Download carl circuits - El Camino College

UNIT 2 – RT 244 MORE REVIEW QUESTIONS
CIRCUITRY – TOMOGRAPHY - EQUIPMENT
True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
____
1. As two electrical charges move further apart, the force between them decreases proportionally to the inverse
square of their separation.
____
2. Electron flow and conventional current are equal in magnitude, yet opposite in direction.
____
3. Because the human body is an infinite supply of electric charges, it is used for the reference of ground.
____
4. The force between two charges is inversely proportional to the product of their magnitudes and directly
proportional to the square of the distances between them.
____
5. Objects can be electrified by induction.
____
6. Induction is the process of electrical fields acting on one another with contact.
____
7. Electrons flow from greatest potential difference to least potential difference.
____
8. For potential difference to exist, there must be electron flow.
____
9. As the length of a conductor increases, the resistance increases.
____ 10. The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always greater than the amount of the highest resistor.
____ 11. Magnetic lines of force are also referred to as flux lines.
____ 12. Coulomb’s Law can be applied to magnetism.
____ 13. Electromagnets are permanent magnets.
____ 14. Fleming's hand rules are based on electron flow.
____ 15. Mutual induction occurs when two coils are connected in series, causing current to flow in the secondary coil.
____ 16. An AC generator produces a current that is expressed mathematically as a sinusoidal wave.
____ 17. The apparent total resistance of an AC current is called impedance.
____ 18. As the length of a conductor increases, the resistance increases.
____ 19. Therapeutic equipment operates at much lower energies than diagnostic equipment.
____ 20. Therapy equipment operates at high voltages and low amperages.
____ 21. Floating tops can be moved when an electromagnetic brake is engaged.
____ 22. The telescoping column of the overhead suspension system controls horizontal movement.
____ 23. A head unit consists of a bucky tray and an x-ray tube.
____ 24. In the United States, the incoming line voltage to an x-ray unit is approximately 120 volts.
____ 25. The root mean square voltage of a single-phase sinusoidal wave is usually given as 70.7% of the peak voltage.
____ 26. During three-phase power, the overall potential difference drops to zero.
____ 27. The cathode is the negative side of the x-ray tube.
____ 28. The filament is set in the cathode assembly outside of the focusing cup.
____ 29. Electrons in the thermionic cloud are driven from cathode to anode with 100% efficiency.
____ 30. Most x-ray tubes have a dual-focus arrangement.
____ 31. To prolong x-ray tube life, the exposure switch should be partially depressed for a few seconds before
complete depression occurs.
____ 32. Filament saturation occurs when the negative charge of the electron cloud opposes the emission of additional
electrons from the filament.
____ 33. The faster the anode rotation, the better the heat dissipation.
____ 34. Like the cathode, the anode is comprised of a single metal called tungsten.
____ 35. The line-focus principle is used to reduce the actual area of the focal spot.
____ 36. When the target angle is less than 45°, the effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot.
____ 37. As the anode target angle increases, the primary beam field size increases.
____ 38. In radiology, the term focal spot size refers to the effective focal spot.
____ 39. According to the anode heel effect, the radiation intensity is greater on the anode side.
____ 40. The entire cathode and anode assemblies are enclosed within the glass envelope.
____ 41. Off-focus radiation is of significantly lower energy than the primary beam itself.
____ 42. As the tomographic amplitude increases, the section thickness decreases.
____ 43. Since the advent of computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging, tomographic procedures have
increased in number.
____ 44. There is a direct relationship between distance from the fulcrum and blurring.
____ 45. Objects above and below the fulcrum are projected directly on the fulcrum.
____ 46. There is an inverse relationship between the tomographic amplitude and the section thickness.
____ 47. The exposure amplitude is always equal to or greater than the tomographic amplitude.
____ 48. Increased blurring causes decreased density.
____ 49. As the tomographic amplitude increases, blurring decreases.
____ 50. As the distance of the object from the fulcrum increases, blur decreases.
____ 51. The distance from the image receptor has a direct relationship to the blur width.
____ 52. Phantoms commonly occur during circular tomography.
____ 53. As the exposure angle increases, the section thickness increases.
____ 54. Complex tomographic motions require counter-rotation of the grid.
____ 55. During linear tomography, structures parallel to the motion streak.
____ 56. Tomography is most often used to localize objects that are difficult to see due to superimposed structures.
____ 57. Due to limitations caused by fixed time settings, all fine adjustments must be accomplished by variations of
kVp.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 58. The resistance in a wire decreases as its diameter ____.
a. increases
c. remains the same
b. decreases
d. none of the above
____ 59. If the total resistance in a circuit is 9 ohms and the total voltage is 3 volts, the current is ____.
a. 1/27 ampere
c. 3 amperes
b. 1/3 ampere
d. 27 amperes
____ 60. If a DC circuit is ____.
a. in series, the currents are different for each component (e.g., resistors)
b. in series, the voltages are the same for each component
c. in parallel, the currents are equal for all paths of the circuit
d. in parallel, the voltages are equal for all paths of the circuit
____ 61. Current is ____.
a. time/charge
c. (charge)(time)
b. charge/time
d. charge/time2
____ 62. Coulomb's Law of electrical forces is mathematically described as ____.
a. F = q1q2/r2
c. F = q1q2/r
2
b. F = q/r
d. F = q2/r
____ 63. A current of 2 amperes and a resistance of 8 ohms require what voltage in a circuit?
a. 1/16 volt
c. 4 volts
b. 1/4 volt
d. 16 volts
____ 64. When an electric current flows through a wire with resistance, energy is ____.
a. liberated as x-rays
c. liberated as light
b. liberated as heat
d. absorbed as heat
____ 65. Ohm's Law is mathematically described as ____.
a. C = Q/V
c. R = V/I
b. L = -V/It
d. V = I2R
____ 66. Electric potential is measured in ____.
a. coulombs
c. volts
b. joules
d. ohms
____ 67. Electric insulators ____.
a. convert electrical energy into heat
c. inhibit movement of electrical charge
b. consist of materials like silicon
d. permit movement of electrical charge
____ 68. If 20 volts of potential difference causes a current of 5 amperes, the resistance produced is ____.
a. 1/100 ohm
c. 4 ohms
b. 1/4 ohm
d. 100 ohms
____ 69. A volt is a measure of ____.
a. random drift velocity
c. current
b. flow rate
d. potential difference
____ 70. A charge would lose most of its energy when it passes through a ____.
a. resistor
c. generator
b. battery
d. all of the above
____ 71. If the distance between two electrical charges is doubled, the force between them is ____.
a. decreased by 1/4
c. doubled
b. decreased by 1/2
d. quadrupled
____ 72. A formulation of power in a circuit with an EMF source and a resistor with a current is ____.
a. P = IV
c. P = I2R
b. P = IR/V
d. more than one of the above
____ 73. An ampere is ____.
a. coulomb/sec
c. (volt)(ohm)
b. (coulomb)(sec)
d. ohm/volt
____ 74. Resistance is ____.
a. the opposition to the flow of electrons
b. the opposition to the generation of electromotive force
c. the location of storage of electrons
d. measured in amperes
____ 75. The charge on each of two objects is doubled and they are moved twice as far apart. The force between them
is ____.
a. increased by a factor of 4
c. increased by a factor of 1/2
b. increased by a factor of 2
d. unchanged
____ 76. A circuit has a current of 2 amperes and a resistance of 4 ohms. The maximum power that can be delivered is
____.
a. 16 watts
c. 2 watts
b. 8 watts
d. 1/2 watt
____ 77. The unit of electrical power is ____.
a. joule
c. ampere
b. volt
d. watt
____ 78. If 10 coulombs pass a point in 2 seconds, the current is ____.
a. 0.20 amp
c. 20 amps
b. 5 amps
d. 200 amps
____ 79. The electrons in an electrical current ____.
a. all have the same velocity
b. flow from one end of the circuit to another
c. have a net motion in the direction opposite to the conventional current flow
d. none of the above
____ 80. In a battery circuit with several resistors of different values connected in series ____.
a. the voltage drop is the same across all the resistors
b. the current through each resistor is different
c. the power dissipated through each resistor is the same
d. none of the above
____ 81. If a conductor is positively charged, it ____.
a. has too many electrons
c. has more neutrons than electrons
b. is deficient in electrons
d. is deficient in protons
____ 82. The mA is a unit of ____.
a. EMF
c. current
b. voltage
d. potential difference
____ 83. A magnetic field is produced by ____.
a. electric charges at rest
b. electric charges in motion
c. permanent magnets only
d. electric charges both at rest and in motion
____ 84. An alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field is produced by ____.
a. a stationary magnet
c. a battery
____ 85.
____ 86.
____ 87.
____ 88.
____ 89.
____ 90.
____ 91.
____ 92.
____ 93.
____ 94.
____ 95.
____ 96.
b. a steady current flowing in a wire
d. none of the above
A diode electron tube ____.
a. is used for amplification
c. cannot reach saturation
b. has a negatively charged anode
d. can be used for rectification
The magnetic flux through a wire loop ____.
a. requires a time varying magnetic field
b. is maximum when the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field
c. increases as the magnetic field decreases
d. none of the above
The charge carriers are considered to be a negative in a ____.
a. diode
c. N-type semiconductor
b. triode
d. P-type semiconductor
Electrons move southward in a vertical wire. The direction of the associated magnetic field directly around
the wire is ____.
a. clockwise
c. in the direction of the electron flow
b. counter-clockwise
d. opposite to the conventional current
An induced current in a wire loop ____.
a. results from a constant magnetic flux
b. can result only from an alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field
c. is in such a direction that its effects oppose the change producing it
d. always decreases when the magnetic flux decreases
The process of electrons being emitted from heated metallic surfaces is called ____.
a. thermionic emission
c. equilibrium
b. thermionic remission
d. potential difference
The magnitude felt by a moving charge through a magnetic field would be least if the charge were ____.
a. moving directly into the magnetic field
b. moving directly away from the magnetic field
c. moving at a right angle to the magnetic field
d. both a and b
A generator is a device that converts ____.
a. electrical energy into heat energy
b. heat energy into electrical energy
c. mechanical energy into electrical energy
d. electrical energy into mechanical energy
A simple DC generator has essentially the same construction as an AC generator except that a DC generator
has ____.
a. slip rings
c. brushes
b. a commutator
d. armature
A rectifier ____.
a. refers to a type of electromagnetic device
b. refers to a type of electromechanical device
c. converts DC to AC
d. converts AC to DC
A motor is a device that converts ____.
a. heat energy into electrical energy
b. electrical energy into mechanical energy
c. electrical energy into heat energy
d. mechanical energy into electrical energy
A transformer with more secondary windings than primary windings ____.
____ 97.
____ 98.
____ 99.
____ 100.
____ 101.
____ 102.
____ 103.
____ 104.
____ 105.
____ 106.
____ 107.
____ 108.
____ 109.
a. has a greater secondary voltage
c. has a greater power output than input
b. is a step-down transformer
d. none of the above
Which of the following is a component of a tube-type rectifier?
a. filament
c. primary windings
b. magnetic core
d. secondary windings
A bar magnet and a wire loop move with the same linear velocity. What is the voltage induced in the wire?
a. relative to the angle of incidence
c. inversely proportional to the velocities
b. directly proportional to their velocities
d. zero
For a simple AC generator, the value of the induced voltage in the armature loop is maximum when the
orientation of the armature as compared to the magnetic field is ____.
a. at a node
c. 90 degrees
b. 45 degrees
d. 180 degrees
How many times does an AC current change direction in a single minute?
a. 1
c. 60
b. 2
d. 7,200
The efficiency of a transformer is not affected by ____.
a. eddy current loss
c. hysteresis loss
b. power loss
d. all of the above
American generators operate at ____.
a. 220 V
c. 60 Hz
b. 120 AC
d. 30 A
A stator consists of ____.
a. bars of copper around an iron core
c. a rotor
b. commutator rings
d. electromagnets
Conventional current flows ____.
a. from cathode to anode
b. from anode to cathode
c. in either direction
d. in the same direction as the electron flow
How many alterations in the direction of the current flow occur per second in a 60-Hz AC current?
a. 20
c. 90
b. 60
d. 120
At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located?
a. between the semiconductors and the valve tubes
b. between the step-down transformer and the rheostat
c. between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube
d. between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray machines
Where is the stator of the anode induction motor located?
a. inside the glass envelope but outside the rotor
b. outside the glass envelope and outside the rotor
c. inside the glass envelope and inside the rotor
d. outside the glass envelope but inside the rotor
The exposure switch on an x-ray machine is intended to ____.
a. initiate the exposure
b. terminate the exposure
c. both initiate and terminate the exposure
d. rotate the anode up to speed
The exposure switch is found between the ____.
____ 110.
____ 111.
____ 112.
____ 113.
____ 114.
____ 115.
____ 116.
____ 117.
____ 118.
____ 119.
____ 120.
____ 121.
a. incoming line and the circuit breaker
b. autotransformer and the timer circuit
c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer
d. incoming line and the step-down transformer
The electrical device used to adjust the mA selection is the ____.
a. autotransformer
c. switch
b. stator
d. variable resistor
The time control is found between the ____.
a. incoming line and the exposure switch
b. autotransformer and the timer circuit
c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer
d. incoming line and the step-down transformer
The mA control is found between the ____.
a. incoming line and the exposure switch
b. autotransformer and the timer circuit
c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer
d. incoming line and the step-down transformer
The kVp control is found between the ____.
a. incoming line and the exposure switch
b. autotransformer and the timer circuit
c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer
d. incoming line and the step-down transformer
Medical x-ray units can be classified as ____.
a. diagnostic
c. fluoroscopic
b. therapeutic
d. both a and b
The diagnostic x-ray range is approximately ____.
a. 10 to 1,200 mA
c. 25 to 150 kVp
b. 0.001 to 10 seconds
d. all of the above
The advantage of a curved top radiographic table is ____.
a. positioning accuracy in oblique and lateral positions
b. level support of the radiographic film
c. easy clean up
d. a smaller object image distance
The Bucky tray consists of ____.
a. a moving 14 × 17 inch grid
c. a moving 17 × 17 inch grid
b. a stationary 14 × 17 inch grid
d. a stationary 17 × 17 inch grid
Radiographic table tops may be ____.
a. floating
c. motor driven
b. stationary
d. all of the above
Radiographic rooms equipped with a tilting table are primarily designed for performing ____ procedures.
a. diagnostic
c. fluoroscopic
b. angiographic
d. both a and c
The height of the average radiographic table top to the floor is ____ inches.
a. 25
c. 60
b. 40
d. 120
Tube suspension systems include ____.
a. overhead
c. C-arm
b. mobile
d. all of the above
____ 122. Which tube suspension system offers the greatest multidirectional movement?
a. overhead tube suspension system
c. floor tube suspension system
b. floor-to-ceiling tube suspension system
d. mobile tube suspension system
____ 123. The incoming line current is supplied ____.
a. in the form of a three-phase power cycle
b. in the form of a single-phase power cycle
c. as a direct current
d. at approximately 60 volts
____ 124. Nearly all x-ray equipment operates from an incoming line of ____.
a. 210 V
c. 120 Hz
b. 120 AC
d. 210 A
____ 125. When full-wave rectification is applied to three-phase current, a ____ ripple is produced.
a. wye
c. voltage
b. star
d. delta
____ 126. A three-phase, rectified current produces a voltage ripple of ____ pulses per Hz.
a. 3
c. 9
b. 6
d. 24
____ 127. A star or delta connection is used to ____.
a. tap a single phase of power
c. produce rectification
b. combine three-phase current
d. drop the wave peak to zero
____ 128. Which condition is needed to produce an x-ray?
a. a source of electrons
c. a large potential difference
b. a vacuum
d. all of the above
____ 129. The function of the cathode is to produce ____.
a. a focal point
c. a thermionic cloud
b. an electrical connection to the rectifier
d. a grounding effect
____ 130. Each of the following is a part of the cathode assembly except the ____.
a. filament
c. focusing cup
b. stator
d. associated wiring
____ 131. Each of the following is a material of choice for the filament except ____.
a. copper
c. rhenium
b. tungsten
d. molybdenum
____ 132. Filament materials are chosen for their ____.
a. low melting points
c. ability to vaporize easily
b. high melting points
d. high boiling points
____ 133. Which of the following would affect the production of a thermionic cloud?
a. filament diameter
c. filament temperature
b. filament length
d. all of the above
____ 134. A filament may break due to ____.
a. evaporation
c. increased sensitivity
b. deposition
d. vaporization
____ 135. Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires ____.
a. a large potential difference
c. a large amperage
b. a small voltage
d. a small amperage
____ 136. Production of the thermionic cloud requires ____.
a. kilovoltage
c. amperage
b. resistance
d. more than one of the above
____ 137. The focusing cup has a/an ____ charge.
____ 138.
____ 139.
____ 140.
____ 141.
____ 142.
____ 143.
____ 144.
____ 145.
____ 146.
____ 147.
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
a. neutral
c. positive
b. atomic
d. negative
As more and more electrons build up in the area of the filament, their negative charges oppose the emission of
additional electrons. This phenomenon is known as ____.
a. thermionic emission
c. space charge effect
b. biased cloud formation
d. current saturation
X-ray photon production occurs at the ____.
a. anode
c. filament
b. cathode
d. stator
Tungsten is the metal of choice for the source of x-ray photons because of its ____.
a. high atomic number
c. low mass number
b. low melting point
d. all of the above
Pitting of the anode commonly occurs ____.
a. when the unit is not warmed-up properly
b. when the anode is off focus
c. with extended use
d. when the kilovoltage is too high
Melting of the anode commonly occurs ____.
a. when the unit is not warmed up properly
b. with extended use
c. when the kilovoltage is too high
d. when the stator fails and the rotor ceases to turn
Cracking of the anode commonly occurs ____.
a. when the kilovoltage is too high
b. when the anode is off focus
c. with extended use
The exact point in the x-ray unit where photons are created is the ____.
a. focusing cup
c. stator
b. focal spot
d. rotor
The physical area of the focal track affected by the electron beam is the ____.
a. effective focal spot
c. actual focal spot
b. effective focal track
d. all of the above
The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube towards the object being radiographed is the ____.
a. effective focal spot
c. actual focal spot
b. effective focal track
d. all of the above
The effective focal spot is controlled by all of the following except the ____.
a. size of the actual focal spot
c. anode target angle
b. length of the filament
d. all of the above
The actual focal spot is controlled by the ____.
a. size of the actual focal spot
c. anode target angle
b. length of the filament
d. all of the above
The most common diagnostic radiography target angle is ____ degrees.
a. 12
c. 45
b. 24
d. 54
As the actual focal spot size increases, the effective focal spot size ____.
a. increases
c. remains the same
b. decreases
d. cannot be determined
____ 151. As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal
spot size ____.
a. increases
c. remains the same
b. decreases
d. cannot be determined
____ 152. To cover a 14 in x 17 ft field at 40 ft, a ____-degree target angle is required.
a. 3
c. 7
b. 5
d. 12
____ 153. The use of the line-focus principle causes a problem known as the ____ effect.
a. space charge
c. anode heel
b. quantum mottle
d. vacuum
____ 154. The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the glass envelope is the ____.
a. stator
c. rotating disc
b. rotor
d. molybdenum neck
____ 155. The function of the stator and rotor assembly is to ____.
a. create a vacuum
b. rotate the anode
c. insulate the anode
d. disrupt the electromagnets of the induction motor
____ 156. The rotor is located ____ the stator and ____ the glass envelope.
a. inside, inside
c. outside, outside
b. inside, outside
d. outside, inside
____ 157. The protective housing controls leakage and scatter radiation through ____.
a. evaporation
c. absorption
b. vaporization
d. condensation
____ 158. Insulation of the high-voltage components of the tube and absorption of the heat produced by x-ray
production is achieved through the use of ____.
a. a small fan
c. a stator
b. a vacuum
d. dielectric oil
____ 159. What type of radiation is composed of photons not produced at the focal spot?
a. off-focus
c. both a and b
b. extrafocal
d. neither a nor b
____ 160. Tomography is referred to as ____.
a. planigraphy
c. laminography
b. stratigraphy
d. more than one of the above
____ 161. The object to be examined is placed at the ____.
a. tomographic arc
c. exposure arc
b. fulcrum
d. image receptor level
____ 162. The object tomographed at the area located at the fulcrum is ____.
a. minified
c. streaked
b. blurred
d. sharp
____ 163. The greater the distance from the fulcrum, the ____ the blurring.
a. lesser
c. thinner
b. greater
d. thicker
____ 164. Terms used to refer to the tomographic image include ____.
a. cut
c. slice
b. section
d. all of the above
____ 165. The tomographic ____ is the total distance traveled by the tube.
a. arc
c. blur
____ 166.
____ 167.
____ 168.
____ 169.
____ 170.
____ 171.
____ 172.
____ 173.
____ 174.
____ 175.
____ 176.
b. fulcrum
d. thickness
Tomography causes the blurring of nearly all recorded detail of objects outside the ____.
a. area above the fulcrum
c. focal plane
b. area below the fulcrum
d. amplitude
The production of phantoms would be least likely with which tomographic motion?
a. linear
c. trispiral
b. circular
d. elliptical
Phantoms most commonly occur when the tube motion is ____ to the long axis of the structure.
a. parallel
c. tangential
b. perpendicular
d. all of the above
The fulcrum ____.
a. is the pivot point
c. controls the section level
b. determines the focal plane
d. all of the above
The distance between fulcrum levels is the ____.
a. tomographic angle
c. section interval
b. exposure amplitude
d. none of the above
To avoid excessive shape distortion, pluridirectional tube motions do not exceed ____ degrees.
a. 20
c. 30
b. 25
d. 48
When the movement of the tube and the image receptor are along a straight line, the tomographic motion is
classified as ____.
a. linear
c. elliptical
b. circular
d. trispiral
The major quality problem of linear tomography is changing ____.
a. SID
c. SOD
b. OID
d. all of the above
Which one of the tomographic motions produces the thinnest section?
a. hypercycloidal
c. circular
b. figure-eight
d. linear
The exposure time must match the ____.
a. fulcrum height
b. section thickness
c. length of time required for the x-ray tube to complete the tomographic amplitude
d. none of the above
Common mA stations found on dedicated tomographic machines may include each of the following except
____.
a. 10
c. 40
b. 30
d. 100
Short Answer
177. List the three ways to induce an EMF.
178. The magnitude of an induced EMF depends on what four factors?
179. What is the function of the filament?
180. List the three functions of the x-ray tube anode.
181. List two other names for the anode target.
182. List the three parts of the anode assembly.
183. In which direction should the anode be placed for an AP projection of the femur?
184. Why is a vacuum created in the tube?
185. List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube protective housing.
Problem
186. If a circuit has potential difference of 80 kV and a current of 400 mA, what is the resistance?
187. A 100 watt light bulb operates on 120-volt household voltage. How much current does the light bulb draw?
188. How much resistance does the bulb offer?
189. What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4
ohms each in parallel?
190. Calculate the current supplied to a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances
of 4 ohms each in parallel.
191. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 65?
192. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 75?
193. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 80?
194. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 300 mA, and 0.1 second on a single  fullwave rectified unit?
195. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.1 second on a 3  6-pulse unit?
196. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second on a 3  12-pulse
unit?
197. How many heat units are generated by 3 exposures of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second on a 3  12-pulse
unit?
carl circuits
Answer Section
TRUE/FALSE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
T
T
F
F
T
F
T
F
T
F
T
T
F
F
F
T
T
T
F
T
F
F
T
F
T
F
T
F
F
T
F
F
T
F
F
T
T
T
F
F
T
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Easy
Easy
Easy
Easy
Medium
Easy
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
T
F
T
F
T
F
T
F
F
T
T
F
T
T
T
T
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
MULTIPLE CHOICE
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
B
D
B
A
D
B
C
C
C
C
D
A
A
D
A
A
D
A
D
B
C
D
B
C
B
D
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
D
B
C
B
B
A
D
C
B
D
B
A
A
D
C
D
D
C
D
B
D
C
B
A
B
D
D
D
A
D
D
D
C
D
D
B
D
A
A
A
C
B
B
D
C
B
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Medium
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Easy
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
B
D
D
D
D
D
C
A
A
C
D
A
B
C
A
D
B
A
A
A
D
C
A
B
A
C
D
C
D
B
D
B
D
A
C
A
A
D
C
D
A
D
A
C
D
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
SHORT ANSWER
177. ANS:
move the conductor through a magnetic field, move the magnetic field across a stationary conductor, and vary
the magnetic field strength across a stationary conductor
DIF: Medium
178. ANS:
the strength of the magnetic field, the speed of the motion between lines of force and the conductor, the angle
between the magnetic lines of force and the conductor, and the number of turns in the conducting coil
DIF: Difficult
179. ANS:
The function of the filament is to provide sufficient resistance to the flow of electrons so the heat produced
will cause thermionic emission to occur.
DIF: Medium
180. ANS:
it serves as the target surface for the high-voltage electrons from the filament (x-ray photon source), it
conducts the high voltage from the cathode back into the x-ray generator circuitry, and it serves as the primary
thermal conductor
DIF: Difficult
181. ANS:
target, focus, focal point, focal spot, or focal track
DIF: Easy
182. ANS:
the anode, the stator, and the rotor
DIF: Medium
183. ANS:
Because the inferior upper leg is less dense, the anode’s less intense beam should be positioned toward the
knee to help decrease the film density in that region.
DIF: Medium
184. ANS:
The removal of air permits electrons to flow from cathode to anode without encountering the gas atoms in the
air. This greatly increases the efficiency of the tube’s operation.
DIF: Medium
185. ANS:
The x-ray tube protective housing controls scatter and leakage radiation, isolates the high voltages, and
provides a means to cool the tube.
DIF: Medium
PROBLEM
186. ANS:
2.0 × 105 ohms
DIF: Difficult
187. ANS:
0.83 amp
DIF: Difficult
188. ANS:
144.6 ohms
DIF: Difficult
189. ANS:
10 ohms
DIF: Difficult
190. ANS:
2 amperes
DIF: Difficult
191. ANS:
45.9 kVp
DIF: Difficult
192. ANS:
53.0 kVp
DIF: Difficult
193. ANS:
56.6 kVp
DIF: Difficult
194. ANS:
2,100 HU
DIF: Difficult
195. ANS:
3,780 HU
DIF: Difficult
196. ANS:
564 HU
DIF: Difficult
197. ANS:
1,692 HU
DIF: Difficult