A. Pseudounipolar nerve cell
B. Bipolar nerve cell
C. *Multipolar nerve cell
D. Oligodendrocyte
E. Astrocyte
113. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 59?
A. *erythrocyte-echinocyte
B. erythrocyte-diskocyte
C. erythrocyte-planocyte
D. erythrocyte-spherocyte
E. platelet
114. Which blood formed element do you see at Fig. 60?
А. neutrophil
В. platelet
С. monocyte
D. lymphocyte
Е. *erythrocyte
115. Which blood cell do you see at Fig. 61?
A. erythrocyte-echinocyte
B. erythrocyte-spherocyte
C. erythrocyte-planocyte
D. *erythrocyte-diskocyte
E. platelet
116. Which structure of neutrophil is labeled No1 at Fig.62?
А. *nucleus
В. mitochondria
С. Golgi apparatus
D. specific granules
Е. nonspecific granules
117. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 64?
А. erythrocyte
В. *basophil
С. band neutrophil
D. segmented neutrophil
Е. juvenile neutrophil
118. Which blood formed element is labeled No1 at Fig. 65?
А. platelet
В. erythrocyte
С. *lymphocyte
D. monocyte
Е. neutrophil
119. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 66?
А. lymphocyte
В. *monocyte
С. erythrocyte
D. juvenile neutrophil
Е. segmented neutrophil
120. Which blood cell do you see in electron micrograph at Fig.67?
А. erythrocyte
В. lymphocyte
С. *monocyte
D. segmented neutrophil
Е. juvenile neutrophil
121. Which blood cell do you see at Fig. 68?
А. platelet
В. lymphocyte
С. monocyte
D. *erythrocyte
Е. juvenile neutrophil
122. Which blood cell is labeled No1 at Fig. 92?
А. basophil
В. eosinophilic granulocyte
С. *segmented neutrophil
D. band neutrophil
Е. monocyte
123. Which blood component is labeled No1 at Fig.70 in test-tube after
centrifugation??
A. plasma
B. lymphocytes
C. monocytes
D. *erythrocytes
E. granulocytes