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Sample Exam Questions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Acquiring information and transforming it into memory is
a. state-dependent learning.
c. memory consolidation.
b. encoding.
d. transfer-appropriate processing.
____
2. Elaborative rehearsal of a word will LEAST likely be accomplished by
a. repeating it over and over.
b. linking the new word to a previously learned concept.
c. using it in a sentence.
d. thinking of its synonyms and antonyms.
____
3. How would you describe the relationship between elaborative rehearsal and maintenance rehearsal in terms of
establishing long-term memories?
a. Elaborative is more effective than maintenance.
b. Maintenance is more effective than elaborative.
c. Both are equally effective in all learning circumstances.
d. Each one is sometimes more effective, depending on the learning circumstances.
____
4. Elementary school students in the U.S. are often taught to use the very familiar word "HOMES" as a cue for
remembering the names of the Great Lakes (each letter in "HOMES" provides a first-letter cue for one of the
lakes: Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior). This memory procedure usually works better than repeating
the names over and over, which provides an example of
a. a self-reference effect.
c. implicit memory.
b. repetition priming.
d. elaborative rehearsal.
____
5. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates how effective or ineffective maintenance rehearsal is in
transferring information into LTM?
a. Lilia recalls her grandmother’s house where she grew up, even though she hasn’t been
there for 22 years.
b. Ben learned his martial arts moves by making up "short stories" and mental images to
describe each movement.
c. Renee starred in the lead role of her high school play a few years ago. Although she
helped write the play and based her character on her own life, she cannot remember many
of the actual lines of dialogue anymore.
d. Serena’s keys were stolen from her purse. She cannot give a detailed description of her
keychain to the police, even though she used it every day for three years.
____
6. Which statement below is most closely associated with levels of processing theory?
a. Information enters memory by passing through a number of levels, beginning with sensory
memory, then short-term memory, then long-term memory.
b. Events that are repeated enough can influence our behavior, even after we have forgotten
the original events.
c. Deep processing takes longer than shallow processing and results in better processing.
d. People who were sad when they studied did better when they were sad during testing.
____
7. Shallow processing of a word is encouraged when attention is focused on
a. the number of vowels in a word.
c. the pleasantness of a word.
b. the meaning of a word.
d. the category of a word.
____
8. The elaborative rehearsal task of learning a word by using it in a sentence is generally most effective if the
generated sentence is
a. simple.
c. neutral.
b. complex.
d. vague.
____
9. Bransford and Johnson’s study had participants hear a passage which turned out to be about a man on the
street serenading his girlfriend in a tall building. The wording of the passage made it difficult to understand,
but looking at a picture made it easier to understand. The results of this study illustrated the importance of
_______ in forming reliable long-term memories.
a. implicit memory during learning
b. an organizational context during learning
c. deep processing during retrieval
d. imagery
____ 10. Examples from your book describing real experiences of how memories, even ones from a long time ago, can
be stimulated by locations, songs, and smells highlight the importance of ____ in LTM.
a. long-term potentiation
c. elaborative rehearsal
b. retrieval cues
d. mass practice
____ 11. Mantyla’s "banana / yellow, bunches, edible" experiment demonstrates that, for best memory performance,
retrieval cues should be created
a. by agreement among many people, thus providing proof they are effective.
b. by a memory expert who understands what makes cues effective.
c. using visual images.
d. by the person whose memory will be tested.
____ 12. You have been studying for weeks for a nursing school entrance exam. You love the idea of becoming a
nurse, and you have been enjoying learning about the material for your exam. Each night, you put on relaxing
clothes and study in the quiet of your lovely home. Memory research suggests you should take your test with
a _____ mind set.
a. excited
c. nervous
b. calm
d. neutral
____ 13. Hebb's idea of long-term potentiation, which provides a physiological mechanism for the long-term storage of
memories, includes the idea of
a. an increase in the size of cell bodies of neurons.
b. enhanced firing in the neurons.
c. larger electrical impulses in the synapse.
d. the growth of new dendrites in neurons.
____ 14. The medial temporal lobe (MTL), involved in memory consolidation, includes all of the following structures
EXCEPT the
a. perirhinal cortex.
c. parahippocampal cortex.
b. amygdala.
d. entorhinal cortex.
____ 15. Graded amnesia occurs because
a. remote memories are more fragile than recent memories.
b. recent memories are more fragile than remote memories.
c. emotional memories are more fragile than nonemotional memories.
d. nonemotional memories are more fragile than emotional memories.
____ 16. From the behavior of H.M., who experienced memory problems after a brain operation, we can conclude that
the hippocampus is important in
a. procedural memory.
c. working memory.
b. long-term memory storage.
d. long-term memory acquisition.
____ 17. ____ transforms new memories from a fragile state, in which they can be disrupted, to a more permanent
state, in which they are resistant to disruption.
a. Amnesia
c. Cued-recall
b. Encoding specificity
d. Consolidation
____ 18. ____ consolidation involves the gradual reorganization of circuits within brain regions and takes place on a
fairly long time scale, lasting weeks, months, or even years.
a. Remote
c. Systems
b. Standard
d. Synaptic
____ 19. According to the multiple trace hypothesis, the hippocampus is involved in retrieval of
a. remote, episodic memories.
c. remote procedural memories.
b. remote, semantic memories.
d. state-dependent memories.
____ 20. When cleaning her closet, Nadia finds her 20-year-old wedding photo album. As she flips through the
pictures, she starts to cry joyful tears. Seeing the photos and rekindling the emotions of her wedding day most
likely activated her
a. thalamus.
c. amygdala.
b. prefrontal cortex.
d. medial temporal lobe.
____ 21. Treatment of PTSD has benefitted from recent research on
a. levels of processing.
c. transfer-appropriate processing.
b. depth of processing.
d. reconsolidation.
____ 22. For most adults over age 40, the reminiscence bump describes enhanced memory for
a. childhood and adolescence.
b. adolescence and early adulthood.
c. early adulthood and middle age.
d. childhood and middle age.
____ 23. Asking people to recall the most influential events that happened during their college careers show that ____
in people's lives appear to be particularly memorable.
a. peer-group experiences
c. the sophomore year
b. academic challenges
d. transition points
____ 24. The observation that older adults often become nostalgic for the "good old days" reflects the self-image
hypothesis, which states that
a. life in a society gets more complicated and difficult as generations pass.
b. memory for life events is enhanced during the time we assume our life identities.
c. people tend to remember more of the positive events in their lives than negative ones.
d. our memories change as we live longer and have more "lifetime periods" to draw events
from.
____ 25. Extrapolating from the cultural life script hypothesis, which of the following events would be easiest to
recall?
a. Retiring from work at age 40
b. Marrying at age 60
c. Graduating from college at age 22
d. Having a child at age 45
____ 26. Your text argues that the proper procedure for measuring the accuracy of flashbulb memories is
a. source monitoring.
c. repeated recall.
b. scripting.
d. pre-cueing.
____ 27. A lesson to be learned from the research on flashbulb memories is that
a. rehearsal cannot account for them.
b. people’s confidence in a memory predicts its accuracy (high confidence = high accuracy).
c. extreme vividness of a memory does not mean it is accurate.
d. they are permanent and resist forgetting.
____ 28. Bartlett’s experiment in which English participants were asked to recall the "War of the Ghosts" story that
was taken from the French Indian culture illustrated the
a. misinformation effect.
c. constructive nature of memory.
b. familiarity effect.
d. reminiscence bump.
____ 29. Wei has allergy symptoms. He has gone to his regular doctor and an allergy specialist, but he wasn’t given a
prescription by either doctor. Instead, he was advised to buy any over-the-counter medicine. While he was in
the specialist’s waiting area, he read a magazine where he saw three ads for an allergy medicine called
SneezeLess. A week later, in a drug store, Wei says to his brother, "My doctor says SneezeLess works great.
I’ll buy that one." Wei and his doctor never discussed SneezeLess. Wei has fallen victim to which of the
following errors?
a. MPI
c. Schema confusion
b. Recovered memory
d. Source monitoring
____ 30. Unconscious plagiarism of the work of others is known as
a. narrative rehearsal.
c. repeated reproduction.
b. cryptomnesia.
d. repeated recall.
____ 31. ____ occurs when reading a sentence leads a person to expect something that is not explicitly stated or
necessarily implied by the sentence.
a. Observer perspective
c. Prospective memory
b. Pragmatic inference
d. Automatic narrative
____ 32. The experiment in which participants first read sentences about John fixing a birdhouse and were then asked
to identify sentences they had seen before, illustrated that memory
a. is better for vivid descriptions.
b. is like a tape recording.
c. depends on the participant’s mood.
d. involves making inferences.
____ 33. Your friend has been sick for several days, so you go over to her home to make her some chicken soup.
Searching for a spoon, you first reach in a top drawer beside the dishwasher. Then, you turn to the big
cupboard beside the stove to search for a pan. In your search, you have relied on a kitchen
a. source memory.
c. schema.
b. episodic memory.
d. scan technique.
____ 34. In the "sleep list" false memory experiment, false memory occurs because of
a. constructive memory processes.
c. the effect of scripts.
b. verbatim recall.
d. none of these
____ 35. The conclusion to be drawn from the man named Shereshevskii whose abnormal brain functioning gave him
virtually limitless word-for-word memory is that having memory like a video recorder
a. is largely a blessing because no event would be erased.
b. is an advantage because it eliminates "selective" recording (remembering some events and
forgetting others), which provides no useful service to humans.
c. helped him draw powerful inferences and intelligent conclusions from his vast knowledge
base.
d. none of the above
____ 36. "S," who had a photographic memory that was described as virtually limitless, was able to achieve many feats
of memory. According to the discussion in your text, S’s memory system operated _____ efficiently than
normal.
a. more
b. less
____ 37. The memory-trace replacement hypothesis states that the misinformation effect occurs because
a. MPI impairs or replaces memories formed during the original experiencing of an event.
b. MPI cues the rememberer that an error in memory is occurring.
c. MPI fills in the gaps in the original memory where it lacked detail.
d. the original memory for an event decays over time, leaving room for MPI to infiltrate the
memory later.
____ 38. ____ occurs when more recent learning impairs memory for something that happened further back in the past.
a. Reminiscent memory
c. Feature integration
b. Pragmatic inference
d. Retroactive interference
____ 39. In Lindsay's "misinformation effect" experiment, participants saw a sequence of slides showing a
maintenance man stealing money and a computer. This slide presentation included narration by a female
speaker who described what was happening in the slides as they were shown. Results showed that the
misinformation effect was greatest when MPI presentation was
a. visual.
b. auditory, regardless of the gender of the speaker.
c. auditory from a female speaker.
d. auditory from a male speaker.
____ 40. Lindsay's misinformation effect experiment, in which participants were given a memory test about a sequence
of slides showing a maintenance man stealing money and a computer, showed that participants are influenced
by MPI
a. if they believe the postevent information is correct.
b. only if the MPI is presented immediately after viewing the event.
c. even if they are told to ignore the postevent information.
d. if the MPI is consistent with social stereotypes.
____ 41. Research on eyewitness testimony has shown that the more confident the person giving the testimony is of
their memories,
a. the more accurate the memories are.
b. the more convincing the testimony is to a jury.
c. the more likely they are to be influenced by a weapons focus.
d. the more accurate the memories are and the more convincing the testimony is to a jury.
____ 42. Stany and Johnson’s "weapons focus" experiment, investigating memory for crime scenes, found that
a. the presence of a weapon enhances memory for all parts of the event.
b. the presence of a weapon has no effect on memory for the event.
c. the threat of a weapon causes people to focus their attention away from the weapon itself.
d. the presence of a weapon hinders memory for other parts of the event.
____ 43. Your text's discussion of eyewitness testimony illustrates that this type of memory is frequently influenced by
all of the following EXCEPT
a. failing to elaboratively rehearse these kinds of events due to fear.
b. inattention to relevant information due to the emotional nature of these events.
c. source-monitoring errors due to familiarity.
d. increased confidence due to postevent questioning.
____ 44. Critics of eyewitness testimony could point to the ______ hypothesis to highlight the dangers of repeated
questioning of eyewitnesses.
a. narrative-rehearsal
c. memory-trace replacement
b. cognitive
d. confabulation
____ 45. Research on eyewitness testimony reveals that
a. highly confident eyewitnesses are usually accurate.
b. it is unnecessary to warn an eyewitness that a suspect may or may not be in a lineup.
c. when viewing a lineup, an eyewitness’s confidence in her choice of the suspect can be
increased by an authority’s confirmation of her choice, even when the choice is wrong.
d. all of the above
____ 46. Much research has been dedicated to improving the reliability of eyewitness testimony. One finding reveals
that when constructing a lineup, ____ similarity between the "fillers" and the suspect does result in missed
identification of some guilty suspects but also substantially reduces erroneous identification of many innocent
people.
a. decreasing
b. increasing
____ 47. Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive interview technique?
a. Police ask witnesses questions and have them rate their confidence level in their
recollections.
b. Police offer positive reinforcement to witnesses (e.g., "Good, that makes sense.") when the
witnesses give information consistent with what is in the police file.
c. Police allow witnesses to talk with a minimum of interruption from the officer.
d. Police start their interview with simple filler questions to make the witnesses feel
comfortable.
____ 48. Your text's discussion of instances when people report a memory of being abused or witness abuse after years
of having no memory for these events highlights the importance of considering
a. how visualization exercises during therapy may lead to false memories.
b. that there is no test that can accurately discriminate between true and false memories.
c. the specific situation under which a person recalls the past.
d. all of these
____ 49. Not all of the members of everyday categories have the same features. Most fish have gills, fins, and scales.
Sharks lack the feature of scales, yet they are still categorized as fish. This poses a problem for the _______
approach to categorization.
a. prototype
c. definitional
b. exemplar
d. family resemblance
____ 50. The definitional approach to categorization
a. is not well suited for geometrical objects but works for familiar everyday objects.
b. sets definite criteria called family resemblances that all category members must have.
c. doesn’t work well for most natural objects like birds, trees, and plants.
d. was proposed to replace the prototype approach.
____ 51. ______ is an average representation of a category.
a. A prototype
c. A unit
b. An exemplar
d. A component
____ 52. The prototype approach to categorization states that a standard representation of a category is based on
a. the definition of the category.
b. a universal set of category members.
c. a defined set of category members.
d. category members that have been encountered in the past.
____ 53. Which approach to categorization involves forming a representation based on an average of category
members that a person has encountered in the past?
a. Exemplar
c. Typicality
b. Network
d. Prototype
____ 54. A task for determining how prototypical an object is would be
a. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate paired members within a category.
b. a task where participants rate the extent to which each member represents the category
title.
c. a task where participants rate the extent to which category members resemble one another.
d. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate the category classification for a list of
members.
____ 55. If you say that "a Labrador retriever is my idea of a typical dog," you would be using the _____ approach to
categorization.
a. exemplar
c. family resemblance
b. definitional
d. prototype
____ 56. Imagine that a young child is just learning about the category "dog." Thus far, she has experienced only two
dogs, one a small poodle and the other a large German shepherd. On her third encounter with a dog, she will
be LEAST likely to correctly categorize the animal as a dog if that animal
a. matches the size of the poodle but is of a different breed.
b. is a dog that does not bark.
c. matches an exemplar of one of the dogs she has experienced.
d. is similar to an "average" for the dogs she has encountered.
____ 57. According to Rosch, the ____ level of categories is the psychologically "privileged" level of category that
reflects people's everyday experience.
a. superordinate
c. basic
b. prototypical
d. subordinate
____ 58. People playing the parlor game "20 Questions" often use hierarchical organization strategies. One player asks
up to 20 yes/no questions to determine the identity of an object another player has selected. The player’s
questions usually start as general and get more specific as the player approaches a likely guess. Initial
questions asked by a player are often one of three questions: "Is it an animal?" "Is it a vegetable?" and "Is it a
mineral?" Each of these three questions describes which level of categorization?
a. Typical
c. Subordinate
b. Basic
d. Superordinate
____ 59. Rosch and coworkers conducted an experiment in which participants were shown a category label, like car or
vehicle, and then, after a brief delay, saw a picture. The participants’ task was to indicate as rapidly as
possible whether the picture was a member of the category. Their results showed
a. the priming effect was most robust for superordinate level categories.
b. the priming effect was most robust for basic level categories.
c. no measurable priming effect.
d. the priming effect was the same for superordinate and basic level categories.
____ 60. Your text describes cross-cultural studies of categorization with U.S. and Itza participants. Given the results
of these studies, we know that if asked to name basic level objects for a category, U.S. participants would
answer ____ and Itza participants would answer ____.
a. bird; bird
c. sparrow; bird
b. bird; sparrow
d. sparrow; sparrow
____ 61. If we were conducting an experiment on the effect knowledge has on categorization, we might compare the
results of expert and non-expert groups. Suppose we compare horticulturalists to people with little knowledge
about plants. If we asked the groups to name, as specifically as possible, five different plants seen around
campus, we would predict that the expert group would primarily label plants on the _____ level, while the
non-expert group would primarily label plants on the _____ level.
a. superordinate; subordinate
c. subordinate; basic
b. superordinate; basic
d. basic; subordinate
____ 62. In the semantic network model, a specific category is represented at a
a. link.
c. node.
b. input unit.
d. output unit.
____ 63. In evaluating retrieval rates for category information for a concept, Collins and Quillian’s semantic network
approach would predict the slowest reaction times for which of the following statements using a sentence
verification technique?
a. A field sparrow is a bird.
b. A field sparrow is a sparrow.
c. A field sparrow is an animal.
d. A field sparrow is a field sparrow.
____ 64. Collins and Quillian explained the results of priming experiments by introducing the concept of _____ into
their network model.
a. spreading activation
c. typicality
b. cognitive economy
d. back propagation
____ 65. Spreading activation
a. primes associated concepts.
b. inhibits unrelated concepts.
c. creates new links between associated concepts.
d. weakens the link between unrelated concepts.
____ 66. In a lexical decision task, participants have to decide whether
a. a statement is true.
c. a stimulus is presented.
b. a letter string is a word.
d. two stimuli are associated.
____ 67. Good psychological theories must have all of the following properties EXCEPT being
a. too powerful to be refuted by empirical evidence.
b. able to predict the results of a particular experiment.
c. able to stimulate a great deal of research to test the theory.
d. shown to be wrong if a particular experimental result occurs.
____ 68. Connectionist networks are modeled after neural networks in the nervous system and incorporate all of the
following features of the nervous system EXCEPT
a. excitatory and inhibitory connections.
b. strength of firing patterns determined by the number and type (excitatory/inhibitory) of
inputs.
c. concepts represented by activity in individual nodes.
d. distributed coding.
____ 69. One of the key properties of the _____ approach is that a specific concept is represented by activity that is
distributed over many units in the network.
a. semantic network
c. spreading activation
b. hierarchical
d. connectionist
____ 70. Which of the following is NOT a property of the connectionist approach?
a. It proposes a slow learning process that eventually creates a network capable of handling a
wide range of inputs.
b. Connectionist networks respond to being damaged in ways similar to the response that
occurs in actual cases of brain damage in humans.
c. Before any learning has occurred in the network, the weights in the network all equal zero.
d. The connectionist system learns to generalize by recognizing that properties of one
concept provide information about other, related concepts.
____ 71. The activity that represents a particular object is established in a connectionist network through a process of
learning that involves
a. adjusting the weights of inhibitory and excitatory connections between units.
b. a process of trial and error.
c. comparing the object to objects in other categories.
d. adjusting the length of the links that connect the nodes in the circuit.
____ 72. One beneficial property of connectionist networks is graceful degradation, which refers to the property that
a. these networks learn by a process that is analogous to the way a child learns about the
world by making mistakes and being corrected.
b. learning a new concept does not interfere with remembering a previously learned concept.
c. damage to the system does not completely disrupt its operation.
d. learning can be generalized between similar concepts to facilitate future learning.
____ 73. If a system has the property of graceful degradation, this means that
a. it loses information at a very slow rate.
b. damage to the system doesn’t completely disrupt its operation.
c. it is either functioning at 100 percent, or it is not functioning at all.
d. it can be set to operate at "low efficiency" or "high efficiency" depending on the demand
of the current task.
____ 74. Research on the physiology of semantic memory has shown that the representation of different categories in
the brain (like living and non-living things) is best described as being
a. specific.
c. graded.
b. subordinate.
d. distributed.
____ 75. Ira and his sister are playing "Name that Tune," the object of which is to name the title of the song when
given the song’s first line. Ira suggests the line "Sleigh bells ring, are you listening?" His sister can’t come up
with the answer at first, but realizing that the title is often embedded in the lyrics, she tries to sing them
silently to herself. She then bursts out "Ah! It’s 'Winter Wonderland'!" It is most likely that Ira’s sister used
_____ in playing the game.
a. mental chronometry
c. visual imagery
b. mental synthesis
d. inner audition
____ 76. Examples like Paul McCartney’s composition of the song "Yesterday" and Jack Nicklaus’s improvement of
his golf swing demonstrate a connection between imagery and
a. dual coding.
c. inner audition.
b. dreams.
d. the visual buffer.
____ 77. Shepard and Metzler measured the time it took for participants to decide whether two objects were the same
(two different views of the same object) or different (two different objects). These researchers inferred
cognitive processes by using
a. image scanning.
c. epiphenomena.
b. mental chronometry.
d. propositional representations.
____ 78. Dominic is at a job interview sitting across from the company’s CEO, Ms. Bing. While she takes a phone call,
Dominic tries to recall her first name. Her business card is on the desk, but its orientation is not facing
Dominic straight on. The business card has the initial of Ms. Bing’s first name, so Dominic mentally rotates
that initial letter into a straight-up orientation. For which angle (compared to the final straight-up orientation)
would you predict Dominic would be fastest in identifying the initial?
a. 30 degrees
c. 90 degrees
b. 60 degrees
d. 180 degrees
____ 79. The scanning task used by Kosslyn involves
a. visual icons.
b. mental images.
c. perceptual images.
d. none of these
____ 80. Mental-scanning experiments found
a. a positive linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image.
b. a negative linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image.
c. a constant scanning time for all locations on an image.
d. that imagery does not represent spatial relations in the same way perceptual information
does.
____ 81. Sometimes a behavioral event can occur at the same time as a cognitive process, even though the behavior
isn’t needed for the cognitive process. For example, many people look toward the ceiling when thinking about
a complex problem, even though "thinking" would likely continue if they didn’t look up. This describes a(n)
a. epiphenomenon.
c. convergent behavior.
b. inner scribe.
d. propositional behavior.
____ 82. The propositional approach uses all of the following to describe the mechanism responsible for mental
imagery EXCEPT
a. nodes.
c. spatial layouts.
b. language.
d. symbols.
____ 83. Carly is an interior design student. As part of her internship, she is redesigning a small kitchen for a client.
She would like to expand the kitchen and add a dining area. Before creating sketches for the client, she
imagines the new layout in her mind, most likely using
a. tacit knowledge.
c. the method of loci.
b. a proposition.
d. a depictive representation.
____ 84. Which of the following has been used as an argument AGAINST the idea that imagery is spatial in nature?
a. The results of scanning experiments
b. Depictive representations
c. The tacit-knowledge explanation
d. none of these (they all support the idea that imagery is spatial)
____ 85. Kosslyn concluded that the image field is limited in size. This conclusion was drawn from the _____
experiment.
a. image scanning
c. mental synthesis
b. mental walk
d. mental set
____ 86. Suppose you were conducting a brain imaging experiment to investigate the overlap between brain areas
activated by perceiving an object and those activated by imagining it. Which of the following best describes
your investigation's baseline condition?
a. A baseline condition is only needed to determine which areas were activated by imagery.
b. A baseline condition is only needed to determine which areas were activated by
perception.
c. The baseline condition is needed for determining imagery activation and for determining
perception activation.
d. Since you are comparing perception activation to imagery activation, no baseline
condition is needed.
____ 87. Transcranial magnetic stimulation is used to
a. temporarily disrupt the functioning of a brain area.
b. permanently remove (or lesion) a part of the brain.
c. permanently disrupt the function of a part of the brain but leave it intact.
d. temporarily awaken areas of the brain that are non-responsive to other input.
____ 88. Your text describes the case of M.G.S. who underwent brain surgery as treatment for severe epilepsy. Testing
of M.G.S. pre- and post-surgery revealed that the right visual cortex is involved in the
a. size of the field of view.
b. recognition of objects in the left side of space.
c. ability to visually recognize objects.
d. ability to draw objects from memory.
____ 89. Your text describes imagery performance of a patient with unilateral neglect. This patient was asked to
imagine himself walking in a familiar plaza and to report the objects he saw. His behavior shows
a. neglect manifests itself in perception only, not in imagery.
b. neglect occurred in imagery such that some objects in the plaza were never reported.
c. neglect occurred in imagery so that the patient, imagining the walk from one direction and
neglecting the left side of the plaza, was then unable to imagine walking the plaza from the
other direction.
d. neglect always occurred on the left side of the image, with "left side" being determined by
the direction in which the patient imagined he was walking.
____ 90. To explain the fact that some neuropsychological studies show close parallels between perceptual deficits and
deficits in imagery, while other studies do not find this parallel, it has been proposed that the mechanism for
imagery is located at _____ visual centers and the mechanism for perception is located at _____ visual
centers.
a. lower; higher
c. both lower and higher; higher
b. higher; lower
d. higher; both lower and higher
____ 91. In explaining the paradox that imagery and perception exhibit a double dissociation, Behrmann and coworkers
suggested that perception necessarily involves _____ processing and imagery starts as a _____ process.
a. bottom-up; bottom-up
c. bottom-up; top-down
b. top-down; top-down
d. top-down; bottom-up
____ 92. Wilma is a famous chef. Since she does not like to share her secret family recipes, she does not write down
her special creations, which makes it difficult to remember their ingredients. To aid her memory, she has
created a unique "mental walk" that she takes to recall each recipe. For each one, she has a familiar "route"
she can imagine walking through (e.g., from the end of her driveway to her living room) where she places
each item in the recipe somewhere along the way (e.g., Tabasco sauce splattered on the front door). By doing
so, Wilma is using _____ to organize her memories.
a. mental synthesis
c. the pegword technique
b. paired-associate learning
d. method of loci
____ 93. The lesson to be learned from the imagery techniques for memory enhancement (for example, the pegword
technique) is that these techniques work because
a. distinctive images tend to provide easy "magical" improvements in memory.
b. they tap into reliable ways to develop "photographic" memory.
c. their flexible, undefined structures allow rememberers to spontaneously organize
information in any way they want.
d. they showcase the fact that memory improvement requires a great deal of practice and
perseverance.
____ 94. The water-pouring problem, in particular, shows that its solution using imagery cannot depend on
a. a rule-based approach.
c. tacit-knowledge.
b. mental simulation.
d. working memory.
____ 95. The rule-based approach to mechanical problem-solving is analogous to the idea that visual imagery involves
____ representations.
a. spatial
c. tacit
b. propositional
d. neuron
____ 96. Janet is alone in a room that contains a chair and a shelf with a book resting on top. She attempts to retrieve
the book, but the shelf is a foot above her reach. How will Janet retrieve the book? Psychologists would NOT
classify this scenario as a problem because
a. the solution is immediately obvious.
b. there is an obstacle between the present state and the goal state.
c. the initial state is not clearly defined.
d. the goal state is not clearly defined.
____ 97. The circle problem, in which the task is to determine the length of a line inside a circle, was proposed to
illustrate
a. how analogies can be used to solve problems.
b. means-end analysis.
c. representation and restructuring.
d. the problem space.
____ 98. Metcalfe and Wiebe gave participants problems to solve and asked them to make "warmth" judgments every
15 seconds to indicate how close they felt they were to a solution. The purpose of this experiment was to
a. demonstrate a difference between how people solve insight and non-insight problems.
b. show how people progress through the problem space as they solve a problem.
c. show that some problems are easier to solve than others.
d. measure the time-course of solving well-defined versus ill-defined problems.
____ 99. Functional fixedness would be LOWEST for a(n)
a. novel object.
c. frequently used object.
b. familiar object.
d. object with a specific function.
____ 100. ____ identified people's tendency to focus on a specific characteristic of a problem that keeps them from
arriving at a solution as a major obstacle to successful problem solving.
a. Newell and Simon's logic theorist computer problem
b. Gestalt psychologists
c. The physicist Richard Feynman
d. The analogical problem solving approach
____ 101. The water-jug problem demonstrates that one consequence of having a procedure that does provide a solution
to a problem is that, if well-learned, it may prevent us from
a. seeing more efficient solutions to the problem.
b. being able to solve other problems at all.
c. understanding why the procedure works successfully.
d. discriminating between well- and ill-defined problems.
____ 102. Amber lives in a housing development between two parallel streets that both connect to a freeway. She
usually takes the street to the south when heading southbound on the freeway to work, but that street is closed
for repairs for three months. Amber takes the street to the north during that time. After the street to the south
is re-opened, she continues to take the street to the north, even though it is a slightly longer route. Continuing
to take the street to the north represents
a. a single dissociation.
c. a mental set.
b. a source problem.
d. convergent thinking.
____ 103. Newell and Simon were early pioneers in designing computer programs that could solve problems. Their
research program was based on the idea that problem solving is a process that involves
a. insight.
c. parity.
b. algorithms.
d. search.
____ 104. The information processing approach describes problem solving as a process involving
a. design fixation.
c. insight.
b. creative cognition.
d. search.
____ 105. Newell and Simon called the conditions at the beginning of the problem the
a. intermediate state.
c. initial state.
b. goal state.
d. source story.
____ 106. Actions that take the problem from one state to another are known as
a. intermediate states.
c. operators.
b. subgoals.
d. mental sets.
____ 107. Which of the following is an operator for the acrobat problem?
a. Arrange acrobats in order of ascending size from left to right
b. Only one acrobat may jump at a time
c. Acrobats must be of equal weight
d. The medium acrobat is on the left of the large acrobat
____ 108. It is difficult to apply means-end analysis to an insight problem because it is difficult to define ____ for an
insight problem.
a. an initial state
b. operators
c. a goal state
d. intermediate states
____ 109. The typical purpose of subgoals is to
a. solve insight problems.
b. move the solver directly from the initial state to the goal state.
c. bring the problem solver closer and closer to the goal state.
d. avoid the need to perform means-end analysis.
____ 110. Intermediate states can be created by
a. restructuring initial states.
b. restructuring goal states.
c. creating operators.
d. creating subgoals.
____ 111. Kaplan and Simon's experiment presented different versions of the mutilated checkerboard problem. The
main purpose of their experiment was to demonstrate that
a. people arrive at the solution to an insight problem suddenly, but proceed more
methodically towards the solution of a non-insight problem.
b. a person’s mental set can hinder finding a solution to a problem.
c. people often have to backtrack within the problem space to arrive at an answer to a
problem.
d. the way the problem is represented can influence the ease of problem solving.
____ 112. The best description of the purpose of think-aloud protocols is that they are used to determine
a. what information a person is attending to while solving a problem.
b. which people can be considered more creative in ability to solve problems.
c. how to develop computer programs that best mimic human problem solving.
d. how a person's expertise increases his or her likelihood of solving a problem, relative to a
beginner.
____ 113. Dr. Curious is doing a follow-up study to the mutilated checkerboard problem experiment. In this new study,
participants solve the following shoe problem before tackling the checkerboard problem. By doing this, Dr.
Curious is studying the effect of _____ on problem solving.
The shoe problem: A first-grade class is using a trampoline in gym class, so all the children have removed
their shoes, which are all jumbled in a large pile. One of the students, Miguel, is leaving early, so the teacher
tells him to grab his shoes and report to the lobby. In his hurry, Miguel grabs two identical left-footed, size 6
red sneakers and runs to his mother still sock-footed. Will the remaining students be able to shoe-up with the
remaining shoes without getting a foot-ache?
a. analogies
c. perceptual segregation
b. anaphoric interference
d. divergent thinking
____ 114. The ability to transfer experience from one problem solving situation to a similar problem is known as
a. analogical encoding.
c. insight.
b. analogical transfer.
d. in vivo problem solving.
____ 115. The radiation problem can be solved using
a. representation and restructuring.
b. means-end analysis.
c. warmth judgments.
d. mental set.
____ 116. The fortress problem involves a fortress and marching soldiers, while the radiation problem involves a tumor
and rays. Therefore, the two problems have very different
a. surface features.
c. structural features.
b. operators.
d. mental sets.
____ 117. Holyoak and Koh presented different versions of the lightbulb problem to assist in solving the radiation
problem. They found the ____ version to be more effective, because it had ____ features in common with the
radiation problem.
a. insufficient-intensity; surface
c. fragile-glass; surface
b. insufficient-intensity; structural
d. fragile-glass; structural
____ 118. Gentner and coworkers' studies show that analogical encoding causes problem solvers to pay attention to
____ features that ____ their ability to solve other problems.
a. surface; diminish
c. structural; diminish
b. surface; enhance
d. structural; enhance
____ 119. The analogical paradox refers to problem-solving differences between
a. experts and novices.
b. laboratory and real-world settings.
c. experimental groups and control groups.
d. well- and ill-defined problems.
____ 120. A researcher records a brainstorming session in an industrial research and development department. Later, she
analyzes the recorded discussions, identifying certain problem-solving techniques. This research is an
example of ____ research.
a. think-aloud protocol
b. situationally-produced mental set
c. environmental functional fixedness
d. in vivo problem-solving
____ 121. The text's discussion of the research on in vivo problem solving highlighted that ____ play(s) an important
role in solving scientific problems.
a. analogies
c. flexibility
b. insight
d. subgoals
____ 122. Experts _____ than novices.
a. spend less time analyzing problems
b. are better at reasoning in general
c. are more likely to be open to new ways of looking at problems
d. take a more effective approach to a problem
____ 123. In its discussion of expertise and problem solving, your text identifies the kind of scientists who are most
likely to make revolutionary discoveries in their fields. This particular discussion suggests that _____ may be
more important than _____ in creative thinking.
a. experience; structure
c. flexibility; experience
b. structure; experience
d. experience; flexibility
____ 124. Divergent thinking is most closely associated with ____ problems.
a. ill-defined
c. source
b. well-defined
d. target
____ 125. Finke’s "creating an object" experiment had participants create a novel object by combining parts. Once they
created an object, they were given the name of an object category and instructed to interpret their creation as a
practical object or device within that category. Finke used the term preinventive forms to describe the
a. object parts.
b. novel objects before a function was described.
c. practical objects within the category.
d. inventions rated high in both practicality and originality.
____ 126. Making probable conclusions based on evidence involves _____ reasoning.
a. deductive
c. inductive
b. syllogistic
d. connective
____ 127. Consider the following syllogism:
If it's a robin then it is a bird.
It is a bird.
Therefore, it is a robin.
In the example above, "Therefore, it is a robin" is a ____ of a ____ syllogism.
a. premise; categorical
c. premise; conditional
b. conclusion; categorical
d. conclusion; conditional
____ 128. Consider the following syllogism:
All cats are birds.
All birds have wings.
All cats have wings.
This syllogism is
a. valid.
b. invalid.
c. true.
d. both valid and true.
____ 129. Consider the following syllogism:
All of the students are tired.
Some tired people are irritable.
Some of the students are irritable.
It is likely that most people will judge this syllogism as
a. invalid because of the influence of the atmosphere effect.
b. invalid because this syllogism does not involve a pragmatic reasoning schema.
c. valid because this is indeed a valid syllogism and the logic is apparent.
d. valid because this conclusion is believable.
____ 130. For which type of syllogism do people exhibit the best performance in judging validity?
a. Denying the antecedent
c. Affirming the antecedent
b. Denying the consequent
d. Affirming the consequent
____ 131. Consider the following conditional syllogism:
Premise 1: If I study, then I’ll get a good grade.
Premise 2: I didn’t study.
Conclusion: Therefore, I didn’t get a good grade.
This syllogism is an example of
a. affirming the antecedent.
b. denying the consequent.
____ 132. Consider the following conditional syllogism:
c. denying the antecedent.
d. affirming the consequent.
Premise 1: If I don't eat lunch today, I will be hungry tonight.
Premise 2: I ate lunch today.
Conclusion: Therefore, I wasn't hungry tonight.
This syllogism is
a. valid.
b. invalid.
____ 133. Mr. Huff always passes back exams to his algebra class in descending order (the highest grade is handed out
first). Today, Maddelyn was the first to receive her exam. Joy complained, remarking, "Maddelyn, you
always get the highest grade in algebra. It was true all last year and so far this year." Maddelyn was not sure if
this was correct. To figure out if this was true, Maddelyn should
a. search her memory for instances when she did get her exam back first and for instances
when she did not.
b. search her memory for instances when she did not get her exam back first.
c. search her memory for instances when she did get her exam back first.
d. wait until the next exam is passed back to see if she gets hers back first.
____ 134. According to your text, the key to solving the Wason four-card problem is
a. a mental model.
c. the law of large numbers.
b. a categorical syllogism.
d. the falsification principle.
____ 135. One reason that most people do not easily solve the original (abstract) version of the Wason four-card
problem is that they
a. ignore the falsification principle.
b. are influenced by the atmosphere effect.
c. confuse the ideas of validity and truth.
d. incorrectly apply the permission schema.
____ 136. The rule of the Wason four-card problem is, "If there is a vowel on one side, then there is an even number on
the other side." Let's say you are presented with A, 8, M, and 13, each showing on one of four cards. To see if
the rule is valid, you would have to turn over the cards showing
a. 8 and M.
c. A and 13.
b. A and M.
d. 8 and 13.
____ 137. When the "abstract" version of the Wason four-card problem is compared to a "concrete" version of the
problem (in which beer, soda, and ages are substituted for the letters and numbers),
a. performance is better for the concrete task.
b. performance is better for the abstract task.
c. performance is the same for both tasks.
d. performing the abstract task improves performance of the concrete task.
____ 138. Which of the following statements would most likely invoke the operation of a permission schema?
a. No artists can be beekeepers, but some of the beekeepers must be chemists.
b. All A are B. All B are C. Therefore, all A are C.
c. I forgot to charge my cell phone last night, therefore I missed an important call today.
d. If I get an A on my cognitive psychology exam, I can go out with my friends Saturday
night.
____ 139. The evolutionary approach proposes that the Wason problem can be understood in terms of people's
a. innate language abilities.
b. ability to work well with a group of others.
c. innate reasoning abilities.
d. ability to detect cheaters.
____ 140. At a lunch meeting with a client, the CEO of Gossip Polls, Inc., was asked to determine America’s favorite
day of the week. Hundreds of Gossip employees across the U.S. started collecting data immediately, calling
people at their residences. One hour later, the attitudes from 10,000 Americans, across all 50 states, were
collected. A staff member called the CEO, still at her lunch meeting, to tell her the results of the poll:
America’s favorite day of the week is Monday. Given your text’s discussion of inductive reasoning in
science, we might suspect that the observations in this poll are not representative because
a. the participants were only asked one question for this poll.
b. the participants were not sufficiently geographically diverse.
c. the people who are home to answer the phone in the early afternoon are not an appropriate
cross-section of the U.S. population.
d. everyone in America was not asked their opinion.
____ 141. Derrick purchased a new car, a Ford Mustang, less than a month ago. While sitting in traffic, Derrick says to
his girlfriend, "Mustangs must be the best-selling car now. I can’t remember seeing as many on the road as I
have recently." Derrick’s judgment is most likely biased by a(n)
a. atmosphere effect.
c. focusing illusion.
b. availability heuristic.
d. permission schema.
____ 142. Stereotypes are reinforced by all of the following EXCEPT
a. the availability heuristic.
c. selective attention.
b. illusory correlations.
d. the falsification principle.
____ 143. Gabrielle is blonde, extremely attractive, and lives in an expensive condo. If we judge the probability of
Gabrielle's being a model quite high because she resembles our stereotype of a model, we are using
a. the representative heuristic.
c. framing.
b. the availability heuristic.
d. the law of small numbers.
____ 144. If a motorcycle cop believes that young female drivers speed more than other drivers, he will likely notice
young female drivers speeding in the fast lane but fail to notice young male or older drivers doing the same.
In this case, the police officer’s judgments are biased by the operation of the
a. permission schema.
c. falsification principle.
b. confirmation bias.
d. typicality principle.
____ 145. The similarity-coverage model demonstrates the influence of _____ on the strength of inductive arguments.
a. utility
c. categorization
b. self-referencing
d. none of these
____ 146. Kirk is a generally anxious person. His anxiety sometimes gets in the way when he tries to make decisions.
The anxiety Kirk feels is an example of an
a. expected emotion.
c. integral immediate emotion.
b. immediate emotion.
d. incidental immediate emotion.
____ 147. The study by Tversky and Shafir, in which college students decided whether or not to purchase a vacation
package after taking a difficult end-of-semester exam, showed the influence of ____ in decision making.
a. positive vs. negative outcomes
c. justification
b. opt-in vs. opt-out procedures
d. utility
____ 148. Physiological research on problem solving has concluded that the prefrontal cortex (PFC) is important in
problem solving because damage to this area causes
a. difficulty in people developing expertise in a certain area of knowledge.
b. people to lose their memory for facts that might aid in finding a solution.
c. an increase in perseveration.
d. an inability to recognize analogies.
____ 149. Omission bias involves
a. misjudging a syllogism as valid because the conclusion agrees with our beliefs.
b. ignoring the importance of sample size on which an observation is based.
c. selectively looking for evidence that conforms to our beliefs while ignoring the rest.
d. tending to do nothing rather than making a decision that could be interpreted as causing
harm.
____ 150. An omission bias would be most likely to occur when deciding whether to
a. include your ethnicity when filling out a job application.
b. send a belated happy birthday card to your favorite aunt whose birthday you forgot last
month.
c. allow your pre-teen nephew to attend an unsupervised pool party.
d. tell your boyfriend that there is a football game on TV at the same time he agreed to watch
a romantic comedy with you.
Sample Exam Questions
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B
2. ANS: A
KEY: WWW
3. ANS: A
REF: page 173
4. ANS: D
5. ANS: D
6. ANS: C
REF: page 174-175
7. ANS: A
8. ANS: B
REF: page 176
9. ANS: B
REF: page 179-180
10. ANS: B
11. ANS: D
REF: page 183
12. ANS: B
13. ANS: B
REF: page 191
14. ANS: B
15. ANS: C
REF: page 193
16. ANS: D
17. ANS: D
18. ANS: C
REF: page 194
19. ANS: A
REF: page 195
20. ANS: C
REF: page 197
21. ANS: D
REF: page 197
22. ANS: B
REF: page 206
23. ANS: D
REF: page 207
24. ANS: B
REF: page 207
25. ANS: C
26. ANS: C
REF: page 209
PTS: 1
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C
page 210
C
WWW
D
page 215
B
page 215
B
D
page 218
C
page 219
A
WWW
D
page 221
B
page 221
A
WWW
D
page 224
C
WWW
C
B
page 226-227
D
page 227
A
page 227-229
C
C
page 230
B
C
page 232
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page 233
C
page 241
C
page 241-242
A
D
page 243
D
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B
WWW
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page 243-246
B
C
D
WWW
B
B
page 249
C
WWW
C
C
page 251
A
page 251-252
A
page 302-303
B
page 252
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page 254-255
C
page 255-256
D
page 256
C
A
page 258-259
C
B
page 259
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page 260
D
WWW
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page 270
B
page 271
A
page 271
B
page 273
A
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page 274
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C
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B
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page 283
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page 283
D
C
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page 286
D
page 287
C
page 288
B
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page 326
C
page 327
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B
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page 330
D
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page 333
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DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 284
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 284
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 330-331
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: MODERATE
DIFFICULT
EASY
EASY
EASY
DIFFICULT
DIFFICULT
MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
page 331-332
page 332
page 332
page 332
page 333|page 336
page 333
111. ANS:
REF:
112. ANS:
113. ANS:
REF:
114. ANS:
115. ANS:
116. ANS:
117. ANS:
118. ANS:
REF:
119. ANS:
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120. ANS:
121. ANS:
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122. ANS:
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123. ANS:
124. ANS:
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125. ANS:
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126. ANS:
127. ANS:
128. ANS:
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129. ANS:
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132. ANS:
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133. ANS:
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134. ANS:
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135. ANS:
REF:
136. ANS:
137. ANS:
138. ANS:
139. ANS:
140. ANS:
REF:
141. ANS:
D
page 337-338
A
A
page 339
B
A
A
D
D
page 345
B
page 345
D
A
page 345-346
D
page 346-348
C
A
page 349
B
page 350
C
D
A
page 361
D
page 361-362
C
page 363
C
page 363
B
page 363
A
page 364
D
page 364
A
page 364
C
A
D
D
C
page 368-369
B
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
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KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF: EASY
REF: page 338
DIF: MODERATE
1
1
WWW
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
EASY
DIFFICULT
EASY
DIFFICULT
MODERATE
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
page 340
page 341
page 343
page 344
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 345-346
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 348-351
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 360
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 362-363
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
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DIF: MODERATE
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DIF: MODERATE
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DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
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1
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DIF: MODERATE
DIFFICULT
EASY
EASY
DIFFICULT
MODERATE
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
page 364
page 364-365
page 365
page 366
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 369-370
142. ANS: D
143. ANS: A
REF: page 371-372
144. ANS: B
145. ANS: C
146. ANS: D
147. ANS: C
REF: page 381-382
148. ANS: C
149. ANS: D
REF: page 385
150. ANS: C
REF: page 385
PTS: 1
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DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 371
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
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DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
1
1
1
EASY
REF: page 374
EASY
REF: page 464
EASY
REF: page 377
MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 383
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE