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AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Cells are ____.
A) only found in pairs, because single cells
cannot exist independently
B) limited in size to 200 and 500
micrometers in diameter
C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not
prokaryotic organisms
D) characteristic of prokaryotic and
eukaryotic organisms
2) A localized group of organisms that belong to
the same species is called a ____.
A) community
B) population
C) ecosystem
D) family
5) The phylogenetic tree below ____.
3) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to
two different domains. What are the
domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Archaea and Monera
C) Bacteria and Protista
D) Bacteria and Archaea
4) Which of these provides evidence of the
common ancestry of all life?
A) near universality of the genetic code
B) structure of the nucleus
C) structure of cilia
D) structure of chloroplasts
A) depicts the three major domains of life
B) includes unicellular but not multicellular life
C) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals
and plants
D) includes noncellular life-forms
6) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you and the rose
have in common?
A) You both are multicellular.
B) You both lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
C) You are both prokaryotic.
D) You and the rose have nothing in common.
The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct
times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is
past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But
caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees?
To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and
collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs
hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and
light conditions listed below.
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves.
Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments  2 diets).
7) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one
8) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every
of the following is NOT a plausible
case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers
hypothesis to explain the differences in
look like oak flowers. In every case,
caterpillar appearance observed in this
caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves
population?
looked like twigs. These results support
A) The longer day lengths of summer
which of the following hypotheses?
trigger the development of twig-like
A) The longer day lengths of summer
caterpillars.
trigger the development of twig-like
B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger
caterpillars.
the development of flowerlike
B) Differences in air pressure, due to
caterpillars.
elevation, trigger the development of
C) Differences in air pressure, due to
different types of caterpillars.
differences in elevation, trigger the
C) Differences in diet trigger the
development of different types of
development of different types of
caterpillars.
caterpillars.
D) Differences in diet trigger the
D) The differences are genetic. A female
development of different types of
will either produce all flowerlike
caterpillars.
caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
9) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which
caterpillars born in the spring looked like
flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer
looked like twigs. What is the most likely
evolutionary advantage for this difference in
body shape?
A) Looking like their food sources allows
the caterpillars to move through their
environment more efficiently.
B) Development into the adult moth form is
faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs
than like flowers.
C) Looking like their food source lets the
caterpillars blend into their surroundings,
reducing predation.
D) Looking like their food source will
increase the caterpillars' feeding
efficiency; this would increase their
growth rate and survival rate.
10) A friend of yours calls to say that his car
would not start this morning. He asks for
your help. You say that you think the battery
must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the
car from a good battery will solve the
problem. In doing so, you are ____.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not
start
B) making observations to inspire a theory
for why the car will not start
C) stating a hypothesis and using that
hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why
the car will not start
11) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes
them to form tumors. You are asked to
determine how long a plant must be exposed
to these bacteria to become infected. Which
of the following experiments will provide the
best data to address that question?
A) Determine the survival rate of
Agrobacterium when exposed to
different concentrations of an antibiotic.
B) Measure the number of tumors formed
on a plant when exposed to various
concentrations of Agrobacterium.
C) Measure the concentration of
Agrobacterium in different soil
environments where the plants grow.
D) Measure the number of tumors formed
on plants, which are exposed to
Agrobacterium for different lengths of
time.
Use the following information when
answering the corresponding question(s).
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series
of experiments on spontaneous generation
(Living things coming from non-living
things). He began by putting similar pieces of
meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were
left open to the air, and four were sealed. He
then did the same experiment with one
variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars
completely, he covered them with gauze (the
gauze excluded the flies while allowing the
meat to be exposed to air). In both
experiments, he monitored the jars and
recorded whether or not maggots (young
flies) appeared in the meat.
12) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments.
In both experiments, flies appeared in all of
the open jars and only in the open jars.
Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A) The experiment was inconclusive
because Redi used only one kind of
meat.
B) The experiment was inconclusive
because it did not run long enough.
C) The experiment supports the hypothesis
that spontaneous generation occurs in
rotting meat.
D) The experiment supports the hypothesis
that maggots arise only from eggs laid by
adult flies.
13) Which of the following is the best description
of a control for an experiment?
A) The control group is kept in an
unchanging environment.
B) The control group is identical to the
experimental group except for the
independent variable.
C) The control group is exposed to only one
variable rather than several.
D) Only the experimental group is tested or
measured.
14) Which level of ecological study focuses the
most on abiotic factors?
A) speciation ecology
B) population ecology
C) community ecology
D) ecosystem ecology
15)
Based on the data in the figure above, which
of the following statements are correct?
I) Area 1 would be considered a desert
because of its high average temperature.
II) Area 1 has more average precipitation
than Area 2.
III) Area 2 would be considered a desert
because of its low average precipitation.
IV) Area 2 has a larger annual temperature
variation.
A) only I and III
B) only II and IV
C) only I, II, and IV
D) only II, III, and IV
16) In the figure above, which number would
designate the biome with the highest
variation in annual precipitation?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
17) In deep water, which of the following abiotic
factors would most limit productivity?
A) temperature
B) light availability
C) solute concentration
18) A certain species of pine tree survives only in
scattered locations at elevations above 2800
meters in the western United States. To
understand why this tree grows only in these
specific places, an ecologist should ____.
A) study the anatomy and physiology of this
species
B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic
factors that are unique to high altitude
C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of
these trees, looking for unique chemicals
that may support their growth
D) collect data on temperature, wind, and
precipitation at several of these locations
for a year
19) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in
developed countries?
A) curve A
B) curve B
C) curve C
D) curve A or curve B
20)
In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species?
A) curve A
B) curve B
C) curve C
D) All 3 curves
21) Using the table above, determine which age
class year would hurt the population growth
most if it were wiped out by disease.
A) age class year 1
B) age class year 2
C) age class year 3
D) age class year 4
22) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and
later were able to trap a total of 300
individuals in that population, of which 150
were marked. What is the estimate for total
population size?
A) 200
B) 1050
C) 1600
D) 2100
23) Which of the following assumptions have to
be made regarding the mark-recapture
estimate of population size?
I) Marked and unmarked individuals have
the same probability of being trapped.
II) The marked individuals have thoroughly
mixed with the population after being
marked.
III) No individuals have entered or left the
population by immigration or emigration, and
no individuals have been added by birth or
eliminated by death during the course of the
estimate.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and III
24) To measure the population of lake trout in a
250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were
netted and marked with a fin clip, then
returned to the lake. The next week, the lake
was netted again, and out of the 200 lake
trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using
the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout
population size could be closest to which of
the following?
A) 200
B) 400
C) 1,600
D) 80,000
25) A population is correctly defined as having
which of the following characteristics?
I) inhabiting the same general area
II) belonging to the same species
III) possessing a constant and uniform
density and dispersion
A) III only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III
26) An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed
deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square
kilometer in one woodlot and twenty per
square kilometer in another woodlot. What
was the ecologist comparing?
A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) range
27) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as
the creosote bush are most often associated
with ____.
A) patterns of high humidity
B) the random distribution of seeds
C) competitive interaction between
individuals of the same population
D) the concentration of nutrients within the
population's range
28) In July 2008, the United States had a
population of approximately 302,000,000
people. How many Americans were there in
July 2009, if the estimated 2008 birth rate
was 0.018 and the death rate was 0.009?
A) 2,700,000
B) 303,000,000
C) 304,700,000
D) 400 million
29)
In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?
A) line A
B) line B
C) line C
D) line D
30) A population of ground squirrels has an
B)
annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an
annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate
an estimate of the total number of individuals
added to (or lost from) a population of 1000
individuals in one year.
A) 120 individuals added
B) 40 individuals added
C) 20 individuals added
C)
D) 400 individuals added
31) Which of the following graphs illustrates the
population growth curve of single bacterium
growing in a flask of ideal medium at
optimum temperature over a two-hour
period?
A)
D)
32)
In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A) arrow A
B) arrow B
C) arrow C
D) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under densitydependent control never reach carrying capacity.
33) As N approaches K for a certain population,
A)
which of the following is predicted by the
logistic equation?
A) The growth rate will not change.
B) The growth rate will approach zero.
C) The population will increase
exponentially.
D) The carrying capacity of the environment
will increase.
B)
34) Which of the following causes populations to
shift most quickly from an exponential to a
logistic population growth?
A) favorable climatic conditions
B) removal of predators
C) decreased death rate
D) competition for resources
35) Which of the following graphs best illustrates
the growth curve of a small population of
rodents that has increased to a static carrying
capacity?
C)
36) According to the logistic growth equation,
,
D)
A) the number of individuals added per unit
time is greatest when N is close to zero.
B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as
N approaches K.
C) population growth is zero when N equals
K.
D) the population grows exponentially when
K is small.
37)
Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and clutch size?
A) Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes.
B) Large clutch size correlates with low survival.
C) Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes.
D) Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size.
38)
Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data?
A) As female density increases, clutch size increases.
B) As female density increases, survivorship decreases.
C) Clutch size decreases as female density increases.
D) Clutch size is a density independent limiting factor
39) Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations?
A) offspring with good chances of survival
B) many offspring per reproductive episode
C) small offspring
D) a high population growth rate
40)
Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw?
I) Food is a factor in controlling hare population size.
II) Excluding lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size.
III) The effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater than the sum of
excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone.
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III
41)
Infant mortality and life expectancy at birth in developed
and developing countries (data as of 2005).
What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? Developed countries have ____.
A) lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries
B) higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries
C) lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries
D) higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries
The following questions refer to the figure
old growth forest
below, which depicts the age structure of
44) Imagine that you are managing a large game
three populations.
ranch. You know from historical accounts
that a species of deer used to live there, but
they have been extirpated. After doing some
research to determine what might be an
appropriately sized founding population, you
reintroduce them. You then watch the
population increase for several generations,
42) Which population(s) appear(s) to show slow
and graph the number of individuals (vertical
growth?
axis) against the number of generations
A) I
(horizontal axis). With no natural predators
B) III
impacting the population, the graph will
C) I and II
likely appear as ____.
D) II and III
A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each
43) Which of the following is the best natural
generation
example of uniform distribution?
B) an "S" that ends with a vertical line
A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower
C) an upside-down "U"
meadow
D) a "J," increasing with each generation
B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide
C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest
during mating season
D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an
45)
B) The experimental treatment did not
affect population cycling in this species.
C) The experimental treatment has most
likely identified the cause of population
cycling.
D) None of the other responses is true.
46) Often the growth cycle of one population has
an effect on the cycle of another. As moose
populations increase, for example, wolf
populations also increase. Thus, if we are
considering the logistic equation for the wolf
population,
,
Graph (b) in the figure above shows the
normal fluctuations of a population of grouse.
Assuming graph (a) in the figure above is the
result of some experimental treatment in the
grouse population, what can be concluded?
A) The experimental treatment exacerbated
the population cycling.
AP Test Style
which of the factors is influenced by the size
of the moose population?
A) r
B) N
C) rN
D) K
1) Scientists in Australia wanted to know the relationship between sea urchins, limpets, and the
distribution of seaweed. Both sea urchins and limpets are herbivores that graze on seaweed. What do
the data shown in this figure indicate about the pattern and distribution of seaweeds?
A) Both species influence seaweed distribution, but limpets have the primary
effect.
B) Seaweed distribution is determined by global sea temperatures, not predators.
C) Sea urchins have the greatest influence on seaweed distribution.
D) The influence on seaweed distribution is roughly equal in impact from both
limpets and sea urchins.
2) In this figure, notice that it indicates seaweed cover was greatest when both sea urchins and limpets
were removed. The data indicate that seaweed cover was greater than expected by the addition of just
the removal of limpets, or just the removal of urchins. Which of the proposals explain how the removal
of both limpets and urchins together could be greater than their individual affect on seaweed cover?
A) With their sea urchin competitors removed, limpet populations were able to
increase causing an increased loss of seaweed cover.
B) Limpets are the primary consumers of seaweed, so the removal of sea urchins
allowed their population to consume a variety of algae and plants.
C) The data indicate that sea urchins are stimulated to eat more seaweed in the
presence of limpets.
D) With the loss of sea urchins, limpet populations also declined, as shown in the
graph as the difference between the green and blue lines.
3) A population of squirrels on an island has a carrying capacity of 350 individuals. If the maximum rate
of increase is 1.0 per individual per year and the population size is 275, determine the population
growth (Round to the nearest whole number).
A) 59 squirrels per year
B) -34 squirrels per year
C) 75 squirrels per year
D) 15 squirrels per year
4)
Age structure pyramids such as those shown in the accompanying figure show the percent of males and
females in age groups or cohorts. These can indicate potential societal issues that help us plan for the
future. Which statement most accurately describes potential societal problems that can be inferred by
the data shown here?
A) Italians are likely to face intense competition for educational and employment
opportunities.
B) In Afghanistan, young people will rapidly face a significant financial burden for
supporting the country’s increasing elderly population.
C) In the United States there will be a decreasing need for social services for the
elderly in the next 20 years and greater demand for more primary schools.
D) Afghanistan is likely to face intense competition for educational and employment
opportunities due to the large number of people entering reproductive age.
AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1)
2)
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D
PTS: 1
B
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D
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A
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A
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A
PTS: 1
C
PTS: 1
C
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C
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C
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D
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D
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B
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D
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Knowledge/Comprehension
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
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Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
TOP:
TOP:
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Section: 1.1
Section: 1.1
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 52.1
TOP: Section: 52.2
TOP: Section: 52.2
TOP: Section: 52.3
TOP: Section: 52.4
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
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Knowledge/Comprehension
Knowledge/Comprehension
Knowledge/Comprehension
Application/Analysis
Knowledge/Comprehension
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Knowledge/Comprehension
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C
PTS: 1
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C
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A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
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D
PTS: 1
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D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
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B
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C
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AP TEST STYLE
1) ANS:
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.5
TOP: Section: 53.6
TOP: Section: 53.6
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.5
TOP: Section: 53.5
C
PTS: 1
2) ANS:
TOP: Section: 52.4
BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation
TOP: Section: 52.4
BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation
TOP: Section: 53.3
BLM: Application/Analysis
TOP: Section: 53.6
BLM: Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
3) ANS:
A
PTS: 1
4) ANS:
D
PTS:
1