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Final Exam Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. A researcher uses an anonymous survey to investigate the television-viewing habits of American
adolescents. Based on the set of 356 surveys that were completed and returned, the researcher finds
that these students spend an average of 3.1 hours each day watching television. For this study, the set
of 356 students who returned surveys is an example of a _______.
a. parameter
c. population
b. statistic
d. sample
____
2. A researcher is curious about the average monthly cell phone bill for high school students in the state
of Florida. If this average could be obtained, it would be an example of a ______.
a. sample
c. population
b. statistic
d. parameter
____
3. The average verbal SAT score for the entire class of entering freshmen is 530. However, if you
select a sample of 20 freshmen and compute their average verbal SAT score you probably will not
get exactly 530. What statistical concept is used to explain the natural difference that exists between
a sample mean and the corresponding population mean?
a. Statistical error
c. Sampling error
b. Inferential error
d. Parametric error
____
4. A recent study reports that students who just finished playing a prosocial video game were more
likely to help others than students who had played a neutral or antisocial game. For this study, what
is the independent variable?
a. The students who were given the prosocial game
b. The students who were given the neutral or antisocial game
c. The kind of game given to the students
d. The helping behavior of the students
____
5. Which of the following is an example of a discrete variable?
a. The age of each student in a psychology class
b. The gender of each student in a psychology class
c. The amount of time to solve a problem
d. The amount of weight gained for each freshman at a local college
____
6. Students in an introductory art class are classified as art majors and non-art majors. What scale of
measurement is being used to classify the students?
a. Nominal
c. Interval
b. Ordinal
d. Ratio
2
____
7. What is the first step to be performed in the following mathematical expression, ΣX ?
a. Square each score
c. Add the squared scores
b. Add the scores
d. Square the sum of the scores
____
8. What is the value of (ΣX) for the scores 1, 5, 2?
2
a. 10
b. 16
____
c. 30
d. 64
2
9. For the scores in the following table, what is the value of ΣX ?
X
4
3
2
1
f
1
2
1
3
a.
b.
c.
d.
30
41
65
225
____ 10. For the following distribution of quiz scores, How many individuals had a score of X = 2?
X
5
4
3
2
1
a.
b.
c.
d.
f
6
5
5
3
2
1
3
5
Cannot be determined
____ 11. A set of scores ranges from a high of X = 24 to a low of X = 5. If these scores were put in a
frequency distribution table with an interval width of 2 points, which of the following would be the
top interval in the table?
a. 4-5
c. 24-25
b. 23-24
d. 22-24
____ 12. For the following frequency distribution of exam scores, how many students had scores higher than
X = 79?
X
90-94
85-89
80-84
75-79
70-74
a.
b.
c.
d.
f
3
4
5
2
1
7
12
19
Cannot be determined
____ 13. In a grouped frequency distribution, one interval is listed as 50-59. Assuming that the scores are
measuring a continuous variable, what are the real limits for this interval?
a. 50 and 59
c. 49.5 and 59.5
b. 50.5 and 59.5
d. 49.5 and 60.5
____ 14. What frequency distribution graph is appropriate for scores measured on a nominal scale?
a. Only a histogram
c. Either a histogram or a polygon
b. Only a polygon
d. Only a bar graph
____ 15. A biologist records the number of trout, bass, perch, and other types of fish caught in a local lake
during a 2-week period. If the results are organized in a frequency distribution graph, what kind of
graph should be used?
a. A bar graph
c. A polygon
b. A histogram
d. Either a histogram or a polygon
____ 16. What is the shape of the distribution for the following set of data?
X
5
4
3
2
1
a.
b.
c.
d.
f
1
1
2
4
5
Symmetrical
Positively skewed
Negatively skewed
Normal
____ 17. My electric bills for June, July, and August last summer were $75, $75, and $150, respectively.
What was the mean amount for the three bills?
a. $75
b. $100
c. $125
d. $150
____ 18. After 5 points are subtracted from every score, the sample mean is found to be M = 24. What was the
mean for the original sample?
29
24
19
Cannot determine without knowing the number of scores in the sample
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 19. A set of n = 4 scores has a mean of µ = 11. If 8 points are subtracted from one of the scores, what is
the new value for the population mean?
a. 13
b. 11
c. 10
d. 9
____ 20. A population of N = 10 scores has a mean of µ = 6. After one score is removed, the mean is found to
be M = 5. What is the value of the score that was removed?
c. X = 3
d. X = 15
a. X = 10
b. X = 5
____ 21. What is the value of the median for the following set of scores? Scores: 1, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 13, 23, 25,
26
a.
b.
c.
d.
7
8
10
12.5
____ 22. What is the median for the population of scores shown in the frequency distribution table?
X
5
4
3
2
1
f
1
2
3
4
2
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.5
3
3.5
4
____ 23. What is the mode for the population of scores shown in the frequency distribution table?
X
5
4
3
2
1
f
1
2
3
4
2
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
3.5
4
____ 24. For a positively skewed distribution with a mean of M = 20, what is the most probable value for the
median?
a. Greater than 20
b. Less than 20
c. 20
d. Cannot be determined from the information given
____ 25. What is the value of SS (sum of squared deviations) for the following population? Population: 1, 1,
1, 5
a. 3
b. 7
c. 12
d. 28
2
____ 26. A population of N = 5 scores has ΣX = 20 and ΣX = 100. For this population, what is the value of
SS?
a. 20
b. 80
c. 100
d. 380
____ 27. What is the variance for the following population of scores? Scores: 5, 2, 5, 4
a. 6
c. 1.5
b. 2
d. 1.22
2
____ 28. A sample of n = 4 scores has ΣX = 8 and ΣX = 40. What is the value of SS for this sample?
a. 6
c. 24
b. 8
d. 40
____ 29. What are the values for SS and variance for the following sample of n = 3 scores? Sample: 1, 4, 7
a. SS = 18 and variance = 6
c. SS = 66 and variance = 22
b. SS = 18 and variance = 9
d. SS = 66 and variance = 33
____ 30. The sum of the squared deviation scores is SS = 20 for a sample of n = 5 scores. What is the variance
for this sample?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 80
d. 100
____ 31. Which of the following actions will have no effect on the value of the standard deviation?
a. Multiply each score in the distribution by 2
b. Divide each score in the distribution by 2
c. Subtract 5 points from every score in the distribution
d. All of the other actions will change the value of the standard deviation
____ 32. On an exam with a mean of µ = 70, you have a score of X = 65. Which of the following values for
the standard deviation would give you the highest position within the class?
σ=1
σ=5
σ = 10
Cannot determine from the information given
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 33. For a population with a standard deviation of σ = 6, what is the z-score corresponding to a score that
is 12 points above the mean?
a. z = 1
b. z = 2
c. z = 6
d. z = 12
____ 34. For a population with µ = 40 and σ = 8, what is the z-score corresponding to X = 34?
a. –0.50
c. –1.00
b. –0.75
d. –1.50
____ 35. For a population with µ = 40 and σ = 8, what is the X value corresponding to z = 1.50?
a. 44
c. 52
b. 50
d. 58
____ 36. A population of scores has µ = 44. In this population, a score of X = 40 corresponds to z = –0.50.
What is the population standard deviation?
a. 2
c. 8
b. 4
d. –8
____ 37. Under what circumstances is a score that is 15 points above the mean an extreme score relatively far
from the mean?
a. When the population mean is much larger than 15
b. When the population standard deviation is much larger than 15
c. When the population mean is much smaller than 15
d. When the population standard deviation is much smaller than 15
____ 38. Last week Tim got a score of X = 54 on a math exam with µ = 60 and σ = 8. He also got X = 49 on
an English exam with µ = 55 and σ = 3, and he got X = 31 on a psychology exam with µ = 37 and σ
= 4. For which class should Tim expect the best grade?
a. Math
c. Psychology
b. English
d. All 3 grades should be the same.
____ 39. A sample has M = 72 and s = 4. In this sample, what is the X value corresponding to z = –2.00?
a. X = 70
c. X = 64
b. X = 68
d. X = 60
____ 40. A sample of n = 20 scores is transformed into z-scores. What is the value of SS, the sum of squared
deviations, for the set of 20 z-scores?
a. 0
b. 19
c. 20
d. Cannot be determined without more information
____ 41. A class consists of 10 males and 30 females. If one student is randomly selected from the class, what
is the probability of selecting a male?
a. 10/30
b. 10/40
c. 1/10
d. 1/40
____ 42. What proportion of a normal distribution is located in the tail beyond z = 1.50?
a. 0.9332
c. 0.4332
b. 0.0668
d. 0.1336
____ 43. A vertical line drawn through a normal distribution at z = 0.50 separates the distribution into two
sections, the body and the tail. What proportion of the distribution is in the tail?
a. 0.6915
c. 0.1915
b. 0.3085
d. 0.3830
____ 44. What proportion of a normal distribution is located between z = –1.25 and z = +1.25?
a. 0.8944
c. 0.3944
b. 0.2112
d. 0.7888
____ 45. What z-score value separates the highest 10% of the scores in a normal distribution from the lowest
90%?
a. z = 1.28
b. z = 0.25
c. z = –1.28
d. z = –0.25
____ 46. A normal distribution has a mean of µ = 100 with σ = 20. If one score is randomly selected from this
distribution, what is the probability that the score will be less than X = 84?
a. 0.7881
c. 0.2881
b. 0.5762
d. 0.2119
____ 47. A normal distribution has a mean of µ = 80 with σ = 20. What score separates the highest 40% of the
distribution from the rest of the scores?
a. X = 75
b. X = 85
c. X = 54.4
d. X = 105.6
____ 48. IQ scores form a normal distribution with µ = 100 and σ = 15. Individuals with IQs between 90
and110 are classified as average. What proportion of the population is average?
a. 0.7486
c. 0.4972
b. 0.5028
d. 0.2486
____ 49. A sample of n = 4 scores is selected from a population with µ = 40 with σ = 8, and the sample mean
is M = 43. What is the standard error for the sample mean?
a. 8
c. 3
b. 4
d. 2
____ 50. Samples of size n = 9 are selected from a population with µ = 80 with σ = 18. What is the expected
value for the distribution of sample means?
a. 6
b. 18
c. 80/3
d. 80
____ 51. Samples of size n = 9 are selected from a population with µ = 80 with σ = 18. What is the standard
error for the distribution of sample means?
a. 80
b. 18
c. 6
d. 2
____ 52. A sample of n = 16 scores has a standard error of 4. What is the standard deviation of the population
from which the sample was obtained?
a. 64
b. 16
c. 4
d. 2
____ 53. A random sample of n = 4 scores is obtained from a population with a mean of µ = 80 and a standard
deviation of σ = 10. If the sample mean is M = 90, what is the z-score for the sample mean?
c. z = 2.00
d. z = 1.00
a. z = 20.00
b. z = 5.00
____ 54. A sample of n = 9 scores is obtained from a population with µ = 70 and σ = 18. If the sample mean
is M = 76, what is the z-score for the sample mean?
c. z = 1.00
d. z = 3.00
a. z = 0.33
b. z = 0.50
____ 55. A random sample of n = 9 scores is obtained from a normal population with µ = 40 and σ = 18.
What is the probability that the sample mean will be greater than M = 43?
c. 0.1587
d. 0.0228
a. 0.4325
b. 0.3085
____ 56. Which combination of factors will produce the largest value for the standard error?
a. A large sample and a large standard deviation
b. A small sample and a large standard deviation
c. A large sample and a small standard deviation
d. A small sample and a small standard deviation
____ 57. Which of the following is directly addressed by the null hypothesis?
a. The population before treatment
c. The sample before treatment
b. The population after treatment
d. The sample after treatment
____ 58. Which of the following is an accurate definition of a Type I error?
a. Rejecting a false null hypothesis
b. Rejecting a true null hypothesis
c. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
d. Failing to reject a true null hypothesis
____ 59. You complete a hypothesis test using α = .05, and based on the evidence from the sample, your
decision is to fail to reject the null hypothesis. If the treatment actually does have an effect, which of
the following is true?
a. You have made a Type I error.
b. You have made a Type II error.
c. You might have made a Type I error, but the probability is only 5% at most.
d. You have made the correct decision.
____ 60. What is the effect of decreasing the alpha level (for example, from α = .05 to α = .01)?
a. It decreases the probability of a Type I error.
b. It decreases the size of the critical region.
c. It decreases the probability that the sample will fall into the critical region.
d. All of the other options are results of decreasing alpha.
____ 61. A two-tailed hypothesis test is being used to evaluate a treatment effect with α = .05. If the sample
data produce a z-score of z = −2.24, what is the correct decision?
a. Reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment has no effect
b. Reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment has an effect
c. Fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment has no effect
d. Fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment has an effect
____ 62. A researcher administers a treatment to a sample of participants selected from a population with µ =
80. If the researcher obtains a sample mean of M = 88, which combination of factors is most likely
to result in rejecting the null hypothesis?
a. σ = 5 and α = .01
c. σ = 10 and α = .01
b. σ = 5 and α = .05
d. σ = 10 and α = .05
____ 63. A researcher evaluates a treatment effect using a two-tailed hypothesis test with α = .05, and the
decision is to reject the null hypothesis. If the researcher switched to a one-tailed test using the same
sample, what decision would be made?
a. Definitely reject the null hypothesis with α = .05 and maybe reject with α = .01
b. Definitely reject the null hypothesis with α = .05 and with α = .01
c. Definitely fail to reject the null hypothesis with either α = .05 or with α = .01
d. It is impossible to predict the outcome of the one-tailed test.
____ 64. Under what circumstances can a very small treatment effect still be significant?
a. If the sample size (n) is very large
b. If the sample standard deviation (σ) is very large
c. If the standard error of M (σ M) is very large
d. All of the other factors are likely to produce a significant result.
____ 65. A sample of n = 4 scores has SS = 60. What is the variance for this sample?
a. 30
c. 16
b. 20
d. 15
____ 66. A researcher conducts a hypothesis test using a sample from an unknown population. If the t statistic
has df = 30, how many individuals were in the sample?
a. n = 29
b. n = 30
c. n = 31
d. Cannot be determined from the information given
____ 67. With α = .01, the two-tailed critical region for a t test using a sample of n = 16 subjects would have
boundaries of ______.
a. t = ±2.602
b. t = ±2.583
c. t = ±2.947
d. t = ±2.921
____ 68. A sample of n = 25 scores produces a t statistic of t = −2.062. If the researcher is using a two-tailed
test, which of the following is the correct statistical decision?
a. The researcher can reject the null hypothesis with α = .05 but not with α = .01.
b. The researcher can reject the null hypothesis with either α = .05 or α = .01.
c. The researcher must fail to reject the null hypothesis with either α = .05 or α = .01.
d. It is impossible to make a decision about H0 without more information.
____ 69. If other factors are held constant, what is the effect of increasing the sample variance?
a. It will increase the estimated standard error and increase the likelihood of rejecting
H0 .
b. It will increase the estimated standard error and decrease the likelihood of rejecting
H0 .
c. It will decrease the estimated standard error and increase the likelihood of rejecting
H0 .
d. It will decrease the estimated standard error and decrease the likelihood of
rejecting H0.
____ 70. A sample is selected from a population with µ = 46, and a treatment is administered to the sample.
After treatment, the sample mean is M = 48 with a sample variance of s2 = 16. Based on this
information, what is the value of Cohen’s d?
a. d = 0.125
b. d = 0.25
c. d = 0.50
d. Cohen’s d cannot be computed without knowing the sample size.
____ 71. A sample of n = 4 scores is selected from a population with an unknown mean. The sample has a
mean of M = 40 and a variance of s2 = 16. Which of the following is the correct 90% confidence
interval for µ?
a. µ = 40 ± 2.353(4)
c. µ = 40 ± 2.353(2)
b. µ = 40 ± 1.638(4)
d. µ = 40 ± 1.638(2)
____ 72. Which of the following would have no effect on the width of a confidence interval?
a. Increase the sample mean
c. Increase the percentage of confidence
b. Increase the size of the sample
d. Increase the sample variance
____ 73. An independent-measures study uses n = 15 participants in each group to compare two treatment
conditions. What is the df value for the t statistic for this study?
a. 14
c. 28
b. 15
d. 29
____ 74. A researcher reports an independent-measures t statistic with df = 30. If the two samples are the
same size (n1 = n2), then how many individuals are in each sample?
a. n = 15
c. n = 30
b. n = 16
d. n = 31
____ 75. One sample has n = 5 scores and the second has n = 10 scores. If the pooled variance for the two
samples is 30, what is the value of the estimated standard error for the sample mean difference?
c. 9
d. 3
a. 2
b. The square root of 2
____ 76. An independent-measures research study uses two samples, each with n = 10 participants. If the data
produce a t statistic of t = 2.095, which of the following is the correct decision for a two-tailed
hypothesis test?
a. Reject the null hypothesis with α = .05 but fail to reject with α = .01
b. Reject the null hypothesis with either α = .05 or α = .01
c. Fail to reject the null hypothesis with either α = .05 or α = .01
d. Cannot answer without additional information
____ 77. The results of an independent-measures research study are reported as “t(22) = 2.12, p < .05, two
tails.” For this study, what t values formed the boundaries for the critical region?
a. ±2.080
c. ±2.069
b. ±2.074
d. ±2.064
____ 78. One sample has M = 18 and a second sample has M = 14. If the pooled variance for the two samples
is 16, what is the value of Cohen’s d?
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 1.00
d. Cannot be determined with the information given
____ 79. An independent-measures study comparing two treatment conditions with n = 6 in each sample
produces t = 4.00. What is the value of r2 for this study?
a. 4/26
b. 4/28
c. 16/26
d. 16/28
____ 80. Which combination of factors is most likely to produce a significant value for an independent-
measures t statistic?
a. Large samples and large variance
b. Large samples and small variance
c. Small samples and large variance
d. Small samples and small variance
____ 81. A repeated-measures study using a sample of n = 20 participants would produce a t statistic with df
= ____.
a. 9
b. 19
c. 20
d. 39
____ 82. A repeated-measures study comparing two treatments with n = 4 participants produces MD = 2 and
SS = 75 for the difference scores. What is the estimated standard error for the sample mean
difference?
a. 25
c. 5
b. 25/4 = 6.25
d. 2.5
____ 83. For a repeated-measures study comparing two treatment conditions, a researcher obtains a sample of
n = 9 difference scores with a mean of MD = 4 and a variance of s2 = 36. What is the value for the
repeated-measures t statistic for these data?
a. 4/2
c. 4/6
b. 4/4
d. 4/36
2
____ 84. A sample of difference scores has a mean of MD = 5 with a variance of s = 100. If effect size is
measured using Cohen’s d, what is the value of d?
d = 5/10
d = 5/100
d = 25/100
Cannot determine without knowing the sample size
a.
b.
c.
d.
____ 85. In general, what is the effect of an increase in the variance for the sample of difference scores?
a. An increase in the standard error and an increase in the value of t
b. An increase in the standard error and a decrease in the value of t
c. A decrease in the standard error and an increase in the value of t
d. A decrease in the standard error and a decrease in the value of t
____ 86. Assuming that other factors are held constant, which of the following would tend to increase the
likelihood of rejecting the null hypothesis?
a. Decrease the sample size
b. Increase the sample mean difference
c. Increase the sample variance
d. None of the other 3 options would increase the likelihood.
____ 87. Which of the following possibilities is a serious concern with a repeated-measures study?
a. You will obtain negative values for the difference scores.
b. The results will be influenced by order effects.
c. The mean difference is due to individual differences rather than treatment
differences.
d. All of the other options are major concerns.
____ 88. Compared to an independent-measures design, a repeated-measured study is more likely to find a
significant effect because it reduces the contribution of variance due to ______.
a. time-related factors
c. the effect of the treatment
b. order effects
d. individual differences
____ 89. For an ANOVA comparing three treatment conditions, what is stated by the null hypothesis (H0)?
a. There are no differences between any of the population means.
b. At least one of the three population means is different from another mean.
c. All three of the population means are different from each other.
d. None of the other choices is correct.
____ 90. On average, what value is expected for the F-ratio if the null hypothesis is true?
a. 0
c. k – 1
b. 1.00
d. N – k
____ 91. In an ANOVA, what is represented by the letter T?
a. The sum of the scores in a specific treatment
b. The sum of the scores in the total research study
c. The number of scores in a specific treatment
d. The number of scores in the total research study
____ 92. A research study comparing three treatments with n = 5 in each treatment produces T1 = 5, T2 = 10,
T3 = 15, with SS1 = 6, SS2 = 9, SS3 = 9, and ΣX2 = 94. For this study, what is SStotal?
a. 10
c. 34
b. 24
d. 68
____ 93. An ANOVA is used to evaluate the mean differences among three treatment conditions with a
sample of n = 12 participants in each treatment. For this study, What is dfwithin treatments?
a. 2
c. 33
b. 11
d. 35
____ 94. The following table shows the results of an analysis of variance comparing four treatment conditions
with a sample of n = 5 participants in each treatment. Note that several values are missing in the
table. What is the missing value for MSwithin?
Source
Between
Within
Total
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
16
32
48
SS
30
xx
62
df
xx
xx
xx
MS
xx
xx
F = xx
____ 95. A researcher reports an F-ratio with df = 2, 18 from an independent-measures research study. Based
on the df values, how many treatments were compared in the study, and what was the total number
of subjects participating in the study?
a. 2 treatments and 19 subjects
c. 3 treatments and 21 subjects
b. 2 treatments and 20 subjects
d. 3 treatments and 22 subjects
____ 96. For an independent-measures ANOVA comparing three treatments with a sample of n = 5 in each
treatment, what is the critical value for the F-ratio using α = .05?
a. 3.88
c. 3.74
b. 3.49
d. 3.34
Final Exam Review
Answer Section
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1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
1.2
1.2
1.2
1.3
1.4
1.4
1.5
1.5
2.2
2.2
2.2
2.2
2.2
2.3
2.3
2.4
3.2
3.2
3.2
3.2
3.3
3.3
3.4
3.6
4.3
4.3
4.3
4.4
4.4
4.4
4.5
4.5
5.2
5.2
5.2
5.2
5.2
5.3
5.5
5.5
6.1
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
B
D
A
D
B
C
B
D
C
B
C
C
B
B
B
B
B
D
B
B
A
A
B
C
C
C
B
C
C
A
C
B
D
C
B
C
C
B
B
D
A
A
B
B
B
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
6.2
6.2
6.2
6.2
6.3
6.3
6.3
7.2
7.2
7.2
7.2
7.3
7.3
7.3
7.4
8.1
8.2
8.2
8.2
8.3
8.3
8.4
8.5
9.1
9.1
9.1
9.1
9.2
9.3
9.3
9.3
10.2
10.2
10.2
10.3
10.3
10.3
10.3
10.3
11.2
11.2
11.3
11.3
11.3
11.3
11.4
11.4
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
B
A
C
C
A
C
A
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
12.1
12.2
12.3
12.3
12.3
12.3
12.3
12.4