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Transcript
1.
All of the following statements about Earth’s ozone layer are false EXCEPT:
A
It is composed of O2
B
It increases the amount of ultraviolet radiation that reaches the Earth.
C
It is thinning as a result of widespread use of certain chlorine-containing compounds.
D
It is a result of widespread burning of fossil fuels.
E
It allows green light in but screens out red light.
2.
Which of the following is the major primary producer in a savanna ecosystem?
A
lion
B
gazelle
C
grass
D
snake
E
diatom
3.
The carrying capacity of a population is defined as
A
the amount of time the parents in the population spend rearing and nurturing their
offspring
B
the maximum population size that a certain environment can support at a particular time
C
the amount of vegetation that a certain geographic area can support
D
the number of different types of species a biome can support
E
the number of different genes a population can carry at a particular time
4.
Which of the following terms is used to describe major types of ecosystems that occupy broad
geographic regions?
A
biome
B
community
C
chaparral
D
trophic levels
E
photic zone
5.
A lake that is nutrient rich and that supports a vast array of algae is said to be
A
oligotrophic
B
abyssal
C
littoral
D
eutrophic
E
limnetic
6.
Which of the following best describes an estuary?
A
An area that is periodically flooded, causing its soil to be consistently damp
B
An area where a river changes course after being diverted from its original course by an
obstacle
C
The area where a freshwater river merges with the ocean
D
The area where a mass of cold water and a mass of warm water meet in the pelagic zone
E
An outshoot of land that extends into the ocean
7.
Which of the following is the term that refers to the layer of light penetration in aquatic
ecosystems?
A
littoral zone
B
limnetic zone
C
photic zone
D
benthic zone
E
aphotic zone
Directions: The group of questions below consists of five lettered choices followed by a list of
numbered phrases or sentences. For each numbered phrase or sentence, select the one choice that is
most closely related to it. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Questions 8 - 12
A
Temperate grassland
B
Tropical forest
C
Temperate broadleaf forest
D
Tundra
E
Desert
8.
Characterized by permafrost and few large plants
9.
Characterized by epiphytes and significant canopy
10.
Characterized by an understory of shrubs and trees that lose their leaves in the fall
11.
Characterized by occasional fires, nutrient-rich soil, and large grazing animals
12.
Characterized by sparse rainfall and extreme daily temperature fluctuations
13.
A bacterial colony that exists in an environment displaying ideal conditions will undergo
A
logistic growth
B
intrinsic growth
C
hyperactive growth
D
exponential growth
E
unbounded growth
14.
A species’ specific use of the biotic and abiotic factors in an environment is collectively called
the species’
A
habitat
B
trophic level
C
ecological niche
D
placement
E
partitioning
15.
In which type of camouflaging does a nontoxic animal mimic the appearance of a toxic animal?
A
Müellerian mimicry
B
cryptic coloration
C
aposematic coloration
D
Batesian mimicry
E
parasitoidism
16.
The dominant species in a community is one that
A
has the greatest number of genes per individual
B
is at the top of the food chain
C
has the largest biomass
D
eats all other members of the community
E
bears the most offspring in each mating
17.
Which statement best describes energy transfer in a food web?
A
Energy is transferred to consumers, which convert it to nitrogen compounds and use it to
synthesize amino acids.
B
Energy from producers is converted into oxygen and transferred to consumers.
C
Energy from the sun is stored in green plants and transferred to consumers.
D
Energy is transferred to consumers that use it to synthesize food.
E
Energy moves from autotrophs to heterotrophs to decomposers, which convert it to a
form producers will use again.
18.
A fire cleared a large area of forest in Yellowstone National Park in the 1980s. When the first
plants pioneered this burned area, this was an example of
A
primary succession
B
secondary succession
C
biological evolution
D
a keystone species
E
the top-down model
19.
In the nitrogen cycle, the process by which nitrogen in the atmosphere is made available for use
by plants is known as
A
ammonification
B
denitrification
C
nitrogen fixation
D
nitrogen cycling
E
nitrogenation
20.
The process in which CO2 in the atmosphere intercepts and absorbs reflected infrared radiation
and re-reflects it back to Earth is known as
A
global warming
B
atmospheric insulation
C
stratospheric insulation
D
biological magnification
E
the greenhouse effect
21.
A Type I survivorship curve is level at first, with a rapid increase in mortality in old age. This
type of curve is
A
typical of many invertebrates that produce large numbers of offspring
B
typical of human and other large mammals
C
found most often in r-selected populations
D
almost never found in nature
E
typical of all species of birds
22.
Which of the following would not be a density-dependent factor limiting a population’s growth?
A
increased predation by a predator
B
a limited number of available nesting sites
C
a stress syndrome that alters hormone levels
D
a very early fall frost
E
intraspecific competition
23.
The human population is growing at such an alarming fast rate because
A
technology has increased our carrying capacity
B
the death rate has greatly decreased since the Industrial Revolution
C
the age structure of many countries is highly skewed toward younger ages
D
fertility rates in many developing countries are above the 2.1 children per female
replacement level
E
all of the above are true
24.
When one species was removed from a tide pool, the species richness became significantly
reduced. The removed species was probably
A
a strong competitor
B
a potent parasite
C
a resource partitioner
D
a keystone species
E
the species with the highest relative abundance
25.
Which of the following interspecific interactions is not an example of a +/- interaction?
A
ectoparasite and host
B
herbivore and plant
C
honeybee and flower
D
pathogen and host
E
carnivore and prey
26.
What is the percent oxygen saturation for a water sample at 25°C that has 7 mg O2/l?
A
B
C
D
E
27.
30%
55%
70%
85%
140%
In which aquatic environment would you expect dissolved oxygen to be highest?
A
a mountain lake that is clear and cold
B
a bog where water is shallow and warm and there is a mat of aquatic plants
C
a marine tidepool
D
a cold mountain stream dropping over a series of small rock falls
E
a coral reef in a still lagoon
Study this graph to answer the following question:
28.
At what light intensity do you expect there to be no net productivity?
A
any intensity below 100%
B
only at intensities of 0% and 2%
C
any intensity below 10%
D
any intensity above 25%
29.
What is meant by “net productivity” and how is it calculated in a sample aquatic environment?
A
It is a measure of the organic products of photosynthesis that accumulate after cellular
respiration by those organisms is taken into account, and it is calculated by subtracting
the amount of oxygen in the dark bottle from the amount in the light bottle.
B
It is a measure of the amount of respiration in a test area, and it is calculated by
subtracting the amount of oxygen present in the light bottle from the amount in the dark
bottle.
C
It is the total amount of carbon fixed, and it is calculated by measuring the amount of
oxygen present in a bottle kept in the light.
D
It is the amount of oxygen produced during the day, and it is calculated by subtracting the
amount of oxygen in the light bottle from the amount in the dark bottle.
30.
A biology class used two aquatic cultures as described below for the experiment with screens
that reduce light. They measured dissolved oxygen initially and then after 24 hours.
Culture A
Little phytoplankton (photosynthesizers)
Rich in zooplankton (nonphotosynthesizers)
Low initial dissolved oxygen
Culture B
Rich in phytoplankton
Rich in zooplankton
High initial dissolved oxygen
What results would you predict for this experiment?
A
The net productivity in culture A will be much higher than in that in culture B.
B
Culture B will have both higher gross productivity and higher net productivity than
culture A.
C
The net productivity for culture A will be negative at greater intensity than that for
culture B.
D
Cultures A and B will show similar results because of the comparable quantities of
zooplankton.
E
Net productivity in culture B will exceed gross productivity in high light intensity.
31.
In the diagram above, what number of paramecia best represents the carrying capacity of the
environment for the population shown?
A
200
B
500
C
600
D
900
E
1,000
32.
Diatoms are the major primary producers in which of the following ecosystems?
A
marine
B
desert
C
temperate broadleaf forest
D
chaparral
E
tropical rain forest
33.
During part of its life cycle, a tapeworm lives as an adult in a human’s intestine. The tapeworm
attaches to the intestinal lining, absorbs nutrients digested by the host, and releases eggs that are
excreted in the human’s feces. The feces happen to contaminate the food given to a pig, and
larvae encyst in the muscles of the pig. The pig is later consumed by humans. The tapeworm is
an example of
A
mutualistic symbiotic partner to humans
B
commensalistic symbiotic partner to humans
C
parasitic symbiotic partner to humans
D
mutualistic symbiotic partner to pigs
E
commensalistic symbiotic partner to pigs
34.
Which of the following is a major food source for organisms that live in the benthic zone?
A
floating aquatic plants
B
phytoplankton
C
zooplankton
D
detritus
E
cyanobacteria
Questions 35 - 38
A
savannah
B
temperate broadleaf forest
C
tundra
D
chaparral
E
coniferous forest
35.
Possesses permafrost and is dominated by short shrubs and grasses; endures long, dark winters
36.
Dominated by dense evergreen shrubs and other plants adapted to periodic fires
37.
Has long, cold winters and short summers; a biome that is dominated by gymnosperms
38.
Home to large herbivores and their predators, marked by grasses and scattered trees
Questions 39 - 41 refer to the following figure, which shows a food web in a particular ecosystem. Each
letter represents a species in this ecosystem, and the arrows show the flow of energy.
39.
Which of the species in the food web is the primary producer?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
40.
Species B and C represent which of the following?
A
primary producers
B
primary consumers
C
secondary consumers
D
tertiary consumers
E
omnivores
41.
Which of the following most accurately describes species E?
A
An herbivore and a secondary consumer
B
An omnivore and a secondary consumer
C
An omnivore and both a primary and secondary consumer
D
An herbivore and both a primary and secondary consumer
E
A cannibal
Questions 42 - 43 refer to the following.
Over a period of 100 years, a clear mountain lake is transformed into a meadow. During the transition,
various communities inhabit the area. Each community is replaced by a new community after a period
of time.
42.
The ecological process described in the preceding paragraph is an example of
A
carrying capacity
B
density-dependent limiting factors
C
density-independent limiting factors
D
succession
E
biotic potential
43.
Which of the following statements best explains why a new community is able to replace the
resident community?
A
Species in the resident community die from old age.
B
Species in the resident community die from disease that eventually appears.
C
Given enough time, new species able to compete for the same resources as the resident
species will arrive.
D
Species extinction is inevitable.
E
The biotic and abiotic characteristics of the habitat change due to the influence of the
resident community.
Questions 44 - 46 refer to the following graph.
44.
The closest approximation to the biotic potential of this population.
45.
The carrying capacity of the habitat for this population
46.
The effect of density-dependent limiting factors on this population.
Questions 47 - 48 refer to the following graphs that plot changes in population density for two species of
Tribolium flour beetles.
47.
From the information provided in the graphs, the factor most responsible for differences in
population size between Tribolium confusum and T. castaneum after 100 weeks is the
A
amount of flour available
B
more aggressive nature of T. castaneum
C
initial population size of T. castaneum
D
initial population size of T. confusum
E
temperature
48.
The graphs illustrate the concept of
A
succession
B
competitive exclusion
C
commensalism
D
mutualism
E
predation
Questions 49 - 51 refer to the following graphs. The graphs present the frequency of size classes for
mandible lengths for two species of ants at site A and two species of ants at site B. Different size
mandibles make it possible for the ants to eat different types of food.
49.
According to these data, the most common size class of mandibles among ants of the species P.
pima is
A
0.4 – 0.5 mm
B
0.5 – 0.6 mm
C
0.6 – 0.7 mm
D
0.7 – 0.8 mm
E
1.0 – 1.1 mm
50.
According to the data given in the graphs, which of the following statements is correct?
A
The distribution of mandible size for V. pergandei differs between Site A and Site B.
B
The distribution of mandible size for P. pima differs between Site A and Site B.
C
This distribution of mandible size for P. californicus differs between Site A and Site B.
D
The distribution of mandible size for P. californicus is about the same at both sites A and
B.
E
V. pergandei exists only at site A.
51.
The data in the graphs best represent the concept of
A
succession
B
competitive exclusion
C
resource partitioning
D
mutualism
E
intraspecific competition
Questions 52 - 55
A
Population
B
Community
C
Species
D
Niche
E
Biome
52.
Members are capable of interbreeding and are anatomically similar
53.
The biotic and abiotic resources a species uses in its environment
54.
Individuals of one species that live in a discrete geographic area
55.
All the organisms that live within a discrete geographic area
Questions 56 - 59
An ecologist studying a certain biogeographic area has sketched the following food web for the
community that lives there. The arrows represent energy flow, and the letters represent species.
56.
Which of the following is most likely to be autotrophic?
A
E
B
A
C
I
D
G
E
D
57.
Which members of the food web are secondary consumers?
A
D, E, and F
B
A, B, and C
C
G, H, and I
D
E, F, and G
E
B, D, and E
58.
Which of the species in the food web are exclusively carnivores?
A
E, F, G, H, and I
B
F, G, H, and I
C
C, D, and E
D
F and G
E
H and I
59.
If this were a savanna ecosystem, what organisms are species A and B most likely to represent?
A
Two species of small low growing bushes
B
Two species of lichen
C
Two species of insects
D
Two species of rodent
E
Two species of grasses
60.
A group of interbreeding individuals occupying the same area is best called
A
a community
B
a population
C
an ecosystem
D
a society
E
a symbiotic relationship
Questions 61 - 63 refer to the following age structure diagrams that represent five different populations.
61.
Which of the above populations is experiencing that fastest growth?
62.
Which of the above populations is most nearly experiencing zero population growth over the
time period represented by the diagram?
63.
Which of the above populations is experiencing the effect of severe limiting factors?
64.
All of the following populations would likely result in a uniform dispersion pattern EXCEPT:
A
nesting penguins on a small beach
B
territories of bears in a forest
C
perennial shrubs (of a given species) growing in a desert habitat
D
tropical trees (of a given species) in a tropical rain forest
E
lions on the savanna
Questions 65 - 66 refer to a population of 500 that experiences 55 births and 5 deaths during a one-year
period.
65.
What is the reproductive rate for the population during the one-year period?
A
0.01/year
B
0.05/year
C
0.1/year
D
50/year
E
55/year
66.
If the population maintains the current growth pattern, a plot of its growth would resemble
A
exponential growth
B
fluctuating growth
C
K-selected growth
D
logistic growth
E
zero population growth
Use the following key for Questions 67 - 72. Each answer in the key may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.
A
B
C
D
E
Resource partitioning
Commensalism
Mutualism
Batesian mimicry
Müllerian mimicry
67.
Burr-bearing seeds that are dispersed by clinging to the fur of certain birds do not harm or help
the birds.
68.
The monarch and viceroy butterflies both have orange wings with the same distinctive black
markings. When the monarch caterpillar feeds on milkweed, a toxic plant, it stores the toxins,
making the monarch caterpillar and butterfly unpalatable and toxic. The viceroy caterpillar feeds
on nontoxic plants.
69.
Two species of birds feed off of the same type of tree. One species gathers from the perimeter of
the tree, and the other gathers close to the trunk of the tree.
70.
Oxpeckers are birds that ride rhinoceroses and other ungulates and eat various skin parasites,
such as ticks.
71.
Several species of poisonous snakes bear bright colors of red, black and yellow.
72.
Several species of brightly colored, harmless snakes look like poisonous coral snakes.
73.
All of the following kinds of plants or animals characterize the initial stages of succession
EXCEPT:
A
pioneer species
B
r-selected species
C
species with good dispersal ability
D
species that can tolerate poor growing conditions
E
species that invest large amounts of resources or time into development of progeny
74.
Primary succession would occur on a
A
meadow destroyed by flood
B
meadow destroyed by overgrazing
C
newly created volcanic island
D
section of a forest destroyed by an avalanche
E
section of a forest destroyed by fire
75.
All of the following increase the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere EXCEPT:
A
photosynthesis
B
slash-and-burn clearing of tropical rain forests
C
burning of fossil fuels
D
burning wood for cooking and heating
E
burning of gasoline
76.
Nitrogen becomes available to plants by all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A
ammonification
B
denitrification by denitrifying bacteria
C
nitrification by nitrifying bacteria
D
nitrogen fixation in plant nodules
E
nitrogen fixation by soil prokaryotes
77.
The transition from a tropical rain forest to a savanna is marked by fewer and fewer trees. This
is most likely caused by changes in
A
temperature
B
rainfall
C
the length of the growing season
D
the average length of daylight
E
CO2 concentration
Question 78 refers to the following food chain.
dinoflagellates → oysters → humans
78.
In the above food chain, oysters represent
A
detrivores
B
producers
C
herbivores
D
primary carnivores
E
secondary consumers
79.
In which trophic level would the biological magnification of the pesticide DDT be most evident?
A
phytoplankton
B
zooplankton
C
filter feeding fish
D
predator fish
E
pelicans
80.
Which of the following best describes an intimate ecological association in which an organism
benefits from living on or within a host, but which generally has a negative effect on that host?
A
Mutualism
B
Saprophytism
C
Commensalism
D
Parasitism
E
Predation
Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered words or statements immediately
following it. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each word or statement. A choice may be used
once, more than once, or not at all in each set.
Questions 81 - 84
The figure below represents a food web in a particular ecosystem. Each letter represents a species. The
arrows indicate the direction of energy flow.
81.
Which species would most likely represent humans if they were part of this ecosystem?
82.
A photosynthetic organism would be represented by which species?
83.
Members of which species are herbivores?
84.
Members of which species are most likely to be omnivorous?
Questions 85 - 87
A
Grassland
B
Taiga
C
Deciduous forest
D
Tundra
E
Tropical rain forest
85.
This biome exhibits the greatest diversity in plant species.
86.
In this biome, agriculture is commonly practiced in a “cut-burn-cultivate-abandon” mode.
87.
This biome can be recognized by its coniferous forests and relatively infertile acidic soil.
88.
Which point on the curve in the diagram above best represents the carrying capacity of the
environment for the population shown?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
89.
All of the following are true about Earth’s ozone layer EXCEPT:
A
It shields Earth from most ultraviolet radiation.
B
It is composed of O3.
C
Its thickness has remained constant over time.
D
CFC (chlorofluorocarbon) molecules can destroy ozone molecules.
E
It is predicted that a reduction of this layer will result in an increase in human skin
cancer.
Questions 90 - 93
A
Deciduous forest
B
Tropical rain forest
C
Desert
D
Tundra
E
Taiga
90.
Long, cold, moist winters and short summers are typical of this biome dominated by
gymnosperms.
91.
A prolonged, relatively mild period with ample precipitation alternates with a cold period when
plants become dormant.
92.
This biome has the greatest diversity of species.
93.
This biome is dominated by dwarf shrubs, grasses, and sedges that can tolerate long, dark
winters.
Questions 94 - 96: The graph below shows changes in a population of wild sheep that were introduced to
the island of Tasmania in the early 1800’s.
94.
The type of population growth represented by that portion of the graph line enclosed in the
bracket is most accurately termed
A
stable
B
exponential
C
density-dependent
D
arithmetic
E
decelerating
95.
The graph indicates that the sheep population most likely is
A
growing in excess of its carrying capacity, since fluctuations in population size occurred
after 1850
B
headed for extinction because of the population explosion about 1930
C
regulated by density-independent factors, because there appears to be about a 10-year
cycle of sharp declines in size
D
shifting from a K-selected strategy to an r-selected strategy
E
stable after 1850 under the effects of density-dependent regulating factors
96.
The dashed line on the graph represents the
A
maximum population size
B
average birth rate
C
biotic potential of the population
D
carrying capacity of the environment
E
point of maximum effect for density-independent factors
97.
In the graphs below, the solid line represents the original population. The dotted line on which
graph best represents the sheep population that would have resulted from a sustained increase in
the primary productivity of the environment:
98.
The graph above shows the rate of growth of a population of squirrels in a certain geographic
area in Connecticut during the past several decades. This population is most closely exhibiting
which of the following types of growth?
A
logistic growth
B
probable growth
C
r-selected growth
D
K-selected growth
E
exponential growth
99.
Clown fish hide among the tentacles of sea anemones. Unlike their predators, clown fish are
immune to the stinging tentacles. Thus, clown fish are protected within the sea anemones.
Sometimes, the clown fish will provide scraps of food to the sea anemones, and at other times,
the clown fish will eat some of a fish that is snared by the sea anemones. The relationship
between the clown fish and sea anemone is an example of
A
competition
B
commensalism
C
mutualism
D
parasitism
E
predation
100.
The size of a population of mice on an isolated island has remained constant for 50 years. What
is the average number of offspring that each breeding pair produces during its lifetime that
survives to reproductive maturity and reproduces?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
10 to 20
E
more than 20
101.
Which of the following describes a single population?
A
A group of bacteria all of the species Bacillus subtilis
B
All insects occupying three hectares of farmland
C
An exact count of 315 animals in a fenced plot of land
D
All of the birds counted in one day by census takers in the United States
E
All of the animals and plants on an isolated island