Download Geology (Chernicoff) - GEO

QUIZ 5 CHAPTERS 17-19
1) Glaciers are classified by:
A) their rate of growth.
B) their degree of confinement.
C) their size.
D) the rate at which their ice flows.
2) The glacier's zone of accumulation can be recognized by:
A) icebergs calving into a lake.
B) snow from the previous winter covering the glacier ice.
C) exposed, bare ice.
D) rocks and boulders melting from the ice.
3) Glacial surges are caused by:
A) an accumulation of water at the base of the glacier.
B) rapid internal deformation of the ice.
C) a large buildup of snow in the zone of accumulation.
D) the weight of sediment trapped within the glacier.
4) In the alpine highlands of North America, Europe, and Asia, the most effective geologic shaping process would
be:
A) mass-movement.
B) wind erosion.
C) stream erosion.
D) erosion by glaciers.
5) The difference between a cirque and a tarn is:
A) a cirque is at the zone of accumulation while a tarn is at the zone of ablation.
B) a cirque is a basin made by a glacier while a tarn is a lake within a cirque.
C) a cirque is a basin made by a glacier while a tarn is a mountain pass between two cirques.
D) a tarn is a basin made by a glacier while a cirque is a sharp ridge between two tarns.
6) A submerged U-shaped valley is called a(n):
A) col.
B) hanging valley.
C) fjord.
D) arête.
7) The term "glacial drift" applies to:
A) all glacial deposits, collectively.
B) glacial deposits of very fine particles that eventually become wind-blown.
C) glacial deposits that are carried by meltwater into nearby streams.
D) the redistribution of glacial deposits by consecutive advances.
8) Till appears different from outwash in that:
A) till contains only smaller particles while outwash contains both small and large rock fragments.
B) till is darker in color than outwash.
C) till is better sorted and stratified than outwash.
D) till is less sorted and stratified than outwash.
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9) A terminal moraine forms when:
A) accumulation is less than ablation.
B) accumulation is greater than ablation.
C) accumulation and ablation are equal.
D) All of the above.
10) Loess is a soil formed by:
A) meltwater deposits of sand and gravel.
B) glacial advances over previously deposited moraines.
C) a mixture of sand and clay at the bottom of a meltwater lake.
D) wind-blown deposits of outwash silt.
11) During major glaciations, sea level was 130 meters lower than at present, facilitating land migration between:
A) Africa and South America.
B) Europe and North America.
C) North America and Asia.
D) Asia and Australia.
12) All of the following statements concerning Glacial Lake Missoula are true EXCEPT:
A) the lake was as large as present-day Lake Superior.
B) the lake was at least 300 meters deep.
C) the lake was impounded by the Purcell Ice Lobe.
D) the last flood took place about 13,000 years ago.
13) The best records of land-based glacial climates come from:
A) speleothems in tropical caves.
B) mammal fossils in permafrost.
C) glacial sediments.
D) fossil pollen preserved in lake sediments.
14) The term "albedo" refers to:
A) the percentage of solar radiation that is reflected away from the Earth's surface.
B) the percentage of solar radiation that is absorbed by the Earth's atmosphere.
C) the percentage of solar radiation that reaches the Earth's surface.
D) the percentage of solar radiation that is absorbed by the Earth's surface.
15) The "Little Ice Age":
A) was a period of cooler global temperatures from about 1300 to 1850 A.D. and included glacial expansion in midlatitude mountain ranges.
B) was the last major Pleistocene episode of glaciation, and ended about 10,000 years ago.
C) refers to the present Quaternary ice age, which, in geologic terms, has been shorter than many of the Earth's
earlier ice ages.
D) was the Earth's first known ice age, and occurred during the Precambrian Era.
16) By the year 2030, global warming may have raised sea level as much as:
A) 0.5 meter.
B) 0.5-1.0 meter.
C) 1-2 meters.
D) 3-5 meters.
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17) A desert is an area in which:
A) evaporation is greater than precipitation.
B) the total precipitation is less than 25 millimeters per year.
C) potential evaporation is four times greater than precipitation.
D) potential precipitation is four times greater than evaporation.
18) All of the following are types of deserts EXCEPT:
A) tropical.
B) cold.
C) temperate.
D) hot.
19) Deserts that result from their location on the leeward side of mountain ranges are:
A) subtropical deserts.
B) rain shadow deserts.
C) continental interior deserts.
D) deserts near cold ocean currents.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 583-584
Topic: Identifying Deserts
Skill: Factual/Definitional
20) Continental interior deserts are a result of:
A) great distance from moisture-laden winds.
B) the rain-shadow effect of high mountain ranges.
C) the assembly of continental plates landlocks the region.
D) All of the above.
21) Polar deserts are considered deserts because:
A) they lack vegetation.
B) they lack appreciable precipitation.
C) the temperatures remain below freezing year-round.
D) they receive little solar radiation.
22) What is the term for a thin coating of oxide staining exposed rock surfaces in deserts?
A) Desert pavement.
B) Ventifact.
C) Desert varnish.
D) Arroyo.
23) Arroyos are:
A) intense desert rainstorms.
B) accumulations of sediments at the ends of desert streams.
C) desert stream channels that are usually dry.
D) erosional remnants of mountains adjacent to deserts.
24) What is the term for an erosion surface with a slope of 5° or less at the base of a mountain?
A) Inselberg.
B) Yardang.
C) Ventifact.
D) Pediment.
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25) Which of the following statements concerning alluvial fans is NOT true?
A) Water that seeps into the surface may reemerge as a spring at the base of a fan.
B) The size of an alluvial fan is proportional to the size of its drainage basin.
C) Alluvial fans form because streams usually travel for long distances in deserts.
D) Alluvial fans may contain enough water to irrigate the adjacent desert area for cultivation.
26) What is the term for a dry lakebed located on the desert floor?
A) Playa.
B) Pediment.
C) Arroyo.
D) Oasis.
27) What is the process involving the removal of loose Earth materials by wind?
A) Infiltration.
B) Deflation.
C) Abrasion.
D) Evaporation.
28) What is the term for wind-shaped stones found in deserts?
A) Ventifact.
B) Desert pavement.
C) Desert varnish.
D) Inselberg.
29) Which of the following statements concerning wind transport is NOT true?
A) Wind does not need as high a velocity as a stream to transport particles.
B) Wind does not lift a loose particle directly from the surface.
C) The driving force of the wind and a particle's inertia are opposing forces in particle movement.
D) Vegetation and coarse sediment create a layer of dead air on the ground.
30) Which of the following statements correctly describes sand grains after they become airborne?
A) Particles move forward in curved, parabolic paths.
B) Grains overcome by gravity strike other grains, setting them in motion.
C) Grains overcome by gravity may nudge forward other grains they strike.
D) All of the above.
31) Sand dunes are produced by which one of the following mechanisms?
A) Bed-load deposition.
B) Suspended-load deposition.
C) Wash-load deposition.
D) Dissolved-load deposition.
32) Transverse dunes are:
A) parallel ridges oriented perpendicular to the prevailing wind direction.
B) crescent-shaped dunes with horns in the upwind direction.
C) parallel ridges oriented parallel to the prevailing wind direction.
D) complex dunes that form when wind blows from three or more principal directions.
33) The symptoms of desertification include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) significant lowering of the water table.
B) decreased salinity in natural waters and soils.
C) progressive destruction of native vegetation.
D) accelerated rate of erosion.
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34) All of the following statements are clues to past, more severe droughts that occurred in the Great Plains of
North America EXCEPT:
A) salt-dependant diatoms are found in lake-sediment cores.
B) there is evidence of periods when sand dunes were expanding.
C) tree rings record evidence of past dry spells.
D) evidence of forest expansion from river valleys.
35) Efforts to reverse desertification include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pumping groundwater.
B) desalinating river water.
C) controlling wind erosion.
D) inhibiting evaporation.
36) A beach is defined as:
A) the entire region bordering a body of water.
B) the precise boundary where a body of water meets dry land.
C) a sandy strip of land.
D) the strip of coast closest to a sea or lake.
37) Waves are produced by:
A) the gravitational pull of the Moon.
B) the gravitational pull of the Sun.
C) the rotation of the Earth.
D) the action of wind.
38) Wave refraction refers to:
A) the change within an ocean wave from oscillatory motion to translatory motion.
B) the bending of waves until they break, or fracture, to become breakers within the surf zone.
C) the bending of waves by constructive or destructive interference, as the waves encounter other waves.
D) the bending of the direction of travel of waves as part of the wave front drags bottom.
39) Longshore currents are propelled by:
A) tidal fluctuations.
B) the zigzag motion of swash and backwash.
C) wave refraction.
D) destructive interference between currents.
40) Two high tides occur on opposite sides of the Earth because:
A) one is caused by the Moon and one by the Sun.
B) one is in the Southern Hemisphere and one is in the Northern Hemisphere.
C) of the rotation of the Earth and the gravitational pull of the Moon.
D) of the revolution of the Moon around the Earth.
41) A flood tide that with a rapid and turbulent upstream movement is called a:
A) reverse flood tide.
B) reverse current.
C) tidal bore.
D) tidal flood.
42) Erosion of an irregular coastline begins with:
A) headlands.
B) sea stacks.
C) sea caves.
D) wave-cut benches.
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43) All of the following factors contribute to the erosion of Lake Michigan's eastern coastline EXCEPT:
A) the shoreline is composed of nonresistant glacial sediments.
B) extensive storm fetch exists across Lake Michigan to the eastern shore.
C) record low water levels in Lake Michigan.
D) recent warm winters have lacked the usual ice-protection from winter storms.
44) Most beach sediment originates:
A) at the ocean floor.
B) in the offshore surf zone.
C) from headlands and beach cliffs.
D) inland and upland.
45) The movement of sand along a beach face is called:
A) longshore current.
B) longshore drift.
C) beach drift.
D) beach current.
46) Which of the following wave depositional landforms lies seaward from the coast line?
A) A spit.
B) A tombolo.
C) A baymouth bar.
D) A hook.
47) The main difference between a primary coast and a secondary coast is:
A) primary coasts are much longer than secondary coasts.
B) primary coasts represent the main coastline, while secondary coasts are the shoreline within coastal inlets.
C) primary coasts are shaped principally by nonmarine processes, while secondary coasts are shaped primarily by
marine processes.
D) primary coasts are relatively even, smooth coastlines, while secondary coasts are characterized by numerous
headlands and inlets.
48) Which of the following is not considered a theory of the origin of barrier islands?
A) Barrier islands are elongated spits that have been separated from the mainland.
B) Barrier islands are sand deposits derived from beaches and deposited seaward by backwash.
C) Barrier islands are remnant sand dunes that existed when the sea level was lower.
D) Barrier islands are sand deposits derived from the continental shelves and deposited by waves.
49) Reef organisms are limited geographically by which of the following factors?
A) Their need for a reduction in salinity is provided by dilution from freshwater systems.
B) Their mode of filter feeding helps them to filter quantities of suspended particles from water.
C) Growth near the surface is primarily due to their production of food through photosynthesis.
D) Warm-water requirements tend to limit their growth to latitudes between 30° north to 25° south.
50) Erosional features such as sea stacks and wave-cut benches are commonly associated with:
A) transform fault boundaries.
B) older, passive continental margins.
C) recently rifted divergent plate boundaries.
D) coasts lined with barrier islands.
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