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Mid-Term Study Guide (Chapters 1 – 11)
Print using 0.3” margins. Bring with you to class on Monday or Tuesday, whichever day I see you first.
1. Which of the following best describes the hindsight bias? A) Events seem more predictable before they have occurred.
B) Events seem more predictable after they have occurred. C) A person's intuition is usually correct.
D) A person's intuition is usually not correct.
2. Theories are defined as: A) testable propositions. B) factors that may change in response to manipulation.
C) statistical indexes. D) principles that help to organize, predict, and explain facts.
3. To ensure that other researchers can repeat their work, psychologists use:
A) control groups.
B) random assignment. C) double-blind procedures.
D) operational definitions.
4. A professor constructs a questionnaire to determine how students at the university feel about nuclear disarmament. Which of
the following techniques should be used in order to survey a random sample of the student body? A) Every student should be
sent the questionnaire. B) Only students majoring in psychology should be asked to complete the questionnaire. C) Only
students living on campus should be asked to complete the questionnaire. D) From an alphabetical listing of all students, every
tenth (or fifteenth, e.g.) student should be asked to complete the questionnaire.
5. If eating saturated fat and the likelihood of contracting cancer are positively correlated, which of the following is true?
A) Saturated fat causes cancer. B) People who are prone to develop cancer prefer foods containing saturated fat.
C) A separate factor links the consumption of saturated fat to cancer. D) None of the above is necessarily true.
6. Illusory correlation refers to: A) the perception that two negatively correlated variables are positively correlated. B) the
perception of a correlation between two unrelated variables. C) an insignificant correlation. D) a correlation that equals -1.0.
7. In an experiment to determine the effects of attention on memory, memory is the:
A) control condition.
B) intervening variable.
C) independent variable.
D) dependent variable.
8. What is the median of the following distribution of scores: 1, 3, 7, 7, 2, 8, 4?
C) 3
A) 1
B) 2
D) 4
9. In generalizing from a sample to the population, it is important that?
A) the sample be representative. B) the sample be nonrandom. C) the sample not be too large. D) all of the above be true.
10. Psychologists' personal values: A) have little influence on how their experiments are conducted. B) do not influence the
interpretation of experimental results because of the use of statistical techniques that guard against subjective bias. C) can bias
both scientific observation and interpretation of data. D) have little influence on investigative methods but a significant effect on
interpretation.
11. Parkinson's disease involves: A) the death of nerve cells that produce a vital neurotransmitter. B) impaired function in the
right hemisphere only. C) impaired function in the left hemisphere only. D) excess production of the neurotransmitters
dopamine and acetylcholine.
12. When Sandy scalded her toe in a tub of hot water, the pain message was carried to her spinal cord by the ________ nervous
system.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) parasympathetic
D) central
13. The technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer images of structures within the brain is called:
A) the EEG.
B) a CT scan.
C) a PET scan.
D) MRI.
14. Jessica experienced difficulty keeping her balance after receiving a blow to the back of her head. It is likely that she injured
her: A) medulla.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.
E) cerebrum.
15. Though there is no single “control center” for emotions, their regulation is primarily attributed to the brain region known as
the:
A) limbic system.
B) reticular formation.
C) brainstem.
D) cerebral cortex.
16. The visual cortex is located in the:
A) occipital lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) parietal lobe.
17. Raccoons have much more precise control of their paws than dogs do. You would expect that raccoons have more cortical
space dedicated to “paw control” in the ______of their brains. A) frontal lobes B) parietal lobes C) temporal lobes D) occipital lobes
18. Following a gunshot wound to his head, Jack became more uninhibited, irritable, and profane. It is likely that his personality
change was the result of injury to his: A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) occipital lobe. D) frontal lobe. E) endocrine system.
19. A split-brain patient has a picture of a knife flashed to her left hemisphere and that of a fork to her right hemisphere. She will
be able to: A) identify the fork using her left hand. B) identify a knife using her left hand. C) identify a knife using either hand.
D) identify a fork using either hand.
20. Chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands are called: A) agonists. B) neurotransmitters. C) hormones. D) enzymes.
21. Chromosomes are composed of small segments of ________ called ________.
A) DNA; genes
B) DNA; neurotransmitters
C) genes; DNA
D) DNA; enzymes
22. Which of the following most accurately summarizes the findings of the 40-year fox-breeding study described in the text?
A) Wild wolves cannot be domesticated. B) “Survival of the fittest” seems to operate only when animals live in their natural
habitats. C) By mating aggressive and unaggressive foxes, the researchers created a mutant species.
D) By selecting and mating the tamest males and females, the researchers have produced affectionate, unaggressive offspring.
23. Mutations are random errors in ________ replication that lead to a change in the sequence of ________.
A) gene; nucleotides
B) chromosome; genes
C) DNA; genes
D) gene; DNA
24. Casual hit-and-run sex is most frequent among: A) males with high circulating levels of testosterone. B) males with traditional
masculine attitudes. C) females and males who are weakly gender-typed. D) females and males who are strongly gender-typed.
25. According to evolutionary psychology, men are drawn sexually to women who seem ________, while women are attracted
to men who seem ________.
A) nurturing; youthful B) youthful and fertile; mature and affluent C) slender; muscular D) exciting; dominant
26. Through natural selection, the traits that are most likely to be passed on to succeeding generations are those that contribute
to: A) reproduction.
B) survival.
C) aggressiveness.
D) a. and b.
E) a., b., and c.
27. Several studies of long-separated identical twins have found that these twins: A) have little in common, due to the different
environments in which they were raised. B) have many similarities, in everything from medical histories to personalities.
C) have similar personalities, but very different likes, dislikes, and lifestyles. D) are no more similar than fraternal twins reared apart.
28. To say that the heritability of a trait is approximately 50 percent means that: A) genes are responsible for 50 percent of the
trait in an individual, and the environment is responsible for the rest. B) the trait's appearance in a person will reflect
approximately equal genetic contributions from both parents. C) of the variation in the trait within a group of people, 50 percent
can be attributed to genes. D) all of the above are correct.
29. Of the following, parents are most likely to influence their children's:
A) temperament.
B) personality.
C) faith.
D) emotional reactivity.
30. Women and men are most likely to be attracted to strongly gender-typed mates in cultures characterized by:
A) gender inequality.
B) gender equality.
C) flexible gender roles.
D) few norms.
31. Which is the correct order of stages of prenatal development?
A) zygote, fetus, embryo B) zygote, embryo, fetus C) embryo, zygote, fetus D) embryo, fetus, zygote E) fetus, embryo, zygote
32. A child whose mother drank heavily when she was pregnant is at heightened risk of: A) being emotionally excitable during
childhood. B) becoming insecurely attached. C) being born with the physical and cognitive abnormalities of fetal alcohol
syndrome. D) addiction to a range of drugs throughout life.
33. I am 3 years old, can use language, and have trouble taking another person's perspective. I am in Piaget's ________ stage of
cognitive development. A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational
34. Stranger anxiety develops soon after:
A) the concept of conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) a theory of mind.
D) the concept of object permanence.
35. Harlow's studies of attachment in monkeys showed that: A) provision of nourishment was the single most important factor
motivating attachment. B) a cloth mother produced the greatest attachment response. C) whether a cloth or wire mother was
present mattered less than the presence or absence of other infants. D) attachment in monkeys is based on imprinting.
36. The term critical period refers to:
A) prenatal development. B) the initial 2 hours after a child's birth. C) the preoperational stage. D) a restricted time for learning.
37. In preconventional morality, the person: A) obeys out of a sense of social duty. B) conforms to gain social approval.
C) obeys to avoid punishment or to gain concrete rewards. D) follows the dictates of his or her conscience.
38. Fourteen-year-old Cassandra feels freer and more open with her friends than with her family. Knowing this is the case,
Cassandra's parents should: A) be concerned, because deteriorating parent-adolescent relationships, such as this one, are often
followed by a range of problem behaviors. B) encourage Cassandra to find new friends. C) seek family counseling. D) not worry,
since adolescence is typically a time of growing peer influence and diminishing parental influence. E) ask their friends to suggest ways
to communicate with Cassandra.
39. An elderly person who can look back on life with satisfaction and reminisce with a sense of completion has attained
Erikson's stage of: A) generativity.
B) intimacy.
C) isolation.
D) acceptance.
E) integrity.
40. Most contemporary developmental psychologists believe that: A) personality is essentially formed by the end of infancy.
B) personality continues to be formed until adolescence. C) the shaping of personality continues during adolescence and well
beyond. D) adolescent development has very little impact on adult personality.
41. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________. A) recognizing a stimulus; interpreting a stimulus B) detecting a
stimulus; recognizing a stimulus C) interpreting a stimulus; detecting a stimulus D) seeing; hearing
42. If you can just notice the difference between 10- and 11-pound weights, which of the following weights could you
differentiate from a 100-pound weight?
A) 101-pound weight B) 105-pound weight C) 110-pound weight D) there is no basis for prediction
43. Weber's law states that: A) the absolute threshold for any stimulus is a constant. B) the jnd for any stimulus is a constant.
C) the absolute threshold for any stimulus is a constant proportion. D) the jnd for any stimulus is a constant proportion.
44. One light may appear reddish and another greenish if they differ in:
A) wavelength.
B) amplitude.
C) opponent processes.
D) brightness.
45. Assuming that the visual systems of humans and other mammals function similarly, you would expect that the retina of a
nocturnal mammal (one active only at night) would contain: A) mostly cones. B) mostly rods. C) an equal number of rods and
cones. D) more bipolar cells than an animal active only during the day.
46. The brain breaks vision into separate dimensions such as color, depth, movement, and form, and works on each aspect
simultaneously. This is called: A) feature detection. B) parallel processing. C) accommodation. D) opponent processing.
47. In the opponent-process theory, the three pairs of processes are: A) red-green, blue-yellow, black-white. B) red-blue, greenyellow, black-white. C) red-yellow, blue-green, black-white. D) dependent upon the individual's past experience.
48. The receptors for hearing are located in: A) the outer ear. B) the middle ear. C) the inner ear. D) all parts of the ear.
49. Of the four distinct skin senses, the only one that has definable receptors is: A) warmth. B) cold. C) pressure. D) pain.
50. Kinesthesis involves: A) the bones of the middle ear. B) information from the muscles, tendons, and joints. C) membranes
within the cochlea. D) the body's sense of balance.
51. People asked to judge the distances of white disks under either clear or foggy conditions: A) estimated the disks to be more
distant when viewed under clear conditions. B) estimated the disks to be nearer when viewed under clear conditions.
C) took atmospheric conditions into consideration and judged the disks to be equally distant under the two viewing conditions.
D) were much less accurate under foggy conditions.
52. The term gestalt means: A) grouping. B) sensation. C) perception. D) whole. E) visual capture.
53. Studies of the visual cliff have provided evidence that much of depth perception is:
A) innate. B) learned. C) innate in lower animals, learned in humans. D) innate in humans, learned in lower animals.
54. The tendency to perceive hazy objects as being at a distance is known as ________. This is a ________ depth cue.
A) linear perspective; binocular B) linear perspective; monocular C) relative clarity; binocular D) relative clarity; monocular
55. The depth cue that occurs when we watch stable objects at different distances as we are moving is:
A) convergence.
B) interposition.
C) relative clarity.
D) relative motion.
56. How do we perceive a pole that partially covers a bush?
A) as farther away B) as nearer C) as larger D) there is not enough information to determine the object's size or distance
57. An artist paints a tree orchard so that the parallel rows of trees converge at the top of the canvas. Which cue has the artist
used to convey distance? A) interposition
B) relative clarity
C) linear perspective D) texture gradient
58. As her friend Milo walks toward her, Noriko perceives his size as remaining constant because his perceived distance
________ at the same time that her retinal image of him ________.
A) increases; decreases
B) increases; increases
C) decreases; decreases
D) decreases; increases
59. In the absence of perceptual constancy: A) objects would appear to change size as their distance from us changed.
B) depth perception would be based exclusively on monocular cues. C) depth perception would be based exclusively on
binocular cues. D) depth perception would be impossible.
60. Jack claims that he often has dreams that predict future events. He claims to have the power of:
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) precognition.
D) psychokinesis.
61. As defined by the text, consciousness includes which of the following?
A) daydreaming
B) sleeping
C) hypnosis
D) all of the above
62. Circadian rhythms are the: A) brain waves that occur during Stage 4 sleep. B) muscular tremors that occur during opiate
withdrawal. C) regular body cycles that occur on a 24-hour schedule. D) brain waves that are indicative of Stage 2 sleep.
63. A person whose EEG shows a high proportion of alpha waves is most likely:
A) dreaming. B) in Stage 2 sleep.
C) in Stage 3 sleep.
D) in Stage 4 sleep.
E) awake and relaxed.
64. Although her eyes are closed, Adele's brain is generating bursts of electrical activity. It is likely that Adele is: A) under the
influence of a depressant. B) under the influence of an opiate. C) in NREM sleep. D) in REM sleep. E) having a near-death experience.
65. The sleep cycle is approximately ________ minutes.
A) 30
B) 50
C) 75
D) 90
66. A person who falls asleep in the midst of a heated argument probably suffers from:
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) night terrors.
D) insomnia.
67. Of the following individuals, who is likely to be the most hypnotically suggestible? A) Bill, a reality-oriented stockbroker
B) Janice, an actress with a rich imagination C) Megan, a sixth-grader who has trouble focusing her attention on a task
D) Darren, who has never been able to really “get involved” in movies or novels
68. Dan has recently begun using an addictive, euphoria-producing drug. Which of the following will probably occur if he
repeatedly uses this drug? A) As his tolerance to the drug develops, Dan will experience increasingly pleasurable “highs.”
B) The dosage needed to produce the desired effect will increase. C) After each use, he will become more and more depressed.
D) Dependence will become less of a problem. E) Both b. and c. will occur.
69. Cocaine and crack produce a euphoric rush by: A) blocking the actions of serotonin. B) depressing neural activity in the
brain. C) blocking the reuptake of dopamine in brain cells. D) stimulating the brain's production of endorphins. E) preventing the
body from producing endorphins.
70. Levar believes that once the body has died, the mind also ceases to exist. Evidently, Levar is a(n):
A) behaviorist.
B) monist.
C) dualist.
D) atheist.
E) mesmerist.
71. Learning is best defined as: A) any behavior emitted by an organism without being elicited. B) a change in the behavior of
an organism. C) a relatively permanent change in the behavior of an organism due to experience. D) behavior based on operant
rather than respondent conditioning.
72. In Pavlov's original experiment with dogs, salivation to meat was the: A) CS.
B) CR.
C) UCS.
D) UCR.
73. In Watson and Rayner's experiment on Little Albert, the loud noise was the ________ and the white rat was the ________.
A) CS; CR
B) UCS; CS C) CS; UCS
D) UCS; CR E) UCR; CR
74. A response that leads to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus is one being:
A) positively reinforced. B) negatively reinforced.
C) punished. D) extinguished.
75. For operant conditioning to be most effective, when should the reinforcers be presented in relation to the desired response?
A) immediately before B) immediately after C) at the same time as D) at least a half hour before E) in any of the above sequences
76. The “piecework,” or commission, method of payment is an example of which reinforcement schedule?
A) fixed-interval
B) variable-interval
C) fixed-ratio D) variable-ratio
77. The highest and most consistent rate of response is produced by a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-ratio
C) fixed-interval
D) variable-interval
78. Punishment is a controversial way of controlling behavior because: A) behavior is not forgotten and may return.
B) punishing stimuli often create fear. C) punishment often increases aggressiveness. D) of all of the above reasons.
79. After discovering that her usual route home was closed due to road repairs, Sharetta used her knowledge of the city and sense
of direction to find an alternate route. This is an example of:
A) latent learning.
B) observational learning.
C) shaping.
D) using a cognitive map.
E) discrimination.
80. In promoting observational learning, the most effective models are those that we perceive as:
A) similar to ourselves.
B) respected and admired.
C) successful.
D) any of the above.
81. The three steps in memory information processing are: A) input, processing, output. B) input, storage, output. C) input,
storage, retrieval. D) encoding, storage, retrieval. E) encoding, retrieval, storage.
82. The spacing effect means that: A) distributed study yields better retention than cramming. B) retention is improved when
encoding and retrieval are separated by no more than one hour. C) learning causes a reduction in the size of the synaptic gap
between certain neurons. D) delaying retrieval until memory has consolidated improves recall.
83. Memory techniques such as the method of loci, acronyms, and the peg-word system are called:
A) consolidation devices.
B) imagery techniques.
C) encoding strategies.
D) mnemonic devices.
84. Visual sensory memory is referred to as: A) iconic memory. B) echoic memory. C) photomemory. D) semantic memory.
85. During basketball practice, Jan's head was painfully elbowed. If the trauma to her brain disrupts her memory, we would
expect that Jan would be most likely to forget: A) the name of her teammates. B) her telephone number. C) the name of the
play during which she was elbowed. D) the details of events that happened shortly after the incident.
86. Amnesia patients typically experience disruption of:
A) implicit memories.
B) explicit memories.
C) iconic memories.
D) echoic memories.
87. Complete this analogy: Fill-in-the-blank test questions are to multiple-choice questions as: A) encoding is to storage.
B) storage is to encoding.
C) recognition is to recall.
D) recall is to recognition. E) encoding is to recall.
88. The eerie feeling of having been somewhere before is an example of:
A) state dependency. B) encoding failure.
C) priming.
D) déjà vu.
89. At your high school reunion you cannot remember the last name of your homeroom teacher. Your failure to remember is
most likely the result of: A) encoding failure.
B) storage failure.
C) retrieval failure.
D) state-dependent memory.
90. The misinformation effect provides evidence that memory: A) is constructed during encoding. B) is unchanging once
established. C) may be reconstructed during recall according to how questions are framed. D) is highly resistant to misleading
information.
91. A mental grouping of similar things, events, or people is called a(n):
A) prototype.
B) concept.
C) algorithm.
D) heuristic.
E) mental set.
92. A dessert recipe that gives you the ingredients, their amounts, and the steps to follow is an example of a(n):
A) prototype. B) algorithm. C) heuristic.
D) mental set.
93. A common problem in everyday reasoning is our tendency to: A) accept as logical those conclusions that agree with our
own opinions. B) accept as logical those conclusions that disagree with our own opinions. C) underestimate the accuracy of our
knowledge. D) accept as logical conclusions that involve unfamiliar concepts.
94. Failing to solve a problem that requires using an object in an unusual way illustrates the phenomenon of:
A) mental set.
B) functional fixedness.
C) framing.
D) belief perseverance.
E) overconfidence.
95. Representativeness and availability are examples of: A) mental sets. B) belief bias. C) algorithms. D) fixation. E) heuristics.
96. The word “predates” contains ________ phonemes and ________ morphemes. A) 7; 3 B) 3; 7
C) 7; 2
D) 3; 2
97. Deaf children who are not exposed to sign language until they are teenagers: A) are unable to master the basic words of sign
language. B) learn the basic words but not how to order them. C) are unable to master either the basic words or syntax of sign
language. D) never become as fluent as those who learned to sign at a younger age.
98. The linguistic determinism hypothesis is challenged by the finding that: A) chimps can learn to communicate spontaneously
by using sign language. B) people with no word for a certain color can still perceive that color accurately. C) the Eskimo
language contains a number of words for snow, whereas English has only one. D) infants' babbling contains many phonemes
that do not occur in their own language and that they therefore cannot have heard.
99. Researchers who are convinced that animals can think point to evidence that: A) monkeys demonstrate the ability to “count”
by learning to touch pictures of objects in ascending numerical order. B) chimpanzees regularly use branches, stones, and other
objects as tools in their natural habitats. C) chimps invent grooming and courtship customs and pass them on to their peers.
D) all of the above occur.
100. Many psychologists are skeptical of claims that chimpanzees can acquire language because the chimps have not shown the
ability to: A) use symbols meaningfully. B) acquire speech. C) acquire even a limited vocabulary. D) use syntax in communicating.
101. A 6-year-old child has a mental age of 9. The child's IQ is: A) 96. B) 100.
C) 125.
D) 150.
E) 166.
102. Originally, IQ was defined as: A) mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. B) chronological age
divided by mental age and multiplied by 100. C) mental age subtracted from chronological age and multiplied by 100.
D) chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100.
103. Current intelligence tests compute an individual's intelligence score as: A) the ratio of mental age to chronological age
multiplied by 100. B) the ratio of chronological age to mental age multiplied by 100. C) the amount by which the test-taker's
performance deviates from the average performance of others the same age. D) the ratio of the test-taker's verbal intelligence
score to his or her nonverbal intelligence score.
104. Which of the following best describes the relationship between creativity and intelligence? A) Creativity appears to depend
on the ability to think imaginatively and has little if any relationship to intelligence. B) Creativity is best understood as a certain
kind of intelligence. C) The more intelligent a person is, the greater his or her creativity. D) A certain level of intelligence is
necessary but not sufficient for creativity.
105. The bell-shaped distribution of intelligence scores in the general population is called a:
A) g distribution.
B) standardization curve.
C) bimodal distribution.
D) normal distribution.
106. Over the past 80 years, college aptitude test scores have ________ and WAIS scores have ________.
A) declined; remained stable B) remained stable; declined C) risen; declined D) declined; risen
107. At age 16, Angel's intelligence score was 110. What will her score probably be at age 32?
A) 105
B) 110
C) 115
D) There is no basis for predicting an individual's future IQ.
108. Down syndrome is normally caused by: A) an extra chromosome in the person's genetic makeup. B) a missing
chromosome in the person's genetic makeup. C) malnutrition during the first few months of life. D) prenatal exposure to an
addictive drug.
109. Studies of adopted children and their biological and adoptive families demonstrate that with age, genetic influences on
intelligence: A) become more apparent. B) become less apparent. C) become more difficult to entangle from environmental
influences. D) become easier to entangle from environmental influences.
110. High levels of male hormones during prenatal development may enhance:
A) verbal reasoning.
B) spatial abilities.
C) overall intelligence.
D) all of the above.