Download C. Meningococcal infection

Epidemiology
Tests
1. Active immunity appears after introduction:
A.
immune serum
B.
immunoglobulin
C.
antitoxin
D.
*vaccines
E.
bacteriophage
2. Active immunity can be only:
A.
artificial
B.
natural
C.
*artificial and natural
D.
innate
E.
specific
3. Activities on contact with import cases of malaria:
A.
Parasitoscopy of blood
B.
The direction of the contact in the detention facility for 5 days
C.
Chemoprophylaxis
D.
Vaccination
E.
*Do not hold
4. All the following medicines are hepatoprotective agents except:
A.
Carsil
B.
Silibor
C.
Legalon
D.
*Acesol
E.
Arginine
5. All the following medicines are interferons except:
A.
Intron
B.
Roferon
C.
Reaferon
D.
Leukinferon
E.
*Cycloferon
6. All the hepatitis have parenteral way of transmission except:
A.
*A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
TTV
7. An infection of Tetanus takes place:
A.
*During trauma
B.
At the bite of mosquito
C.
At using somebody clothes
D.
At communication with a person sick on Tetanus
E.
At the use of poor quality water
8. Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. In what % of
all cases of acute hepatitis B will develop chronic form.
A.
100 %
B.
50-70 %
C.
25-30 %
D.
*5-10 %
E.
1%
9. Antiepidemic measures at a Tetanus are directed on:
A.
Deletion of agent source
B.
Treatment of source
C.
*Specific prophylaxis
D.
Chemoprophylaxis
E.
Not conducted
10. Antiepidemic measures conduct:
A.
*At presence of case of infectious diseases
B.
Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
C.
At the outbreak of infectious diseases
D.
At noninfectious diseases
E.
At unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
11. Artificial immunity is created after:
A.
introduction of antibiotic
B.
*introduction of immunoprotein
C.
disease
D.
birth of child
E.
introduction of a bacteriophage
12. Artificial immunity is created after:
A.
introduction of antibiotic
B.
*introduction of immune serum
C.
disease
D.
birth of child
E.
introduction of a bacteriophage
13. At a child with the clinical displays of ARVI a generilized lymphadenopathy, one-sided
conjunctivitis increase of liver and spleen, is marked. Most reliable diagnosis?
A.
Infectious mononucleosis
B.
Leptospirosis
C.
*Adenoviral infection
D.
Flu
E.
Pseudotuberculosis
14. At anthroponosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
*man
B.
animal
C.
environment
D.
man and animal
E.
man, animal and environment
15. At patient with pediculosis rapidly rise temperature of body up to 41.2°C, headache, euphoria
appeared in 4 days from the beginning of illness. Red color rash on the lateral thorax and back.
Titer of Rickettsia antibodies 1:640, Ig M – 89 %. What is diagnosis?
A.
Flu
B.
Enteroviral infection
C.
Brill-Zinsser disease
D.
*Epidemic typhus
E.
Parainfluenza
16. At rabies the source of causative agent can be:
A.
Carnivore mammals
B.
Domestic animal
C.
Bats
D.
Rodents
E.
*All enumerated
17. At sapronosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
man
B.
animal
C.
*environment
D.
man and animal
E.
man, animal and environment
18. At zoonosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
man
B.
*animal
C.
environment
D.
man and animal
E.
man, animal and environment
19. Basic principles of antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis.
A. Individual selection of dose and time of application of drugs
B. Duration of introduction of preparations
C. Control of amount of erythrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes in blood
D. Control of iron level in blood
E. *All enumerated
20. Chronic course is common for viral hepatitis except:
A.
*A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
B+C
21. Citizen B. traveling at the summer as a tourist to resort, wants to be protected against malaria.
How to prevent malaria infection?
A.
Follow the rules of personal hygiene
B.
Do not drink raw water
C.
Make vaccine
D.
*Hold chemoprophylaxis
E.
Conduct heat cooking of food
22. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A.
Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B.
Thrombocytopenia<50000 in 1 мм3
C.
Psychic disorders
D.
Leucocytopenia<1500 in 1 мм3
E.
*All enumerated
23. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A.
Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B.
Autoimmune disease
C.
Alcoholism and other drug addictions
D.
Leucocytopenia<1500 in 1 мм3
E.
*All enumerated
24. Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A.
Contain only neurotoxin
B.
*Exotoxin products
C.
Exotoxin does not product
D.
An enterotoxin products
E.
Myelotoxin products
25. Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A.
Contain only endotoxin
B.
*Exotoxin products
C.
Noone toxins products
D.
An osteotoxin products
E.
Haemotoxin products
26. Current disinfection is conduct
A. *after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B. in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
E. in all enumerate cases
27. Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
A.
In first days after birth of child
B.
*In 3 month age
C.
In 6-month age
D.
In 1 year
E.
In 6 years
28. Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
A.
In first days after birth of child
B.
In 12 month age
C.
In 6-month age
D.
In 1 year
E.
*Noone right
29. Disinsection is a complex of measures for a fight with:
A.
rodents
B.
*arthropods
C.
flies and cockroaches
D.
ticks and mosquitoes
E.
all bloodsucker insects
30. Disinsection is divided on:
A.
current and final
B.
current, final and prophylactic
C.
current and prophylactic
D.
final and prophylactic
E.
*prophylactic and destructive
31. Distinguish a deratization:
A.
continuous and planned
B.
prophylactic and destructive
C.
focal and prophylactic
D.
*focal, moment, continuous
E.
all are enumerated
32. Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications?
A.
4 days
B.
7 days
C.
*10 days
D.
17 days
E.
20 days
33. Duration of latent period at a Tetanus:
A. 1-6 hour
B. 1-4 days
C. *5-14 days
D. 1-6 weeks
E. 1-6 months
34. Etiologic agent of meningitis is:
A. *Neisseria meningitis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Campylobacter pylori
35. Final disinfection is conduct
A. *after the removal of causative agent source from a focus
B. in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
E. in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
36. First link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. *source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
37. Focal disinfection is conduct
A. after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B. *in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
E. in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
38. Focal disinfection is:
A. *current and final
B. current, final and prophylactic
C. current and prophylactic
D. final and prophylactic
E. prophylactic and medical
39. For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A. For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B. For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C. *For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D. For 17 days from the beginning
E. For 20 days from the beginning of illness
40. How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted?
A. By vaccination
B. *Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient
C. Using of vaccination
D. Disinfection
E. Non-admission of contact with carrier of B-streptococcus
41. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of the
fever?
A. 2 days
B. *5 days
C. Week
D. Month
E. A few months
42. In a child with the clinical display of acute respiratory viral infection observed generalized
lymphadenopathy, one-sided conjunctivitis, increase of liver and spleen. What will be the most
credible diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Leptospirosis
C. *Adenoviral infection
D. Influenza
E. Meningococcal infection
43. In a patient of 16 years old, the disease began gradually, from the catarrhal syndrome. For 2-3
days the temperature of body increase till 38,5°C, cold, severe cough with the negligible
quantity of mucous sputum, «souring» eyes. Peripheral lymph nodes are soft, painless and some
enlarged. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic, granules on posterior part of pharynx. General state
is satisfactory. What is the drug of choice?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Aspirin
C. *Desoxyribonucleasa
D. Remantadin
E. Aminocapronic acid
44. In a patient with ARVI fever develops to 40,1°C, breathing frequency 40/min. What measures
are the most effective in treatment of such complication.
A. Minimizing of body temperature
B. Keep patient on artificial lung ventilation
C. *Oxygen inhalation
D. Infusion therapy
E. Antibiotic therapy|
45. In epidemiology determining is:
A. mechanism of transmission of causative agent
B. biological properties of causative agent
C. making of collective immunity to the causative agent
D. *contagiousness of the infected person
E. source of causative agent
46. In forming and functioning of the parasitogenic systems determining is:
A. only biological factors
B. only social factors
C. only natural factors
D. social and natural factors
E. *all factors
47. In girl V., 1 year old, appeared the stuffiness in nose, dry cough, body temperature rose till 37,5
°C. Next day cough become attack like with the excretion of small amount of viscid sputum.
Noisy breathing. Sharply expressed expiratory dyspnea, breathing rate 40 times/minute. During
examination: acrocyanosis and emphysematous thorax, at lungs dissipated dry and single moist
rales. Tear of frenulum of tongue. What will be the preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Parainfluenza
B. Pneumonia
C. Influenza
D. Respiratory-syncytial infection
E. Whooping-cough
48. In what dose should benzylpenicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
A. From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
B. *From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
C. From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
D. From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
E. Regardless of mass of body
49. Indirect action of interferon therapy are all except.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Depression
D. Intensification of autoimmune diseases
E. *Progress of fibrosis
50. Indirect action of interferon therapy.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Itching
D. Parahypnosis
E. *All enumerated
51. Indirect action of interferons.
A. Flatulence
B. Diarrhea
C. Nausea
D. Depression
E. *All enumerated
52. Infections, guided mainly by immunoprophylaxis:
A. *anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. anthroponosis with the contact mechanism of transmission
53. Infections, guided mainly by sanitary-hygienic measures:
A. anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. *anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. anthroponosis with the contact mechanism of transmission
54. Innate immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. *individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
55. Measures in relation to contact persons at a Tetanus:
A. Vaccination
B. Direction of all persons in an insulator
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Laboratory inspection
E. *Does not conduct
56. Measures of malaria prevention for those, who have returned from disadvantaged areas:
A. Introduction of human immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. 6-day-prevention streptomycin or tetracycline
D. *Primaquine 14 days
E. All listed
57. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with measles
in case of contact with a measles patient
A. Separation from the source
B. *Vaccination in first 72 hours after contact
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
58. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for contacts which have never been ill, but were
vaccinated against measles
A.
Separation from the source
B.
Vaccination
C.
Use of antibiotics
D.
Use of immunoglobulin
E.
*No need to conduct
59. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but never
have been vaccinated
A. *Observations
B. Vaccination
C. Use of immunoglobulin
D. Use of antibiotics
E. No need to conduct
60. Mechanism of transmission at Tetanus:
A. Droplet
B. *Contact
C. Transmission
D. Fecal-oral
E. Vertical
61. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the bloody infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. *transmissive
E. alimentary
62. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the respiratory infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. *droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
63. Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:
A. Isolation of ill
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. *Does not exist
64. Methods used for identification of sources of malaria:
A. Stool culture test
B. Blood culture
C. *Microscopy of blood
D. Burne's test
E. All enumerated
65. Multicomponent parasitogenic system is:
A. parasite – host
B. *parasite – intermediate host – terminal host
C. an intermediate host - terminal host
D. a parasite - an intermediate host
E. parasite – intermediate host – terminal host – parasite
66. Passive immunity can be only:
A. artificial
B. natural
C. *artificial and natural
D. innate
E. specific
67. Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A. *immune serum
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
68. Patient 22 years old, has increase temperature of body till 37,8 °C. Treated under the
supervision of district doctor with a diagnosis of influenza. On the 5th day of illness
temperature remained the same; began difficultness in opening eyes. On examination – edema
on face, expressed conjunctivitis. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic. Lymph nodes are enlarged
in neck. The general state of patient is satisfactory. This disease is related to cold. What disease
you suspect?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. *Adenoviral infection
D. Allergic dermatitis
E. Meningococcal infection
69. Patient A., 28 years old, hospitalized with a previous diagnosis of flu. On the 5th day of illness,
rash appeared on the trunk and internal surfaces of extremities. Temperature 41.5 °C, hyperemia
of sclera, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitation. What is the most possible
diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Meningococcal infection
C. Leptospirosis
D. *Epidemic typhus
E. Typhoid
70. Patient B., 20 years old, complains about severe headache in temples and orbits, dull ache in the
trunk, dry cough. Temperature of the body 39.6°C. Inflammatory changes of mucous membrane
of oropharynx. Normal breathing in the lungs. What is the most credible diagnosis?
A. Pneumonia
B. Parainfluenza
C. Respiratory mycoplasma
D. *Flu
E. Meningococcal infection
71. Patient L., 18 years old is sick with fever till 38 °C which proceeds 5 days. he has moderate dry
cough, common cold, badly opens eyes. On examination – edema on face, expressed
conjunctivitis with film raids. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic, posterior wall of pharynx is
grainy. Internal organs are without pathology. What form of disease does the described picture
correspond to?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. *Adenoviral infection
D. Influenza
E. Rhinoviral infection
72. Patient M., 11 years old, complains on general weakness, cough, at night suddenly temperature
rose till 39,5 ?C, appeared restlessness, barking cough, noisy whistling breathing with drowing
in supra- and subclavicular cavities, intercostal spaces. He was in contact with the patient acute
respiratory viral infection. What should recommend him the first line?
A. *Prednisolon, hot foot-baths
B. Seduxen, euphylin
C. Euphylin, vitamin C
D. Antibiotics, dimedrol
E. Astmopen, diazolin
73. Patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious department in the severe condition.
Complains on expressed headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions, supercilliary arcs,
origin of vomiting appear in condition of severe pain, pains by moving the eyeballs, in muscles
and joints. Objectively: patient is excited, body temperature-39°C. BP-100/60 mmHg.
Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Appeared tonic cramps. Doubtful meningeal signs.
From anamnesis it is clear that his brother has flu at home. What will be your diagnosis?
A. Influenza, typical flow
B. *Influenza with the phenomena of edema of brain
C. Respiratory-syncytial infection
D. Parainfluenza
E. Adenoviral infection
74. Patient R., 16 years old, hospitalized for 5-day illness with complaints of moderate headache in
fronto-temporal region, laid nose, sore throat, pain in the left eye, rise in temperature to 38.138.5 °C. General condition is satisfactory. Shortness of nasal breath, mucous discharging from
the nose, hyperemia of face, enlargement of the neck and submaxillary lymph glands, left
foamy conjunctivitis. What is preliminary diagnosis?
A. Influenza
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Enteroviral infection
D. *Adenoviral infection
E. Influenza
75. Patient R., 26 years old, became ill sharply: temperature 39,5 °C, severe headache, mainly in
frontal and temporal an area, pains in muscles and joints. Examined on the 2-th days of illness:
state of middle weight, skin clean, dry. Moderate hyperemia with cyanosis, pulse 120/min.,
rhythmic. Cardiac activity rhythmic, tones are muffled, in lights of the vesicular breathing.
Stomach is without peristalsis. What is the preparation of choice for treatment of this patient?
A. Aspirin
B. *Remalol
C. Ampicillin
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Ribonuclease
76. Patients with the fever it is necessary to inspect on the presence of such diseases, except:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
D. *ARVI
E. AIDS
77. Patients with the fever it is necessary to inspect on the presence of such diseases, except:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis
E. *Tuberculosis
78. Primary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. acute recovering and chronic
E. *transient and inapparent
79. Properly disinfection is divided on:
A. current and final
B. current, final and prophylactic
C. current and prophylactic
D. final and prophylactic
E. *prophylactic and medical
80. Prophylactic disinfection conduct:
A. In a focus, where there is an infectious patient
B. At the home of chronic carrier
C. In an infectious hospital
D. *In the places of great accumulation of people
E. After death patient
81. Prophylactic disinfection is conduct
A. after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B. in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. *for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
out
E. in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
82. Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted in:
A. medical-prophylactic establishments
B. child's preschool establishments and schools
C. places of the general use and accumulation of people
D. enterprises of food industry and public food consumption
E. *apartments
83. Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted:
A. on enterprises of animal raw material processing
B. in child's preschool establishments and schools
C. on the water passage stations
D. on the enterprises of food industry and public food consumption
E. *on the streets of cities and villages
84. Prophylactic measures conduct:
A. After single case of infectious diseases
B. *Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
C. At the outbreak of infectious diseases
D. At noninfectious diseases
E. At delivery of especially dangerous infections
85. Quality of disinfectant is determined
A. by the term of their fitness
B. by the concentration of remaining chlorine
C. *multiplicity of quantity diminishing of viable microorganisms and speed of their death
D. by packing integrity, transparency, absence of colour and sediment|
E. by the presence of label on packing
86. Quantity of motive forces of epidemic process:
A. 2
B. *3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
87. Reconvalences after malaria prescribed from clinic no earlier than:
A. After 2 weeks to complete clinical recovery
B. After 2 weeks of the conclusion of a radical course of therapy
C. *At the conclusion of a radical course of therapy with a negative result of parazitoscopy
D. After 3 weeks with a negative blood culture results
E. After 3 weeks, if the negative results of planting feces
88. Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
A. *In separate room
B. In the house for respiratory infections
C. In the Meltser's box
D. Patients are not hospitalized
E. In the house for intestinal infections
89. Second link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. *mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
90. Secondary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. *acute recovering and chronic
E. transient and inapparent
91. Secondary forces of epidprocess are:
A. *natural and social phenomena
B. natural phenomena
C. social phenomena
D. governmental politics
E. climatic conditions
92. Sick M., 22 years old, complaints about increasing of body temperature to 39°C, headache in
frontal area, pain in eyeballs, photophobia, pain in a muscles, dry cough. Became ill suddenly.
The state is heavy. Objectively face is hyperemic, injection of sclera. Pulse 96 per min,
rhythmic. Tones of heart are hypotonic. In the lungs – dissipated dry wheezes. Mucous
membrane of oropharynx is hyperemic, grainy, vessels are extended. menengial symptoms are
not present. Analysis of blood: leukocytes 3x109/L, е. 1 %, band neut. 6 %, seg. neut 51 %,
lymphocytes 35 %, мonocytes 7 %. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. *Flu
C. Meningococcal disease
D. Epidemic typhus
E. Pneumonia
93. Sick, 52 years old, with complaints about pain in lumbar region, headache edema of chin. It is
known from anamnesis that the sick suffers from obesity of ІІ degree. Recently carried heavy
neurological stress and had flu. He has chronic bronchitis for 5 years, chronic gastritis for 8
years. Objectively: Temperature of the body 38.2 °C, AP – 140/90 mm Hg. It is proposed the
diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. What transferred factors could be the reason of disease?
A. Neuropsycologic stress
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Chronic gastritis
D. Obesity
E. *Flu
94. Source of meningitis is:
A. Animals
B. Birds
C. Fish
D. Lice
E. *Human
95. Specific localization of causative agent at blood infection:
A. blood plasma
B. leucocytes
C. *circulatory system
D. blood
E. red cells
96. Specific localization of causative agent at external covers infection:
A. skin
B. mucous of external part of gynaecologic organs
C. *external coverings
D. conjunctiva
E. epidermis
97. Specific localization of causative agent at intestinal infection:
A. oropharynx
B. esophagus and stomach
C. colon
D. intestine
E. *digestive channel
98. Specific localization of causative agent at respiratory infection:
A. oropharynx and nasopharynx
B. *respiratory tract
C. trachea and bronchial tubes
D. lungs
E. alveolus
99. Specify the correct method of introduction of serum by the Bezredko’s method:
A. 1,0 ml of diluted 1:100 hypodermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – in 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
B. 0,1 ml of diluted 1:1 000 intradermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of diluted 1:10 hypodermic – in 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
C. 0,1 ml of undiluted intradermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml hypodermic – through 30 min. All
dose - intramuscular
D. *0,1 ml of diluted 1:100 intradermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – through
30 min. All dose - intramuscular
E. 1,0 ml of diluted 1:10 hypodermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – through 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
100. Sterilization consists of such stages:
A. disinsection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
B. aseptic and antiseptic
C. pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
D. disinfection, disinsection and deratization
E. *disinfection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
101. Sterilization means:
A. a partial release of matters or object from all microorganisms
B. *a complete release of matters or object from all microorganisms
C. complete release of matters or object from pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms
D. a complete release of matters or object from pathogenic microorganisms
E. partial release of matters or object from pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms
102. Subjects for clinical supervision:
A. Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B. Health persons that were in contact with patient
C. *Convalescents after an infectious disease
D. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
E. All enumerated
103. Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
A. Until clinical recovery
B. After rash starts disappearing
C. Before appearance of rash
D. *4 days from the beginning of rash
E. 10 days from the beginning of illness
104. The acquired immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. *individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
105. The basic reservoir of rhabdovirus is:
A. Fishes
B. Reptiles
C. Birds
D. Weed-eaters
E. *Carnivores
106. The diagnosis of malaria can be confirmed:
A. Microscopy of urine
B. Blood culture
C. Bacteriologic investigation of stool
D. Swab from nasopharynx
E. *Parazitoscopy of blood
107. The duration of incubation period of plague is:
A. 3 to 8 days;
B. 2 to 12 days;
C. 2 to 10 days;
D. 1 to 8 days.
E. *2 to 6 days;
108. The following methods of disinfection are distinguished:
A. physical, biological
B. biological, chemical, mechanical
C. physical, chemical
D. biological, chemical
E. *physical, biological, chemical
109. The half-life of the most firm Ig in averages is:
A. *25 days
B. 50 days
C. 100 days
D. 200 days
E. 1 year
110. The infective agent of Tetanus is:
A. *C.Tetani
B. E.Coli
C. Candida
D. Epstain-Barr virus
E. Helminths
111. The patient P., 14 years old, is suffering from flu. He is hospitalized in infectious dept. due
to worsening of his condition. He is conscious. A patient is suffocated. Pallor of skin covers
with cyanosis, breathing rate 50 times/minute. BP-80/55 mmHg, pulse 110 times /minute. Body
temperature-39,5 °C. Excretion of rose foamy sputum. On percussion of lungs there is tympanic
sound with dullness in lower part of lung .On auscultation there is moist rales in lower posterior
part of lungs. What complication of flu appeared in patient?
A. Bronchitis
B. Edema of brain
C. *Pneumonia
D. Edema of lungs
E. infectious-toxic shock
112. The source of causative agent in an epidemic focus is:
A. animal
B. people
C. people and animal
D. environment
E. *pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
113. The source of causative agent in an epizootic focus is:
A. *animal
B. people
C. people and animal
D. environment
E. pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
114. The source of infection at diphtheria is:
A. *Sick person and bacteriocarriers
B. Sick agricultural animals
C. Rodents
D. Mosquito
E. Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
115. The spores of Tetanus infective agent are saved:
A. Boiling during 1 hour
B. Under the influence of dry air at a temperature 115°C
C. *In soil during many years
D. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hour
E. All above enumerated
116. The type of co-operation of causative agent with macroorganisms is not:
A. saprophytism
B. parasitism
C. neutralism
D. symbiosis
E. *anteclisa
117. There are such methods of sterilization:
A. physical and chemical
B. chemical and gas
C. physical and gas
D. *physical, chemical and gas
E. physical, chemical, gas and electric
118. Third link of epidprocess:
A. *susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
119. To the district doctor a patient, complaints on abundant excretions from a nose, moderate
headache, hearing loss, perversion of taste. On examination – dry of skin, nose excoriation, in a
pharynx – mild hyperemia. Temperature of body is subfebrile. Pathological changes of internal
organs are absent. Which acute respiratory viral infection carries the patient?
A. Adenoviral infection
B. Parainfluenza
C. *Rhinoviral infection
D. РC-infection
E. Influenza
120. To the pre-sterilization cleaning is needed:
A. delete of fatty and mechanical contaminations
B. delete of remaining amounts of medical preparations
C. lowering of initial level of contamination of products by microorganisms
D. delete the proteins contaminations
E. *all are enumerated
121. To the prophylactic measures belong, except:
A. Prevention of microbal contamination of environment
B. A disinfection of water in accordance with the requirements of standard for a drinking-water
C. Prevention of bringing of infection on epidemiology meaningful objects
D. Sanitary protection| of territory from delivery and distribution of infectious diseases
E. *Liquidations of epidemic focuses
122. Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in a
period:
A. Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B. To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C. In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
D. *Right after the trauma
E. Not needed
123. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. *Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus
E. Flu
124. What are the antiepidemic measures regarding the persons that were in contact with
chicken-pox patient:
A. *Separation and limit of contacts with others
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
125. What does not duration of postinfective immunity depend on?
A. properties of causative agent
B. infective dose
C. condition of the immune system
D. human genotype
E. *source of causative agent
126. What factors do not influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. features of the processed objects
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. methods of disinfection
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *sun radiation
127. What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
A. Sapronosis
B. Zoonosis
C. *Anthroponosis
D. Zooanthroponosis
E. A group is not certain
128. What is conduct specific passive immunnoprophylaxis of flu?
A. Living antenuated vaccine
B. Inactive parenteral vaccine
C. *By an immunoprotein
D. Remantadin
E. Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action|
129. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)?
A. 21 days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. Whole period of clinical symptoms
E. *First 9 days of disease.
130. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A. *7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient's rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
E. Not conducted
131. What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
A. 45 days
B. *180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
E. 25 days
132. What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. *Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
133. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A. *10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
E. Not contagious
134. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
E. *5 days after appearance the last rash
135. What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A. 11 days
B. 21 day
C. 10 days
D. No need for quarantine
E. *5 days after isolation of the last child
136. What is the source of Tetanus infective agent?
A. Ill person, bacteriocarrier
B. Rodents
C. *Soil
D. Insects
E. Cattle
137. What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of
flu?
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. X-ray of organs of thoraxic cavity
C. Analysis sputum|
D. *Determination of viruses by the method of immunofluorescence
E. Biochemical blood test
138. What laboratory and instrumental examinationsare needed for confirming the diagnosis of
viral hepatitis.
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. Ultrasound investigation of abdominal region
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. *Determination of antigen of viruses
E. Duodenal probe
139. What laboratory is needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.
A. Total analysis of blood
B. Determination of level of bilirubin
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. *Determination of markers of viral hepatitis in IFA
E. All enumerated
140. What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis?
A. *Lumbar puncture
B. Serologic detection
C. Urine examination
D. Stool test
E. Biopsy of tissues
141. What level is necessary to reduce the temperature of patient’s body with hyperthermia?
A. 39 °C
B. *38 °C
C. 37,5 °C
D. 37 °C
E. 38,5 °C
142. What measures must be taken in relation to people who had a contact with malaria case:
A. Microscopy of peripheral blood
B. Direction all of pin in an insulator on 5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Household rounds
E. *Does not conduct
143. What mechanism of Corynebacterium diphtheria transmission?
A. Vertical
B. Transmissive
C. *Air-drop
D. Contact
E. Parenteral
144. What mechanism of transmission at rabies?
A. Transmissive
B. Fecal-oral
C. Droplet
D. *Contact-wound
E. Domestic
145. What persons do belong to the group of patients with the fever?
A. With the temperature of body over 37°C
B. *With the temperature of body over 37,5°C
C. With the temperature of body over 38°C
D. With the temperature of body over 39°C
E. With the temperature of body over 40°C
146. What receptivity to rabies?
A. 45 %
B. 25 %
C. 85 %
D. *100 %
E. 10 %
147. What susceptibility of humans to the Tetanus?
A. Unsusceptible
B. 50 %
C. *Almost 100 %
D. 10 %
E. 70 %
148. Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A. Chill, high temperature, headache
B. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
D. Headache, dry cough, chill
E. *Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
149. Who does belong to the decree group of population?
A. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
B. Workers of child's preschool establishments
C. Medical personal of hospitals
D. Workers of water supply conduit
E. *All over enumerated
150. Who would be a subject for inspection on malaria?
A. People who recovered of malaria
B. Persons, returning from endemic regions of malaria
C. Patients with fever more than 5 days
D. Patients with splenomegaly
E. *All enumerated
151. Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:
A. *Flea
B. Water
C. Air
D. Food storage
E. Tick
152. Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A. Immediately after hospitalization
B. *Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C. After putting the final diagnosis
D. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
E. All answers are faithful
153. A diagnosis is “diphtheria of oropharynx” put to the child, 3-years-old (not vaccinated in
connection with the refusal of parents). Family lives in a 3-room apartment, a mother does not
work, a father is the director of factory. Specify the method of isolation of child.
A. * Obligatory hospitalization
B. Hospitalization after clinical examination
C. Hospitalization after epidemiology examination
D. Isolation at home conditions
E. Does not need isolation
154. A recurrence is in a long-term dynamics – it:
A. basic direction of development of epidemic process for the row of years
B. appropriate getting up of morbidity in a certain period
C. * regular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
D. irregular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
E. brief getting up of morbidity on the limited territory
155. After contact persons in the focus of salmonellosis conduct a medical supervision during:
A. 5 days.
B. 6 days.
C. * 7 days.
D. 14 days.
E. not conducted.
156. All the following medicines are interferons except:
A. Intron
B. Roferon
C. Reaferon
D. Leukinferon
E. * Cycloferon
157. All the hepatitis have parenteral way of transmission except:
A. * A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. TTV
158. An epidemiologic analysis is:
A. * the preliminary stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
B. the final stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
C. the intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
D. the preliminary and intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
E. the preliminary, intermediate and final stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
159. An infection of Tetanus takes place:
A. * During trauma
B. At the bite of mosquito
C. At using somebody clothes
D. At communication with a person sick on Tetanus
E. At the use of poor quality water
160. Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. In what %
of all cases of acute hepatitis B will develop chronic form.
A. 100 %
B. 50-70 %
C. 25-30 %
D. * 5-7 %
E. 1 %
161. Antiepidemic measures at a Tetanus are directed on:
A. Deletion of agent source
B. Treatment of source
C. * Specific prophylaxis
D. Chemoprophylaxis
E. Not conducted
162. Antiepidemic measures in the focus of hepatitis A (thermometry, questioning, examination)
conduct:
A. daily.
B. 2 times per a week.
C. * 1 time per a week.
D. only one time at the exposure of focus.
E. not conducted.
163. At a child, 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphtherial
serum includes:
A. * 40 AU
B. 15 AU
C. 20 AU
D. 80 AU
E. 60 AU
164. At a patient the dense darkly-grey covers on tonsils are considerably megascopic and
spreads over their scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably
swollen. Immediate medical measures:
A. * Antidiphtherial serum
B. Punction of peritonsillar space
C. Section of peritonsillar space
D. Microscopic research of swab
E. Bacteriologic examination of swab from palate
165. At operative epid surveillance does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * estimation of general epid situation on the basis of study the structure of morbidity
166. At rabies the source of causative agent can be:
A. Wild animal
B. Domestic animal
C. Bats
D. Rodents
E. * All enumerated
167. At retrospective epid analysis is analysed:
A. level of infectious morbidity
B. structure of infectious morbidity
C. the dynamics of infectious morbidity
D. * all listed above
E. epidemic situation for acceptance an operative decisions in relation to epidemic process
control
168. At sick L, 35 years old, a diagnosis is set diphtheria of pharynx, non form. What first dose
of antidiphtheria serum is it necessary to appoint?
A. 120 thousand of AU
B. 80 thousand of AU
C. * 30 thousand of AU
D. 50 thousand of AU
E. 150 thousand of AU
169. Basic criteria of estimation of quality of separate disease measures:
A. immunocorrection and urgent prophylaxis
B. isolation and hospitalization
C. observation and quarantine
D. * all of listed above
E. amount of the registered vaccines in a country and observance of calendar of inoculations
170. Basic criteria of estimation of quality of separate disease measures:
A. sanitary-hygenic measures of disease orientation and vaccination
B. isolation and hospitalization
C. observation and quarantine
D. * all of listed above
E. amount of the registered vaccines in a country and observance of calendar of inoculations
171. Basic criteria of estimation of quality of separate disease measures:
A. disinfection and fumigation
B. isolation and hospitalization
C. observation and quarantine
D. * all of listed above
E. amount of the registered vaccines in a country and observance of calendar of inoculations
172. Basic criteria of estimation of quality of separate disease measures:
A. deratization and veterinary-sanitary measures
B. isolation and hospitalization
C. observation and quarantine
D. * all above enumerated
E. amount of the registered vaccines in a country and observance of calendar of inoculations
173. Basic criteria of estimation of quality of separate disease measures:
A. clinical diagnostics and treatment
B. isolation and hospitalization
C. observation and quarantine
D. * all above enumerated
E. amount of the registered vaccines in a country and observance of calendar of inoculations
174. Basic principles of antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis.
A. Individual selection of dose and time of application of drugs
B. Duration of introduction of preparations
C. Control of amount of erytrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes, in blood
D. Control of iron level in blood
E. * All enumerated
175. Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:
A. * To check an immune titer
B. To use antibiotics
C. To use antihistamines
D. 5 years after last revaccination
E. 10 years after last revaccination
176. Contact persons in the focus of paratyphoid are observed during:
A. 6 days.
B. * 14 days.
C. 21 day.
D. 25 days.
E. 35 days.
177. Contact persons in the focus of typhoid fever are observed during:
A. 6 days.
B. 12 days.
C. * 21 day.
D. 25 day.
E. 35днів.
178. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A. Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Psychic disorders
D. Leucocytopenia
E. * All enumerated
179. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A. Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B. Autoimmune disease
C. Alcoholism and other drug addictions
D. Leucocytopenia
E. * All enumerated
180. Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Contain only endotoxin
B. * Exotoxin products
C. Exotoxin does not product
D. An enterotoxin products
E. Myelotoxin products
181. Diagnosed a patient: chronic hepatitis in the stage of integration. What markers will be in
patient in this stage of the disease?
A. HBeAg
B. Antibodies to HBeAg
C. DNA of HBV
D. Viral DNA
E. * HBsAg, anti-НBе
182. Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
A. In first days after birth of child
B. * In 3 month age
C. In 6-month age
D. In 1 year
E. In 6 years
183. District pediatrician at call on a house put to the sick child, 5 years old, diagnosis “Acute
lacunar tonsillitis”. Specify, who must carry out the laboratory inspection of patient and in what
terms.
A. Worker of SES by receipt report
B. A district medical nurse once after determination of diagnosis
C. Doctor pediatrician in 5 hours
D. * Doctor pediatrician once after determination of diagnosis
E. District medical nurse on a next day
184. Duration of latent period at a Tetanus:
A. 1-6 hour
B. 1-4 days
C. * 5-14 days
D. 1-6 weeks
E. 1-6 months
185. During carring out an operative epidanalysis conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * all listed above
186. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * exposure of diseases which have the greatest epidemiologic, social and economic value
187. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, after territory and among the different groups of population
188. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * finding out the features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
189. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * exposure of natural and social pre-conditions and precursors which complicate epidemic
situation on this territory
190. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * estimation of efficiency of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures, carried out for
previous period
191. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * development of the rational approach of planning
192. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * composing of epidemiological prognosis of infectious morbidity on next years
193. During carring out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. account of information of Ministry of Public Health, WHO and other government bodies
about the epidemic state of separate territories or groups of population
B. epid investigation of the source of group diseases
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * composing of epidemiological prognosis of infectious morbidity on next years
194. During carrying out an operative epidanalysis conduct:
A. account of information of Ministry of Public Health, WHO and other government bodies
about the epidemic state of separate territories or groups of population
B. prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * all listed above
195. During carrying out an operative epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. account of information of Ministry of Public Health, WHO and other government bodies
about the epidemic state of separate territories or groups of population
B. prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
C. estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
D. continuous looking after morbidity
E. * composing of epidemiological prognosis of infectious morbidity on next years
196. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. estimation of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures for the previous time
D. determination of conformities of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities, character of
dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
E. * all listed above
197. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis conduct:
A. exposure of natural and social pre-conditions and precursors which complicate epidemic
situation on this territory
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. estimation of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures for the previous time
D. development of the rational approach to planning
E. * all listed above
198. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. composing the epidemiologic prognosis of infectious morbidity on next years
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. estimation of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures for the previous time
D. * prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
E. development of the rational approach to planning
199. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of natural and social pre-conditions and precursors which complicate epidemic
situation on this territory
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. estimation of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures for the previous time
D. * prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
E. development of the rational approach to planning
200. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of natural and social pre-conditions and precursors which complicate epidemic
situation on this territory
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. estimation of prophylactic and antiepidemic measures for the previous time
D. * prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
201. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of natural and social pre-conditions and precursors which complicate epidemic
situation on this territory
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities, character of
dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
202. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * prophylactic-epidemiological reconnaissance
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
203. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * estimation and interpretation the results of laboratory investigations
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
204. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * account of information of Ministry of Public Health, WHO and other government bodies
about the epidemic state of separate territories or groups of population
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
205. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * epid investigation of the source of group diseases
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
206. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * epid investigation of the source of concrete infectious disease
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
207. During carrying out an retrospective epidanalysis does not conduct:
A. exposure of diseases which have the most epidemiologic, social and economic value
B. estimation of general epidsituation on the basis of study of structure of morbidity
C. determination of conformities to the law of dynamics of epidemic process, intensities,
character of dynamics in time, on territory and among the different groups of population
D. * estimation of dynamics of morbidity
E. finding out of features of epidemic process of the most actual diseases, their reasons in
concrete terms
208. During the conducting of epidemiology inspection of focus of infection it is not needed to
decide following:
A. to find out the source of infection.
B. to find out factors and ways of passing the infection.
C. to determine the scopes of focus.
D. to carry out measures on liquidation of focus.
E. * to give an urgent report in SES.
209. During the leadthrough of antiepidemic measures utillize:
A. facilities for etiotropic treatment.
B. facilities for disinfection, deratization.
C. of mean for иммунопрофилактики.
D. facilities for diagnostics of infectious diseases.
E. * all of mentioned above.
210. Entrance on territory of Ukraine of foreigners from countries, where quarantine infections
are registered, regulated thus:
A. forbidden categorically
B. * allowed at presence of the proper documents
C. is allowed only after an isolation (to the quarantine)
D. allowed only to the persons which transit is pass Ukraine
E. allowed without any limitations
211. Epidemiology diagnostics – it:
A. aggregate of the scientifically grounded recommendations
B. system of looking after an epidemic process
C. * recognition of morbidity and epidemic state of population
D. mass surveys of population for the receipt of complete information
E. an analysis of the systems is in the theory of management the disease system
212. Especially high titer of antidiphtherial antitoxic antibodies testifies about:
A. Recovering
B. Acute period of diphtheria
C. * Bacteriocarrying
D. Forming of immunity to diphtheria
E. Testify about nothing
213. Etiologic agent of meningitis is:
A. * Neisseria meningitis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Vibro cholerae
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Campylobacter pylori
214. Extensive indexes are utillized for a study:
A. * specific gravity of separate infectious diseases among all of infectious diseases
B. level of death rate
C. of lethality
D. to general morbidity
E. to primary morbidity
215. For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A. For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B. For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C. * For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D. For 17 days from the beginning
E. For 20 days from the beginning of illness
216. For the annual dynamics of morbidity characteristic:
A. recurrence
B. long-term epidemic tendency
C. * seasonality
D. irregular vibrations
E. morbidity which is offtype for certain locality
217. For the long-term dynamics of morbidity characteristic is:
A. seasonality
B. whole-year morbidity
C. * recurrence
D. epidemic flash
E. single separate morbidity
218. Group of focuses which arose up simultaneously, – it:
A. row of focuses which arose up within the limits of one latent period.
B. row of focuses, incorporated by one source of agent.
C. row of focuses, incorporated by one factor of transmission.
D. row of focuses, incorporated by general territory.
E. * all listed above.
219. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of the
prolonged fever?
A. 2 days
B. * 5 days
C. Week
D. Month
E. A few months
220. In a prophylaxis and fight against intestinal infections the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. * measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
221. In a prophylaxis of salmonellosis the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. * measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
222. In a prophylaxis of typhoid fever the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. * measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
223. In an epidemic focus rationally to organize verification of the state of immunity. The using
of RIHA allows to find out persons nonimmune to diphtheria during a few hours. What
minimum protective titer?
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. * 1:40
D. 1:80
E. 1:160
224. In case of occurring of hepatitis A in preschool:
A. conduct a medical supervision.
B. conduct a laboratory inspection.
C. inject an immunoprotein to the children which were not ill viral hepatitis A.
D. * conduct all of foregoing measures.
E. conduct no measures.
225. In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be
conducted at first?
A. Urgent hospitalization
B. Urgent vaccination
C. * Quarantine measures
D. Urgent chemical prophylactic by antibiotics
E. Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
226. In preschool is the registered case of diphtheria. What from the measures adopted below
does not conduct to the contact children?
A. * Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
B. Swab from a pharynx and nose for the bacteriologic examination
C. Daily is supervision during 7 days
D. Determination of titers of specific antibodies
E. At the repeated cases of disease is urgent diphtheria revaccination
227. In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis
administered.
A. 2 hrs
B. * 4 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
E. 8 hrs
228. Indirect action of interferon therapy are all except.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Depression
D. Intensification of autoimmune diseases
E. * Progress of fibrosis
229. Indirect action of interferon therapy.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Itching
D. Parahypnosis
E. * All the above||
230. Indirect action of interferons.
A. Flatulence
B. Diarrhea
C. Nausea
D. Depression
E. * All the above
231. Intensive epidemiology indexes is not:
A. lethality
B. death rate
C. seasonality
D. morbidity
E. * structure of morbidity on age
232. Mechanism of transmission at Tetanus:
A. Droplet
B. * Contact
C. Transmission
D. Fecal-oral
E. Vertical
233. Methodical basis of epidemic surveillance is:
A. retrospective epidemiologic analysis
B. operative epidemiologic analysis
C. * retrospective and operative epidemiologic analysis
D. prospective epidemiologic analysis
E. retrospective, operative and prospective epidemiologic analysis
234. Morbidity does not show up in a kind:
A. sporadic morbidity
B. epidemic flash
C. epidemic
D. pandemic
E. * exotic things
235. Natural focus of infectious disease is:
A. aggregate of biological objects.
B. epizootic focus.
C. territory which zoonotic infections are constantly registered on.
D. place, where the infection of man took a place.
E. * area of territory of geographical landscape with inherent by it biocenosis, where the
disease agent circulates among a population and animals.
236. Operative epidanalysis:
A. * decides the tactical tasks of the present
B. finds out the consequences of changes in an epidemic process
C. provides liquidation of source of infectious diseases
D. studies an epidemiologic situation for the certain interval of time
E. all listed above
237. Pre-conditions of worsening of epidemic situation are:
A. social factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
B. natural factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
C. activation of mechanism of transmission
D. * all listed above
E. manifestations after increasing of intensity of epidemic process
238. Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
A. Injection of human immunoglobulin
B. * Streptomycin or tetracycline
C. Human immunoglobulin
D. Dry living vaccine.
E. Interferon
239. Retrospective epidanalysis studies:
A. * epidemiologic situation for the certain interval of time with the purpose of reception the
information for planning antiepidemic work in the future
B. epidemic situation for acceptance of operative decisions in relation to epidemic process
control
C. questions, necessary for the epid investigation of the site of concrete infectious disease
D. all listed above
E. receptions of estimation and interpretation of results of laboratory investigations
240. Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
A. * In separate room
B. In the house for respiratory infections
C. In the Meltserovsky‘s box
D. Patients are not hospitalized
E. In the house for intestinal infections
241. Source of meningitis is:
A. Animals
B. Birds
C. Fish
D. Lice
E. * Human
242. Subjects for clinical supervision:
A. Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B. Health persons that were in contact with patient
C. * Convalescents after an infectious disease
D. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
E. All enumerated
243. Terms which do not form infectious morbidity:
A. risk of becoming of epidemic variant of exciter
B. risk of distribution of epidemic variant of exciter
C. risk of infection
D. risk of disease in the case of infection
E. * risk of death rate in the case of infection
244. The aim of antiepidemic work is:
A. warning of infectious diseases.
B. decline of infectious morbidity.
C. liquidation of separate infections.
D. improvement of epidemic supervision.
E. * warning, decline of infectious morbidity and liquidation of separate infections.
245. The basic reservoir of rhabdovirus is:
A. Fishes
B. Reptiles
C. Birds
D. Weed-eaters
E. * Carnivores
246. The control level of ordinary morbidity is determined by a calculation:
A. * high bound of confidence interval of middle number of diseases in the proper week for
previous years with correction coefficients
B. attitude of amount of patients toward the amount of population with correction coefficients
C. relation of amount not diseased to the amount of population with correction coefficients
D. all above enumerated
E. attitude of amount of patients toward an amount new-born for a year with correction
coefficients
247. The diagnosis of malaria can be confirmed:
A. Microscopy of urine
B. Blood culture
C. Bacteriologic investigation of stool
D. Swab from nasopharynx
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* Parazitoscopy of blood
The duration of incubation period of plague is:
3 to 8 days;
2 to 12 days;
2 to 10 days;
1 to 8 days.
* 2 to 6 days;
The epidemiology inspection of focus conducts:
infectious diseases doctor.
doctor which found out an infectious patient.
family doctor.
* doctor-epidemiologist.
doctor-immunologist.
The focus of infectious disease is not:
* settlement.
apartment.
room in a dormitory.
school.
preschool.
The indexes of efficiency of antiepidemic and prophylactic measures is:
diminishing of death rate.
diminishing of disability.
diminishing of temporal disability.
diminishing of morbidity.
* all enumerated above.
The infective agent of Tetanus is:
* C. tetani
E. сoli
Candida
Epstain-Barr virus
Helmints
The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
Administration of human immunoglobulin
Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week
* 6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
Іnterferon
The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
To separate ward
To ward for respiratory infections
* To box ward
Patient’s are not hospitalized
To ward for intestinal infections
The scopes of focus of infectious disease do not depend of:
epidemiology features of certain illness.
from the mechanism of spreading the infection.
* from the survival of agent in an external environment.
from the presence of living carrying agent of infectious diseases.
from the sanitary-technical state of territory.
The source of infection at diphtheria is:
* Sick person and bacteriocarriers
Sick agricultural animals
Rodents
Mosquito
E. Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
257. The spores of Tetanus infective agent are saved:
A. Boiling during 1 hour
B. Under the influence of dry air at a temperature 115°C
C. * In soil during many years
D. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hour
E. All above enumerated
258. Time of actual existence of focus of infectious disease – it:
A. time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient and leadthrough of final
disinfection.
B. * time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient plus a maximal latent
period.
C. time from a moment a disease to beginning of epidemiologic investigation of outbreak
focus.
D. time from a moment the taking of material from a patient for laboratory research to the
discharging from permanent establishment.
E. time from the first case of disease to the moment of the last case.
259. To the antiepidemic measures, directed on a receptive organism, belong:
A. planned immunoprophylaxis.
B. immunoprophylaxis by epid directions.
C. urgent immunoprophylaxis.
D. * planned immunoprophylaxis, urgent and by epid directions.
E. observation and quarantine measures.
260. To the antiepidemic measures, directed on the source of infection, belongs:
A. clinical diagnostic and isolation.
B. regime-restrictive.
C. sanitary veterinary.
D. deratization.
E. * all of listed above.
261. To the basic antiepidemic measures on localization and liquidation of focus of cholera does
not belong:
A. restrictive measures and quarantine.
B. treatment of cholera patients and vibriocarriers.
C. * disinsection.
D. prophylactic treatment of contact persons.
E. current and final disinfection.
262. To the basic antiepidemic measures on localization and liquidation of focus of cholera does
not belong:
A. restrictive measures and quarantine.
B. treatment of cholera patients and vibriocarriers.
C. * deratization.
D. prophylactic treatment of contact persons.
E. current and final disinfection.
263. To the controlled infectious diseases does not belong:
A. measles.
B. * scarlet fever.
C. diphtheria.
D. tetanus.
E. whooping-cough.
264. To the especially dangerous infections does not number:
A. plague
B. cholera
C. yellow fever
D. * measles
E. fever of Lassa
265. To the infections with the global natural habitat of distribution belongs:
A. tick encephalitis
B. * leptospirosis
C. rabbit-fever
D. malaria
E. viral hepatitis B
266. To the pre-conditions of worsening of epidemic situation does not refer:
A. social factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
B. natural factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
C. activation of mechanism of transmission
D. all listed above
E. * manifestations after increasing of intensity of epidemic process
267. To the quantitative signs at epidanalysis belong:
A. index of death rate
B. index of staggered
C. index of lethality
D. * all of listed above
E. character of the territorial distributing
268. To the quantitative signs at epidanalysis belong:
A. index of death rate
B. index of staggered
C. of loud speaker on years and within the limits of year
D. * all of listed above
E. character of the territorial distributing
269. To the quantitative signs at epidanalysis belong:
A. index of morbidity
B. index of staggered
C. index of lethality
D. * all of listed above
E. character of the territorial distributing
270. To the quarantine infections does not number:
A. plague
B. * diphtheria
C. cholera
D. yellow fever
E. fever of Ebola
271. To the uncontrolled infectious diseases does not belong:
A. * hepatitis B.
B. hepatitis G.
C. hepatitis E.
D. salmonellosis.
E. typhoid.
272. Urgent document about the exposure of infectious patient must be directed in the sanitary
epidemiology station:
A. urgently
B. not later than in 2 hours.
C. not later than in 6 hours.
D. * not later than in 12 hours.
E. not later than in 24 hours.
273. Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in a
period:
A. Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B. To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C. In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
D. * Right after the trauma
E. Not needed
274. Weakness appeared in a patient, decrease in an appetite, began pains in the joints of
extremities, felling of weight in right subcostal region, vomiting. Urine became dark in 2 days,
and in a day – sclera and skin turned yellow. At immunoenzyme analyse: IgG -HAV (+),
HBsAg (+), IgМ-НBcorAg (+),IgМ-НCV (–), anti-НDV (–). To the patient 3 months back was
extracted a tooth. Most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute viral hepatitis B
B. Viral hepatitis A
C. Acute viral hepatitis C
D. Viral hepatitis D
E. Chronic viral hepatitis C
275. What are the antiepidemic measures regarding the persons that were in contact with
chicken-pox patient:
A. * Separation and limit of contacts with others
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
276. What are the rules at taking of smear material on the investigation of meningococal
infection?
A. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
B. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue
C. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks
D. * The taken away material at drawing out must not touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
E. The taken away material at drawing out can touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
277. What from the food products can be a nourishing environment for a maintenance and
reproduction of causative agents of intestinal infections?
A. tomatoes.
B. vegetable salads.
C. milk.
D. * pastries with cream.
E. fried meat.
278. ?What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
A. Sapronosis
B. Zoonosis
C. * Anthroponosis
D. Zooanthroponosis
E. A group is not certain
279. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)?
A. 21 days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. Whole period of clinical symptoms
E. * First 9 days of disease.
280. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A. * 7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient’s rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
E. Not conducted
281. What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
A. 45 days
B. * 180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
E. 25 days
282. What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. * Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
283. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
E. * 5 days after appearance the last rash
284. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A. * 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
E. Not contagious
285. What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A. 11 days
B. 21 day
C. 10 days
D. No need for quarantine
E. * 5 days after isolation of the last child
286. What is the source of Tetanus infective agent?
A. Ill person, bacteriocarrier
B. Rodents
C. * Soil
D. Insects
E. Cattle
287. What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal
infection.
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Serum
C. * Vaccine
D. Antitoxin
E. Nothing
288. What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of
viral hepatitis.
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. Ultrasound investigation of abdominal region
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. * Determination of antigen of viruses
E. Duodenal probe
289. What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis?
A. * Lumbar puncture
B. Serologic detection
C. Urine examination
D. Stool test
E. Biopsy of tissues
290. What laboratory work-up is needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.
A. Total analysis of blood
B. Determination of level of bilirubin
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. * Determination of markers of viral hepatitis in IFA
E. All enumerated
291. What measures are conducted in the place of meningococcal infection?
A. Supervision during 2 weeks
B. Phagoprophylaxis
C. Immunization
D. * Bacteriological inspection of contact persons
E. Chemoprophylaxis
292. What measures must be taken in relation to people who had a contact with malaria case:
A. Microscopy of peripheral blood
B. Direction all of pin in an insulator on 5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Household rounds
E. * Does not conduct
293. What measures should be taken in regards to persons, that were in contact with a epidemic
parotitis patient?
A. Observation the contact people during a maximal duration of incubation period
B. Quarantine in child's establishment
C. Isolation of persons that were in contact with ill from 11-th to the 21-t day of illness
D. Isolation of children up to 10 years old, that haven’t been ill with epidemic parotitis, for 21
day from a moment of contact
E. * All enumerated are right
294. What mechanism of transmission at rabies?
A. Transmissive
B. Fecal-oral
C. Droplet
D. * Contact-wound
E. Domestic
295. What persons do belong to the group of patients with the prolonged fever?
A. With the temperature of body over 37°
B. * With the temperature of body over 37,5°
C. With the temperature of body over 38°
D. With the temperature of body over 39°
E. With the temperature of body over 40°
296. What receptivity to rabies?
A. 45 %
B. 25 %
C. 85 %
D. * 100 %
E. 10 %
297. What susceptibility of humans to the Tetanus?
A. Unsusceptible
B. 50 %
C. * Almost 100 %
D. 10 %
E. 70 %
298. What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 39-40 °C
B. 45-50 °C
C. * 35-37 °C
D. 23-27 °C
E. 17-20 °C
299. What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 23-40 °C
B. 35-43 °C
C. * 35-37 °C
D. 23-35 °C
E. 37-39 °C
300. Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A. Chill, high temperature, headache
B. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
D. Headache, dry cough, chill
E. * Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
301. Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic
therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.
A. From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives
B. From macrolides
C. From gentamycin
D. From ciprofloxacin
E. * From chloramphenicol
302. Who would be a subject for inspection on malaria?
A. People who recovered of malaria
B. Persons, returning from endemic regions of malaria
C. Patients with fever more than 5 days
D. Patients with splenomegaly
E. * All enumerated
303. Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A. Immediately after hospitalization
B. * Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C. After putting the final diagnosis
D. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
E. All answers are faithful
304. A concept «disinfection» includes such sections:
A. *actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection
B. actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection, deratization
C. sterilization, disinsection, deratization
D. sterilization, disinsection, defumigation
E. actually disinfection, sterilization, defumigation
305. A deratization is a complex of measures for a fight with:
A. *rodents
B. an arthropods
C. flies and cockroaches
D. ticks and mosquitoes
E. all bloodsucker insects
306. A deratization is directed on:
A. *first link of epidprocess
B. second link of epidprocess
C. third link of epidprocess
D. first and second links of epidprocess
E. all links of epidprocess
307. A patient has herpetic meningitis. What preparation of specific therapy for viral neuro
infection should be given?
A. *Acyclovir
B. Cefataxime
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Gentamycin
E. Furazolidon
308. A source of causative agent is an object which is:
A. the place of natural staying of microorganisms
B. the place of reproduction of microorganisms
C. the place of conglomaration of microorganisms
D. the place from which an agent is discharging in an environment
E. *all that are enumerate
309. Active immunity appears after introduction:
A. immune serum
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. *vaccines
E. bacteriophage
310. Active immunity can be only:
A. artificial
B. natural
C. *artificial and natural
D. innate
E. specific
311. Activities on contact with import cases of malaria:
A. Parasitoscopy of blood
B. The direction of the contact in the detention facility for 5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Vaccination
E. *Do not hold
312. All are the clinical signs of measles EXEPT:
A. Acute beginning of high fever
B. *Icterus
C. Maculo-papular rash
D. Sequential appearance of rash
E. Scaling
313. All the following medicines are hepatoprotective agents except:
A. Carsil
B. Silibor
C. Legalon
D. *Acesol
E. Arginine
314. All the following medicines are interferons except:
A. Intron
B. Roferon
C. Reaferon
D. Leukinferon
E. *Cycloferon
315. All the hepatitis have parenteral way of transmission except:
A. *A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. TTV
316. An infection of Tetanus takes place:
A. *During trauma
B. At the bite of mosquito
C. At using somebody clothes
D. At communication with a person sick on Tetanus
E. At the use of poor quality water
317. Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. In what %
of all cases of acute hepatitis B will develop chronic form.
A. 100 %
B. 50-70 %
C. 25-30 %
D. *5-7 %
E. 1 %
318. Antiepidemic measures at a Tetanus are directed on:
A. Deletion of agent source
B. Treatment of source
C. *Specific prophylaxis
D. Chemoprophylaxis
E. Not conducted
319. Antiepidemic measures conduct:
A. *At presence of case of infectious diseases
B. Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
C. At the outbreak of infectious diseases
D. At noninfectious diseases
E. At unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
320. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. *introduction of immunoprotein
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
321. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. *introduction of immune serum
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
322. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. *introduction of vaccine
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
323. At anthroponosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. *man
B. animal
C. environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
324. At junior nurse, who works in child’s infectious department, herpes simplex was found.
What should manager of department must do?
A. *Create a quarantine in the department
B. To appoint an immunoprotein to the children
C. Discharge all children from the department
D. To appoint immunomodulators with a prophylactic purpose
E. To inspect a junior nurse on a staphylococcus
325. At rabies the source of causative agent can be:
A. Wild animal
B. Domestic animal
C. Bats
D. Rodents
E. *All enumerated
326. At sapronosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. man
B. animal
C. *environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
327. At zoonosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. man
B. *animal
C. environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
328. Basic principles of antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis.
A. Individual selection of dose and time of application of drugs
B. Duration of introduction of preparations
C. Control of amount of erytrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes, in blood
D. Control of iron level in blood
E. *All enumerated
329. Chronic course is common for viral hepatitis except:
A. *A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. B+C
330. Citizen B. travelling in the summer as a tourist to resort, disadvantaged on malaria. How to
prevent malaria infection?
A. Follow the rules of personal hygiene
B. Do not drink raw water
C. Make vaccine
D. *Hold chemoprophylaxis
E. Conduct heat cooking of food
331. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A. Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B. Thrombocytopenia<50000 in 1 мм3
C. Psychic disorders
D. Leucocytopenia<1500 in 1 мм3
E. *All enumerated
332. Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
A. Decompensate cirrhosis of liver
B. Autoimmune disease
C. Alcoholism and other drug addictions
D. Leucocytopenia<1500 in 1 мм3
E. *All enumerated
333.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
334.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
335.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
336.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
337.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
338.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
339.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
340.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
341.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Corynebacterium diphtheria:
Contain only endotoxin
*Exotoxin products
Exotoxin does not product
An enterotoxin products
Myelotoxin products
Current disinfection is conduct
*after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
in all enumerate cases
Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
In first days after birth of child
*In 3 month age
In 6-month age
In 1 year
In 6 years
Disinsection is a complex of measures for a fight with:
rodents
*arthropods
flies and cockroaches
ticks and mosquitoes
all bloodsucker insects
Disinsection is divided on:
current and final
current, final and prophylactic
current and prophylactic
final and prophylactic
*prophylactic and destructive
Distinguish a deratization:
continuous and planned
prophylactic and destructive
focal and prophylactic
*focal, moment, continuous
all are enumerated
Duration of latent period at a Tetanus:
1-6 hour
1-4 days
*5-14 days
1-6 weeks
1-6 months
Etiologic agent of meningitis is:
*Neisseria meningitis
Entamoeba histolytica
Vibro cholerae
Clostridium botulinum
Campylobacter pylori
Final disinfection is conduct
*after the removal of causative agent source from a focus
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
342. First link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. *source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
343. Focal disinfection is conduct
A. after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B. *in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found out
E. in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
344. Focal disinfection is:
A. *current and final
B. current, final and prophylactic
C. current and prophylactic
D. final and prophylactic
E. prophylactic and medical
345. For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A. For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B. For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C. *For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D. For 17 days from the beginning
E. For 20 days from the beginning of illness
346. For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A. For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B. For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C. *For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D. For 17 days from the beginning
E. For 20 days from the beginning of illness
347. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of the
prolonged fever?
A. 2 days
B. *5 days
C. Week
D. Month
E. A few months
348. In epidemiology determining is:
A. mechanism of transmission of causative agent
B. biological properties of causative agent
C. making of collective immunity to the causative agent
D. *contagiousness of the infected person
E. source of causative agent
349. In forming and functioning of the parasitogenic systems determining is:
A. only biological factors
B. only social factors
C. only natural factors
D. social and natural factors
E. *all factors
350. In what dose should benzylpenicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
A. From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
B. *From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
C. From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
D. From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
E. Regardless of mass of body
351. Indirect action of interferon therapy are all except.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Depression
D. Intensification of autoimmune diseases
E. *Progress of fibrosis
352. Indirect action of interferon therapy.
A. Influenza-like syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Itching
D. Parahypnosis
E. *All the above||
353. Indirect action of interferons.
A. Flatulence
B. Diarrhea
C. Nausea
D. Depression
E. *All the above
354. Infections, guided mainly by immunoprofylaxis:
A. *anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. anthroponosis with the contact mechanism of transmission
355. Infections, guided mainly by sanitary-hygienic measures:
A. anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. *anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. anthroponosis with the contact mechanism of transmission
356. Innate immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. *individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
357. Measures in relation to contact persons at a Tetanus:
A. Vaccination
B. Direction of all persons in an insulator
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Laboratory inspection
E. *Does not conduct
358. Measures of malaria prevention for those, who have returned from disadvantaged areas:
A. Introduction of human immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. 6-day-prevention streptomycin or tetracycline
D. *Primaquine to 0027 g 14 days
E. All listed
359. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with
measles in case of contact with a measles patient
A. Separation from the source
B. *Vaccination in first 72 hours after contact
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
360. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with
measles in case of exposure to an ill with measles
A. Separation from the source
B. *Vaccination
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
361. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for contacts which have never been ill, but were
vaccinated against measles
A. Separation from the source
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Use of immunoglobulin
E. *No need to conduct
362. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for contacts which have never been ill, but were
vaccinated against measles
A. Separation from the source
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Use of immunoglobulin
E. *No need to conduct
363. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but
never have been vaccinated
A. *Observations
B. Vaccination
C. Use of immunoglobulin
D. Use of antibiotics
E. No need to conduct
364. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but
never have been vaccinated
A. Separation from the ill
B. Vaccination
C. Use of immunoglobulin
D. Use of antibiotics
E. No need to conduct
365. Mechanism of transmission at Tetanus:
A. Droplet
B. *Contact
C. Transmission
D. Fecal-oral
E. Vertical
366. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the bloody infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. *transmissive
E. alimentary
367. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the respiratory infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. *droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
368. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the intestinal infections
A. contact
B. *fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. water
E. alimentary
369. Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:
A. Isolation of ill
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. *Does not exist
370. Methods used for identification of sources of malaria:
A. Stool culture test
B. Blood culture
C. *Microscopy of blood
D. Burne’s test
E. All enumerated
371. Multicomponent parasitogenic system is:
A. a parasite – host
B. *parasite – intermediate host – terminal host
C. an intermediate host - terminal host
D. a parasite - an intermediate host
E. parasite – intermediate host – terminal host – parasite
372. Passive immunity can be only:
A. artificial
B. natural
C. *artificial and natural
D. innate
E. specific
373. Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A. *immune serum
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
374. Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A. antibiotic
B. *immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
375. Patient C., 60 years old during one year has 4th relapse of Herpes zoster. Recommended
treatment and relapses prophylaxis?
A. *Valcyclovir
B. Acyclovir
C. Herpevir
D. Proteflazid
E. Cycloferon
376. Patient T., drives in a country unhappy on a plague. Conduct measures on a specific
prophylaxis.
A. Human immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. Bacteriophage
D. *Dry living vaccine
E. Antitoxin
377. Patients with the prolonged fever it is necessary to inspect on the presence of such diseases,
except:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
D. *GRVI
E. AIDS
378. Patients with the prolonged fever it is necessary to inspect on the presence of such diseases,
except:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis
E. *Tuberculosis
379. Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
A. Injection of human immunoglobulin
B. *Streptomycin or tetracycline
C. Human immunoglobulin
D. Dry living vaccine.
E. Interferon
380. Primary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. acute recovering and chronic
E. *transient and inapparent
381. Properly disinfection is divided on:
A. current and final
B. current, final and prophylactic
C. current and prophylactic
D. final and prophylactic
E. *prophylactic and medical
382. Prophylactic disinfection conduct:
A. In a focus, where there is an infectious patient
B. At the home of chronic carrier
C. In an infectious hospital
D. *In the places of great accumulation of people
E. After death patient
383. Prophylactic disinfection is conduct
A. after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B. in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C. when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D. *for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
out
E. in the residence of patient or bacteriocarrier
384. Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted in:
A. medical-prophylactic establishments
B. child's preschool establishments and schools
C. places of the general use and accumulation of people
D. enterprises of food industry and public food consumption
E. *apartments
385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
386.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
387.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
388.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
389.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted:
on enterprises of animal raw material processing
in child's preschool establishments and schools
in the places of the general use and accumulation of people
on the enterprises of food industry and public food consumption
*in private houses
Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted:
on enterprises of animal raw material processing
in child's preschool establishments and schools
on the water passage stations
on the enterprises of food industry and public food consumption
*on the streets of cities and villages
Prophylactic disinfection is not conducted:
on enterprises of animal raw material processing
in child's preschool establishments and schools
on the water passage stations
in purification buildings
*in the places of cattle keeping
Prophylactic measures conduct:
After single case of infectious diseases
*Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
At the outbreak of infectious diseases
At noninfectious diseases
At delivery of especially dangerous infections
Prophylactic measures conduct:
After single case of infectious diseases
*After unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
At the outbreak of infectious diseases
At noninfectious diseases
At delivery of especially dangerous infections
Quality of disinfectant is determined
by the term of their fitness
by the concentration of remaining chlorine
*multiplicity of quantity diminishing of viable microorganisms and speed of their death
by packing integrity, transparency, absence of colour and sediment|
by the presence of label on packing
Quantity of motive forces of epidemic process:
2
*3
4
5
6
Reconvalences after malaria prescribed from clinic no earlier than:
After 2 weeks to complete clinical recovery
After 2 weeks of the conclusion of a radical course of therapy
*At the conclusion of a radical course of therapy with a negative result of parazitoscopy
After 3 weeks with a negative blood culture results
After 3 weeks, if the negative results of planting feces
Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
*In separate room
In the house for respiratory infections
In the Meltserovsky‘s box
Patients are not hospitalized
In the house for intestinal infections
394. Second link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. *mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
395. Secondary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. *acute recovering and chronic
E. transient and inapparent
396. Secondary forces of epidprocess are:
A. *natural and social phenomena
B. natural phenomena
C. social phenomena
D. governmental politics
E. climatic conditions
397. Source of meningitis is:
A. Animals
B. Birds
C. Fish
D. Lice
E. *Human
398. Specific localization of causative agent at blood infection:
A. blood plasma
B. leucocytes
C. *circulatory system
D. blood
E. red cells
399. Specific localization of causative agent at external covers infection:
A. skin
B. mucous of external part of gynaecologic organs
C. *external coverings
D. conjunctiva
E. epidermis
400. Specific localization of causative agent at intestinal infection:
A. oropharynx
B. esophagus and stomach
C. colon
D. intestine
E. *digestive channel
401. Specific localization of causative agent at respiratory infection:
A. oropharynx and nasopharynx
B. *respiratory tract
C. trachea and bronchial tubes
D. lungs
E. alveolus pulmonis
402. Specify the correct method of introduction of serum by the Bezredko’s method:
A. 1,0 ml of diluted 1:100 hypodermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – in 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
B. 0,1 ml of diluted 1:1 000 intradermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of diluted 1:10 hypodermic – in 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
C. 0,1 ml of undiluted intradermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml hypodermic – through 30 min. All
dose - intramuscular
D. *0,1 ml of diluted 1:100 intradermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – through
30 min. All dose - intramuscular
E. 1,0 ml of diluted 1:10 hypodermic – in 30 min. 0,1 ml of undiluted hypodermic – through 30
min. All dose - intramuscular
403. Sterilization consists of such stages:
A. disinsection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
B. aseptics and antiseptics
C. pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
D. disinfection, disinsection and deratization
E. *disinfection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
404. Sterilization means:
A. a partial release of matters or object from all microorganisms
B. *a complete release of matters or object from all microorganisms
C. complete release of matters or object from pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms
D. a complete release of matters or object from pathogenic microorganisms
E. partial release of matters or object from pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms
405. Subjects for clinical supervision:
A. Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B. Health persons that were in contact with patient
C. *Convalescents after an infectious disease
D. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
E. All enumerated
406. Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
A. Until clinical recovery
B. After rash starts disappearing
C. Before appearance of rash
D. *4 days from the beginning of rash
E. 10 days from the beginning of illness
407. The acquired immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. *individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
408. The basic reservoir of rhabdovirus is:
A. Fishes
B. Reptiles
C. Birds
D. Weed-eaters
E. *Carnivores
409. The diagnosis of malaria can be confirmed:
A. Microscopy of urine
B. Blood culture
C. Bacteriologic investigation of stool
D. Swab from nasopharynx
E. *Parazitoscopy of blood
410. The duration of incubation period of plague is:
A. 3 to 8 days;
B. 2 to 12 days;
C. 2 to 10 days;
D. 1 to 8 days.
E. *2 to 6 days;
411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
413.
A.
E.
B.
C.
D.
414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
419.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The following methods of disinfection are distinguished:
physical, biological
biological, chemical, mechanical
physical, chemical
biological, chemical
*physical, biological, chemical
The half-life of the most firm Ig in averages is:
*25 days
50 days
100 days
200 days
1 year
The infective agent of Tetanus is:
*C. tetani
сoli
Candida
Epstain-Barr virus
Helmints
The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
Administration of human immunoglobulin
Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week
*6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
Іnterferon
The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
To separate ward
To ward for respiratory infections
*To box ward
Patient’s are not hospitalized
To ward for intestinal infections
The source of causative agent in an epidemic focus is:
animal
people
people and animal
environment
*pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
The source of causative agent in an epizootic focus is:
*animal
people
people and animal
environment
pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
The source of infection at diphtheria is:
*Sick person and bacteriocarriers
Sick agricultural animals
Rodents
Mosquito
Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
The spores of Tetanus infective agent are saved:
Boiling during 1 hour
Under the influence of dry air at a temperature 115°C
*In soil during many years
In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hour
All above enumerated
420. The type of co-operation of causative agent with macroorganisms is not:
A. saprophytism
B. parasitism
C. neutralism
D. symbiosis
E. *anteclisa
421. The type of co-operation of causative agent with macroorganisms is not:
A. saprophytism
B. mutualism
C. neutralism
D. symbiosis
E. *mutism
422. The type of co-operation of causative agent with macroorganisms is not:
A. commensalism
B. mutualism
C. neutralism
D. symbiosis
E. *artism
423. There are such methods of sterilization:
A. physical and chemical
B. chemical and gas
C. physical and gas
D. *physical, chemical and gas
E. physical, chemical, gas and electric
424. Third link of epidprocess:
A. *susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
425. To the pre-sterilization cleaning is needed:
A. delete of fatty and mechanical contaminations
B. delete of remaining amounts of medical preparations
C. lowering of initial level of contamination of products by microorganisms
D. delete the proteins contaminations
E. *all are enumerated
426. To the prophylactic measures belong, except:
A. Prevention of microbal contamination of environment
B. A disinfection of water in accordance with the requirements of standard for a drinking-water
C. Prevention of bringing of infection on epidemiology meaningful objects
D. Sanitary protection| of territory from delivery and distribution of infectious diseases
E. *Liquidations of epidemic focuses
427. Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in a
period:
A. Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B. To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C. In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
D. *Right after the trauma
E. Not needed
428. What are the anti epidemic measures in regards to people who were in contact with chickenpox patient:
A. *Separation and limit of contacts with others
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
429. What are the antiepidemic measures regarding the persons that were in contact with
chicken-pox patient:
A. *Separation and limit of contacts with others
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
430. What does not duration of postinfective immunity depend on?
A. properties of causative agent
B. infective dose
C. condition of the immune system
D. human genotype
E. *source of causative agent
431. What factors do not influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. features of the processed objects
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. methods of disinfection
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *sun radiation
432. What factors don’t influence on forming of immunity?
A. individual features of organism
B. age
C. features of nourishment of man
D. climate
E. *education of man
433. What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
A. Sapronosis
B. Zoonosis
C. *Anthroponosis
D. Zooanthroponosis
E. A group is not certain
434. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)?
A. 21 days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. Whole period of clinical symptoms
E. *First 9 days of disease.
435. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis?
A. 21 days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. Whole period of clinical symptoms
E. *First 9 days of disease.
436. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A. *7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient’s rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
E. Not conducted
437. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A. *7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient’s rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
E. Not conducted
438. What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
A. 45 days
B. *180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
E. 25 days
439. What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. *Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
440. What is the duration of contagious period for a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. *Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
E. Not contagious
441. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A. *10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
E. Not contagious
442. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
E. *5 days after appearance the last rash
443. What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A. 11 days
B. 21 day
C. 10 days
D. No need for quarantine
E. *5 days after isolation of the last child
444. What is the most common etiologic agent of acute tonsillitis?
A. α hemolytic staphylococcus of group B
B. γ hemolytic streptococcus
C. α hemolytic streptococcus of group B
D. β hemolytic staphylococcus of group A
E. *β hemolytic streptococcus of group A
445. What is the source of Tetanus infective agent?
A. Ill person, bacteriocarrier
B. Rodents
C. *Soil
D. Insects
E. Cattle
446. What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of
viral hepatitis.
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. Ultrasound investigation of abdominal region
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. *Determination of antigen of viruses
E. Duodenal probe
447. What laboratory examination is compulsory to do for the patient with diagnosis of tonsillits?
A. Isolation of hemolytic streptococcus from the throat mucosa
B. Biochemical blood analysis
C. *Smear (for microscopic examination) from nose and pharynx for Corynebacterium
diphtheriae detection
D. Hemoculture
E. Immune-enzyme analysis
448. What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis?
A. *Lumbar puncture
B. Serologic detection
C. Urine examination
D. Stool test
E. Biopsy of tissues
449. What laboratory work-up is needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.
A. Total analysis of blood
B. Determination of level of bilirubin
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. *Determination of markers of viral hepatitis in IFA
E. All enumerated
450. What measures must be taken in relation to people who had a contact with malaria case:
A. Microscopy of peripheral blood
B. Direction all of pin in an insulator on 5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Household rounds
E. *Does not conduct
451. What mechanism of Corynebacterium diphtheria transmission?
A. Vertical
B. Transmissive
C. *Air-drop
D. Contact
E. Parenteral
452. What mechanism of transmission at rabies?
A. Transmissive
B. Fecal-oral
C. Droplet
D. *Contact-wound
E. Domestic
453. What persons do belong to the group of patients with the prolonged fever?
A. With the temperature of body over 37°
B. *With the temperature of body over 37,5°
C. With the temperature of body over 38°
D. With the temperature of body over 39°
E. With the temperature of body over 40°
454. What is letality at rabies?
A. 45 %
B. 25 %
C. 85 %
D. *100 %
E. 10 %
455. What susceptibility of humans to the Tetanus?
A. Unsusceptible
B. 50 %
C. *Almost 100 %
D. 1 %
E. 0.7 %
456. Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A. Chill, high temperature, headache
B. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
D. Headache, dry cough, chill
E. *Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
457. Who does belong to the decree group of population?
A. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
B. Workers of child's preschool establishments
C. Medical personal of hospitals
D. Workers of water supply conduit
E. *All over enumerated
458. Who would be a subject for inspection on malaria?
A. People who recovered of malaria
B. Persons, returning from endemic regions of malaria
C. Patients with fever more than 5 days
D. Patients with splenomegaly
E. *All enumerated
459. Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:
A. *Flea
B. Water
C. Air
D. Food storage
E. Tick
460. Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A. Immediately after hospitalization
B. *Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C. After putting the final diagnosis
D. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
E. All answers are faithful
Situational tasks
1.
A boy, 6 years old was in the close contact with a patient with diphtheria. What treatmentprophylactic measures need to be conducted, if vaccine anamnesis is unknown?
A. Introduction of APDT vaccine
B. Antibacterial therapy
C. Introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
D. *Antibacterial therapy and double introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
E. Antibacterial therapy and introduction of immunoprotein
2.
A diagnosis is “diphtheria of oropharynx” put to the child, 3-years-old (not vaccinated in
connection with the refusal of parents). Family lives in a 3-room apartment, a mother does not
work, a father is the director of factory. Specify the method of isolation of child.
A. *Obligatory hospitalization
B. Hospitalization after clinical examination
C. Hospitalization after epidemiology examination
D. Isolation at home conditions
E. Does not need isolation
3.
At a child, 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphtherial
serum includes:
A. *40 AU
B. 15 AU
C. 20 AU
D. 80 AU
E. 60 AU
4.
At a patient the dense darkly-grey covers on tonsils are considerably megascopic and
spreads over their scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably swollen.
Immediate medical measures:
A. *Antidiphtherial serum
B. Punction of peritonsillar space
C. Section of peritonsillar space
D. Microscopic research of swab
E. Bacteriologic examination of swab from palate
5.
At sick L, 35 years old, a diagnosis is set diphtheria of pharynx, non form. What first dose
of antidiphtheria serum is it necessary to appoint?
A. 120 thousand of AU
B. 80 thousand of AU
C. *30 thousand of AU
D. 50 thousand of AU
E. 150 thousand of AU
6.
Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:
A. *To check an immune titer
B. To use antibiotics
C. To use antihistamines
D. 5 years after last revaccination
E. 10 years after last revaccination
7.
By quantitative indexes distinguish such types of intensity of epidemic process:
A. *sporadic and epidemic morbidity
B. ordinary and epidemic morbidity
C. sporadic and hyperendemic morbidity
D. ordinary and endemic morbidity
E. endemic and exotic morbidity
8.
Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
9.
Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of complications
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
10.
Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of serious concomitant disease
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
11.
Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. *All are enumerated
12.
Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Especially dangerous infections
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
13.
Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
14.
Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Severity of the patient’s state
E. All are enumerated
15.
Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Living in hostel
B. Severity of the patient’s state
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Presence of complications
E. Age of patient - children, senior people
16.
Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Especially dangerous infections
B. Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in hostel
E. *All are enumerated
17.
Control of quality of disinfection can be carried out by such method:
A. visual and chemical
B. chemical and physical
C. *visual, chemical and bacteriological
D. chemical and bacteriological
E. chemical, bacteriological and physical|
18.
District pediatrician at call on a house put to the sick child, 5 years old, diagnosis “Acute
lacunar tonsillitis”. Specify, who must carry out the laboratory inspection of patient and in what
terms.
A. Worker of SES by receipt report
B. A district medical nurse once after determination of diagnosis
C. Doctor pediatrician in 5 hours
D. *Doctor pediatrician once after determination of diagnosis
E. District medical nurse on a next day
19.
Especially high titer of antidiphtherial antitoxic antibodies testifies about:
A. Recovering
B. Acute period of diphtheria
C. *Bacteriocarrying
D. Forming of immunity to diphtheria
E. Testify about nothing
20.
In an epidemic focus rationally to organize verification of the state of immunity. The using
of RIHA allows to find out persons nonimmune to diphtheria during a few hours. What minimum
protective titer?
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. *1:40
D. 1:80
E. 1:160
21.
In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be
conducted at first?
A. Urgent hospitalization
B. Urgent vaccination
C. *Quarantine measures
D. Urgent chemical prophylactic by antibiotics
E. Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
22.
In preschool is the registered case of diphtheria. What from the measures adopted below
does not conduct to the contact children?
A. *Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
B. Swab from a pharynx and nose for the bacteriologic examination
C. Daily is supervision during 7 days
D. Determination of titers of specific antibodies
E. At the repeated cases of disease is urgent diphtheria revaccination
23.
In the kindergarten a child had a meningococcal infection. She was immediately
hospitalized. After clinical convalescence in child find meningococcus. To which category can the
carrier (child) of pathogen belongs?
A. Convalescent, chronic
B. *Convalescent, acute
C. Healthy
D. Immune in vaccinated
E. Immune in those, that had infection
24.
In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis
administered.
A. 2 hrs
B. *4 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
E. 8 hrs
25.
In what dose should benzylpenicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
*From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
Regardless of mass of body
26.
Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Isolation of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
27.
Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Treatment of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
28.
Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. *A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
29.
Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. Exposure and registration of diseased
B. Isolation of patients
C. Treatment of patients
D. A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
E. *All are enumerated
30.
Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. halogen- containing
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *heavy metals
31.
Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. aldehyde-containing
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *inert gas
32.
Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. alcohols
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *phosphor-containing
33.
Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
alcohols
phenols
PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
guanidines
*oxides
34.
Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. bases
B. phenols
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *nitrates
35.
Patient Н., was hospitalized with a diagnosis diphtheria of pharynx, widespread form. At the
examining of oropharynx the coverings of gum-blush accented mother-of-pearl on tonsils follicles,
which are heavily taken off, a surface bleeds under them. What medical measures are primary?
A. Introduction of non steroid and antinflammatory drugs
B. Introduction of antibiotics
C. *Introduction of antidiphtheria serum
D. Introduction of glucocorticoids
E. Desintoxication therapy
36.
Principle of chemical method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzero temperatures
D. natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. *using of different chemical matters
37.
Quality of the pre-sterilization cleaning of medical tool is controlled by making:
A. phenolphtalein tests
B. delatest
C. tests with sudan III
D. phenolphtalein tests and delatest
E. *all are enumerated
38.
The main principle of biological method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzer temperatures
D. *natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. all enumerated influences
39.
What are the rules at taking of smear material on the investigation of meningococal
infection?
A. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
B. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue
C. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks
D. *The taken away material at drawing out must not touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
E. The taken away material at drawing out can touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
40.
What does predetermine specific nonsusceptibility of organism to the infectious diseases?
A. Genetic factors
B. Condition of organism
C. Gender, age
D. Heterospecific factors of resistance
E. *Immunity
41.
What factors do influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
physical and chemical properties of disinfectants
biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
display
massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
*all are enumerate
42.
What factors do not influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. features of the processed objects
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. display
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *weather conditions
43.
What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. *Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
44.
What is the main mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the infections of general
coverings
A. *contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
45.
: What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal
infection.
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Serum
C. *Vaccine
D. Antitoxin
E. Nothing
46.
What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 23-40 °C
B. 35-43 °C
C. *35-37 °C
D. 23-35 °C
E. 37-39 °C
47.
What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 39-40 °C
B. 45-50 °C
C. *35-37 °C
D. 23-27 °C
E. 17-20 °C
48.
What way of transmission of causative agent is character for the group of nosocomial
infections?
A. *artificial
B. alimentary
C. dusty
D. water
E. all are enumerated
49.
What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with fecal-oral
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. *water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
50.
What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with droplet
mechanism:
A. *droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
51.
What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with transmissive
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. *obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
52.
What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with contact
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. *contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
53.
Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic
therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.
A. From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives
B. From macrolides
C. From gentamycin
D. From ciprofloxacin
E. *From chloramphenicol
54.
A 22 years, teacher of children in kinder garden, lives in an own apartments, is sick with
mild form of dysentery, to decide a question about isolation.
A. * Obligatory hospitalisation in infectious department
B. To isolate at home
C. It is possible to treat ambulatory
D. To isolate in a separate room at home
E. Isolation is not needed
55.
A 32 years builder lives in the 3-rooms apartments with all comforts, is became sick with
mild form of dysentery. Members of family: wife in maternity, and a child of 2 years. Stationary
treatment of the patient renounces, to decide the question of isolation.
A. Obligatory hospitalization in infectious department
B. To isolate at home
C. It is possible to treat ambulatory
D. * To isolate in a separate room at home
E. Isolation is not needed
56.
A student of 22 years, lives in a dormitory, became ill with the mild form of dysentery, to
decide question about isolation.
A. * Obligatory hospitalization in infectious department
B. It is possible to treat ambulatory
C. To place in the isolator
D. To isolate at home
E. Send to treat oneself at home
57.
All patients with the “long term fever” have to be assessed for such diseases, except for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
58.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
59.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
60.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
61.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
66.
Typhoid
Spotted fever
Malaria
Leptospirosis
* Tuberculosis
All patients with the “long term fever” have to be assessed for such diseases, except for:
Typhoid
Spotted fever
Malaria
URTI
* HIV/AIDS
All the actins can be considered as prophylactic exept:
Prevention of microbial contamination of environment
Disinfection of water according to the requirements of standard on a drinking-water
Prevention of spread of infection on epidemiology meaningful objects
Sanitary guard of territory of country from delivery and distribution of infectious diseases
* Liquidations of epidemics
Anti epidemic measures must be conducted:
* At presence of cases of infectious diseases
Regardless of presence of cases of infectious diseases
At zone of not infectious diseases
At departure into endemic zone
At unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
Anti epidemic measures must be conducted:
* At delivery of especially dangerous infections
Regardless of presence of cases of infectious diseases
At zone of not infectious diseases
At departure into endemic zone
At unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
Choose clinical criteria which would be used to hospitalize an infectious patient
Degree of heaviness of patient’s status
Presence of complications
Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
Age of patient - little children, elderly people
* All above enumerated
Choose clinical criteria which would be used to hospitalize an infectious patient
* Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
Belonging of sick to the decreed group population
Unfavorable sanitary-hygenic terms
The patient is a resident of a dormatory
All above enumerated
Choose clinical criteria which would be used to hospitalize an infectious patient
* Degree of heaviness of patient’s status
Belonging of sick to the decreed group population
Unfavorable sanitary-hygenic conditions
The patient is a resident of a dormatory
All above enumerated
Choose clinical criteria which would be used to hospitalize an infectious patient
* Presence of complications
Belonging of sick to the decreed group population
Unfavorable sanitary-hygenic terms
The patient is a resident of a dormatory
All above enumerated
Choose clinical prepositions for hospitalization of infectious patients.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
70.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
71.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
72.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
73.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
74.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Presence of severe concomitant pathology
Belonging of patient to the risk group of population
Unfavourable sanitary and hygienic conditions
Living in hostel
All the above
Choose clinical prepositions for hospitalization of infectious patients.
* Presence of complications
Belonging of patient to risk group of population
Unfavourable sanitary and hygienic conditions
Living in a hostel
All the above
Choose clinical prepositions for hospitalization of infectious patients.
* Severity of disease
Belonging of patient to risk group of population
Unfavourable sanitary and hygienic conditions
Living in a hostel
All the above
Choose the clinical criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patients.
Severity of the patient’s disease
Presence of complications
Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
Age of patient
* All the above
Choose the epidemiological criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patient.
* Living in a hostel
Severity of the patient’s disease
Presence of severe concomitant pathology
Presence of complications
Age of patient
Choose the epidemiological criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patient.
* Unfavourable sanitary and hygienic conditions
Presence of complications
Presence of severe concomitant pathology
Severity of the patient’s disease
All the above
Choose the epidemiological criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patients.
* Especially dangerous infections
Presence of complications
Presence of severe concomitant pathology
Age of patient
All the above
Choose the epidemiological criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patient.
* Belonging of patient to the high risk group of population
Presence of complications
Presence of severe concomitant pathology
Age of patient
All the above
Choose the epidemiology criteria for the hospitalization of infectious patient.
Especially dangerous infections
Belonging of patient to the high risk group of population
Unfavourable sanitary and hygienic conditions
Living in a hostel
* All the above
75.
Disease measures, which conduct in relation to persons from the decreed groups, pin on
шигеллезу
A. Only supervision
B. Supervision in the conditions of insulator
C. Removal from work on the period of laboratory inspection
D. * Laboratory inspection
E. Does not conduct
76.
Disease measures, which is needed to be applied in relation to patients that are in contact
with other people.
A. Supervision during latent period
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Applying the measures for specific prophylaxis
D. Sanitary and hygienic measures
E. * All the above
77.
Disease measures, which is needed to be applied in relation to patients with dangerous
infections.
A. Only supervision
B. * Supervision on the conditions of insulator
C. Removal from the work on the period of laboratory inspection
D. Laboratory inspection
E. Does not conduct
78.
Disease measures, which is needed to be applied in relation to patients from the decreed
groups, in shigellosis.
A. Only supervision
B. supervision on the conditions in a insulator
C. A removal from the work on the period of laboratory inspection
D. * Laboratory inspection
E. Does not conduct
79.
Disease measures, which is needed to be applied in relation to patients from the non-decreed
group, in for shigellosis.
A. * Only supervision
B. Supervision on the conditions in a insulator
C. Removal the from work on the period of laboratoryinspection
D. Laboratory inspection
E. Does not conduct
80.
For how long the fever should be present that the patient could be accounted to the group of
“long term fever”.
A. 2 days
B. * 5 days
C. One week
D. A month
E. A few months
81.
Measures which must be conducted towards the source of infection in order to prevent
infection spread:
A. * Clinical supervision and laboratory control of recovering patients
B. Laboratory inspection of circumferential
C. Disinfection measures
D. Looking after pin
E. All above enumerated
82.
Measures which must be conducted towards the source of infection in order to prevent
infection spread:
A. Identification and registration of diseased
B. Isolation of patients
C. Treatment of patients
D. Clinical supervision and laboratory control of recovering patients
E. * All the above enumerated
83.
Measures which must be conducted towards the source of infection in order to prevent
infection spread:
A. * Isolation of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfection measures
D. Looking after pin
E. All above enumerated
84.
Measures which must be conducted towards the source of infection in order to prevent
infection spread:
A. * Treatment of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfection measures
D. Looking after pin
E. All above enumerated
85.
Measures, directed on the mechanism of transmission of antroponous infections
A. Identification and isolation of patient
B. Treatment of patient
C. * Disinfection of apartment and personal things of patient
D. Urgent prophylaxis of diseases at contact persons
E. Clinical supervision after recovered patients
86.
Methods taken for identification of a source of infection are all EXEPT:
A. Inspection of «workers» in the food industry in the planned order and in case of epidemy
B. Physical examination and inspection of medical personnel before being employed
C. Identification of carriers or antigen carriers before the planned hospitalization
D. Inspection of children before admission to preschool establishment
E. * Visiting of ill at home
87.
Preparations in an immunno therapy belongs to.
A. Vaccines, toxoids
B. Immunnoglobulin
C. Imunostimulators
D. Immunno depressants
E. * All the above
88.
Prophylactic measures must be conducted:
A. At the solitary instances of infectious diseases
B. * In the endemic zone for certain illness.
C. At the flashes of infectious diseases
D. At zone of not infectious diseases
E. At import of especially dangerous infections
89.
Prophylactic measures must be conducted:
A. At the solitary instances of infectious diseases
B. * At unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
C. At the spikes of infectious diseases
D. At zone of not infectious diseases
E. At delivery of especially dangerous infections
90.
Prophylactic measures must be conducted:
A. At the solitary instances of infectious diseases
B. * Regardless of presence of cases of infectious diseases
C. At the spikes of infectious diseases
D. In areas of not infectious diseases
E. In case of import of especially dangerous infections
91.
Prophylaxis in relation with prevention of bringing infection.
A. Timely sorting of patients
B.
C.
D.
E.
A separate reception of patients is with different nosologies
Individual transportation of infectious patients
Careful collection of epidemiological anamnesis during the reception of patients
* All the above
92.
Prophylaxis in-hospital infections
A. Careful collection of epidemiological anamnesis during the reception of patients
B. An observance of principle pathology during all stages of disease in the hospital
C. Usage of non-permanent tool
D. Current and final disinfection
E. * All the above
93.
Prophylaxis in-hospital infections.
A. Careful collection of epidemiological anamnesis during the reception of patients
B. A complex of sanitary and protective measures on personnel
C. Usage of non-permanent tool
D. Current disinfection
E. * All the above
94.
Prophylaxis in-hospital infections.
A. Timely sorting of patients
B. Sanitisation of patient
C. Prohibing of the visit of patients in chambers
D. An observance of disease regime in separations
E. * All the above enumerate
95.
Prophylaxis in-hospital infections.
A. Timely sorting of patients
B. Prohibing the usage of patient own clothes during treatment| in the permanent establishment
C. Hospitalization of patients with the unstated diagnosis
D. Current and final disinfection
E. * All the above
96.
To decide a question about isolation for a patient 18 years old with chicken pox.
A. Obligatory hospitalization in infectious department
B. To isolate at home
C. It is possible to treat ambulatory
D. * Possible isolation at home
E. Isolation is not needed
97.
What are the anti epidemic measures, which should be conducted in relation to persons from
the undecreed groups, of shigelosis
A. * Only supervision
B. Supervision in the conditions of insulation
C. Removal from work on the period of laboratory inspection
D. Laboratory inspection
E. No measures needed
98.
What are the anti epidemic measures, which should be conducted in relation to contact
persons at especially dangerous infections?
A. Only supervision
B. * Supervision in the conditions of insulation
C. Removal from work on the period of laboratory inspection
D. Laboratory inspection
E. No measures needed
99.
What are the anti epidemic measures, which should be conducted in relation to contact
persons
A. Supervision during a latent period
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Use of methods of specific prophylaxis
D. Sanitary-hygenic measures
E. * All above enumerated
100. What is an epidemiological criteria for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Especially dangerous infections
B. Belonging of sick to the decreed group population
C. Unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. The patient is a resident of a dormatory
E. * All above enumerated
101. What is an epidemiological criteria for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. * The patient is a resident of a dormatory
B. Degree of heaviness of patient’s status
C. Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
D. Presence of complications
E. Age of patient - little children, elderly people
102. What is an epidemiological criteria for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. * Unfavorable sanitary-hygienic conditions
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
D. Degree of heaviness of patient’s status
E. All above enumerated
103. What is an epidemiological criteria for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. * Belonging of sick to the decreed group population
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
D. Age of patient is little children, elderly people
E. All above enumerated
104. What is an epidemiological criteria for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. * Especially dangerous infections
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of heavy concomitant pathology
D. Age of patient is little children, elderly people
E. All above enumerated
105. What kind of medical supervision should be conducted in the area of antroponous infections
A. Only after patients’ direct caregivers
B. * After all persons, who were in contact with a patient
C. Only after family members of patient in an apartment (dormitory)
D. Only after little children, resident together with diseased
E. Only after persons professional activity of which is related to the high risk of distribution of
infectious diseases
106. What persons do belong to the group of patients with “long term fever”?
A. With the temperature of body more than 37 °C
B. * With the temperature of body more than 37,5 °C
C. With the temperature of body more than 38 °C
D. With the temperature of body more than 39 °C
E. With the temperature of body more than 40 °C
107. Which infections are mainly prevented by sanitary-hygienic measures:
A. Infections with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. * Infections with the fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. Infections with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. Infections with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. Infections with the contact mechanism of transmission
108. Which infections, mainly prevented by imunoprophylactilactics:
A. * Infections with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B. Infections with the fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C. Infections with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D. Infections y with the vertical mechanism of transmission
E. Infections with the contact mechanism of transmission
109. Who does belong to the decreed groups of population?
A. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
B. Workers of child's preschool establishments
C. Medical personal of hospitals and polyclinics establishments
D. Workers of water treating facilities
E. * All above enumerated
110. Who would be a subject for outpatient (dispanceric) supervision?
A. Infectious patients during developing symptoms of the disease
B. Healthy persons, who were in contact with an infectious patient
C. * Recovered patients after infectious diseases
D. Workers of public food consumption
E. All above enumerated
111. After contact persons in the focus of hepatitis A conduct a medical supervision during:
A. 3 days
B. *35 days.
C. 6 months
D. 3 months
E. not conducted.
112. After contact persons in the focus of salmonellosis conduct a medical supervision during:
A. 5 days.
B. 6 days.
C. *7 days.
D. 14 days.
E. not conducted.
113. Antiepidemic measures in the focus of hepatitis A (thermometry, questioning, examination)
conduct:
A. daily.
B. 2 times per a week.
C. *1 time per a week.
D. only one time at the exposure of focus.
E. not conducted.
114. By quantitative indexes distinguish such types of intensity of epidemic process:
A. *sporadic and epidemic morbidity
B. ordinary and epidemic morbidity
C. sporadic and hyperendemic morbidity
D. ordinary and endemic morbidity
E. endemic and exotic morbidity
115. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
116. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of complications
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
117. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of serious concomitant disease
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
118. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. *All are enumerated
119. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Especially dangerous infections
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
120. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
121. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Severity of the patient’s state
E. All are enumerated
122. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Living in hostel
B. Severity of the patient’s state
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Presence of complications
E. Age of patient - children, senior people
123. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Especially dangerous infections
B. Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in hostel
E. *All are enumerated
124. Control of quality of disinfection can be carried out by such method:
A. visual and chemical
B. chemical and physical
C. *visual, chemical and bacteriological
D. chemical and bacteriological
E. chemical, bacteriological and physical|
125. During the conducting of epidemiology inspection of focus of infection it is not needed to
decide following:
A. to find out the source of infection.
B. to find out factors and ways of passing the infection.
C. to determine the scopes of focus.
D. to carry out measures on liquidation of focus.
E. *to give an urgent report in SES.
126. During transportation the patient with especially dangerous infection utilize:
A. *transport of disinfective station
B. transport of first-aid
C. the specially equipped sanitary transport
D. transport of medical establishment
E. transport of relatives
127. Entrance on territory of Ukraine of foreigners from countries, where quarantine infections
are registered, regulated thus:
A. forbidden categorically
B. *allowed at presence of the proper documents
C. is allowed only after an isolation (to the quarantine)
D. allowed only to the persons which transit is pass Ukraine
E. allowed without any limitations
128. How we can name the time of actual existence of focus of infectious disease?
129. time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient and leadthrough of final
disinfection.
A. *time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient plus a maximal latent
period.
B. time from a moment a disease to beginning of epidemiologic investigation of outbreak
focus.
C. time from a moment the taking of material from a patient for laboratory research to the
discharging from permanent establishment.
D. time from the first case of disease to the moment of the last case.
130. In a prophylaxis and fight against intestinal infections the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. *measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
131. In the focus of sausage-poisoning that, who used a suspicious product together with a
patient, it is necessary:
A. to wash a stomach only.
B. to wash a stomach and inject the antibotulinum serum of type A, B & E.
C. *only to inject the antibotulinum serum of type A, B & E.
D. to conduct the chemoprophylaxis by chloramphenicol.
E. to conduct no measures.
132. In the focus of sausage-poisoning the persons, who ate together have be observed during:
A. 6 days.
B. *12 days.
C. 18 days.
D. 21 day.
E. not conducted.
133. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Isolation of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
134. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Treatment of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
135. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. *A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
136. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. Exposure and registration of diseased
B. Isolation of patients
C. Treatment of patients
D. A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
E. *All are enumerated
137. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. alcohols
B. phenols
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *oxides
138. Organization of antiepidemic measures in the focus of cholera carry out directly by:
A. *extraordinary disease commissions.
B. organs of executive power.
C. organs of local self-government.
D. sanitary epidemiology service.
E. Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine.
139. Organization of disease measures in the focus of any quarantine and other especially
dangerous infectious disease carries out directly:
A. *extraordinary disease commissions
B. organs of executive power
C. organs of local self-government
D. sanitary-epidemiologic station
E. Ministry of health of Ukraine
140. Persons after typhoid fever, which work on food enterprises and equated with them, inspect:
A. 1 time per month during 3 months and quarterly during 2 years.
B. quarterly during 2 years.
C. *5 times during the first month, further 1 time per month during 3 months and quarterly
during 2 years.
D. 1 time per month for a year.
E. inspect only 1 time after discharging from permanent establishment.
141. Persons which communicate with typhoid fever patient have to perform such laboratory
investigations:
A. the non-permanent bacteriologic examination of blood, excrement and urine.
B. the non-permanent bacteriologic examination of blood and excrement.
C. the non-permanent bacteriologic examination of blood and urine.
D. *the non-permanent bacteriologic examination of excrement and urine.
E. the non-permanent bacteriologic examination of blood.
142. Persons which contacted with the shigellosis patient, keep under medical observation
during:
A. 5 days.
B. 6 days.
C. *7 days.
D. 14 days.
E. 21 day.
143. Persons with alarm symptoms (vomiting, diarrhea) in the focus of cholera it is necessary to
hospitalize:
A. in infectious permanent establishment.
B. *in a provisory hospital.
C. in an insulator.
D. in an observation separation.
E. it is possible to inspect ambulatory.
144. Principle of chemical method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzero temperatures
D. natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. *using of different chemical matters
145. Quality of the pre-sterilization cleaning of medical tool is controlled by making:
A. phenolphtalein tests
B. delatest
C. tests with sudan III
D. phenolphtalein tests and delatest
E. *all are enumerated
146. The epidemiological inspection of focuses and outbreaks of infectious diseases – it:
A. disease measures on liquidation of epidemic focuses and outbreaks.
B. estimation of efficiency and quality of disease measures on liquidation of focuses and
outbreaks of infectious diseases.
C. measures, directed on the exposure of source of infection.
D. measures, directed on liquidation of ways of transmission.
E. *all listed above.
147. The main principle of biological method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzer temperatures
D. *natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. all enumerated influences
148. The primary complex of antiepidemic measures, directed on localization and liquidation of
focus, carries out:
A. infectious diseases doctor.
B. doctor-epidemiologist.
C. *doctor which found out a patient.
D. doctor-immunologist.
E. doctor of sanitary-epidemic station.
149. To the antiepidemic measures, directed on the mechanism of transmission, belong:
A. deratization, isolation.
B. sanitary-technical, regime-restrictive.
C. sanitary-hygenic.
D. *sanitary-hygenic, disinfection and sterilization.
E. sterilization and disinfection.
150. To the basic antiepidemic measures on localization and liquidation of focus of cholera does
not belong:
A. restrictive measures and quarantine.
B. treatment of cholera patients and vibriocarriers.
C. *deratization.
D. prophylactic treatment of contact persons.
E. current and final disinfection.
151. To the basic antiepidemic measures on localization and liquidation of focus of cholera does
not belong:
A. restrictive measures and quarantine.
B. treatment of cholera patients and vibriocarriers.
C. *disinsection.
D. prophylactic treatment of contact persons.
E. current and final disinfection.
152. To the pre-conditions of worsening of epidemic situation does not refer:
A. social factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
B. natural factors which can lead to the increasing of receptivity of population to the infectious
diseases
C. activation of mechanism of transmission
D. all listed above
E. *manifestations after increasing of intensity of epidemic process
153. Urgent document about the exposure of infectious patient must be directed in the sanitary
epidemiology station:
A. urgently
B. not later than in 2 hours.
C. not later than in 6 hours.
D. *not later than in 12 hours.
E. not later than in 24 hours.
154. What does predetermine specific nonsusceptibility of organism to the infectious diseases?
A. Genetic factors
B. Condition of organism
C. Gender, age
D. Heterospecific factors of resistance
E. *Immunity
155. What factors do influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. physical and chemical properties of disinfectants
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. display
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *all are enumerate
156. What factors do not influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. features of the processed objects
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. display
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *weather conditions
157. What from the food products can be a nourishing environment for a maintenance and
reproduction of causative agents of intestinal infections?
A. tomatoes.
B. vegetable salads.
C. milk.
D. *pastries with cream.
E. fried meat.
158. What is the main mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the infections of general
coverings
A. *contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
159. What way of transmission of causative agent is character for the group of nosocomial
infections?
A. *artificial
B. alimentary
C. dusty
D. water
E. all are enumerated
160. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with fecal-oral
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. *water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
161. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with droplet
mechanism:
A. *droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
162. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with transmissive
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. *obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
163. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with contact
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. *contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
164. A boy, 6 years old was in the close contact with a patient with diphtheria. What treatmentprophylactic measures need to be conducted, if vaccine anamnesis is unknown?
A. Introduction of APDT vaccine
B. Antibacterial therapy
C. Introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
D. *Antibacterial therapy and double introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
E. Antibacterial therapy and introduction of immunoprotein
165. A citizen К., goes to country with unfavorable conditions regarding to plague. Provide
necessary measures of specific prophylaxis.
A. Human immunoglobulin
B. Іnterferon
C. *Dry live vaccine
D. Bacteriophags
E. Antitoxin
166. A diagnosis is “diphtheria of oropharynx” put to the child, 3-years-old (not vaccinated in
connection with the refusal of parents). Family lives in a 3-room apartment, a mother does not
work, a father is the director of factory. Specify the method of isolation of child.
A. *Obligatory hospitalization
B. Hospitalization after clinical examination
C. Hospitalization after epidemiology examination
D. Isolation at home conditions
E. Does not need isolation
167. At a child, 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphtherial
serum includes:
A. *40 AU
B. 15 AU
C. 20 AU
D. 80 AU
E. 60 AU
168. At a patient the dense darkly-grey covers on tonsils are considerably megascopic and
spreads over their scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably swollen.
Immediate medical measures:
A. *Antidiphtherial serum
B. Punction of peritonsillar space
C. Section of peritonsillar space
D. Microscopic research of swab
E. Bacteriologic examination of swab from palate
169. At sick L, 35 years old, a diagnosis is set diphtheria of pharynx, non form. What first dose
of antidiphtheria serum is it necessary to appoint?
A. 120 thousand of AU
B. 80 thousand of AU
C. *30 thousand of AU
D. 50 thousand of AU
E. 150 thousand of AU
170. Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:
A. *To check an immune titer
B. To use antibiotics
C. To use antihistamines
D. 5 years after last revaccination
E. 10 years after last revaccination
171. By quantitative indexes distinguish such types of intensity of epidemic process:
A. *sporadic and epidemic morbidity
B. ordinary and epidemic morbidity
C. sporadic and hyperendemic morbidity
D. ordinary and endemic morbidity
E. endemic and exotic morbidity
172. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
173. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of complications
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
174. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Presence of serious concomitant disease
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. All are enumerated
175. Choose the clinical indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Severity of the patient’s state
B. Belonging of the patient to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in the hostel
E. *All are enumerated
176. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Especially dangerous infections
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
177. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Age of patient - children, senior people
E. All are enumerated
178. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
B. Presence of complications
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Severity of the patient’s state
E. All are enumerated
179. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. *Living in hostel
B. Severity of the patient’s state
C. Presence of serious concomitant disease
D. Presence of complications
E. Age of patient - children, senior people
180. Choose the epidemiologic indications for hospitalization of infectious patient
A. Especially dangerous infections
B. Belonging of patient is to the decree group of population
C. Unfavourable sanitary-hygienic conditions
D. Living in hostel
E. *All are enumerated
181. Control of quality of disinfection can be carried out by such method:
A. visual and chemical
B. chemical and physical
C. *visual, chemical and bacteriological
D. chemical and bacteriological
E. chemical, bacteriological and physical|
182. Diagnosed a patient: chronic hepatitis in the stage of integration. What markers will be in
patient in this stage of the disease?
A. HBeAg
B. Antibodies to HBeAg
C. DNA of HBV
D. Viral DNA
E. *HBsAg, anti-НBе
183. District pediatrician at call on a house put to the sick child, 5 years old, diagnosis “Acute
lacunar tonsillitis”. Specify, who must carry out the laboratory inspection of patient and in what
terms.
A. Worker of SES by receipt report
B. A district medical nurse once after determination of diagnosis
C. Doctor pediatrician in 5 hours
D. *Doctor pediatrician once after determination of diagnosis
E. District medical nurse on a next day
184. Especially high titer of antidiphtherial antitoxic antibodies testifies about:
A. Recovering
B. Acute period of diphtheria
C. *Bacteriocarrying
D. Forming of immunity to diphtheria
E. Testify about nothing
185. Give recommendation for a patient in recoverring period of viral hepatitis during a clinical
supervision after isolation.
A. A medical supervision during 6 month
B. Biochemical examination
C. Abstain from hard physical work
D. Temporal contra-indications for prophylactic inoculations
E. *All enumerated
186. Give the recommendation for a patient in convalensence period of viral hepatitis during a
clinical supervision after isolation.
A. *Medical supervision during 6 months, periodic biochemical inspections.
B. Control bacteriological examinations
C. Full laboratory investigation
D. Continue prophylactic inoculations
E. Supervision is not needed
187. In an epidemic focus rationally to organize verification of the state of immunity. The using
of RIHA allows to find out persons nonimmune to diphtheria during a few hours. What minimum
protective titer?
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. *1:40
D. 1:80
E. 1:160
188. In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be
conducted at first?
A. Urgent hospitalization
B. Urgent vaccination
C. *Quarantine measures
D. Urgent chemical prophylactic by antibiotics
E. Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
189. In preschool is the registered case of diphtheria. What from the measures adopted below
does not conduct to the contact children?
A. *Introduction of antidiphtherial serum
B. Swab from a pharynx and nose for the bacteriologic examination
C. Daily is supervision during 7 days
D. Determination of titers of specific antibodies
E. At the repeated cases of disease is urgent diphtheria revaccination
190. In the kindergarten a child had a meningococcal infection. She was immediately
hospitalized. After clinical convalescence in child find meningococcus. To which category can the
carrier (child) of pathogen belongs?
A. Convalescent, chronic
B. *Convalescent, acute
C. Healthy
D. Immune in vaccinated
E. Immune in those, that had infection
191. In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis
administered.
A. 2 hrs
B. *4 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
E. 8 hrs
192. In what dose should benzylpenicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
A. From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
B. *From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
C. From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
D. From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
E. Regardless of mass of body
193. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Isolation of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
194. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of the source of causative agent at
anthroponosis:
A. *Treatment of patients
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
195. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. *A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
B. Laboratory inspection
C. Disinfective measures
D. Looking after the contact persons
E. All are enumerated
196. Measures, that are directed on the disinfection of source of causative agent at anthroponosis:
A. Exposure and registration of diseased
B. Isolation of patients
C. Treatment of patients
D. A clinical supervision and laboratory control of recoverings
E. *All are enumerated
197. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. halogen- containing
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *heavy metals
198. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. aldehyde-containing
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *inert gas
199. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. alcohols
B. oxygen-containing
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *phosphor-containing
200. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. alcohols
B. phenols
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *oxides
201. Modern classification of disinfective facilities by the chemical origin does not include such
groups of facilities:
A. bases
B. phenols
C. PAS and quaternary-ammonium connections
D. guanidines
E. *nitrates
202. Patient G., 28 years old, sailor, on the 18-day of illness, complains of high fever, headache,
weakness. Disease began from a chills during an hour, then the temperature had risen to 39,8 lC. In
next 5-6 days, chills repeated every day in the middle of the day, after which the temperature rose
to 40-41 °C, such attacks of fever occur every other day. Face is hyperemic, herpes, vascular
injection of sclera. Tons of the heart are muted, rhythmic, pulse is 140 for 1 min, BP 140 and 60
mm. Liver is normal, spleen +2 sm. Which method of diagnosing is the most valuable in this
situation?
A. *Smear and thick drop of blood for malaria
B. General blood analysis
C. Level of bilirubin, ALaT
D. Blood culture
E. Immunological investigation
203. Patient L., 38 years old, complains of recurrent attacks of fever with severe chills.
Epidemiologically is found that he had recently returned from India. At parazitoscopy of blood are
found out erythrocytic schizonts. Agent of transmission of the disease is:
A. Fly
B. *Mosquitoes
C. Flea
D. Bee
E. Ticks
204. Patient L., 38 years old, complains of significant pain in right inguinal area, takes extorsion
position of extremity. From epidemiologic anamnesis is known, that he works as a loader in port.
During punctuate microscopy from bubon revealed bipolar stained gram-negative small sticks.
What is the transmitting agent of this disease?
A. Flies
B. Mosquito
C. *Flea
D. Lice
E. Ticks
205. Patient Н., was hospitalized with a diagnosis diphtheria of pharynx, widespread form. At the
examining of oropharynx the coverings of gum-blush accented mother-of-pearl on tonsils follicles,
which are heavily taken off, a surface bleeds under them. What medical measures are primary?
A. Introduction of non steroid and antinflammatory drugs
B. Introduction of antibiotics
C. *Introduction of antidiphtheria serum
D. Introduction of glucocorticoids
E. Desintoxication therapy
206. Principle of chemical method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzero temperatures
D. natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. *using of different chemical matters
207. Quality of the pre-sterilization cleaning of medical tool is controlled by making:
A. phenolphtalein tests
B. delatest
C. tests with sudan III
D. phenolphtalein tests and delatest
E. *all are enumerated
208. Sick person, 38 years old, complains on whole-body cramps, impossibility to open a mouth,
fever, general sweating. What information of anamnesis will help to specify a diagnosis?
A. *Trauma 2 weeks ago
B. Cold a week ago
C. Use of poor quality food
D. Presence of lice
E. Bite of tick
209. The main principle of biological method of disinfection is based on:
A. mechanical influence, high or subzero temperatures, ionizing irradiation
B. ionizing irradiation in combination with different chemical matters
C. mechanical influence, subzer temperatures
D. *natural fermentation of impurities by certain types of bacteria
E. all enumerated influences
210. Weakness appeared in a patient, decrease in an appetite, began pains in the joints of
extremities, felling of weight in right subcostal region, vomiting. Urine became dark in 2 days, and
in a day – sclera and skin turned yellow. At immunoenzyme analyse: IgG -HAV (+), HBsAg (+),
IgМ-НBcorAg (+),IgМ-НCV (–), anti-НDV (–). To the patient 3 months back was extracted a
tooth. Most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute viral hepatitis B
B. Viral hepatitis A
C. Acute viral hepatitis C
D. Viral hepatitis D
E. Chronic viral hepatitis C
211. What are the rules at taking of smear material on the investigation of meningococal
infection?
A. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
B. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue
C. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks
D. *The taken away material at drawing out must not touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
E. The taken away material at drawing out can touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
212. What does predetermine specific nonsusceptibility of organism to the infectious diseases?
A. Genetic factors
B. Condition of organism
C. Gender, age
D. Heterospecific factors of resistance
E. *Immunity
213. What factors do influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. physical and chemical properties of disinfectants
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. display
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *all are enumerate
214. What factors do not influence on efficiency of disinfection?
A. features of the processed objects
B. biological resistibility of microorganisms to different disinfective facilities
C. display
D. massiveness of microbial contamination of objects which are subject of disinfection
E. *weather conditions
215. What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. *Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
216. What is the main mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the infections of general
coverings
A. *contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
217. What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal
infection.
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Serum
C. *Vaccine
D. Antitoxin
E. Nothing
218. What measures should be taken in regards to persons, that were in contact with a epidemic
parotitis patient?
A. Observation the contact people during a maximal duration of incubation period
B. Quarantine in child's establishment
C. Isolation of persons that were in contact with ill from 11-th to the 21-t day of illness
D. Isolation of children up to 10 years old, that haven’t been ill with epidemic parotitis, for 21
day from a moment of contact
E. *All enumerated are right
219. What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 23-40 °C
B. 35-43 °C
C. *35-37 °C
D. 23-35 °C
E. 37-39 °C
220. What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
A. 39-40 °C
B. 45-50 °C
C. *35-37 °C
D. 23-27 °C
E. 17-20 °C
221. What way of transmission of causative agent is character for the group of nosocomial
infections?
A. *artificial
B. alimentary
C. dusty
D. water
E. all are enumerated
222. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with fecal-oral
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. *water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
223. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with droplet
mechanism:
A. *droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
224. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with transmissive
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. *obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
225. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with contact
mechanism:
A. droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C. water, food, contact-domestic
D. *contact-domestic, direct and indirect
E. all enumerated
226. Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic
therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.
A. From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives
B. From macrolides
C. From gentamycin
D. From ciprofloxacin
E. *From chloramphenicol
227. A 23 years old person, became ill sharply: fever 38.2 °C, moderate diffuse pharyngalgia at
swallowing, pain and itching in the right eye. Objectively: tonsillitis, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis.
What is previous diagnosis?
A. *Adenoviral infection
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. Flu
E. Acute respiratory infection
228. A 25 years old patient, fell ill rapidly, with chills and temperature rose to 39,9°C, headache
appeared in frontotemporal regions, pain in eyeballs, dull pain in all trunk, closed nose. Dry cough
after 2 days of illness, there was nose bleeding. Objectively: hyperemia with sputum, isolated
petechial rash and shallow grittiness of soft palate. Difficult breathing in lungs. What is the most
possible diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Typhoid fever
D. *Flu
E. Epidemic typhus
229. A 4 years old child complains about: cough, temperature of body 38.1 °C. Conjunctiva is
hyperemic. On mucous of cheeks there are points of mucous necrosis. Weaken breathing in the
lungs. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. *Measles
D. Herpetic infection
E. Flu
230. A child 10 years old with temperature 38,0°C, conjunctivitis, moist cough, hyperemia of the
mucous membranes of cheeks and lips. Gums are pallor. What is your diagnosis?
A. *Measles
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Acute respiratory viral infection
D. Enteroviral infection
E. Infectious mononucleosis
231. A child 3 years old is found in the grave condition – naughty, forced breathing, dry
«barking» coughing, voice is hoarse, perioral cyanosis. The third day, temperature of body is
subfebrile, mild common cold. In lungs single dry wheezes can be heard. Moderate tachycardia. For
which disease these symptoms are characteristic?
A. Localized diphtheria of oropharynx
B. Whooping-cough
C. *Parainfluenza, false croup
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Adenoviral infection
232. A child of age 2 years has temperature of body 37.3 °C, cold, hoarse voice “barking cough”
appeared suddenly the anxiety, shortness of breath, appeared with participation of auxiliary
muscles. Supposed diagnosis?
A. *Parainfluenza, false croup
B. Diphtheria croup
C. Allergic laryngitis, croup
D. Flu, laryngitis
E. Acute exudative pleuritis
233. A concept «disinfection» includes such sections:
A. *actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection
B. actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection, deratization
C. sterilization, disinsection, deratization
D. sterilization, disinsection, defumigation
E. actually disinfection, sterilization, defumigation
234. A deratization is a complex of measures for a fight with:
A. *rodents
B. an arthropods
C. flies and cockroaches
D. ticks and mosquitoes
E. all bloodsucker insects
235. A deratization is directed on:
A. *first link of epidprocess
B. second link of epidprocess
C. third link of epidprocess
D. first and second links of epidprocess
E. all links of epidprocess
236. A patient 14 years old, hospitalized in the infectious department in severe condition with
considerable headache mainly in frontal and temporal area, pain in eyeballs, in muscles and joints.
Objectively: patient is excited, temperature of the body is 39°C. Bradycardia changed by
tachycardia. Muscles tonic and clonic cramps. Positive meningeal signs. It is found in epidemic
anamnesis, his brother is also sick. What is your diagnosis?
A. *Flu with pneumonia and edema of brain
B. Flu, typical course
C. Parainfluenza, false croup
D. Respiratory-syncytial infection
E. Adenoviral infection, pneumonia
237. A patient 17 years old, became suddenly ill: temperature rose to 40,3 °C. Severe headache,
motive excitation, frequent vomiting, tremor of fingers of extremities. Hemorrhagic spots of round
form and different sizes, more frequently as stars, mainly on buttocks and trunk. Meningeal signs
are positive. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Encephalitis
B. Flu with a hemorrhagic syndrome
C. *Meningococcal infection
D. Measles
E. Leptospirosis
238. A patient 17 years, 11th class student, were a lot of cases of ARI (acute respiratory
infection) have happened, appealed to a doctor in clinic at 3rd day of disease with complaints of
chills, general weakness, a moderate sore throat, running nose, swelling of face, watering from eyes
Objective examination: minor palatal hyperemia brackets and tonsillitis, on a background of
moderate edema of tissues. Conjunctivitis. During palpation not painful enlarged inframaxillary
lymph nodes, and enlarged neck lymph nodes were found. Liver and spleen moderately increased.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diphtheria
B. *Adenoviral infection
C. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
D. Influenza
E. Infectious mononucleosis
239. A patient 18 years old, with complaints about headache, pharyngalgia, weakness, high
temperature. Objectively: all groups of lymph nodes, 1-3 cm in a diameter, dense, elastic, enlarged,
hepatosplenomegaly. Blood analysis: leukocytosis, mononuclear – 15 %. What is possible
diagnosis?
A. *Infectious mononucleosis
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Angina
D. Diphtheria
E. Acute lymphatic leukemia
240. A patient 20 years old fell ill rapidly with increasing of temperature to 39.9 °C. Complains
about headache in frontotemporal region, pain in eyeballs, dull ache in whole trunk, closed nose,
scrapes in the throat, dry cough. There was nose-bleeding. What diagnosis is most possible?
A. *Influenza
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. RS-infection
E. Enteroviral infection
241. A patient 20 years old, complains about increasing of temperature up to 39°C, headache in
frontal area, pain in eyeballs, photophobia, pain in muscles, dry cough. Became ill sharply.
Objectively: severe state. Face is hyperemic, eyes brilliant, injections of sclera. Pulse 96/min,
rhythmic, tones of heart are hyposthenic. Meningeal symptoms are not present. Blood analysis:
leuk. 9x109, е. 1 %, young neutroph. 6 %, seg. 51 %, lymp. 35 %, mon. 7 %. What is the most
possible diagnosis?
A. *Influenza
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Leptospirosis
D. Pneumonia
E. Epidemic typhus
242. A patient 26 years old, became sick rapidly: temperature 39.5°C, severe headache, mainly in
frontal and temporal areas, pain in muscles and joints. Examined on the 2nd day of illness: state of
middle weight, skin is clean. Moderate hyperemia with cyanosis, pulse 120 per min, rhythmic.
Heart activity is rhythmic, tones are muffled, in lungs there is vesicular breathing. What is the
treatment of this patient?
A. Aspirin
B. *Remantadin
C. Ampicillin
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Ribonuclease
243. A patient 27 years old, entered clinic on the 4th day of illness with a diagnosis ARVI,
allergodermia. Fell ill with the rise of temperature to 38,0 °C, headache, hyperemia of the throat,
then barking cough appeared. On the 3rd day rash appeared on the skin and neck. Was treated by
aspirin. Objectively: temperature 38.8 °C. Face is puffy, conjunctivitis. On the skin of neck and
upper part of chest is abundant red-papular rashes as rings which does not itch. Mucosa of epiglottis
is brightly hyperemic. Submandibular and neck lymphadenitis. Liver and spleen were not enlarged.
What is your diagnosis?
A. *Measles
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. German measles
E. Scarlet fever
244. A patient 52 years old, hospitalized with the severe form of viral hepatitis B. The signs of
flu appeared in the department. The indexes of bilirubin rose up and transaminase falls down. What
complication can arise in that patient?
A. *Acute hepatic insufficiency
B. Infectious-toxic shock
C. Gastric bleeding
D. Neurotoxicosis
E. Cerebral comma
245. A patient 56 years old, the day before felt easy indisposition, insignificant headache, and
weakness. Afterwards the increasing of temperature appeared to 38,5°C with chills, headache
increased considerably, mainly in forehead and temples. Skin and conjunctiva is hyperemic, dry,
barking cough. Pharynx is hyperemic. On soft palate present grainy granules, placed point
hemorrhages. Difficult breathing. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Epidemic typhus
D. *Flu
E. Enterovirus infection
246. A patient 56 years old, workwomen of pig farm, on a background chills appeared, the
temperature rose to 39,9 °C, headache, nausea. The next day marked pains in the muscles of lower
extremities appeared, the nose bleeding began. At the receipt, on the 3rd day common state
deteriorated. Hyperemic spots, subicteric color appeared. Liver +3 cm. Daily – diuresis 700 ml.
What is the previous diagnosis?
A. Hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome
B. Hepatitis A
C. Colibacillosis
D. Flu
E. *Leptospirosis
247. A patient A., 30 years old, on the 4th day of illness a district doctor marked such subjective
and objective data: insignificant indisposition, mild headache, hoarseness of voice, itching in throat,
breaking dry cough, temperature of the body 37,4 °C. Pulse 86/min., difficult nasal breathing,
insignificant serous excretions from nose. Which acute respiratory infection does the patient carry?
A. Influenza
B. *РC-viral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. Adenoviral infection
E. Enterovirus infection
248. A patient admitted in the infectious department with diagnosis of acute respiratory viral
infection. Became ill suddenly, the disease is accompanied by the increase of temperature of body
till 39 °C, by severe headache, mainly in area of frontal, temporal, above eyes, dryness in nose,
itching in throat, dry cough, dull pain in all body. He had bleeding from nose twice at home. Which
acute respiratory disease has the patient?
A. Adenoviral infection
B. РC-infection
C. *Flu
D. Parainfluenza
E. Enteroviral infection
249. A patient becomes sick very fast: chills, increasing of temperature to 40,1°C, headache in
frontal and temporal regions, pain in eyeballs, close nose, dry cough and pain in the chest. The nose
bleeding, nausea, double vomits. Objectively: conjunctivitis, hyperemia, edema, hemorrhages in
mucous of oropharynx, tachycardia. Blood pressure is low. Difficult breathing . What is the most
possible diagnosis?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Leptospirosis
D. *Flu
E. Typhoid fever
250. A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly ill. Every morning severe headache, frequent
vomiting, temperature of the body is 39.9 °C. Adopted fatigue, then state got much worse. In the
evening lost of consciousness. Expressed muscles pains of back and head. Positive Кеrning’s
symptom. Leukocytes – 18,0x109. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A. Flu
B. Epidemic typhus, typhus state
C. Viral menigoencephalitis
D. Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
E. *Bacterial menigoencephalitis
251. A patient C., was hospitalized on the 2nd day of illness with complaints about hoarseness of
voice, rough barking cough, labored breathing. Objectively: the state is severe, uneasy, pallor,
temperature 37.1 °C, BR 30/min., breathing is noisy, can hear from the distance, with participation
of auxiliary musculature. Which viruses could cause development of similar state?
A. Rhino virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Adenovirus
D. *Parainfluenza virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
252. A patient caused a doctor home. Age – 75 years. Complaints of a subfebrile temperature,
general weakness, pharyngalgia, conjunctivitis. In family a child is ill the acute adenoviral disease.
A patient considers itself a patient the second day. At a review are found out the signs of acute
blepharoconjunctivitis, pharyngitis. There are megascopic lymphatic nodes: neck front and back,
arm-pits and inguinal, to 1 sm in a diameter, soft, not is soldered between itself and with a
surrounding cellulose. A pharynx is hyperemic, tonsills are hypertrophied and hyperemic. In lights
of wheezes it is not. Breathing clean. Tones of heart are muffled. BP is 140/80 mm Hg. Ps – 80 per
1 minute. Stomach soft. A megascopic liver which comes forward on 3 cm below costal arc and
spleen are palpated – soft, painless. Choose the most credible diagnosis:
A. *Acute adenoviral infection
B. Flu
C. Megacaryoblastoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Hepatitis A
253. A patient fell ill very rapidly: chills, increase of temperature to 40.1 °C, headache in
frontotemporal regions, pain in eyeballs, close nose, dry cough, and chest pain. Nose bleeding,
nausea, vomiting appeared after 4 hours. Objectively: conjunctivitis, hyperemia, edema, point
hemorrhages in mucus of epiglottis, tachycardia. Blood pressure is low. Weaken breathing in the
lungs. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A.
Leptospirosis
B.
Epidemic typhus
C.
*Flu
D.
Meningococcemia
E.
Enteroviral infection
254. A patient H., 22 years old, with flu was hospitalized into infectious department with the
acute worsening of the common state. Consciousness is present. The patient strangles. Pallor of skin
with cyanosis. Respiratory rate 50 per min, AP 80/55 mmHg, pulse 110 per a min, temperature
39.8°C. During percussion of lungs tympanic sound with dullness in lower quadrant was found.
Crackles in the lower-back parts of lungs. What complication of influenza has developed in that
patient?
A.
Pneumonia
B.
*Edema of lungs
C.
Edema of brain
D.
Infectious-toxic shock
E.
Meningoencephalitis
255. A patient K., 23 years old, with 3 days of moderate illness, with high temperature of body to
40.0 °C, headache and petechial rash on skin, is hospitalized. After introduction of penicillin in 2
hours, the BP fell down to 40/10 mm of Hg. Peripheral pulse and meningeal signs does not detect.
What is the diagnosis of the patient?
A.
*Меningococcemia, infectious-toxic shock
B.
ARVI, anaphylactic shock
C.
Measles, severe course
D.
Epidemic typhus, severe course
E.
Scarlet fever, severe course
256. A patient of 5 years old, which treated at home on an occasion of flu by aspirin, calcium
gluconatis, on the second day from the beginning of disease “coffee grounds” vomiting appeared,
melena. What complication arises?
A.
Neurotoxicosis
B.
Pneumonia
C.
*Hemorrhagic syndrome
D.
Infectious-toxic
E.
Bowel obstruction
257. A patient on the background of ARVI the fever developed to 40,1 °C, frequency of
breathing is 40 for a minute. What measures are necessary?
A. *Decreasing of patients temperature
B. Artificial ventilation
C. Oxygen inhalation
D. Infusion therapy
E. Antibiotic therapy
258. A patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious dept. in grave condition.
Complaints on headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions, superciliary arcs, vomiting on
severe pain, pain on movement of eyeballs, in muscles, joints. Objectively – a patient is excited,
temperature of the body 39 °C. BP 100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Tonic
cramps appeared. Doubtful meningeal signs. From anamnesis it is found that at home his brother
has flu. What preparations must be injected?
A.
Veroshpiron, euphyllin, dimedrol
B.
*Mannitol, paracetamol, prednisolone, euphyllin
C.
Analgin, dimedrol, aspirin, ampicillin
D.
Mannitol, aspirin
E.
Lasix, analgin, ampicillin
259. A patient with flu complicated by pneumonia, during some days there are the displays of
infectious-toxic shock of ІІ degree. In biochemical blood analyze the level of urea and creatinine
are increased. What from these preparations is not recommended to enter in such situation?
A.
*Adrenalin
B.
Prednisolone
C.
Polionic solutions
D.
Dofaminum
E.
Heparin
260. A patient with temperature of body 40.0°C, nonproductive cough, photophobia, puffiness of
face, dots on gums, blushes on the mucus of cheeks. Your diagnosis?
A.
Tuberculosis
B.
Меningococcemia
C.
*Measles
D.
Enteroviral infection
E.
Staphylococcal sepsis
261. A patient Т., 45 years old, was hospitalized at the 2nd day of disease. One week ago got
back from India (sailor of the distant swimming). Complains of temperature 41.3 °C, great
headache, shortness of breathing; cough with foamy pink color sputum. Objectively: pale of face,
cyanosis of mucous, breath rate 24/min, tachycardia. Lungs: breathing is hyposthenic, moist
wheezes in both lungs, crepitation. What is possible diagnosis?
A.
Flu
B.
Miliary tuberculosis
C.
*Plaque, pulmonary form
D.
Leptospirosis
E.
Sepsis
262. A patient, 20 years old, during few days complains about pharyngalgia. After supercooling
the state became worse: sudden chills, increase of temperature to 40.6 °C, headache. On the skin of
low extremities, trunk and buttocks there are a lot of different sizes hemorrhagic spots,
acrocyanosis. Consciousness is preserved. Meningeal signs are absent. What is the previous
diagnosis?
A.
*Meningococcal infection
B.
Flu
C.
Epidemic typhus
D.
Hemorrhagic fever
E.
Leptospirosis
263. A patient, 75 years old, called a doctor to home. Rashes and subfebrile temperature, general
weakness, pharyngalgia, conjunctivitis. In family a child is ill with acute adenoviral disease. A
patient considers himself ill on the second day. At a review there are signs of pharyngitis. There are
enlarged lymphatic nodes: of neck, front and back, armpits and inguinal up to 1 cm in diameter,
soft. Pharynx is hyperemic, tonsils are hypertrophy and hyperemic. Both lungs have wheezing
sounds. Not clean breathing. Tones of heart are muffled. AP 140/80 mm Hg. Heart rate 80 for 1
minute. Stomach is soft. Enlarged liver 3 cm below costal arch and spleen is palpable. Palpation is
soft, painless. Choose the most possible diagnosis:
A.
*Acute adenoviral infection
B.
Flu
C.
Hepatitis B
D.
Infectious mononucleosis
E.
Hepatitis A
264. A sick 15 years old, 3rd day of illness. On the background the catarrhal pneumonia,
weakness in hands appeared, double vision, cross-eye. Voice is weak. Palatoplegia and extended
extremities. Pulse 90/min. AP 130/90 mm Hg .What is your previous diagnosis?
A.
Diphtheria
B.
*Poliomyelitis
C.
Botulism
D.
Epidemic encephalitis
E.
Enteroviral infection
265. A sick 19 years old, fell ill rapidly, when a temperature rose to 39,2 °C, coughing appeared,
closed nose. Pains in muscles and joints. On the 3rd day of disease, shallow spots on the trunk
appeared, extremities with hyperemia and edematous feet. Generalized lymphadenopathy,
hyperemia of cheeks, enlargement of the liver were found out. What is previous diagnosis?
A. *Pseudotuberculosis
B. Flu
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Herpetic infection
E. Epidemic typhus
266. A sick 70 years old, became ill sharply, the temperature of body rose to 39.2 °C, excited,
euphoric, hyperemia of face, Rozenberg’s exanthema appears. Ricketsia titer is 1:160, IgG – 87 %.
What is diagnosis?
A.
*Epidemic typhus
B.
Meningococcal infection
C.
Epidemic spotted fever
D.
Flu
E.
Parainfluenza
267. A sick explorer of train, 39 years old is hospitalized on the 4th day of illness with
complaints about headache, weakness, dizziness, chills, insomnia, fever. The person is hyperemic,
conjunctivitis. On the transitional fold of conjunctiva there is a single rash. On the skin of trunk,
thorax, stomach, extremities there are abundant red colored rashes. Tachycardia. AP 100/60 mm of
Hg. Tremor of tongue. Liver and spleen were enlarged. Stool fistula is detained. What is the most
reliable diagnosis?
A.
*Epidemic typhus
B.
Typhoid
C.
Flu
D.
Меnigococcemia
E.
Leptospirosis
268. A sick person, 45 years old, was hospitalized after 2 days of disease. On Sunday he came
back from India (sailor). Complains about increasing of temperature to 41°C, severe headache,
shortness of breath, cough, with sputum. Objectively: pallor, cyanosis of mucous, tachycardia.
Breathing is weaken, crackles in the lower-back parts of the lungs, crepitation. What is the possible
diagnosis?
A.
*Flu complicated by pneumonia
B.
Miliary tuberculosis
C.
Plague, pulmonary form
D.
Leptospirosis
E.
Sepsis
269. A patient, 42 years old, complaints about temperature 39.3 °C, headache in the frontal area,
pain in the eyeballs, photophobia, pain in muscles, dry cough. Became ill suddenly one day before.
Objectively: state is severe. Hyperemia of the face, eyes shinny, injection of sclera. Pulse 96/min.,
rhythmic. Tones of heart are hypotonic. Both lungs are dissipated. Dry wheezes. Mucosa of
epiglottis is hyperemic, grainy, vessels are extended. Meningeal symptoms are not present.
Analysis of blood: leuk. – 3x109/l, еos. – 1 %, young neutr. – 6 %, neutrophils – 51 %, lymph. – 35
%, monocytes – 7 %. What is the most possible diagnosis?
A.
*Flu
B.
Measles
C.
Meningococcal infection
D.
Pneumonia
E.
Epidemic typhus
270. A sick, 54 years old, hospitalized in infectious department in the grave condition.
Complaints about expressed headache, mainly in frontal and temporal areas superciliary arcs, origin
of vomiting on peak of pain. Objectively: patient is excited, temperature of body 39°C, AP 100/60
mm Hg. Bradycardia changed to tachycardia. Tonic cramps, meningeal signs appeared. From
anamnesis it is known that father is also sick. What treatment should be prescribed?
A.
*Mannitol, lasix, prednisolone, еuphyllin, suprastin
B.
Mannitol, acetaminophen
C.
Lasix, analgin, ampicillin
D.
Verospiron, euphyllin, dimedrol
E.
Aspirin, analgin, dimedrol
271. A source of causative agent is an object which is:
A.
the place of natural staying of microorganisms
B.
the place of reproduction of microorganisms
C.
the place of conglomeration of microorganisms
D.
the place from which an agent is discharging in an environment
E.
*all that are enumerate
272. A student, 18 years old, for 7 days complains about weakness, hyperthermia to 37.8 °C,
mucous excretions from a nose, pharyngalgia at swallowing, pain in eyeballs. Objectively:
increased lymph nodes of neck and mandible, lymphadenitis, edema and injection of conjunctiva,
hyperemia of mucous of epiglottis, hypertrophy of tonsils. What is the most reliable diagnosis:
A.
*Adenoviral infection
B.
Influenza
C.
Infectious mononucleosis
D.
Rhinoviral infection
E.
Parainfluenza
273. A woman 27 years old, complaints about the general weakness, absence of appetite,
coughing, fever up to 37.5 °C for three weeks. Ulcerous illness of stomach, myocarditis is in
anamnesis. What inspection is primarily need to do?
A. Electrocardiography
B. Fibrobronchoscopy
C. Fibrogastroscopy
D. *Fluorography
E. Common blood analysis
274. A woman who came back from a tour trip, the next day called emergency help. It is known
from the anamnesis, that within a week the temperature of body was moderately high. Complains of
bad sleep and bad appetite, pain in the stomach. During the assessment of the sick it is found out
roseolas on the pale skin of breasts and abdomen. Pulse is normal, temperature of body 38,2 °C,
hepatospleenomegaly. What is your previous diagnosis?
A. *Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Flu
D. Enteroviral infection
E. Leptospirosis
Test to figures
1 Three obligatory factors are necessary for the onset and continuous course of an epidemic
process (Fig. 1). What is N I?
A. *Source of pathogenic microorganism
B. Source of pathogenic macroorganism
C. Ill person
D. Helsy person
E. Pathogenic microorganism
2 Three obligatory factors are necessary for the onset and continuous course of an epidemic
process (Fig. 1). What is N II?
A. *The mechanism of transmission
B. Source of pathogenic microorganism
C. The faktor of transmission
D. Macroorganisms susceptible to infection
E. Environment
3 Three obligatory factors are necessary for the onset and continuous course of an epidemic
process (Fig. 1). What is N III?
A. *Macroorganisms susceptible to infection
B. Microorganisms susceptible to infection
C. Macroorganisms and microorganisms susceptible to infection
D. Immunity
E. Rekonvalescent
4 When N 1 (Fig. 1) is anthroponoses?
A. *The source of infection is man
B. The source of infection is animal
C. Both man and animal can be the source of infection
D. The source of infection is environment
E. The source of infection is tick
5 When N 1 (Fig. 1) is zoonoses?
A. The source of infection is man
B. *The source of infection is animal
C. Both man and animal can be the source of infection
D. The source of infection is environment
E. The source of infection is tick
6 When N 1 (Fig. 1) is anthropozoonoses?
A. The source of infection is man
B. The source of infection is animal
C. *Both man and animal can be the source of infection
D. The source of infection is environment
E. The source of infection is tick
7 When N 1 (Fig. 1) is sapronoses?
A. The source of infection is man
B. The source of infection is animal
C. Both man and animal can be the source of infection
D. *The source of infection is environment
E. The source of infection is tick
8 For what diseases N 1 (Fig. 1) is anthroponoses?
A. *Cholera
B. Salmonellosis
C. Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. All right
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
For what diseases N 1 (Fig. 1) is zoonoses?
A. Cholera
B. *Salmonellosis
C. Shygelosis
D. Tetanus
E. All right
For what diseases N 1 (Fig. 1) is anthropozoonoses?
A. Cholera
B. Salmonellosis
C. *Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. All right
For what diseases N 1 (Fig. 1) is sapronoses?
A. *Cholera
B. Salmonellosis
C. Anthrax
D. Tetanus
E. All right
What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 2, a)?
A. *Faecal-oral
B. Air-bome
C. Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 2, b)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. *Air-bome
C. Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 2, c)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. Air-bome
C. *Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 2, d)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. Air-bome
C. Transmissive
D. *Contact
E. Transplacental
What mechanisms of transmission is absent on a picture (Fig. 1)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. Air-bome
C. Transmissive
D. Contact
E. *Transplacental
17 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 2)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. Diphtheria, tetanus
E. *Hepatitis В
18 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 1)?
A. *Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. Diphtheria, tetanus
E. Hepatitis В
19 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 3)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. *Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. Diphtheria, tetanus
E. Hepatitis В
20 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 4)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. *Diphtheria, tetanus
E. Hepatitis В
21 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 5)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. *Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. Diphtheria, tetanus
E. Hepatitis В
22 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 6)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, wooping cough, tetanus
D. *Measles, rubeola, parotitis
E. Hepatitis В
23 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 7)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria, tetanus
D. Measles, rubeola, parotitis
E. *Rubeola (girls), parotitis (boys)
24 For against what diseases can be used this scheme of vaccination (Fig. 3, N 4)?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. *Diphtheria, tetanus
D. Measles, rubeola, parotitis
E. Rubeola (girls), parotitis (boys)
25 What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 6)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. *Air-bome
C. Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
26 What group of infections diseases is characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig.
6)?
A. Intestinal
B. Bloody
C. External covers
D. *Respiratory tracts
E. All of
27 What infections diseases are characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 6)?
A. Flu
B. Scarlet fever
C. Meningococcal infection
D. Mumps
E. *All of
28 What infections diseases are characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 6)?
A. Flu
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. German measles
E. *All of
29 What infections diseases are characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 6)?
A. Dysentery
B. *Diphtheria
C. Typhoid fever
D. Spotted fever
E. All of
30 What infections diseases are characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 6)?
A. Malaria
B. *Meningococcal infection
C. Rabies
D. Food poisoning
E. Poliomyelitis
31 What illness is such mechanism and way of transmission characteristicfor (Fig. 5, A 4)?
A. *Malaria
B. Plague
C. Rabbit-fever
D. Spotted fever
E. For all
32 What illness is such mechanism and way of transmission characteristic for (Fig. 5, A 5)?
A. Malaria
B. Plague
C. Rabbit-fever
D. *Spotted fever
E. For all of
33 What illness is such mechanism and way of transmission characteristic for (Fig. 5, A 1)?
A. Malaria
B. *Plague
C. Rabbit-fever
D. Spotted fever
E. For all of
34 What illnesses are passed by this transmiseres (Fig. 5, 2)?
A. Malaria
B. *Lime‘s disease
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Epidemic spotted fever
E. Plague
35 What group of infections diseases is characterized this mechanism of transmission for
(Fig. 5, B 2)?
A. Intestinal
B. *Bloody
C. External covers
D. Respiratory tracts
E. Transplacental
36 What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 5, C 2)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. *Air
C. Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
37 What infections diseases such circulation of exciter is characteristic for (Fig. 5, B-2-А)?
A. *Zoonoses
B. Anthropozoonoses
C. Sapronoses
D. Antroponoses
E. All of
38 What infections diseases such circulation of exciter is characteristic for (Fig. 5, A-4-А)?
A. Zoonoses
B. Anthropozoonoses
C. Sapronoses
D. *Antroponoses
E. All of
39 What group of infections diseases is characterized this mechanism of transmission for (Fig.
7)?
A. Intestinal
B. Bloody
C. *External covers
D. Respiratory tracts
E. Transplacental
40 What mechanism of transmission is represented on a picture (Fig. 7)?
A. Faecal-oral
B. Air
C. *Transmissive
D. Contact
E. Transplacental
41 What diseases is inherent such mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 4, A-B1)?
A. *Typhoid
B. Malaria
C. Hepatitis D
D. Food poisoning
E. Measles
42 What diseases is inherent such mechanism of transmission for (Fig. 4, A-B2)?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Diphtheria
C. *Hepatitis B
D. Scabs
E. German measles
43 What is an effective prophylactic measure at the represented mechanism of transmission
(Fig. 4, A-B2):
A. Pasteurization
B. Disinfection
C. *Sterilization
D. Deratization
E. Fumigation
44 This animal (Fig. 4, C5) is the source of exciter at such illnesses, except:
A. Rabies
B. Echinococcosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Skin leyshmaniosis
E. *Tocsoplazmosis
45 This animal (Fig. 4, C6) is the source of exciter at such illnesses:
A. Plague
B. Echinococcosis
C. Malaria
D. Ascaridosis
E. *Tocsoplazmosis
46 This animal (Fig. 4, C6) is the source of exciter at such illnesses:
A. Typhoid
B. Brill‘s diseases
C. Malaria
D. Enterobiasis
E. *Felinosis
47 This animal (Fig. 4, C7) is the source of exciter at such illnesses:
A. Typhoid
B. Dysentery
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Teniosis
E. *Brucellosis
48 This animal (Fig. 5, B) is the source of exciter at such illnesses:
A. Plague
B. Leptospirosis
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Yersiniosis
E. *All of
49 In distribution of exciters of what infectious diseases is it transmiser, represented on a Fig
8, played a considerable role?
A. *Intestinal
B. Respiratory
C. External covers
D. Bloody
E. A right answer is not present
50 What index is calculated on a formula (Fig. 10), if Х is a number of persons which became
ill first; Y – a middle of peoples?
A. *Morbidity
B. Death rate
C. Lethality
D. Sickliness
E. Q of chronic patients
51 What index is calculated on a formula (Fig. 12), if Х is a number of patients which died for
a year; Y is an of diseased?
A. Morbidity
B. Death rate
C. *Lethality
D. Sickliness
E. Q of chronic patients
52 What indexis calculated on a formula (Fig. 11), if Х is an of diseased with first in living by
the set diagnosis; Y is a quantity of peoples?
A. *Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Middle
D. Absolute
E. Evidentness
53 What index is calculated on a formula (Fig. 12), if Х is an of cases of certain illness; Y is
an of cases of all illnesses?
A. *Extensive
B. Middle
C. Absolute
D. Demographic
E. Intensive
54 At an epidemiology analysis on a formula (Fig. 13), determine:
A. *middle arithmetic
B. standard deviation
C. middle error
D. index of evidentness
E. of vibrations
55 What index is calculated on a formula (Fig. 9), if Х is a number of patients which died for a
year; Y a middle of peoples?
A. Lethality
B. Morbidity
C. *Death rate
D. Sickliness
E. Q of chronic patients
56 What index is calculated on a formula (Fig. 9), if Х is a number of patients which were on
an account; Y a middle of peoples?
A. Lethality
B. Morbidity
C. Death rate
D. *Sickliness
E. Q of chronic patients
57 What indexis calculated on a formula (Fig. 12), if Х is a number of diseases for the month
of getting up; Y is a number of diseased for other months in a year?
A. *Index of seasonality
B. Index of periodicity
C. Index of
D. Sickliness
E. Q of chronic patients
58 The sources of exciter of what infectious disease are represented on a Fig. 20?
A. *Brucellosis
B. Cholera
C. Shigellosis
D. Enteroinvaziv esherychiosis
E. Typhoid
59 The sources of exciter of what infectious disease are represented on a Fig. 20?
A. *Leptospirosis
B. Gisrdiasis
C. Esherychiosis
D. Amebiaz
E. Typhoid
60 Is a source and exciter of what infectious disease represented on a Fig. 14?
A. *Balantidiasis
B. Gisrdiasis
C. Paratyphoid
D. Amebiasis
E. Shigellosis
61 On a Fig. 18 is represented the unfolded hospital base of cholera, where 1 is a hospital of
cholera; 2 is a pharmacist separation; 3 is an insulator; 4 is an observation separation. Who of
hearth of cholera does in a point 3?
A. Vibrio carries
B. Patients by a cholera
C. *Persons which socialized with a patient of cholera
D. Persons with disfunction of bowels
E. Persons which drive out from a hearth of cholera
62 On a Fig. 18 is represented the unfolded hospital base of cholera, where 1 is a hospital of
cholera; 2 is a pharmacist separation; 3 is an insulator; 4 is an observation separation. Who of
hearth of cholera does in a point 2?
A. Vibrio carries
B. Patients by a cholera
C. Persons which socialized with a patient of cholera
D. *Persons with disfunction of bowels
E. Persons which drive out from a hearth of cholera
63 On a Fig. 18 is represented the unfolded hospital base of cholera, where 1 is a hospital of
cholera; 2 is a pharmacist separation; 3 is an insulator; 4 is an observation separation. Who of
hearth of cholera does in a point 4?
A. Vibrio carries
B. Patients by a cholera
C. Persons which socialized with a patient of cholera
D. Persons with disfunction of bowels
E. *Persons which drive out from a hearth of cholera
64 On a Fig. 18 is represented the unfolded hospital base of cholera, where 1 is a hospital of
cholera; 2 is a pharmacist separation; 3 is an insulator; 4 is an observation separation. Who of
hearth of cholera does in a point 1?
A. *Vibrio carries
B. Patients by a cholera
C. Persons which socialized with a patient of cholera
D. Persons with disfunction of bowels
E. Persons which drive out from a hearth of cholera
65 What infectious disease is characteristic such seasonal increase of morbidity for (Fig. 15)?
A. *Shigellosis
B. Flu
C. Diphtheria
D. Hepatitis B
E. Food-poisoning
66 What infectious disease is characteristic such seasonal increase of morbidity for (Fig. 16)?
A. *Hepatitis
B. Hepatitis C
C. Shigellosis
D. Hepatitis B
E. Malaria
67 What infectious disease is characteristic such seasonal increase of morbidity for (Fig. 17)?
A. *Flu
B. Hepatitis c
C. Shigellosis
D. Hepatitis B
E. Food-poisoning
68 What epidemiology feature of infectious diseases is represented on a Fig. 19?
A. *Periodicity
B. Seasonality
C. Specificity
D. Predominance of morbidity is in the certain age-related groups of peoples
E. Chance
69 What infectious disease is characteristic such periodicity for (Fig. 19)?
A. *Measles
B. Hepatitis C
C. Shigellosis
D. Hepatitis B
E. Food-poisoning
70 What infectious disease is characteristic such periodicity for (Fig. 19)?
A. Plague
B. Malaria
C. Kissing disease
D. *Measles
E. Typhoid
71 The sources of exciter of what infectious disease are represented on a Fig. 20?
A. *Psevdotuberkulosis
B. ParatyphoidA
C. Cholera
D. Balantidiasis
E. Plague
72 For what infectious disease characteristic such periodicity (Fig. 19)?
A. Tulyaremiya
B. Spotted fever
C. Shigellosis
D. *German measles
E. Leptospirosis
73 What infectious disease is characteristic such seasonal increase of morbidity for (Fig. 15)?
A. *Food-poisoning
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Rabies
D. Hepatitis C
E. Kissing disease