Download D) none of the above

MCQs in Introduction to Datacom and Networking
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. There are ______________ Internet service providers.




A) regional
B) local
C) national and international
D) all of the above
2. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.




A) Topology
B) Mode of operation
C) Data flow
D) None of the above
3. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole
world.




A) MAN
B) WAN
C) LAN
D) none of the above
4. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.




A) primary
B) multipoint
C) point-to-point
D) secondary
5. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?




A) Bus
B) Star
C) Mesh
D) Ring
6. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.




A) protocol
B) forum
C) standard
D) none of the above
7. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.




A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) (a) and (b)
D) none of the above
8. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______.




A) Medium
B) Protocol
C) Message
D) Transmission
9. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be
taken based on that interpretation.




A) Syntax
B) Semantics
C) Timing
D) None of the above
10. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the
_______of a network.




A) Performance
B) Security
C) Reliability
D) Feasibility
11. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.




A) half-duplex
B) simplex
C) full-duplex
D) automatic
12. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.




A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) all of the above
13. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new
technologies.




A) Standards organizations
B) Regulatory agencies
C) Forums
D) All of the above
14. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic
signaling specifications?




A) ISO
B) ITU-T
C) ANSI
D) EIA
15. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or
between nearby buildings.




A) LAN
B) MAN
C) WAN
D) none of the above
16. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be
sent.




A) Semantics
B) Timing
C) Syntax
D) none of the above
17. This was the first network.




A) CSNET
B) NSFNET
C) ARPANET
D) ANSNET
18. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.




A) mesh
B) ring
C) bus
D) all of the above
19. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.




A) UNIX
B) NCP
C) TCP/IP
D) ACM
20. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.




A) A WAN
B) An internet
C) A LAN
D) None of the above
21. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.




A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
C) (a) and (b)
D) none of the above
22. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?




A) FCC
B) IEEE
C) ITU-T
D) ISOC
23. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.




A) routers
B) host computers
C) networks
D) IMPs
24. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________
transmission.




A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) automatic
25. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?




A) Mesh
B) Bus
C) Star
D) Ring
26. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.




A) Protocol
B) Signal
C) Medium
D) All the above
27. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.




A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) primary
D) secondary
28. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they
are presented.


A) Semantics
B) Syntax


C) Timing
D) All of the above
29. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.




A) Security
B) Reliability
C) Performance
D) All the above
30. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.




A) RCF
B) ID
C) RFC
D) none of the above
31. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating
devices at all times.




A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) half-simplex
All of the above
Topology
WAN
Point-to-point
Bus
Protocol
Point-to-point
Message
Semantics
Reliability
Simplex
All of the above
Forums
EIA
LAN
Timing
ARPANET
All of the above
TCP/IP
An internet
Multipoint
FCC
IMP's
Simplex
Star
Medium
Multipoint
Syntax
Security
RFC
Full-duplex
MCQs in Network Models Set 1
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes
the logical addresses of the sender and receiver.

A) data link



B) network
C) physical
D) none of the above
2. Which of the following is an application layer service?




A)
B)
C)
D)
File transfer and access
Mail service
Remote log-in
All the above
3. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read
by B's _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Transport
Application
Physical
None of the above
4. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
TCP
ARP
none of the above
5. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the
_______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Transport
Application
Physical
Network
6. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
data link
physical
none of the above
7. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next
without errors.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical
data link
transport
network
8. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
user
network
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
9. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
network
user
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
10. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire
message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
physical
network
data link
11. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Data link
Transport
Physical
None of the above
12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.


A) connection-oriented
B) reliable


C) both a and b
D) none of the above
13. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
session
transport
data link
network
14. ICMPv6 includes _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IGMP
ARP
RARP
a and b
15. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IP
port
specific
physical
16. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a
physical medium.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data link
transport
network
physical
17. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across
multiple network links.




A)
B)
C)
D)
network
physical
data link
transport
18. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Transport
Physical
Data link
Application
19. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows
diverse systems to communicate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IEEE
ISO
OSI
none of the above
20. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Physical
Transport
Data link
None of the above
21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
128
32
64
variable
22. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.




A)
B)
C)
D)
specific
port
IP
physical
23. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to
another.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
network
physical
none of the above
24. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
application
physical
data link
transport
1. Network
2. All of the above
3. Transport
4. TCP
5. Transport
6. Data link
7. Data link
8. User
9. Network
10. Transport
11. Transport
12. None of the above
13. Transport
14. IGMP and ARP
15. IP
16. Physical
17. Network
18. Application
19. ISO
20. Physical
21. 128
22. Port
23. Transport
24. Application
MCQs in Network Models Set 2
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and
application layers of the OSI model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data link
network
physical
application
26. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address
does the router look at?




A)
B)
C)
D)
logical
physical
port
none of the above
27. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Rearranged
Removed
Added
Modified
28. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical
medium.




A)
B)
C)
D)
dialogs
protocols
bits
programs
29. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______
address must be consulted.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical
port
IP
none of the above
30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card
(NIC).




A)
B)
C)
D)
32-bit
6-byte
64-bit
none of the above
31. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data link
32. The OSI model consists of _______ layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
eight
seven
five
three
33. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as
defined by its LAN or WAN.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IP
port
specific
physical
34. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Data link
Transport
Network
None of the above
35. Why was the OSI model developed?


A) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
B) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate


C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite.
D) None of the above
36. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers
are _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
removed
added
rearranged
modified
37. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from
A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
session
physical
transport
presentation
38. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally
compatible networking protocols.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ISO
OSI
IEEE
none of the above
39. The Internet model consists of _______ layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Eight
Seven
Five
Three
40. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?




A)
B)
C)
D)
process-to-process message delivery
node-to-node delivery
synchronization
updating and maintenance of routing tables
41. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum
error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IP
TCP
UDP
none of the above
42. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between
communicating devices.




A)
B)
C)
D)
session
physical
transport
network
43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.




A)
B)
C)
D)
16
32
48
none of the above
44. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
application
presentation
session
transport
45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
five-layer; before
six-layer; before
seven-layer; before
five-layer; after
46. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as
defined by its LAN or WAN.

A) logical



B) port
C) physical
D) none of the above
47. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be
organized.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ANSI
CCITT
ISO
OSI
48. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through
transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.




A)
B)
C)
D)
network
presentation
transport
data link
Application
26. Logical
27. Added
28. Bits
29. Port
30. 6-byte
31. Physical
32. Seven
33. Physical
34. Network
35. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
36. Removed
37. Session
38. OSI
39. Five
40. Process-to-process message delivery
41. UDP
42. Session
43. 16
44. Presentation
45. Five-layer; before
46. Physical
47. OSI
48. Presentation
MCQs in Data and Signals
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
1
-2
between -2 and 2
2. _________ can impair a signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Noise
Attenuation
Distortion
All of the above
3. ________is the rate of change with respect to time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Time
Frequency
Amplitude
Voltage
4. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at
the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
P2 equals P1
P2 is zero
P2 is much larger than P1
P2 is much smaller than P1
5. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bandpass
low-pass
high rate
low rate
6. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to
the resistance of the transmission medium.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Distortion
Attenuation
Noise
Decibel
7. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____
domain.




A)
B)
C)
D)
time; phase
frequency; time
time; frequency
phase; time
8. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the
highest frequency?




A)
B)
C)
D)
5 KHz
47 KHz
57 KHz
10 KHz
9. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.



A) phase
B) signal amplitude
C) frequency

D) time
10. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values.




A)
B)
C)
D)
digital
analog
(a) or (b)
none of the above
11. Frequency and period are ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
proportional to each other
inverse of each other
the same
none of the above
12. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
wavelength of the signal
throughput
distance a signal or bit has traveled
distortion factor
13. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a
_______ signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
single-frequency; composite
composite; single-frequency This is the correct answer.
single-frequency; double-frequency
none of the above
14. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.




A)
B)
C)
D)
delay-amplitude
frequency-amplitude
bandwidth-period
bandwidth-delay
15. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values.

A) Digital



B) Analog
C) (a) or (b)
D) None of the above
16. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
periodic signals
electromagnetic signals
aperiodic signals
low-frequency sine waves
17. Data can be ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
digital
analog
(a) or (b)
none of the above
18. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to
the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Noise
Distortion
Attenuation
Decibel
19. Signals can be ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
digital
analog
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
20. A sine wave is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
periodic and discrete
aperiodic and discrete
periodic and continuous
aperiodic and continuous
21. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Analog
Digital
(a) or (b)
None of the above
22. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit
rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
noiseless
noisy
low-pass
bandpass
23. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz?




A)
B)
C)
D)
1 KHz
3 MHz
4 MHz
none of the above
24. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Analog
Digital
(a) or (b)
None of the above
25. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth.




A)
B)
C)
D)
digital
analog
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
26. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?




A)
B)
C)
D)
1 Hz
100 Hz
1 KHz
1 MHz
27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest
frequencies contained in that signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
period
bandwidth
frequency
amplitude
28. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as
crosstalk corrupts a signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Noise
Distortion
Attenuation
Decibel
29. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Amplitude
Phase
Frequency
Voltage
30. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of
B is ________ that of A.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-half
twice
the same as
indeterminate from
31. As frequency increases, the period ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
increases
decreases
doubles
remains the same
32. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the
channel.




A)
B)
C)
D)
low-pass
low rate
bandpass
high rate
33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit
rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
low-pass
bandpass
noisy
noiseless
34. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
phase
frequency
slope
peak amplitude
1. -2
2. All of the above
3. Frequency
4. P2 equals P1
5. Low-pass
6. Attenuation
7. Time; frequency
8. 57 KHz
9. Time
10. Analog
11. inverse of each other
12. distance a signal or bit has traveled
13. single-frequency; composite
14. Bandwidth-delay
15. Digital
16. Electromagnetic signals
17. Analog or Digital
18. Distortion
19. Either analog or digital
20. Periodic and continuous
21. Digital
22. Noisy
23. 3 MHz
24. Analog
25. Digital
26. 1 KHz
27. Bandwidth
28. Noise
29. Phase
30. Twice
31. Decreases
32. Bandpass
33. Noiseless
34. Frequency
MCQs in Digital Transmission
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization?



A) RZ
B) NRZ-L
C) NRZ-I

D) Manchester
2. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest
frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem?




A)
B)
C)
D)
200 samples/s
500 samples/s
1000 samples/s
1200 samples/s
3. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
variable
fixed
zero
a function of the data rate
4. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.




A)
B)
C)
D)
B4B8
B8ZS
HDB3
none of the above
5. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called
__________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
sampling
PAL
PCM
none of the above
6. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the same as
twice
thrice
none of the above
7. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit
baud
signal
none of the above
8. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line
block
NRZ
Manchester
9. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an
n-bit group.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Line coding
Block coding
Scrambling
None of the above
10. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example,
the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unipolar
bipolar
polar
all of the above
11. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is
the number of signal elements sent in 1s.




A)
B)
C)
D)
signal; data
data; signal
baud; bit
none of the above
12. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme.



A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)

D) neither (a) nor (b)
13. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Line coding
Block coding
Scrambling
None of the above
14. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
equal to the highest frequency of a signal
twice the bandwidth of a signal
twice the highest frequency of a signal
15. PCM is an example of _______ conversion.




A)
B)
C)
D)
analog-to-analog
analog-to-digital
digital-to-digital
digital-to-analog
16. There are three sampling methods: __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ideal, natural, and flat-top
ideal, sampled, and flat-top
quantized, sampled, and ideal
none of the above
17. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unipolar
polar
bipolar
none of the above
18. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.


A) Synchronization
B) Error detection


C) Attenuation
D) (a) and (b)
19. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the
bit is used for __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit transfer
synchronization
baud transfer
none of the above
20. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Differential Manchester
Manchester
RZ
All the above
21. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value
of the bit.




A)
B)
C)
D)
NRZ-L
NRZ-I
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
22. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values
are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next
bit is 1, there is none.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Manchester
differential Manchester
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
23. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage
remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The
transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization.


A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester


C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
24. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In
other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
isochronous
synchronous
asynchronous
none of the above
25. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Manchester
differential Manchester
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
26. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received
signal power, called the _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
base
line
baseline
none of the above
27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or
gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
synchronous
asynchronous
isochronous
none of the above
28. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change
from the previous sample.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DM; CM
DM; PCM
PCM; DM
none of the above
29. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V.




A)
B)
C)
D)
HDB3
B4B8
B8ZSf
none of the above
30. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move
between the levels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4B5B
MLT-3
2B1Q
none of the above
31. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) _____
subclass(es) of serial transmission.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one; two
one; three
two; three
none of the above
32. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal?




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
8
16
32
33. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted.




A)
B)
C)
D)
self-synchronizing
self-transmitted
self-modulated
none of the above
34. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.


A) asynchronous serial
B) synchronous serial


C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
35. The first step in PCM is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
quantization
sampling
modulation
none of the above
36. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Manchester
Differential Manchester
RZ
All the above
37. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits
(1s) at the end of each byte.




A)
B)
C)
D)
synchronous
asynchronous
isochronous
none of the above
38. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Asynchronous serial
Synchronous serial
Parallel
(a) and (b)
39. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s?




A)
B)
C)
D)
AMI
RZ
NRZ-I
Manchester
40. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit
baud
signal
none of the above
41. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Line coding
Block coding
Scrambling
None of the above
42. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.




A)
B)
C)
D)
synchronous serial
asynchronous serial
parallel
(a) and (b)
43. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
B8ZS and HDB3
AMI and NRZ
NRZ and RZ
Manchester and differential Manchester
44. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and
scrambling.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Analog-to-analog
Analog-to-digital
Digital-to-analog
Digital-to-digital
45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one
signal element belonging to a four-level signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MLT-3
4B5B
2B1Q
none of the above
46. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.




A)
B)
C)
D)
NRZ-I
NRZ-L
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
47. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Line coding
Block coding
Scrambling
None of the above
48. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or
below.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unipolar
polar
bipolar
all of the above
1. NRZ-L
2. 1200 samples/s
3. Variable
4. B8ZS
5. PCM
6. twice
7. baud
8. line
9. Block coding
10. polar
11. data; signal
12. Manchester
13. Scrambling
14. twice the highest frequency of a signal
15. analog-to-digital
16. ideal, natural, and flat-top
17. bipolar
18. Synchronization and Error detection
19. synchronization
20. Differential Manchester
21. NRZ-I
22. differential Manchester
23. Manchester and differential Manchester
24. isochronous
25. differential Manchester
26. baseline
27. synchronous
28. PCM; DM
29. HDB3
30. MLT-3
31. one; three
32. 32
33. self-synchronizing
34. asynchronous serial and synchronous serial
35. sampling
36. All the above
37. asynchronous
38. Parallel
39. AMI
40. bit
41. Block coding
42. asynchronous serial
43. B8ZS and HDB3
44. Digital-to-digital
45. 2B1Q
46. NRZ-L
47. Line coding
48. unipolar
MCQs in Analog Transmission
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both
frequency and phase remain constant




A)
B)
C)
D)
PSK
ASK
FSK
QAM
2. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
3. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4
8
16
none of the above
4. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.




A)
B)
C)
D)
analog-to-analog
digital-to-digital
analog-to-digital
digital-to-analog
5. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM
station.




A)
B)
C)
D)
20
100
200
none of the above
6. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
band-pass
low-pass
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
7. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the
changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase
of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes,
the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AM
FM
PM
none of the above
8. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
2
1
none of the above
9. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion?


A) FSK
B) ASK


C) AM
D) PSK
10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog
signal based on the information in the digital data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Analog-to-analog
Digital-to-digital
Digital-to-analog
Analog-to-digital
11. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
100
400
800
1600
12. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal
elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PSK
FSK
ASK
QAM
13. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion?




A)
B)
C)
D)
QAM
AM
PM
FM
14. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
15. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PSK and FSK
ASK and FSK
ASK and PSK
none of the above
16. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak
amplitude and phase remain constant.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ASK
FSK
PSK
QAM
17. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1200
600
400
300
18. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
19. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4
2
1
none of the above
20. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the
amplitude of the carrier frequency.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OOK
PSK
FSK
none of the above
21. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?




A)
B)
C)
D)
1200
1000
400
300
22. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.




A)
B)
C)
D)
analog-to-analog
digital-to-digital
analog-to-digital
digital-to-analog
23. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1200
600
400
300
24. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
25. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM
station.




A)
B)
C)
D)
20
10
5
none of the above
26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?



A) 2
B) 1
C) 0

D) none of the above
27. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the
changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AM
FM
PM
none of the above
28. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Analog-to-analog
Digital-to-digital
Analog-to-digital
Digital-to-analog
29. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with
the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PM
FM
AM
none of the above
30. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.




A)
B)
C)
D)
phase and frequency
amplitude and phase
frequency and amplitude
none of the above
31. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.




A)
B)
C)
D)
QAM
ASK
FSK
PSK
32. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency
component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal?




A)
B)
C)
D)
710 KHz
705 KHz
700 KHz
Cannot be determined from given information
33. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly
when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature).




A)
B)
C)
D)
amplitude and frequency
amplitude and phase
frequency and phase
none of the above
34. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate?




A)
B)
C)
D)
12000
1000
400
300
1. ASK
2. 1
3. 16
4. analog-to-analog
5. 100
6. band-pass
7. FM
8. 2
9. AM
10. Digital-to-analog
11. 800
12. PSK
13. QAM
14. 1
15. ASK and PSK
16. FSK
17. 1200
18. 2
19. 4
20. OOK
21. 1000
22. digital-to-analog
23. 1200
24. 2
25 10
26. 2
27. PM
28. Analog-to-analog
29. AM
30. amplitude and phase
31. QAM
32. 700 KHz
33. amplitude and phase
34. 12000
MCQs in Bandwidth Utilization: Multiplexing and Spreading
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the
source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next
moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency.

A) DSSS



B) FHSS
C) FDM
D) TDM
2. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains
_______ slots.




A)
B)
C)
D)
n+1
n-1
0 to n
n
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
FDM
TDM
None of the above
4. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
modulation
multiplexing
encoding
line discipline
5. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to
share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to
jamming from a malicious intruder.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Multiplexing
Spread spectrum
Modulation
None of the above.
6. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
FDM
TDM
None of the above
7. FDM is an _________technique.




A)
B)
C)
D)
digital
analog
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
8. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the
combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TDM
FDM
Both (a) or (b)
Neither (a) or (b)
9. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the
transmission rates of the signal sources.




A)
B)
C)
D)
equal to
less than
greater than
not related to
10. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1; n
n; 1
1; 1
n; n
11. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Amplitude
Frequency
Bandwidth
None of the above
12. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.


A) WDM
B) FDM


C) TDM
D) None of the above
13. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
TDM
FDM
none of the above
14. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not
sending data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
isochronous
statistical
synchronous
none of the above
15. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.




A)
B)
C)
D)
isochronous
synchronous
statistical
none of the above
16. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line; channel
channel; link
link; channel
line; link
17. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?




A)
B)
C)
D)
FDM
TDM
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
18. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
TDM
FDM
(a) and (c)
19. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple
signals across a single data link.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Demodulating
Multiplexing
Compressing
None of the above
20. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using
spreading.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
21. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit
with n bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DSSS
FHSS
FDM
TDM
22. ________ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high
bandwidth of a link.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
TDM
FDM
None of the above
23. _______ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into
one high-rate one.

A) WDM



B) TDM
C) FDM
D) None of the above
24. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line coding
block coding
spread spectrum
none of the above
25. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?




A)
B)
C)
D)
WDM
FDM
TDM
none of the above
1. FHSS
2. n
3. TDM
4. multiplexing
5. Spread spectrum
6. WDM
7. analog
8. FDM
9. greater than
10. n; 1
11. Bandwidth
12. WDM
13. TDM
14. synchronous
15. statistical
16. channel; link
17. FDM
18. WDM, FDM
19. Multiplexing
20. Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
21. DSSS
22. TDM
23. TDM
24. spread spectrum
25. WDM
MCQs in Transmission Media
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the
interface.




A)
B)
C)
D)
less than
equal to
more than
none of the above
2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
application
transport
network
physical
3. _________ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer
sheath.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Twisted-pair
Shielded twisted-pair
Coaxial
Fiber-optic
4. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.


A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial


C) Fiber-optic
D) none of the above
5. _______ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Coaxial; twisted-pair
Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
Coaxial; fiber-optic
none of the above
6. _________ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Radio waves
Infrared waves
Microwaves
none of the above
7. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.




A)
B)
C)
D)
copper
glass or plastic
bimetallic
liquid
8. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twistedpair cable?




A)
B)
C)
D)
insulating material
inner conductor
diameter of cable
outer conductor
9. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line-of-sight
sky
ground
none of the above
10. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
less dense than
denser than
the same density as
another name for
11. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Twisted-pair
Coaxial
Fiber-optic
none of the above
12. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.




A)
B)
C)
D)
radio
light
infrared
very low-frequency
13. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line-of-sight
sky
ground
none of the above
14. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unidirectional
bidirectional
omnidirectional
horn
15. A(n) _______ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unguided
guided
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
16. ________ cable is used for voice and data communications.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Twisted-pair
Coaxial
Fiber-optic
none of the above
17. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use _______ propagation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ground
line-of-sight
sky
none of the above
18. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
determinate or indeterminate
fixed or unfixed
guided or unguided
metallic or nonmetallic
19. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a
peripheral device.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Radio waves
Infrared waves
Microwaves
none of the above
20. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical
conductor.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Guided
Unguided
Either (a) or (b)
None of the above
21. ________ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding,
all encased in an outside jacket.



A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic

D) none of the above
22. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?




A)
B)
C)
D)
radio broadcasting
satellite communications
local telephone system
cellular telephone system
23. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of
incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs.




A)
B)
C)
D)
refraction
reflection
criticism
incidence
24. Which of the following is not a guided medium?




A)
B)
C)
D)
fiber-optic cable
coaxial cable
twisted-pair cable
atmosphere
25. Microwaves are _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
omnidirectional
bidirectional
unidirectional
none of the above
26. ________ cables carry data signals in the form of light.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Twisted-pair
Coaxial
Fiber-optic
none of the above
27. Radio waves are _________.

A) unidirectional



B) omnidirectional
C) bidirectional
D) none of the above
28. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
refraction
reflection
modulation
none of the above
1. equal to
2. physical
3. Coaxial
4. Coaxial
5. Coaxial; twisted-pair
6. Microwaves
7. glass or plastic
8. outer conductor
9. ground
10. denser than
11. Twisted-pair
12. light
13. line-of-sight
14. unidirectional
15. guided
16. Twisted-pair
17. sky
18. guided or unguided
19. Infrared waves
20. Unguided
21. Fiber-optic
22. local telephone system
23. reflection
24. atmosphere
25. unidirectional
26. Fiber-optic
27. omnidirectional
28. reflection
MCQs in Switching
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit
networks and datagram networks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
five
three
two
four
2. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit switching
datagram switching
frame switching
none of the above
3. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
19
21
31
41
4. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit switching
datagram switching
frame switching
none of the above
5. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially.




A)
B)
C)
D)
time-division
two-dimensional
space-division
three-dimensional
6. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local.




A)
B)
C)
D)
datagram
virtual-circuit
circuit-switched
none of the above
7. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
40,000
less than 40,000
greater than 40,000
greater than 100,000
8. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which
each link is divided into n channels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit-switched
line-switched
frame-switched
none of the above
9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each
stage.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
3
4
8
10. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit switching
datagram switching
frame switching
none of the above
11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram
network. It has some characteristics of both.




A)
B)
C)
D)
packet-switched
frame-switched
virtual-circuit
none of the above
12. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TSI
STI
ITS
none of the above
13. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
virtual-circuit
datagram
circuit-switched
none of the above
14. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four
three
two
none of the above
15. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.



A) 20,000
B) 40,000
C) 30,000

D) 10,000
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
3
4
8
17. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______
address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
destination
source
local
none of the above
18. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important.




A)
B)
C)
D)
six
five
four
three
19. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit-switched
datagram
virtual-circuit
none of the above
20. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take
advantage of the best of both.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSS
TST
TTT
none of the above
21. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources
remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase.




A)
B)
C)
D)
frame switching
datagram switching
circuit switching
none of the above
22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
40
30
20
10
23. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical
data line
network
transport
24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multiple path
multiple crossbar
multistage
none of the above
25. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.




A)
B)
C)
D)
circuit switching
datagram switching
frame switching
none of the above
26. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.




A)
B)
C)
D)
five
four
three
two
27. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route
the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TSI
banyan
crossbar
none of the above
28. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally
remains the same during the entire journey of the packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
destination
source
local
none of the above
29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is
greater than or equal to _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
42,000
20,000
18,000
15,200
30. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch.




A)
B)
C)
D)
crossbar
crosspoint
TSI
STS
1. two
2. datagram switching
3. 19
4. datagram switching
5. space-division
6. virtual-circuit
7. less than 40,000
8. circuit-switched
9. 4
10. datagram switching
11. virtual-circuit
12. TSI
13. virtual-circuit
14. four
15. 40,000
16. 3
17. destination
18. three
19. datagram
20. TST
21. circuit switching
22. 10
23. physical
24. multistage
25. datagram switching
26. three
27. banyan
28. destination
29. 15,200
30. crossbar
MCQs in Telephone and Cable Networks
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a
_________




A)
B)
C)
D)
CT; CMTS
CM; CMTS
CM; CMS
none of the above
2. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
packet-switched
message-switched
circuit-switched
none of the above
3. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
downstream
upstream
upstream and downstream
none of the above
4. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end.




A)
B)
C)
D)
twisted-pair
fiber-optic
coaxial
none of the above
5. The telephone network is made of ______ major components.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4
3
2
none of the above
6. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals.


A) analog; analog
B) digital; digital


C) digital; analog
D) analog; digital
7. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system
(POTS), was an ________ system.




A)
B)
C)
D)
analog
digital
digital as well as analog
none of the above
8. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSS
SS7
POP
none of the above
9. _______technology is a set of technologies developed by the telephone companies to
provide high data rate transmission.




A)
B)
C)
D)
LDS
ASL
DSL
none of the above
10. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest
end office.




A)
B)
C)
D)
fiber-optic
coaxial
twisted-pair
none of the above
11. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
HCF
HFC
CFH
none of the above
12. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
upstream data
downstream data
control data
voice communication
13. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream
data rates.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SDSL
ADSL
VDSL
(b) and (c)
14. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ .




A)
B)
C)
D)
IXC
LEC
POP
none of the above
15. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FDM; QAM
FDM; TDM
PSK; FSK
QDM; QAM
16. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IXC
LEC
POP
none of the above
17. The modern telephone network is now ________.



A) digital
B) digital as well as analog
C) analog

D) none of the above
18. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation
technique.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ASK
PCM
QAM
QPSK
19. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ADSL
HDSL
VDSL
SDSL
20. HDSL encodes data using _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2B1Q
1B2Q
4B/5B
6B/8T
21. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation
technique.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PCM
QAM
PSK
ASK
22. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
head end
combiner
fiber node
splitter
23. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make
up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
demodulator; modulator
modulator; demodulator
modern; demo
none of the above
24. The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
switched/56; DDS
switched/56; switched/64
DDS; switched 64
leased; out-of-band
25. The United States is divided into many _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IXCs
LECs
LATAs
none of the above
26. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ADSL
CMTS
DOCSIS
MCNS
27. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another
portion for data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
mixed
in-band
out-of-band
none of the above
28. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services
and analog _____services.




A)
B)
C)
D)
leased; out-of-band
out-of-band; in-band
switched; in-band
switched; leased
29. The HFC network uses _______ cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
coaxial
twisted-pair
fiber-optic
a combination of (a) and (c)
30. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
mixed
out-of-band
in-band
none of the above
31. Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards.




A)
B)
C)
D)
X-series
V-series
VX-series
none of the above
1. CM; CMTS
2. circuit-switched
3. downstream
4. coaxial
5. 3
6. digital; analog
7. analog
8. SS7
9. DSL
10. twisted-pair
11. HFC
12. downstream data
13. SDSL
14. LEC
15. FDM; QAM
16. IXC
17. digital as well as analog
18. QPSK
19. HDSL
20. 2B1Q
21. QAM
22. head end
23. modulator; demodulator
24. switched/56; DDS
25. LATAs
26. DOCSIS
27. out-of-band
28. switched; leased
29. coaxial and fiber-optic
30. in-band
31. V-series
MCQs in Error Detection and Correction
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Checksums use _________ arithmetic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one's complement arithmetic
two's complement arithmetic
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
2. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________.

A) 0000



B) 1111
C) 1110
D) 0111
3. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1 to 10
0 to 10
1 to 11
none of the above
4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one bit less than
one bit more than
The same size as
none of the above
5. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding
bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Hamming rule
Hamming code
Hamming distance
none of the above
6. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial.




A)
B)
C)
D)
range
power
degree
none of the above
7. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.




A)
B)
C)
D)
addition and subtraction
addition and multiplication
addition and division
none of the above
8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?




A)
B)
C)
D)
The quotient
The dividend
The divisor
The remainder
9. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?




A)
B)
C)
D)
CRC
Checksum
Simple parity check
Two-dimensional parity check
10. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___.




A)
B)
C)
D)
block; blockwords
block; datawords
linear; datawords
none of the above
11. A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.




A)
B)
C)
D)
burst
double-bit
single-bit
none of the above
12. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
13. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting
retransmission.




A)
B)
C)
D)
onward
forward
backward
none of the above
14. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three,
there are _____ bits in error.




A)
B)
C)
D)
5
4
3
none of the above
15. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an odd-number of
an even-number of
two
no errors
16. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
n
none of the above
17. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid
codeword.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ANDing
XORing
ORing
none of the above
18. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again.




A)
B)
C)
D)
forward
backward
retransmission
none of the above
19. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding.


A) linear; nonlinear
B) block; convolution


C) block; linear
D) none of the above
20. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1 and 2
0 and 1
0 and 2
none of the above
21. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance
in a block code must be ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
11
6
5
none of the above
22. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
detection; correction
correction; detection
creation; correction
creation; detection
23. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = 3, we have _______ invalid codewords.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4
8
2
none of the above
24. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0000
1111
0111
1110
25. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1101
1000
1111
none of the above
26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is
________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
5
3
2
none of the above
27. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?




A)
B)
C)
D)
Checksum
CRC
Simple parity check
Two-dimensional parity check
28. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
redundancy
degree
generator
none of the above
29. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OR
XOR
AND
none of the above
30. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit
blocks are called _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
codewords
datawords
blockwords
none of the above
31. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming
distance in a block code must be _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
11
5
6
none of the above
32. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors.




A)
B)
C)
D)
x
1
x+1
none of the above
33. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is
rotated, the result is another codeword.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Convolution
Cyclic
Non-linear
none of the above
34. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
none of the above
1. one's complement arithmetic
2. 0000
3. 0 to 10
4. one bit more than
5. Hamming distance
6. degree
7. addition and subtraction
8. The remainder
9. Simple parity check
10. block; datawords
11. burst
12. 0
13. forward
14. 3
15. an odd-number of
16. 0
17. XORing
18. retransmission
19. block; convolution
20. 0 and 1
21. 11
22. correction; detection
23. 4
24. 1111
25. 1000
26. 5
27. Checksum
28. generator
29. XOR
30. codewords
31. 6
32. x + 1
33. Cyclic
34. 2
MCQs in Data Link Control
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the receive window must be _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
15
16
31
2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may
send an ACK _______ to the sender.




A)
B)
C)
D)
6
7
5
any of the above
3. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for
______ channels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
noiseless
noisy
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
4. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
none of the above
5. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and
terminating links.


A) PAP
B) CHAP


C) LCP
D) NCP
6. HDLC is an acronym for _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Half-duplex digital link combination
Host double-level circuit
High-duplex line communication
High-level data link control
7. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the receive window must be _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
15
16
31
8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the send window must be _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
15
16
31
9. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______
arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.




A)
B)
C)
D)
modulo-m
modulo-2
modulo-4
none of the above
10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the send window must be _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
15
16
31
11. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the
sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Flow
Error
Transmission
none of the above
12. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence
numbers are in ________ arithmetic,




A)
B)
C)
D)
modulo-256
modulo- 8
modulo-2
none of the above
13. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Flow
Error
Transmission
none of the above
14. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?




A)
B)
C)
D)
1 to 63
1 to 64
0 to 63
0 to 64
15. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
sliding window
sliding frame
sliding packet
none of the above
16. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station
can function as a primary and a secondary.

A) ARM



B) ABM
C) NBM
D) NRM
17. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is
a character with the same pattern as the ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
trailer
flag
header
none of the above
18. The ______ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Go-Back-N ARQ
Stop-and-Wait
Simplest
19. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol
(PPP), which is a _________protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
byte-oriented
bit-oriented
character-oriented
none of the above
20. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are
needed.




A)
B)
C)
D)
less than 10
more than 10
exactly 10
none of the above
21. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bitoriented.



A) Standard
B) Fixed-size
C) Variable-size

D) None of the above
22. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the
sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Flow
Error
Transmission
none of the above
23. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit-oriented
character-oriented
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
24. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.




A)
B)
C)
D)
standard
fixed-size
variable-size
none of the above
25. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Stop-and-Wait
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Go-Back-N ARQ
both (b) and (c)
26. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and
multiple secondary stations.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ARM
NBM
NRM
ABM
27. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit-oriented
byte-oriented
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
28. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames.




A)
B)
C)
D)
standard
fixed-size
variable-size
none of the above
29. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over
point-to-point and multipoint links.




A)
B)
C)
D)
byte-oriented
bit-oriented
character-oriented
none of the above
30. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a
sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
trailer
flag
header
none of the above
31. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all
outstanding frames.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Go-Back-N ARQ
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
none of the above
32. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels.



A) noiseless
B) noisy
C) either (a) or (b)

D) neither (a) nor (b)
33. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Stop-and-Wait
Simplest
Go-Back-N ARQ
34. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The
sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
modulo-m
modulo-2
modulo-4
none of the above
35. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to
the receiver.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Simplest
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Stop-and-Wait
Go-Back-N ARQ
36. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is
the retransmission of data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Flow
Error
Transmission
none of the above
37. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the
password is kept secret; it is never sent online.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PAP
LCP
NCP
CHAP
38. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process:




A)
B)
C)
D)
CHAP
PAP
LCP
NCP
39. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames
that are corrupted.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
Go-Back-N ARQ
none of the above
40. In ________ protocols, we use ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
byte-oriented; bit stuffing
bit-oriented; bit stuffing
character-oriented; bit stuffing
none of the above
41. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation
from the receiver, and then sends the next frame.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Simplest
Stop-and-Wait
Selective-Repeat ARQ
Go-Back-N ARQ
42. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send
window is ___.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
2
8
none of the above
43. ARQ stands for _______.

A) Acknowledge repeat request



B) Automatic retransmission request
C) Automatic repeat quantization
D) Automatic repeat request
44. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or
from other messages going from other sources to other destinations.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Controlling
Framing
Digitizing
none of the above
45. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
node-to-node
process-to-process
host-to-host
none of the above
46. In _________ protocols, we use ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bit-oriented; character stuffing
character-oriented; bit stuffing
character-oriented; byte stuffing
none of the above
1. 1
2. 7
3. noisy
4. Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
5. LCP
6. High-level data link control
7. 16
8. 31
9. modulo-2
10. 16
11. Flow
12. modulo-256
13. Error
14. 0 to 63
15. sliding window
16. ABM
17. flag
18. Simplest
19. byte-oriented
20. exactly 10
21. Variable-size
22. Flow
23. character-oriented
24. fixed-size
25. Selective-Repeat ARQ and Go-Back-N ARQ
26. NRM
27. bit-oriented
28. variable-size
29. bit-oriented
30. flag
31. Go-Back-N ARQ
32. noiseless
33. Stop-and-Wait
34. modulo-2
35. Simplest
36. Error
37. CHAP
38. PAP
39. Selective-Repeat ARQ
40. bit-oriented; bit stuffing
41. Stop-and-Wait
42. 1
43. Automatic repeat request
44. Framing
45. node-to-node
46. character-oriented; byte stuffing
MCQs in Multiple Access
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1.In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.
A) FDMA
B) CDMA
C) TDMA
D) none of the above
2. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before
trying to use it.
A) CSMA
B) MA
C) CDMA
D) FDMA
3. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring.
A) polling
B) token passing
C) reservation
D) none of the above
4. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
5. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision.
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
6. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame
immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle.
A) p-persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) 1-persistent
D) none of the above
7. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame
precedes the data frames sent in that interval.
A) token passing
B) reservation
C) polling
D) none of the above
8. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor.
A) token passing
B) polling
C) reservation
D) none of the above
9. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.
A) three times
B) two times
C) the same as
D) none of the above
10. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring.
A) polling: poll request
B) token passing: token
C) reservation: control frame
D) none of the above
11. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.
A) 36.8
B) 18.4
C) 12.2
D) none of the above
12. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
13. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned
the control over another.
A) controlled access
B) random access
C) channelization
D) none of the above
14. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is
idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then
senses the line again.
A) 1-persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) p-persistent
D) none of the above
15. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band
is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time.
A) CDMA
B) FDMA
C) TDMA
D) none of the above
16. In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from
sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries
again.
A) p-persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) 1-persistent
D) none of the above
17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented.
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
18. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each
station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
19. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices
follow its instructions.
A) token passing
B) reservation
C) polling
D) none of the above
20. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
21. We discussed ________ channelization protocols.
A) four
B) three
C) two
D) none of the above
22. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device
even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device.
A) polling
B) token passing
C) reservation
D) none of the above
23. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods.
A) four
B) three
C) two
D) none of the above
24. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot.
A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
25. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right
to send.
A) channelization
B) random access
C) controlled access
D) none of the above
26. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send.
A) slotted ALOHA
B) pure ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
27. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.
A) CDMA
B) TDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
28. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe
space, the contention window, and acknowledgments.
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
29. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data.
Time is divided into intervals.
A) token passing
B) polling
C) reservation
D) none of the above
30. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.
A) two times
B) three times
C) the same as
D) none of the above
31. The maximum throughput for slotted ALOHA is ________ per cent.
A) 36.8
B) 18.4
C) 12.2
D) none of the above
32. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is
shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations.
A) Controlled access
B) Channelization
C) Random access
D) none of the above
33. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending.
A) FDMA
B) CDMA
C) MA
D) CSMA
34. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups.
A) five
B) three
C) four
D) two
35. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other
stations.
A) controlled access
B) channelization
C) random access
D) none of the above
36. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.
A) two times
B) three times
C) the same as
D) none of the above
37. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the
transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision,
the frame is sent again.
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
38. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) none of the above
1. TDMA
2. CSMA
3. token passing
4. CDMA
5. CSMA/CD
6. 1-persistent
7. reservation
8. token passing
9. the same as
10. token passing: token
11. 18.4
12. FDMA
13. random access
14. nonpersistent
15. FDMA
16. p-persistent
17. CSMA/CA
18. TDMA
19. polling
20. TDMA
21. three
22. polling
23. three
24. slotted ALOHA
25. controlled access
26. pure ALOHA
27. CDMA
28. CSMA/CA
29. reservation
30. two times
31. 36.8
32. Channelization
33. CSMA
34. three
35. controlled access
36. the same as
37. CSMA/CD
38. CDMA
MCQs in Wired LANs: Ethernet
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. __________ uses four twisted pairs.



A) 1000Base-LX
B) 1000Base-T
C) 1000Base-SX

D) none of the above
2. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding and
________ line coding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
4B/5B; NRZ
8B/10B; MLT-3
4B/5B; MLT-3
3. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables.




A)
B)
C)
D)
100Base-FX
100Base-T4
100Base-TX
none of the above
4. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1000Base-LX
1000Base-SX
1000Base-T
none of the above
5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001
01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?




A)
B)
C)
D)
5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multicast
broadcast
unicast
none of the above
7. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcast
unicast
multicast
any of the above
8. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its
network interface card (NIC).




A)
B)
C)
D)
48-bit
32-bit
5-byte
none of the above
9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10,000
1000
100
10
10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information.




A)
B)
C)
D)
address
preamble
CRC
none of the above
11. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8B6T
Manchester
MLT-3
NRZ
12. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10GBase-E
10GBase-S
10GBase-L
none of the above
13. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC.




A)
B)
C)
D)
LLC
LLU
MAC
none of the above
14. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
4B/5B; MLT-3
4B/5B; NRZ
8B/10B; MLT-3
15. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method
and framing.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MAC
MII
LLC
none of the above
16. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Token Bus
Ethernet
Token Ring
none of the above
17. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is
_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multicast
broadcast
unicast
none of the above
18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.


A) full-duplex
B) half-duplex


C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
19. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
100Base-T4
100Base-FX
100Base-TX
none of the above
20. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AMI
Manchester
NRZ
differential Manchester
21. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of
operation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
Gigabit Ethernet
Fast Ethernet
Standard
22. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcast
unicast
multicast
any of the above
23. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10GBase-E
10GBase-L
10GBase-S
none of the above
24. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?




A)
B)
C)
D)
7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
83:32:21:21:4D:34
B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
25. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10Base2
10Base5
10Base-F
10Base-T
26. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not
(formally) part of the frame.




A)
B)
C)
D)
address
CRC
preamble
none of the above
27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10,000
1000
100
10
28. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer
protocols that actually demand these services.




A)
B)
C)
D)
LLC
LLU
MAC
none of the above
29. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
100Base-T4
100Base-TX
100Base-FX
none of the above
30. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10Base2
10Base-F
10Base-T
10Base5
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is
_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcast
multicast
unicast
none of the above
32. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10GBase-E
10GBase-S
10GBase-L
none of the above
33. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MLT-3
4D-PAM5
Manchester
8B6T
34. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1200
1518
1500
none of the above
35. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.



A) 128
B) 80
C) 32

D) none of the above
36. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1000Base-T
1000Base-SX
1000Base-LX
none of the above
37. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
network
data link
physical
none of the above
38. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
4B/5B; MLT-3
8B/10B; MLT-3
4B/5B; NRZ-I
39. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?




A)
B)
C)
D)
46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
48:32:21:21:4D:34
44:AA:C1:23:45:32
40. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10Base2
10Base5
10Base-F
10Base-T
41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for firstgeneration 10-Mbps Ethernet.

A) non-persistent



B) p-persistent
C) 1-persistent
D) none of the above
42. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10Base-F
10Base-T
10Base5
10Base2
1. 1000Base-T
2. 8B/10B; NRZ
3. 100Base-FX
4. 1000Base-SX
5. 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
6. broadcast
7. multicast
8. 48-bit
9. 1000
10. CRC
11. 8B6T
12. 10GBase-L
13. LLC
14. 4B/5B; MLT-3
15. MAC
16. Ethernet
17. multicast
18. both (a) and (b)
19. 100Base-T4
20. Manchester
21. Fast Ethernet
22. unicast
23. 10GBase-S
24. 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
25. 10Base2
26. preamble
27. 100
28. LLC
29. 100Base-TX
30. 10Base-F
31. unicast
32. 10GBase-E
33. 4D-PAM5
34. 1518
35. none of the above
36. 1000Base-LX
37. data link
38. 4B/5B; NRZ-I
39. 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
40. 10Base5
41. 1-persistent
42. 10Base-T
MCQs in Wireless LANs
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
11
22
6
1
2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
01
10
11
00
3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without
passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
11
00
10
01
4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
polling
controlled
contention
none of the above
5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.



A) an infrastructure network
B) an ad hoc architecture
C) either (a) or (b)

D) neither (a) nor (b)
6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
six
five
four
none of the above
7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet
model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
baseband
radio
L2CAP
none of the above
8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or
moving only inside a BSS.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ESS-transition
no-transition
BSS-transition
none of the above
9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs.




A)
B)
C)
D)
baseband
L2CAP
radio
none of the above
10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless
distribution system, the address flag is _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10
01
11
00
11. A Bluetooth network is called a ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
scatternet
bluenet
piconet
none of the above
12. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary
devices.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one; seven
one; five
five; three
two; six
13. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
11
5
2
none of the above
14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an infrastructure network
an ad hoc architecture
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance.




A)
B)
C)
D)
BSS
ESS
NAV
none of the above
16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four
six
five
none of the above
17. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other
devices or other networks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FHSS
DSSS
FDMA
none of the above
18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding
latency.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SCL
ACO
ACL
SCO
19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs.




A)
B)
C)
D)
L2CAP
radio
baseband
none of the above
20. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers
the physical and data link layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IEEE 802.5
IEEE 802.11
IEEE 802.2
IEEE 802.3
21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another.




A)
B)
C)
D)
BSS-transition
ESS-transition
no-transition
none of the above
22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.

A) DSSS



B) OFDM
C) FHSS
D) either (a) or (c)
23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CSMA/CA
CSMA/CD
ALOHA
none of the above
24. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The
RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem.




A)
B)
C)
D)
cannot; cannot
can; cannot
cannot; can
can; can
25. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually
occurs via two ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ESSs
APs
BSSs
none of the above
26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small
area.




A)
B)
C)
D)
VLAN
wired LAN
wireless LAN
none of the above
27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FHSS
OFDM
DSSS
either (a) or (c)
28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DSSS
OFDM
FHSS
either (a) or (c)
29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional
central base station, known as the access point (AP).




A)
B)
C)
D)
BSS
CSS
ESS
none of the above
30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and
_______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ESS; SSS
BSS; ESS
BSS; ASS
BSS; DCF
31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is
more important than integrity (error-free delivery).




A)
B)
C)
D)
SCL
ACL
ACO
SCO
32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
5.5
2
1
none of the above
33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 22



B) 11
C) 2
D) 1
34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another,
but the movement is confined inside one ESS.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ESS-transition
no-transition
BSS-transition
none of the above
35. The access method in Bluetooth is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TDD-TDMA
CDMA
FDMA
none of the above
36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.




A)
B)
C)
D)
five
six
four
none of the above
37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an
infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network).




A)
B)
C)
D)
PCF
DCF
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address
flag is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
00
11
10
01
39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
piconets: bluenet
scatternet; piconets
piconets: scatternet
bluenet; scatternet
40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OFDM
FHSS
DSSS
either (a) or (b)
41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.




A)
B)
C)
D)
6
2
1
none of the above
1. 1
2. 10
3. 00
4. polling
5. an ad hoc architecture
6. four
7. radio
8. no-transition
9. L2CAP
10. 11
11. piconet
12. one; seven
13. none of the above
14. an infrastructure network
15. NAV
16. none of the above
17. FHSS
18. ACL
19. baseband
20. IEEE 802.11
21. ESS-transition
22. OFDM
23. CSMA/CA
24. can; cannot
25. APs
26. wireless LAN
27. either FHSS or DSSS
28. OFDM
29. BSS
30. BSS; ESS
31. SCO
32. 5.5
33. 22
34. BSS-transition
35. TDD-TDMA
36. none of the above
37. PCF
38. 01
39. piconets: scatternet
40. DSSS
41. 6
MCQs in Connecting LANs, Backbone Networks, and Virtual LANs
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. VLANs create _________ domains.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multicast
broadcast
unicast
none of the above
2. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
bridge
repeater
passive hub
3. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bridge
router
passive hub
repeater
4. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two-layer
four-layer
three-layer
none of the above
5. _________ is just a connector.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A passive hub
An active hub
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
6. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used
for making decisions about the route.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
bridge
repeater
none of the above
7. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet
model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
network
data link
physical
all of the above
8. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering
capability.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
repeater
bridge
none of the above
9. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP
addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software.




A)
B)
C)
D)
automatic
manual
semiautomatic
none of the above
10. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected.




A)
B)
C)
D)
wired
wireless
backbone
none of the above
11. A backbone is usually a ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
star
bus
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
12. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multiway tree
binary tree
spanning tree
none of the above
13. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections
between stations in a physical star topology.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A passive hub
An active hub
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
14. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.




A)
B)
C)
D)
star
bus
ring
none of the above
15. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
arc
loop
node
branch
16. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding
table.




A)
B)
C)
D)
dual
transparent
simple
none of the above
17. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
hardware
physical wiring
software
none of the above
18. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model
or seven layers of OSI model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
gateway
router
bridge
repeater
19. A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence.




A)
B)
C)
D)
simple bridge
transparent bridge
passive hub
repeater
20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bridge
passive hub
repeater
none of the above
21. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from
different stations collide; it is the collision point.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A passive hub
An active hub
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
22. VLANs can_________.


A) provide an extra measure of security
B) reduce network traffic


C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
23. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multidrop
point-to-point
multipoint
none of the above
24. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
bridge
passive hub
repeater
25. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of
the Internet model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
repeater
bridge
none of the above
26. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame.




A)
B)
C)
D)
repeater
bridge
router
passive hub
27. ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical
layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A passive hub
An active hub
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected
from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator.




A)
B)
C)
D)
automatic
semiautomatic
manual
none of the above
29. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
four
three
none of the above
30. A two-layer switch is a ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
repeater
bridge
none of the above
31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be
reached from any other LAN through one path only.




A)
B)
C)
D)
binary tree
spanning tree
unary tree
none of the above
32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use
different models.




A)
B)
C)
D)
gateway
router
bridge
repeater
33. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.

A) MAC addresses



B) IP addresses
C) port numbers
D) all of the above
34. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted,
regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
bridge
repeater
passive hub
35. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done
automatically.




A)
B)
C)
D)
automatic
semiautomatic
manual
none of the above
36. A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical
addresses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
router
repeater
bridge
none of the above
37. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bridge
router
repeater
none of the above
38. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward
the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame.



A) come-through
B) go-through
C) cut-through

D) none of the above
1. broadcast
2. bridge
3. repeater
4. three-layer
5. A passive hub
6. router
7. physical
8. repeater
9. manual
10. backbone
11. either star or bus
12. spanning tree
13. An active hub
14. star
15. loop
16. transparent
17. software
18. gateway
19. transparent bridge
20. bridge
21. A passive hub
22. provide an extra measure of security and reduce network traffic
23. point-to-point
24. repeater
25. bridge
26. bridge
27. A passive hub
28. automatic
29. three
30. bridge
31. spanning tree
32. gateway
33. all of the above
34. repeater
35. semiautomatic
36. router
37. router
38. cut-through
MCQs in Wireless WANs: Cellular Telephone and Satellite Networks
1. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Iridium
GPS
Teledesic
none of the above
2. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for
handheld terminals.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Teledesic
GPS
Iridium
none of the above
3. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.

A) IS-95



B) D-AMPS
C) GSM
D) none of the above
4. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
7
5
3
1
5. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IMT-MC
IMT-TC
IMT-SC
IMT-DS
6. Iridium satellites are ________satellites.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MEO
LEO
GEO
none of the above
7. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
7
5
3
1
8. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IS-95
GSM
D-AMPS
none of the above
9. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth.




A)
B)
C)
D)
inclined
polar
equatorial
none of the above
10. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.




A)
B)
C)
D)
GSM
AMPS
D-AMPS
none of the above
11. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS.




A)
B)
C)
D)
GSM
IS-95
D-AMPS
none of the above
12. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IMT-TC
IMT-SC
IMT-MC
IMT-DS
13. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the
same time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
soft
hard
medium
none of the above
14. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.




A)
B)
C)
D)
800-MHz
900-MHz
1900-MHz
either (a) or (c)
15. ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Teledesic
GPS
Iridium
none of the above
16. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
one
many
none of the above
17. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MEO
LEO
GEO
none of the above
18. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around
the Earth, is determined by _________ law.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Ohm's
Newton's
Kepler's
none of the above
19. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km.




A)
B)
C)
D)
3000
2000
1000
none of the above
20. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.



A) GSM
B) AMPS
C) D-AMPS

D) none of the above
21. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1000
900
800
none of the above
22. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IMT-TC
IMT-DS
IMT-SC
IMT-MC
23. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station.




A)
B)
C)
D)
soft
medium
hard
none of the above
24. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TDMA
FDMA
CDMA
none of the above
25. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Iridium
Teledesic
GPS
none of the above
26. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.


A) Teledesic
B) GPS


C) Iridium
D) none of the above
27. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
second-generation
third-generation
first-generation
none of the above
28. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
7
5
3
1
29. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1800-MHz
900-MHz
800-MHz
none of the above
30. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
polar
inclined
equatorial
none of the above
31. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
effect
footprint
path
none of the above
32. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA.

A) GSM



B) AMPS
C) D-AMPS
D) none of the above
33. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MEO
LEO
GEO
none of the above
34. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FDMA
CDMA
TDMA
both (a) and (c)
35. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and
TDMA.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IMT-TC
IMT-SC
IMT-DS
IMT-MC
36. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km.




A)
B)
C)
D)
5000 and 10,000
5000 and 15,000
3000 and 5000
none of the above
37. IS-95 is based on ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DSSS
FDMA
CDMA
all of the above
38. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FDMA
CDMA
TDMA
both (a) and (c)
1. GPS
2. Iridium
3. IS-95
4. 3
5. IMT-MC
6. LEO
7. 1
8. GSM
9. equatorial
10. AMPS
11. D-AMPS
12. IMT-SC
13. soft
14. either 800-MHz or 1900-MHz
15. GPS
16. one
17. MEO
18. Kepler's
19. 2000
20. D-AMPS
21. none of the above
22. IMT-DS
23. hard
24. FDMA
25. GPS
26. Teledesic
27. third-generation
28. 7
29. 800-MHz
30. polar
31. footprint
32. AMPS
33. LEO
34. both FDMA and TDMA
35. IMT-TC
36. 5000 and 15,000
37. all of the above
38. both FDMA and TDMA
MCQs in SONET/SDH
1. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.




A)
B)
C)
D)
20
64
125
none of the above
2. A linear SONET network can be __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multipoint
point-to-point
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
3. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
18
9
6
1
4. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SONET
SDH
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
5. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line
path
section
none of the above
6. A ________ is a repeater.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ADM
regenerator
STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
none of the above
7. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path
section
photonic
line
8. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally
sent on the working line until it fails.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-to-one
one-plus-one
one-to-many
none of the above
9. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
18
9
6
1
10. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
from left to the right, bottom to top
from left to the right, top to bottom
from right to the left, top to bottom
from right to the left, bottom to top
11. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel.




A)
B)
C)
D)
frame
bit
byte
none of the above
12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns.




A)
B)
C)
D)
90
9
1
none of the above
13. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to
its optical destination.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line
path
photonic
section
14. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line.



A) line
B) path
C) photonic

D) section
15. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four-layer
three-layer
two-layer
one-layer
16. A ring SONET network can be _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
bidirectional
unidirectional
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
17. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SDH
SONET
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
18. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four-layer
three-layer
two-layer
one-layer
19. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
from most significant to the least significant
from least significant to the most significant
three at a time
two at a time
20. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices.


A) path
B) line


C) section
D) none of the above
21. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
line
path
section
none of the above
22. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
photonic
path
line
section
23. SONET is a _______ TDM system.




A)
B)
C)
D)
statistical
asynchronous
synchronous
none of the above
24. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows.




A)
B)
C)
D)
27
9
1
none of the above
25. SONET defines _______ layers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
five
four
three
two
26. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection
line. Both lines are active all the time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-to-one
one-to-many
one-plus-one
none of the above
27. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.




A)
B)
C)
D)
STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
regenerators
ADMs
none of the above
28. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns.




A)
B)
C)
D)
270
90
9
none of the above
29. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
STMs
STSs
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
30. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FDM-n
OC-n
TDM-n
none of the above
31. A regenerator is a ________ device.




A)
B)
C)
D)
three-layer
one-layer
two-layer
four-layer
32. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows




A)
B)
C)
D)
90
9
1
none of the above
33. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
STMs
STSs
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
34. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design
includes a system of ____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
VTs
STSs
STMs
OCs
35. SONET network topologies can be __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ring
mesh
linear
all of the above
36. SONET sends ________ frames per second.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8000
4000
2000
1000
37. A SONET system can use _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
regenerators
add/drop multiplexers
STS multiplexers
all of the above
38. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a
failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line
is repaired.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-to-one
one-plus-one
one-to-many
none of the above
39. The section overhead consists of ______octets.




A)
B)
C)
D)
18
9
6
1
1. 125
2. either multipoint or point-to-point
3. 9
4. SDH
5. line
6. regenerator
7. section
8. one-to-one
9. 18
10. from left to the right, top to bottom
11. byte
12. 90
13. path
14. line
15. four-layer
16. either bidirectional or unidirectional
17. SONET
18. three-layer
19. from most significant to the least significant
20. section
21. path
22. photonic
23. synchronous
24. 9
25. four
26. one-plus-one
27. ADMs
28. 270
29. STSs
30. OC-n
31. two-layer
32. 9
33. STMs
34. VTs
35. all of the above
36. 8000
37. all of the above
38. one-to-many
39. 9
MCQs in Virtual-Circuit Networks: Frame Relay and ATM
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a
_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MUX
VOFR
FRAD
none of the above
2. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2 to 3
2 to 4
only f2
none of the above
3. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding,
and electrical-to-optical transformation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL
physical
ATM layer
none of the above
4. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN.




A)
B)
C)
D)
legacy
pure
mixed architecture
none of the above
5. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.




A)
B)
C)
D)
NNN
UNI
NNI
None of the above
6. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DLCI
VPI
VCI
a combination of (b) and (c)
7. In ATM, _______is for short packets.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL5
AAL3/4
AAL2
AAL1
8. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for
all switches by the administrator.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SVC
PVC
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
9. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps
them into ATM cells.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL
physical
ATM
none of the above
10. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length.




A)
B)
C)
D)
32
16
12
8
11. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.


A) five
B) four


C) three
D) two
12. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).




A)
B)
C)
D)
ATM
X.25
Frame Relay
none of the above
13. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SVC
DLCIs
PVC
none of the above
14. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four
three
two
none of the above
15. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches.




A)
B)
C)
D)
NNI
NNN
UNI
none of the above
16. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through
the network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FRAD
VOFR
MUX
none of the above
17. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information.




A)
B)
C)
D)
packet
cell
frame
none of the above
18. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and
multiplexing services.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ATM
AAL
physical
none of the above
19. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram
approach).




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL5
AAL3/4
AAL2
AAL1
20. Frame Relay provides ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SVCs
PVCs
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
21. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of
the address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
2
3
22. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.



A) legacy
B) pure
C) mixed architecture

D) none of the above
23. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length.




A)
B)
C)
D)
24
16
12
8
24. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control.




A)
B)
C)
D)
error
flow
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
25. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted
by the ITU-T.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Frame Relay
ATM
X.25
none of the above
26. In Frame Relay, when ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating
phases.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a PVC
an SVC
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
27. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM
technology.




A)
B)
C)
D)
legacy
pure
mixed architecture
none of the above
28. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
VCs
TPs
VPs
all of the above
29. Frame Relay has _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the physical, data link, and network layers
the physical and data link layers
only the data link
only the physical layer
30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL5
AAL3/4
AAL2
AAL1
31. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Frame Relay
ATM
X.25
all of the above
32. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AAL5
AAL3/4
AAL2
AAL1
33. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to
demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ATM
Frame Relay
X.25
none of the above
34. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
53
52
43
42
1. FRAD
2. 2 to 4
3. physical
4. mixed architecture
5. UNI
6. a combination of VPI and VCI
7. AAL2
8. PVC
9. AAL
10. 8
11. three
12. ATM
13. DLCIs
14. two
15. NNI
16. VOFR
17. cell
18. ATM
19. AAL3/4
20. either SVCs or PVCs
21. 1
22. pure
23. 12
24. neither error nor flow
25. ATM
26. an SVC
27. legacy
28. all of the above
29. the physical and data link layers
30. AAL5
31. ATM
32. AAL1
33. Frame Relay
34. 53
MCQs in Network Layer: Logical Addressing
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A
B
C
none of the above
2. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.76/10?




A)
B)
C)
D)
12.0.0.0
12.2.0.0
12.2.2.2
none of the above
3. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast
address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
provider-based unicast
link local
site local
none of the above
4. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.7/24.




A)
B)
C)
D)
32
64
256
none of the above
5. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
65,534
16,777,216
256
none of the above
6. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
netid
hostid
mask
none of the above
7. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?




A)
B)
C)
D)
255
15
0
none of the above
8. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a unicast
a multicast
an anycast
none of the above
9. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?




A)
B)
C)
D)
254
14
0
none of the above
10. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8
7
4
none of the above
11. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses?




A)
B)
C)
D)
2.4.6.5
2.4.6.15
2.4.6.62
none of the above
12. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A
B
D
none of the above
13. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?




A)
B)
C)
D)
/9
/8
/16
none of the above
14. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.127/28?



A)
B)
C)
12.2.2.0
12.2.2.96
12.2.2.112

D)
none of the above
15. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?




A)
B)
C)
D)
/9
/8
/16
none of the above
16. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A
B
C
none of the above
17. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet
protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.




A)
B)
C)
D)
link local
site local
mapped
none of the above
18. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a unicast
a multicast
an anycast
none of the above
19. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
can be any number
must be a multiple of 256
must be a power of 2
none of the above
20. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.7/30.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
4
8
none of the above
21. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same
prefix.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a unicast
a multicast
an anycast
none of the above
22. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted?




A)
B)
C)
D)
8
16
32
none of the above
23. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted?




A)
B)
C)
D)
8
16
32
none of the above
24. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs
10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?




A)
B)
C)
D)
/20
/24
/25
none of the above
25. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?


A)
B)
/24
/8


C)
D)
/16
none of the above
26. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each
_____ hexadecimal digits in length.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8: 2
8: 3
8: 4
none of the above
27. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?




A)
B)
C)
D)
/20
/28
/18
none of the above
28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted?




A)
B)
C)
D)
8
16
32
none of the above
29. Which one is not a contiguous mask?




A)
B)
C)
D)
255.255.255.254
255.255.224.0
255.148.0.0
all are
30. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
dotted decimal
hexadecimal colon
both a and b
none of the above
31. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?




A)
B)
C)
D)
255.254.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
none of the above
32. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
16
32
8
none of the above
33. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of
IPv4 address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
link local
site local
mapped
none of the above
34. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).




A)
B)
C)
D)
suffix
prefix
hostid
none of the above
35. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses?




A)
B)
C)
D)
2.4.6.5
2.4.6.15
2.4.6.0
none of the above
36. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?




A)
B)
C)
D)
255
15
0
none of the above
37. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.76/27?




A)
B)
C)
D)
12.2.2.0
12.2.2.32
12.2.2.64
none of the above
38. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
4
8
32
64
39. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the
address range.




A)
B)
C)
D)
suffix
prefix
netid
none of the above
40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.




A)
B)
C)
D)
32
64
128
none of the above
41. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
65,534
16,777,216
256
none of the above
42. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.6/30?

A)
12.2.2.2



B)
C)
D)
12.2.2.6
12.2.2.7
none of the above
43. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses?




A)
B)
C)
D)
2.4.6.5
2.4.6.16
2.4.6.64
none of the above
44. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not
connected to the Internet for security reasons.




A)
B)
C)
D)
link local
site local
mapped
none of the above
45. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?




A)
B)
C)
D)
192
65
64
none of the above
46. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A
B
C
D
47. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
must be a power of 4
must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
none of the above
48. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one,
followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
link local
site local
mapped
none of the above
49. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
65,536
16,777,216
256
none of the above
50. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.127/28?




A)
B)
C)
D)
12.2.2.16
12.2.2.112
12.2.2.127
none of the above
51. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
type
purpose
both a and b
none of the above
52. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?




A)
B)
C)
D)
255.255.255.0
255.255.242.0
255.255.0.0
none of the above
53. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);


A)
B)
4
8


C)
D)
16
none of the above
54. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix
length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets?




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
4
8
none of the above
1. A
2. 12.0.0.0
3. provider-based unicast
4. 256
5. 256
6. mask
7. 15
8. a unicast
9. 14
10. 7
11. none of the above
12. D
13. /8
14. 12.2.2.112
15. /16
16. B
17. site local
18. a multicast
19. must be a power of 2
20. 4
21. an anycast
22. 8
23. 16
24. /24
25. /24
26. 8: 4
27. /18
28. 32
29. 255.148.0.0
30. hexadecimal colon
31. 255.254.0.0
32. 32
33. none of the above
34. suffix
35. 2.4.6.0
36. 0
37. 12.2.2.64
38. 32
39. prefix
40. 128
41. 16,777,216
42. 12.2.2.7
43. 2.4.6.64
44. link local
45. 64
46. A
47. must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
48. mapped
49. 65,536
50. 12.2.2.127
51. type
52. 255.255.255.0
53. 16
54. 8
MCQs in Network Layer: Internet Protocol
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram.




A)
B)
C)
D)
version
next-header
hop limit
neighbor-advertisement
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
there are 10 bytes of options
there are 40 bytes of options
there are 10 bytes in the header
there are 40 bytes in the header
3. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
there are 10 bytes of options
there are 40 bytes of options
there are 40 bytes in the header
none of the above
4. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to
indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data.

A)
flow label



B)
C)
D)
next header
hop limit
destination IP address
5. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the
data field is 400 bytes?




A)
B)
C)
D)
428
407
107
427
6. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes
the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its
destination, but with no guarantees.




A)
B)
C)
D)
reliable delivery
connection-oriented delivery
best-effort delivery
none of the above
7. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ARP
IP
RARP
none of the above
8. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length
value of 40,000?




A)
B)
C)
D)
39,988
40,012
40,048
39,952
9. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?



A)
B)
C)
Identification number
Offset number
Total length

D)
(b) and (c)
10. The IPv4 header size _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
is 20 bytes long
is 60 bytes long
none of the above
11. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is
based on the _______ field in the base header.




A)
B)
C)
D)
hop limit
priority
next header
none of the above
12. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment?




A)
B)
C)
D)
Do not fragment bit ? 0
More Fragment bit ? 0
Fragment offset = 1000
none of the above
13. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?




A)
B)
C)
D)
Base header
Extension header
Data packet from the upper layer
(a) and (c)
14. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram
must be less than the _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MUT
MAT
MTU
none of the above
15. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
base header; extension header
base header; upper-layer data
base header; frame header
none of the above
16. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is
true?




A)
B)
C)
D)
The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
17. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the datagram has not been fragmented
the datagram is 100 bytes in size
the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
18. IP is _________ datagram protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an unreliable
a connectionless
both a and b
none of the above
19. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.




A)
B)
C)
D)
more
less
the same level
none of the above
20. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the
_______ field.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IETF
checksum
differentiated services
none of the above
21. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
error checking
error correction
datagram acknowledgment
none of the above
22. The IPv4 header size _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
is 20 bytes long
is 60 bytes long
none of the above
1. hop limit
2. there are 40 bytes in the header
3. there are 40 bytes in the header
4. flow label
5. 428
6. best-effort delivery
7. IP
8. 39,952
9. Offset number and total length
10. is 20 to 60 bytes long
11. priority
12. Fragment offset = 1000
13. Base header
14. MTU
15. base header; upper-layer data
16. The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
17. the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
18. an unreliable and a connectionless
19. more
20. differentiated services
21. none of the above
22. is 20 to 60 bytes long
MCQs in Network Layer: Address Mapping, Error Reporting, and Multicasting
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field.




A)
B)
C)
D)
3
2
1
none of the above
2. IGMP is _______ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an error reporting
a group management
a transmission
none of the above
3. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network,
the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the destination IP address in the datagram header
the IP address of the router found in the routing table
either a or b
none of the above
4. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0x000000000000
0.0.0.0
variable
class dependent
5. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response
to a general query message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one membership report is
two membership reports are
three membership reports are
none of the above
6. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report.




A)
B)
C)
D)
general query message
special query message
membership report
none of the above
7. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?




A)
B)
C)
D)
An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment.
An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
none is true
8. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
IP
Ethernet frame
none of the above
9. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
host; host
host; router
router; host or router
none of the above
10. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated
manually.


A)
B)
static mapping
dynamic mapping


C)
D)
physical mapping
none of the above
11. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one source; one destination
one source; multiple destinations
multiple sources; one destination
none of the above
12. An ARP request is normally _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcast
multicast
unicast
none of the above
13. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network,
the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the destination IP address in the datagram header
the IP address of the router found in the routing table
either a or b
none of the above
14. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
version
type
group address
none of the above
15. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ARP
RARP
proxy ARP
none of the above
16. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical
logical
a and b
none of the above
17. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another
network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the destination IP address in the datagram header
the IP address of the router found in the routing table
either a or b
none of the above
18. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same
network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the destination IP address in the datagram header
the IP address of the router found in the routing table
either a or b
none of the above
19. IGMP operates __________.









A)
locally
B)
globally
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
20. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related
to each router interface.
A)
broadcast
B)
unicast
C)
multicast
D)
none of the above
21. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group.




A)
B)
C)
D)
does not define a particular
explicitly defines a
can define more than one
none of the above
22. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ARP
RARP
proxy ARP
none of the above
23. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
TCP
ICM
none of the above
24. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data link
transport
network
none of the above
25. An ARP reply is normally _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcast
multicast
unicast
none of the above
26. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given
logical address.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ARP
RARP
both a and b
none of the above
27. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________.



A)
B)
C)
query and error reporting messages
request and response messages
request and reply messages

D)
none of the above
28. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a 16-byte
a 32-byte
an 8-byte
none of the above
29. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
port
IP
Email
none of the above
30. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?




A)
B)
C)
D)
An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment.
An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
none is true
31. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be
accomplished through _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
mapping
queries
tunneling
none of the above
32. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
multicast router
host
multicast group
none of the above
33. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction.

A)
physical



B)
C)
D)
logical
a and b
none of the above
34. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
once
twice
three times
none of the above
1. 2
2. a group management
3. the destination IP address in the datagram header
4. 0x000000000000
5. two membership reports are
6. special query message
7. An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment.
8. IP
9. router; host or router
10. static mapping
11. one source; multiple destinations
12. broadcast
13. the IP address of the router found in the routing table
14. group address
15. proxy ARP
16. physical
17. the IP address of the router found in the routing table
18. the destination IP address in the datagram header
19. locally
20. multicast
21. does not define a particular
22. proxy ARP
23. none of the above
24. network
25. unicast
26. ARP
27. query and error reporting messages
28. an 8-byte
29. IP
30. none is true
31. tunneling
32. multicast group
33. logical
34. twice
MCQs in Network Layer: Delivery, Forwarding and Routing
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different
networks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a connection-oriented
a direct
an indirect
none of the above
2. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical and data link
network
transport
none of the above
3. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Forwarding
Flooding
Backwarding
none of the above
4. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.




A)
B)
C)
D)
source-based
group-shared
a or b
none of the above
5. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one copy
two copies
a or b
none of the above
6. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
interdomain routing
intradomain routing
both a and b
none of the above
7. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.




A)
B)
C)
D)
source-based
group-shared
both a and b
none of the above
8. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicasting
multicasting
broadcasting
none of the above
9. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a sourcebased routing protocol, based on RIP.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MOSPF
DVMRP
CBT
none of the above
10. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for
each group.




A)
B)
C)
D)
average
longest
shortest
none of the above
11. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active
members for that particular group.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RPF
RPB
RPM
none of the above
12. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path vector
distance vector
link state
none of the above
13. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a
specific group through a specific router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
weed
graft
prune
none of the above
14. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one copy
no copies
multiple copies
none of the above
15. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long
delays.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicasting; multiple unicasting
multicasting; multiple unicasting
broadcasting; multicasting
none of the above
16. MOSPF is a _______ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data-driven
command-driven
both a and b
none of the above
17. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicast
multicast
broadcast
none of the above
18. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to
each route.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OSPF
RIP
BGP
none of the above
19. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified
as a _______ communication.



A)
B)
C)
unicast
multicast
broadcast

D)
none of the above
20. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
wide area networks
autonomous networks
autonomous systems
none of the above
21. The metric used by _______ is the hop count.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OSPF
RIP
BGP
none of the above
22. A static table is one _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
with manual entries
which is updated automatically
either a or b
none of the above
23. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table
entries when using ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
classful addressing
classless addressing
both a and b
none of the above
24. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table.




A)
B)
C)
D)
next-hop
network-specific
host-specific
default
25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________
routing.




A)
B)
C)
D)
distance vector
link state
path vector
none of the above
26. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single
administration.




A)
B)
C)
D)
An autonomous system
An area
both a and b
none of the above
27. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting.




A)
B)
C)
D)
only the core router is
all routers are
only some routers are
none of the above
28. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
point-to-point
transient
stub
none of the above
29. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree
that supports dynamic membership changes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RPM; RPB
RPB; RPM
RPF: RPM
none of the above
30. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a
_________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several
routers.


A)
B)
point-to-point
transient


C)
D)
stub
none of the above
31. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based
on _______ routing.




A)
B)
C)
D)
distance vector
link state
path vector
none of the above
32. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree
to possible destinations.




A)
B)
C)
D)
average
longest
shortest
none of the above
33. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the multicast packet inside
a unicast packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UNIBONE
MULTBONE
MBONE
none of the above
34. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Forwarding
Routing
Directing
none of the above
35. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________
message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
open
update
keep alive
none of the above
36. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF
protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on
_______ routing.




A)
B)
C)
D)
distance vector
link state
path vector
none of the above
37. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process.




A)
B)
C)
D)
forwarding
backwarding
flooding
none of the above
38. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing
protocols.




A)
B)
C)
D)
static
dynamic
hierarchical
none of the above
39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is
classified as a _______ communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicast
multicast
broadcast
none of the above
40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a
_______ communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicast
multicast
broadcast
none of the above
41. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually.




A)
B)
C)
D)
static
dynamic
hierarchical
none of the above
42. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN.




A)
B)
C)
D)
dense
sparse
a or b
none of the above
43. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with
_________ and whenever there is a change.




A)
B)
C)
D)
every other node
its immediate neighbors
one neighbor
none of the above
44. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
interdomain routing
intradomain routing
both a and b
none of the above
45. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the
source to the router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
shortest
longest
average
none of the above
46. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous
system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system.



A)
B)
C)
distant vector
path vector
link state

D)
none of the above
47. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.




A)
B)
C)
D)
BGP
RIP
OSPF
none of the above
48. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in
between.




A)
B)
C)
D)
point-to-point
transient
stub
none of the above
49. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead
of complete route information.




A)
B)
C)
D)
next-hop
network-specific
host-specific
default
50. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing
table.




A)
B)
C)
D)
next-hop
network-specific
host-specific
default
51. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RPF
RPB
RPM
none of the above
52. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is
done by _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
input and output ports
routing processor
switching fabrics
none of the above
53. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the
same network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a connectionless
a direct
an indirect
none of the above
54. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the
routing table.




A)
B)
C)
D)
next-hop
network-specific
host-specific
default
55. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for
each group.




A)
B)
C)
D)
group-shared
source-based
a or b
none of the above
56. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables.




A)
B)
C)
D)
reduce
increase
both a and b
none of the above
57. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the
minimum distance.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path vector
distance vector
link state
none of the above
58. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach.




A)
B)
C)
D)
source-based
group-shared
a or b
none of the above
59. A dynamic table is one _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
with manual entries
which is updated automatically
either a or b
none of the above
60. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicasting
multicasting
broadcasting
none of the above
61. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it.




A)
B)
C)
D)
point-to-point
transient
stub
none of the above
62. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.




A)
B)
C)
D)
distance vector
link state
path vector
none of the above
63. An area is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
part of an AS
composed of at least two ASs
another term for an AS
none of the above
64. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask
to the shortest mask.




A)
B)
C)
D)
first mask matching
shortest mask matching
longest mask matching
none of the above
65. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN.




A)
B)
C)
D)
dense
sparse
a or b
none of the above
66. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
physical and data link
network
transport
none of the above
67. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a
specific group through a specific router.




A)
B)
C)
D)
weed
graft
prune
none of the above
1. an indirect
2. physical and data link
3. Flooding
4. group-shared
5. none of the above
6. interdomain routing
7. source-based
8. multicasting
9. DVMRP
10. shortest
11. RPM
12. distance vector
13. graft
14. one copy
15. multicasting; multiple unicasting
16. data-driven
17. broadcast
18. OSPF
19. broadcast
20. autonomous systems
21. RIP
22. with manual entries
23. classless addressing
24. host-specific
25. distance vector
26. An autonomous system
27. only the core router is
28. stub
29. RPM; RPB
30. none of the above
31. link state
32. shortest
33. MBONE
34. Routing
35. open
36. link state
37. none of the above
38. dynamic
39. multicast
40. unicast
41. static
42. dense
43. its immediate neighbors
44. intradomain routing
45. shortest
46. path vector
47. BGP
48. point-to-point
49. next-hop
50. network-specific
51. RPM
52. switching fabrics
53. a direct
54. default
55. source-based
56. reduce
57. distance vector
58. source-based
59. which is updated automatically
60. unicasting
61. transient
62. link state
63. part of an AS
64. longest mask matching
65. sparse
66. network
67. prune
MCQs in Process-to-Process Delivery: UDP, TCP, and SCTP
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the _______ field.




A)
B)
C)
D)
control
offset
sequence number
none of the above
2. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
limited-size
sliding
fixed-size
none of the above
3. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data link
network
transport
none of the above
4. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
half-close
half-open
one-way termination
none of the above
5. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data chunk
control chunk
a or b
none of the above
6. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
negotiation
association
transmission
none of the above
7. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s).




A)
B)
C)
D)
no
one
two
none of the above
8. The association identifier in SCTP is __________________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a unique verification tag
a combination of logical and port addresses
either a or b
none of the above
9. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a TSN
an SI
an SSN
none of the above
10. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The
numbering starts with a __________________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
0
1
randomly generated number
none of the above
11. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
application
transport
IP
none of the above
12. SCTP allows __________ service in each association.




A)
B)
C)
D)
single stream
multistream
double stream
none of the above
13. TCP is a ___________ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
connection-oriented
connectionless
both a and b
none of the above
14. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on
one host.




A)
B)
C)
D)
flow control
multiplexing
demultiplexing
none of the above
15. Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the
same speed, TCP ________.

A)
speeds up the slower process



B)
C)
D)
slows down the faster process
uses buffers
none of the above
16. SCTP association allows _____________ for each end.




A)
B)
C)
D)
only one IP address
multiple IP addresses
only two IP address
none of the above
17. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application
process.




A)
B)
C)
D)
port
application
internet
none of the above
18. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
after
before
a or b
none of the above
19. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unreliable
best-effort delivery
reliable
none of the above
20. TCP delivers _______ out-of-order segments to the process.




A)
B)
C)
D)
all
no
some
none of the above
21. Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP
header.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
4
6
none of the above
22. Which of the following does UDP guarantee?




A)
B)
C)
D)
flow control
connection-oriented delivery
either a or b
none of the above
23. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes and allows the
receiving process to obtain data as a _________ of bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
message; message
stream; stream
block; block
none of the above
24. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses
___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TSNs
SIs
SSNs
none of the above
25. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port
numbers. They are called the ________ ports.




A)
B)
C)
D)
well-known
registered
dynamic
none of the above
26. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing _______
communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
node-to-node
process-to-process
host-to-host
none of the above
27. The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport address
network address
socket address
none of the above
28. The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10
20
40
none of the above
29. A port address in UDP is _______bits long.




A)
B)
C)
D)
8
16
32
none of the above
30. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
no
none of the above
31. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
optional
mandatory
at the discretion of the application program
none of the above
32. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
one
none of the above
33. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an acknowledgment mechanism
out-of-band signaling
the services of another protocol
none of the above
34. ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______ acknowledged.




A)
B)
C)
D)
no; are not
one; are not
no; are
none of the above
35. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge _____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
both data chunks and control chunks
only control chunks
only data chunks
none of the above
36. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the sending computer
the receiving computer
the process running on the sending computer
none of the above
37. __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send before receiving
an acknowledgment from the destination.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Error
Flow
Congestion
none of the above
38. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
four
two
three
none of the above
39. The value of the window size is determined by _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the sender
the receiver
both the sender and receiver
none of the above
40. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence
number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in that segment.




A)
B)
C)
D)
first
last
middle
none of the above
41. An SCTP packet can carry __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
only one data chunk
several data chunks
no data chunks
none of the above
42. UDP is an acronym for _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
User Delivery Protocol
User Datagram Procedure
User Datagram Protocol
none of the above
43. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).



A)
B)
C)
no
three
two

D)
none of the above
44. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
user datagram
segment
datagram
none of the above
45. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because ________________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
there are no options in the general header
the size of the header is fixed
both a and b
none of the above
46. Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two-way
four-way
one-way
none of the above
47. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an Ethernet frame
an TCP segment
an IP datagram
none of the above
48. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits.




A)
B)
C)
D)
16
32
64
none of the above
49. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.


A)
B)
packet
segment


C)
D)
byte
none of the above
50. If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this is called _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
backpacking
piggybacking
piggypacking
none of the above
51. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.




A)
B)
C)
D)
199
200
201
none of the above
52. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
an IP datagram
an Ethernet frame
a UDP user datagram
none of the above
53. TCP is a __________protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
stream-oriented
message-oriented
block-oriented
none of the above
54. UDP packets are called __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
user datagrams
segments
frames
none of the above
55. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer.

A)
application



B)
C)
D)
transport
IP
none of the above
56. In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in _______ chunks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
the same chunk
different chunks
either a or b
none of the above
57. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
packets; segments
segments; packets
segments; frames
none of the above
58. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a ______
communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
host-to-host
process-to-process
node-to-node
none of the above
59. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
header control field
control chunks
data chunks
none of the above
60. Communication in TCP is ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
simplex
half-duplex
full-duplex
none of the above
61. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
reliable, character-oriented
reliable, message-oriented
unreliable, message-oriented
none of the above
62. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a TSN
an SI
an SSN
none of the above
63. Which of the following functions does UDP perform?




A)
B)
C)
D)
process-to-process communication
host-to-host communication
end-to-end reliable data delivery
none of the above
64. IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is responsible for _______
communication.




A)
B)
C)
D)
host-to-host; process-to-process
process-to-process; host-to-host
process-to-process; network-to-network
none of the above
65. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security
problem called the _________ attack.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ACK flooding
FIN flooding
SYN flooding
none of the above
66. UDP is called a _____________transport protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
connectionless, reliable
connection-oriented, unreliable
connectionless, unreliable
none of the above
67. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk.




A)
B)
C)
D)
only data chunks
only control chunks
no other chunk
none of the above
68. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
16
8
40
none of the above
69. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____
attack.




A)
B)
C)
D)
denial of service
replay
man-in-the middle
none of the above
70. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
delivery is complete
a transport layer protocol takes over
a header is added
none of the above
71. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number of the
______byte a party expects to receive.




A)
B)
C)
D)
first
last
next
none of the above
72. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).


A)
B)
no
one


C)
D)
two
none of the above
73. The acknowledgment number is ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
independent
randomly generated
cumulative
none of the above
74. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the
processes, we need second identifiers called ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP addresses
transport addresses
port addresses
none of the above
75. Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process communication, the
most common is through the __________ paradigm.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client-server
client-client
server-server
none of the above
76. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of states.




A)
B)
C)
D)
infinite state
finite state
both a and b
none of the above
77. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes
on the same host.




A)
B)
C)
D)
flow control
multiplexing
demultiplexing
none of the above
1. control
2. sliding
3. transport
4. half-close
5. control chunk
6. association
7. no
8. a unique verification tag
9. a TSN
10. randomly generated number
11. application
12. multistream
13. connection-oriented
14. multiplexing
15. uses buffers
16. multiple IP addresses
17. port
18. before
19. reliable
20. no
21. 4
22. none of the above
23. stream; stream
24. SSNs
25. dynamic
26. process-to-process
27. socket address
28. 40
29. 16
30. none of the above
31. mandatory
32. one
33. an acknowledgment mechanism
34. no; are not
35. only data chunks
36. the process running on the sending computer
37. Flow
38. two
39. the receiver
40. first
41. several data chunks
42. User Datagram Protocol
43. none of the above
44. segment
45. both a and b
46. none of the above
47. an IP datagram
48. 32
49. byte
50. piggybacking
51. 199
52. an IP datagram
53. stream-oriented
54. user datagrams
55. IP
56. different chunks
57. segments; packets
58. process-to-process
59. control chunks
60. full-duplex
61. reliable, message-oriented
62. an SI
63. process-to-process communication
64. host-to-host; process-to-process
65. SYN flooding
66. connectionless, unreliable
67. no other chunk
68. 8
69. denial of service
70. a transport layer protocol takes over
71. next
72. one
73. cumulative
74. port addresses
75. client-server
76. finite state
77. demultiplexing
MCQs in Congestion Control and Quality of Service
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different degrees.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Reliability
Delay
Jitter
Bandwidth
2. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
peak data rate
maximum burst size
effective bandwidth
none of the above
3. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits per second.




A)
B)
C)
D)
access rate
committed burst size
committed information rate
excess burst size
4. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it
happens.




A)
B)
C)
D)
open-loop
closed-loop
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
5. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.




A)
B)
C)
D)
congestion control
quality of service
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
6. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing a packet or
acknowledgment, which entails retransmission.


A)
B)
Reliability
Delay


C)
D)
Jitter
Bandwidth
7. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
increases sharply
increases proportionally with the load
declines sharply
declines proportionally with the load
8. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and admitted to
different queues. The queues, however, are weighted based on the priority of the queues;
higher priority means a higher weight. The system processes packets in each queue in a
round-robin fashion with the number of packets selected from each queue based on the
corresponding weight.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FIFO
priority
weighted fair
none of the above
9. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not guarantee
anything.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CBR
VBR
ABR
UBR
10. The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic is generated at
the peak rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
peak data rate
maximum burst size
effective bandwidth
none of the above
11. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it
happens.

A)
open-loop



B)
C)
D)
closed-loop
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
12. _______ happens in any system that involves waiting.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Congestion
Jamming
Error
none of the above
13. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases
exponentially until it reaches a threshold.




A)
B)
C)
D)
slow-start
congestion avoidance
congestion detection
none of the above
14. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
access rate
committed burst size
committed information rate
excess burst size
15. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped to one-half, a
multiplicative decrease.




A)
B)
C)
D)
slow-start
congestion avoidance
congestion detection
none of the above
16. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define a flow
specification.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Integrated Services
Differentiated Services
Connectionless
Connection-Oriented
17. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change.




A)
B)
C)
D)
constant bit rate
variable bit rate
bursty
none of the above
18. ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Reliability
Delay
Jitter
Bandwidth
19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion.




A)
B)
C)
D)
backpressure
choke packet
implicit signaling
explicit signaling
20. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more network capacity
is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CBR
VBR
ABR
UBR
21. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time, with the
changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp.




A)
B)
C)
D)
constant bit rate
variable bit rate
bursty
none of the above
22. In __________, there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and
the source. The source guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from
other symptoms.




A)
B)
C)
D)
backpressure
choke packet
implicit signaling
explicit signaling
23. In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
increases sharply
decreases sharply
remains constant
cannot be predicted
24. The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in which a
congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes.




A)
B)
C)
D)
backpressure
choke packet
implicit signaling
explicit signaling
25. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. Each class has its
own queue.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FIFO
priority
weighted fair
none of the above
26. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node (router or switch) is
ready to process them.




A)
B)
C)
D)
FIFO
priority
weighted fair
none of the above
27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a flow.



A)
B)
C)
two
three
four

D)
five
28. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in excess of Bc that a
user can send during a predefined time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
access rate
committed burst size
committed information rate
excess burst size
29. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the throughput
______________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
increases sharply
increases proportionally with the load
declines sharply
declines proportionally with the load
30. In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
backpressure
choke packet
implicit signaling
explicit signaling
31. In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, the delay is
_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
at a maximum
at a minimum
constant
none of the above
32. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and switches have
_______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
tables
queues
crosspoints
none of the above
33. In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the traffic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
congestion control
quality of service
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
34. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in the network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
BECN
FECN
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
35. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of congestion in the
network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
BECN
FECN
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
36. The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak data rate, and
maximum burst size.




A)
B)
C)
D)
peak data rate
maximum burst size
effective bandwidth
none of the above
37. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases
additively until congestion is detected.




A)
B)
C)
D)
slow-start
congestion avoidance
congestion detection
none of the above
38. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBR-RT) and
non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need real-time services
(such as voice and video transmission) and use compression techniques to create a
variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not need real-time services
but use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CBR
VBR
ABR
UBR
39. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow.




A)
B)
C)
D)
controls
descriptors
values
none of the above
40. _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Integrated Services
Differentiated Services
Connectionless
Connection-Oriented
41. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and sent out at
an average rate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
leaky
token
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
42. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit for the future in the
form of tokens.




A)
B)
C)
D)
leaky
token
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
43. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or
video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CBR
VBR
ABR
UBR
44. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
constant bit rate
variable bit rate
bursty
none of the above
45. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a predefined time
that the network is committed to transfer without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit.




A)
B)
C)
D)
access rate
committed burst size
committed information rate
excess burst size
1. Delay
2. peak data rate
3. committed information rate
4. open-loop
5. congestion control
6. Reliability
7. declines sharply
8. weighted fair
9. UBR
10. maximum burst size
11. closed-loop
12. Congestion
13. slow-start
14. access rate
15. congestion detection
16. Integrated Services
17. constant bit rate
18. Jitter
19. choke packet
20. ABR
21. variable bit rate
22. implicit signaling
23. increases sharply
24. backpressure
25. priority
26. FIFO
27. four
28. excess burst size
29. increases proportionally with the load
30. explicit signaling
31. at a minimum
32. queues
33. quality of service
34. BECN
35. FECN
36. effective bandwidth
37. congestion avoidance
38. VBR
39. descriptors
40. Differentiated Services
41. leaky
42. token
43. CBR
44. bursty
45. committed burst size
MCQs in Domain Name System
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
semicolons
dots
colons
none of the above
2. A ________ server loads all information from the primary server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
primary
secondary
zone
none of the above
3. The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible labels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
10
12
16
none of the above
4. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PQDN
FQDN
SQDN
none of the above
5. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
domain
label
zone
none of the above
6. DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
TCP
either (a) or (b)
none of the above
7. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label.




A)
B)
C)
D)
chal
atc
fhda
none of the above
8. The root of the DNS tree is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a string of characters
a string of 63 characters
an empty string
none of the above
9. When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
domain
zone
label
none of the above
10. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.




A)
B)
C)
D)
domain server
zone server
root server
none of the above
11. A pointer query involves the _______ domain.




A)
B)
C)
D)
inverse
reverse
root
none of the above
12. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum of ___
characters.




A)
B)
C)
D)
label; 127
name; 255
label; 63
none of the above
13. To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed.




A)
B)
C)
D)
domain space
domain name
domain name space
none of the above
14. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior.




A)
B)
C)
D)
generic
country
inverse
none of the above
15. In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts.




A)
B)
C)
D)
flat
hierarchical
organized
none of the above
16. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this space is a
sequence of characters without structure.


A)
B)
flat
hierarchical


C)
D)
organized
Connection-Oriented
17. The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name.




A)
B)
C)
D)
generic
country
inverse
none of the above
18. The ____________ domain section uses two-character country abbreviations.




A)
B)
C)
D)
generic
country
inverse
Bandwidth
19. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.




A)
B)
C)
D)
label
name
domain
none of the above
20. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a linear list
an inverted-tree
a graph
none of the above
21. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
PQDN
FQDN
SQDN
none of the above
22. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ different sections:

A)
three



B)
C)
D)
two
four
none of the above
23. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks
can resolve the query.




A)
B)
C)
D)
iterative
recursive
straight
none of the above
24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific label.




A)
B)
C)
D)
chal
atc
edu
none of the above
25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level of the DNS
hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.)




A)
B)
C)
D)
third
fourth
fifth
none of the above
26. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
iterative
recursive
straight
none of the above
27. A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.




A)
B)
C)
D)
primary
secondary
zone
none of the above
1. dots
2. secondary
3. none of the above
4. PQDN
5. zone
6. either UDP or TCP
7. chal
8. an empty string
9. zone
10. root server
11. inverse
12. label; 63
13. domain name space
14. generic
15. hierarchical
16. flat
17. inverse
18. country
19. domain
20. an inverted-tree
21. FQDN
22. three
23. iterative
24. edu
25. fifth
26. recursive
27. primary
MCQs in Remote Logging, Electronic Mail, and File Transfer
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we
need ___________________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs
two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs
none of the above
2. The actual mail transfer is done through ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UAs
MTAs
MAAs
none of the above
3. If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WILL
DO
WONT
none of the above
4. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need
______________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two MTA
two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
two UAs and a pair of MTAs
none of the above
5. The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver address, and other
information.


A)
B)
message
envelope


C)
D)
both a and b
none of the above
6. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
sending; receiving
request; reply
data; control
none of the above
7. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
file type
data structure
transmission mode
none of the above
8. The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
pull
push
both a and b
none of the above
9. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a file from one host
to another.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TELNET
SMTP
TFTP
none of the above
10. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
default
character
line
none of the above
11. The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the remote system
to receive characters from a TELNET server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
terminal driver
pseudoterminal driver
TELNET client
none of the above
12. FTP uses the services of ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
IP
TCP
none of the above
13. For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set.




A)
B)
C)
D)
regular ASCII
EBCDIC
NVT ASCII
none of the above
14. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
retrieve a file
store a file
retrieve a list
none of the above
15. During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
exactly once
exactly twice
as many times as necessary
none of the above
16. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is an
interactive connection between a user (human) and a server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
maximize throughput
minimize delay
minimize error
none of the above
17. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote
machine, he or she performs ___________ login.




A)
B)
C)
D)
local
remote
temporary
none of the above
18. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UA
MTA
MAA
none of the above
19. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port and the client
uses ________ port.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a well-known; another well-known
an ephemeral; another ephemeral
a well-known; an ephemeral
none of the above
20. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
0
a or b
none of the above
21. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called
___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SMTP
SNMP
TELNET
none of the above
22. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through
email.




A)
B)
C)
D)
JPEG
MPEG
MIME
none of the above
23. Which of the following services is not provided by a UA?




A)
B)
C)
D)
composing messages
reading messages
replying messages
all are
24. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WILL
DO
WONT
none of the above
25. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client.




A)
B)
C)
D)
retrieve a file
retrieve a list
a and b
none of the above
26. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
terminal network
telephone network
telecommunication network
none of the above
27. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login.




A)
B)
C)
D)
local
remote
temporary
none of the above
28. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver names?




A)
B)
C)
D)
envelope
address
header
none of the above
29. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission restrictions.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A message
A response
An agent
none of the above
30. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending and receiving a
message easier.




A)
B)
C)
D)
An MTA
An MAA
A UA
none of the above
31. The message contains the ________ and the __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
header; envelop
header; body
envelop; body
none of the above
32. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing, and so on) is
done by the client.




A)
B)
C)
D)
default
character
line
none of the above
33. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the body of the
message.



A)
B)
C)
content-type
content-transfer-encoding
content-description

D)
none of the above
34. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WILL
DO
WONT
none of the above
35. SMTP is a __________protocol.




A)
B)
C)
D)
pull
push
both a and b
none of the above
36. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed.




A)
B)
C)
D)
file types
data structures
transmission modes
none of the above
37. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1
0
a or b
none of the above
38. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating
system.




A)
B)
C)
D)
terminal driver
TELNET client
TELNET server
none of the above
39. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only
___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one UA
two UAs
one UA and one MTA
none of the above
40. In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
local part; domain name
global part; domain name
label; domain name
none of the above
41. To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters is
preceded by a special control character called ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ICA
IAC
AIC
none of the above
42. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only
_____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one MTA
two UAs
two UAs and one pair of MTAs
none of the above
43. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
exactly once
exactly twice
as many times as necessary
none of the above
44. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command.




A)
B)
C)
D)
WILL
DO
DONT
none of the above
45. The _______ translates local characters into NVT form.




A)
B)
C)
D)
terminal driver
TELNET client
TELNET server
none of the above
46. Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
POP3; IMAP2
POP4; IMAP1
POP3; IMAP4
none of the above
47. TELNET is a ________ client-server application program.




A)
B)
C)
D)
specific-purpose
general-purpose
both a and b
none of the above
48. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are
types of an attribute called _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
file types
data structures
transmission modes
none of the above
49. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ phases.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
four
five
none of the above
50. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the well-known
port ________ for the data connection.


A)
B)
21; 22
21; 20


C)
D)
20; 21
none of the above
51. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client.




A)
B)
C)
D)
default
character
line
none of the above
52. There are two types of user agents: _________ and ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
command-driven; data-driven
command-driven; GUI-based
command-based and data-based
none of the above
53. _______ is more powerful and complex than _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
POP3; IMAP4
IMAP4; POP3
SMTP; POP3
none of the above
1. two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
2. MTAs
3. DO
4. two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
5. envelope
6. data; control
7. file type
8. pull
9. none of the above
10. character
11. pseudoterminal driver
12. TCP
13. NVT ASCII
14. store a file
15. as many times as necessary
16. minimize delay
17. remote
18. MAA
19. a well-known; an ephemeral
20. 1
21. SMTP
22. MIME
23. all are
24. WILL
25. retrieve file and retrieve list
26. terminal network
27. local
28. header
29. none of the above
30. A UA
31. header; body
32. line
33. content-description
34. WONT
35. push
36. transmission modes
37. 0
38. TELNET server
39. two UAs
40. local part; domain name
41. IAC
42. two UAs and one pair of MTAs
43. exactly once
44. DONT
45. TELNET client
46. POP3; IMAP4
47. general-purpose
48. data structures
49. none of the above
50. 21; 20
51. default
52. command-driven; GUI-based
53. IMAP4; POP3
MCQs in WWW and HTTP
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. A user needs to send the server some information. The request line method is _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
OPTION
PATCH
POST
none of the above
2. In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the document.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path
protocol
host
none of the above
3. A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser requests the
document.




A)
B)
C)
D)
static
dynamic
active
none of the above
4. One way to create an active document is to use __________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CGI
Java stand-alone programs
Java applets
none of the above
5. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client; client
client; server
server; server
none of the above
6. A _______ document is a fixed-content document that is created and stored in a server.
The client can get a copy of the document only.




A)
B)
C)
D)
static
dynamic
active
none of the above
7. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the Internet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
URL
ULR
RLU
none of the above
8. _________ is a repository of information linked together from points all over the world.




A)
B)
C)
D)
The WWW
HTTP
HTML
none of the above
9. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?




A)
B)
C)
D)
HTTP version number
URL
status code
none of the above
10. Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents.



A)
B)
C)
client-site
server-site
both a and b

D)
none of the above
11. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
IP
TCP
none of the above
12. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client-site
server-site
both a and b
none of the above
13. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the client site. These
are called _______________ documents.




A)
B)
C)
D)
static
dynamic
active
none of the above
14. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent
requests.




A)
B)
C)
D)
regular
proxy
both a and b
none of the above
15. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about a document
without retrieving the document itself.




A)
B)
C)
D)
HEAD
POST
COPY
none of the above
16. A response message always contains _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a header and a body
a request line and a header
a status line and a header
none of the above
17. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and the path, and it is
separated from the host by a colon.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path
protocol
host
none of the above
18. An applet is _______ document application program.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a static
an active
a passive
a dynamic
19. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad categories.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
four
none of the above
20. _____________ is a language for creating Web pages.




A)
B)
C)
D)
HTTP
HTML
FTTP
none of the above
21. ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents.




A)
B)
C)
D)
GIC
CGI
GCI
none of the above
22. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the
server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
GET
POST
COPY
none of the above
23. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests
after sending a response.




A)
B)
C)
D)
persistent
nonpersistent
both a and b
none of the above
24. An HTTP request message always contains _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a header and a body
a request line and a header
a status line, a header, and a body
none of the above
25. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response.




A)
B)
C)
D)
persistent
nonpersistent
both a and b
none of the above
26. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information is located.




A)
B)
C)
D)
path
protocol
host
none of the above
27. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located.


A)
B)
path
protocol


C)
D)
host
none of the above
28. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default.




A)
B)
C)
D)
persistent
nonpersistent
both a and b
none of the above
29. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the
response message is called the ________ line.




A)
B)
C)
D)
request; response
response; request
response; status
none of the above
30. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser
can access a service using a server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1. POST
2. protocol
3. dynamic
4. Java applets
5. server; server
6. static
limited
vast
distributed
none of the above
7. URL
8. The WWW
9. HTTP version number
10. client-site
11. TCP
12. server-site
13. active
14. proxy
15. HEAD
16. a status line and a header
17. none of the above
18. an active
19. three
20. HTML
21. CGI
22. GET
23. persistent
24. a request line and a header
25. nonpersistent
26. path
27. host
28. persistent
29. none of the above
30. distributed
MCQs in Network Management: SNMP
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client
server
both a and b
none of the above
2. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.

A)
Response



B)
C)
D)
GetRequest
SetRequest
none of the above
3. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the
network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MIB
ANS.1
BER
none of the above
4. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is handled by _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SMNP
MIB
SMI
none of the above
5. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SMNP
MIB
SMI
none of the above
6. The _______ data types are atomic data types.




A)
B)
C)
D)
structure
simple
both a and b
none of the above
7. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.




A)
B)
C)
D)
GetRequest
SetRequest
Trap
none of the above
8. Which is a manager duty?




A)
B)
C)
D)
Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.
Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
a and b
none of the above
9. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks have actions performed by statements. In network management this is handled by
_______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SMNP
MIB
SMI
none of the above
10. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client
server
both a and b
none of the above
11. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an event.




A)
B)
C)
D)
server; client
client; server
network; host
none of the above
12. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier
based on a _______ structure.




A)
B)
C)
D)
linear
tree
graph
none of the above
13. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object Identifier are _______ definitions used by SMI.

A)
MIB



B)
C)
D)
SNMP
ASN.1
none of the above
14. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response to GetRequest
or GetNextRequest.




A)
B)
C)
D)
server; client
client; server
network; host
none of the above
15. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and
_________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
name; data type; size
name; size; encoding method
name; data type; encoding method
none of the above
16. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
161; 162
160; 161
160; 162
none of the above
17. SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MIB; SMTP
SMI; MIB
FTP; SMI
none of the above
18. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP server program.




A)
B)
C)
D)
A manager; a manager
An agent; an agent
A manager; an agent
An agent; a manager
19. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
variable; table
table; variable
variable; variable contents
none of the above
20. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables and their
corresponding values.




A)
B)
C)
D)
version
community
VarBindList
none of the above
21. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
sequence; atomic
sequence; sequence of
a sequence of; array
none of the above
22. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
community
enterprise
error status
none of the above
23. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object identifier always
starts with _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1.3.6.1.2.1
1.3.6.1.2.2
1.3.6.1.2.3
none of the above
24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier?


A)
B)
1.3.6.1.2.1.1
1.3.6.1.2.2.1


C)
D)
2.3.6.1.2.1.2
none of the above
25. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
simple; complex
simple; structured
structured; unstructured
none of the above
26. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in error.




A)
B)
C)
D)
community
enterprise
error index
none of the above
27. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an agent and
vice versa.




A)
B)
C)
D)
format of the packets
encoding of the packets
number of packets
none of the above
28. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________ to retrieve the value
of a variable or a set of variables.




A)
B)
C)
D)
client; server
server; client
server; network
none of the above
29. The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of variables one after
another by defining the first variable.




A)
B)
C)
D)
lexicographic
linear
non-linear
none of the above
30. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new
definitions.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AMS.1
ASN.1
ASN.2
none of the above
31. ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode objects and values.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MIB
BER
SMI
none of the above
32. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length?




A)
B)
C)
D)
1. client
2. Response
3. BER
4. MIB
5. SMI
6. simple
7. Trap
127
128
255
none of the above
8. a and b
9. SMNP
10. server
11. server; client
12. tree
13. ASN.1
14. server; client
15. name; data type; encoding method
16. 161; 162
17. SMI; MIB
18. A manager; an agent
19. variable; variable contents
20. VarBindList
21. sequence; sequence of
22. error status
23. 1.3.6.1.2.1
24. 1.3.6.1.2.1.1
25. simple; structured
26. error index
27. format of the packets
28. client; server
29. lexicographic
30. ASN.1
31. SMI
32. 127
MCQs in Multimedia
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone network to talk to
computers connected to the Internet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SIP
H.323
Q.991
none of the above
2. When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the mixer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
synchronization source
contributor
timestamp
none of the above
3. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the Internet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TCP
UDP
RTP
none of the above
4. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
error caused during transmission
delay between packets
both a and b
none of the above
5. In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the client sites.




A)
B)
C)
D)
unicast
multicast
broadcast
none of the above
6. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
a UDP user datagram
a TCP segment
an IP datagram
none of the above
7. A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower quality
narrow-bandwidth signal.



A)
B)
C)
timestamp
sequence number
translator

D)
none of the above
8. ____________ is used to compress video.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MPEG
JPEG
either a or b
none of the above
9. Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
broadcasting
multicasting
both a and b
none of the above
10. _______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Timestamps
Playback buffers
Sequence numbers
none of the above
11. The third phase of JPEG is ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DCT transformation
quantization
data compression
none of the above
12. The second phase of JPEG is ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DCT transformation
quantization
data compression
none of the above
13. A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic.


A)
B)
timestamp
sequence number


C)
D)
both a and b
none of the above
14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate the arrival time
from the playback time.




A)
B)
C)
D)
error
jitter
either a or b
none of the above
15. __________ means combining several streams of traffic into one stream.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Translation
Mixing
both a and b
none of the above
16. A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system, the viewer
spends _______ minutes watching the performance.




A)
B)
C)
D)
less than 10
more than 10
exactly 10
none of the above
17. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV programs through
the Internet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Interactive
Streaming live
Streaming stored
none of the above
18. __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower quality to match the
bandwidth of the receiving network.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Translation
Mixing
both a and b
none of the above
19. ____________ is used to compress images.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MPEG
JPEG
either a or b
none of the above
20. A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
playback
reordering
sorting
none of the above
21. In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are encoded instead of
encoding all the sampled values.




A)
B)
C)
D)
predictive
perceptual
both a and b
none of the above
22. __________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which is the study of
how people perceive sound.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Predictive
Perceptual
both a and b
none of the above
23. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive audio/video
applications.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Interactive
Streaming live
Streaming stored
none of the above
24. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal ________times
the highest frequency.




A)
B)
C)
D)
three
two
four
none of the above
25. ___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates a
multimedia session.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RIP
SIP
DIP
none of the above
26. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it retransmits
packets in case of errors.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
TCP
both a and b
none of the above
27. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port number
selected for RTP.




A)
B)
C)
D)
UDP
TCP
both a and b
none of the above
28. We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories.




A)
B)
C)
D)
three
two
four
none of the above
29. RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port.



A)
B)
C)
UDP
TCP
both a and b

D)
none of the above
30. ________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests for compressed audio/video files.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Streaming live
Streaming stored
Interactive
none of the above
31. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RTP
RTCP
UDP
none of the above
32. A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single signal.




A)
B)
C)
D)
timestamp
sequence number
mixer
none of the above
33. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first or previous
packet.




A)
B)
C)
D)
timestamp
playback buffer
sequence number
none of the above
34. The first phase of JPEG is ___________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
DCT transformation
quantization
data compression
none of the above
1. H.323
2. synchronization source
3. RTP
4. delay between packets
5. multicast
6. a UDP user datagram
7. translator
8. MPEG
9. multicasting
10. Sequence numbers
11. data compression
12. quantization
13. both timestamp and sequence number
14. jitter
15. Mixing
16. more than 10
17. Streaming live
18. Translation
19. JPEG
20. playback
21. predictive
22. Perceptual
23. Interactive
24. two
25. SIP
26. TCP
27. UDP
28. three
29. UDP
30. Streaming stored
31. RTCP
32. mixer
33. timestamp
34. DCT transformation
MCQs in Cryptography
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ algorithm.




A)
B)
C)
D)
RSS
RAS
RSA
RAA
2. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext.




A)
B)
C)
D)
encryption
decryption
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
3. The ________ is the message after transformation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ciphertext
plaintext
secret-text
none of the above
4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext.




A)
B)
C)
D)
encryption
decryption
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
5. The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Diffie-Hellman
RSA
DES
AES
6. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a
formula to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream.




A)
B)
C)
D)
S-box
P-box
T-box
none of the above
7. A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character.




A)
B)
C)
D)
substitution
transposition
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
8. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a ciphertext.




A)
B)
C)
D)
substitution
transposition
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
9. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of
data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AEE
AED
AER
AES
10. The ________is the original message before transformation.




A)
B)
C)
D)
ciphertext
plaintext
secret-text
none of the above
11. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a combination of different
simple ciphers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
round
circle
square
none of the above
12. The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman method if two
parties are not authenticated to each other.




A)
B)
C)
D)
man-in-the-middle
ciphertext attack
plaintext attack
none of the above
13. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called a
________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
cipher
secret
key
none of the above
14. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key.




A)
B)
C)
D)
private
public
either a or b
neither (a) nor (b)
15. AES has _____ different configurations.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
four
five
16. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government.

A)
symmetric-key



B)
C)
D)
asymmetric-key
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
17. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys.




A)
B)
C)
D)
32-bit
48-bit
54-bit
42-bit
18. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transposition
additive
shift
none of the above
19. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.




A)
B)
C)
D)
block
stream
field
none of the above
20. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a
table to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream.




A)
B)
C)
D)
S-box
P-box
T-box
none of the above
21. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Double
Triple
Quadruple
none of the above
22. ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure and
immune to attacks.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Cryptography
Cryptoanalysis
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
23. DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds.




A)
B)
C)
D)
14
15
16
none of the above
24. The DES function has _______ components.




A)
B)
C)
D)
2
3
4
5
25. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and receiver.




A)
B)
C)
D)
symmetric-key
asymmetric-key
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
26. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories: monoalphabetic and
polyalphabetic.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Substitution
Transposition
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
27. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular arithmetic
with a modulus of 26.

A)
transposition



B)
C)
D)
additive
shift
none of the above
28. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key.




A)
B)
C)
D)
private
public
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
29. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used.




A)
B)
C)
D)
symmetric-key
asymmetric-key
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
30. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates.




A)
B)
C)
D)
cipher
secret
key
none of the above
31. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key.




A)
B)
C)
D)
1. RSA
2. decryption
3. ciphertext
4. encryption
5. Diffie-Hellman
6. S-box
symmetric-key
asymmetric-key
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
7. substitution
8. transposition
9. AES
10. plaintext
11. round
12. man-in-the-middle
13. cipher
14. private
15. three
16. symmetric-key
17. 48-bit
18. shift
19. block
20. P-box
21. Triple
22. Cryptography
23. 16
24. 4
25. symmetric-key
26. Substitution
27. shift
28. public
29. asymmetric-key
30. key
31. symmetric-key
MCQs in Network Security
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.




A)
B)
C)
D)
confidentiality
integrity
authentication
none of the above
2. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming from
the intended sender, not an imposter.




A)
B)
C)
D)
confidentiality
integrity
authentication
none of the above
3. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
encryption
decryption
hash
none of the above
4. The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key when two
members contact KDC.




A)
B)
C)
D)
public
session
complimentary
none of the above
5. The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be forged.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-wayness
weak-collision-resistance
strong-collision-resistance
none of the above
6. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two parties.




A)
B)
C)
D)
KDC
CA
KDD
none of the above
7. A witness used in entity authentication is ____________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
something known
something possessed
something inherent
all of the above
8. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC.




A)
B)
C)
D)
keyless
keyed
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
9. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the center.




A)
B)
C)
D)
CA
KDC
KDD
none of the above
10. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the system's
resources.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Message authentication
Entity authentication
Message confidentiality
none of the above
11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ signature is a separate
entity.


A)
B)
conventional; digital
digital; digital


C)
D)
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
12. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the scheme.




A)
B)
C)
D)
integrity
confidentiality
nonrepudiation
authentication
13. Digital signature provides ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
authentication
nonrepudiation
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
14. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
integrity
confidentiality
nonrepudiation
authentication
15. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
MDC
MAC
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
16. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a message.




A)
B)
C)
D)
message digest
message summary
encrypted message
none of the above
17. Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________.

A)
symmetric-key ciphers



B)
C)
D)
asymmetric-key ciphers
keyed-hash functions
all of the above
18. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that hash to the same
digest.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-wayness
weak-collision-resistance
strong-collision-resistance
none of the above
19. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system.




A)
B)
C)
D)
symmetric-key
asymmetric-key
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
20. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key to an entity and
issues a certificate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
KDC
Kerberos
CA
none of the above
21. Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy.




A)
B)
C)
D)
confidentiality
integrity
authentication
none of the above
22. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a secret without
actually sending it.




A)
B)
C)
D)
password-based
challenge-response
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
23. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one of the three kinds
of witnesses.




A)
B)
C)
D)
message authentication
entity authentication
message confidentiality
message integrity
24. The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or impossible to create
the message if the message digest is given.




A)
B)
C)
D)
one-wayness
weak-collision-resistance
strong-collision-resistance
none of the above
25. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key certification.




A)
B)
C)
D)
KDC
PKI
CA
none of the above
26. _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he
sent.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Confidentiality
Integrity
Authentication
Nonrepudiation
27. A hash function must meet ________ criteria.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
four
none of the above
28. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an authentication
server and a ticket-granting server.




A)
B)
C)
D)
KDC
Kerberos
CA
none of the above
29. Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories: _______ and
_______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
fixed; variable
time-stamped; fixed
fixed; one-time
none of the above
1. integrity
2. authentication
3. hash
4. session
5. weak-collision-resistance
6. KDC
7. all of the above
8. keyless
9. KDC
10. Entity authentication
11. conventional; digital
12. confidentiality
13. both authentication and nonrepudiation
14. confidentiality
15. MAC
16. message digest
17. all of the above
18. strong-collision-resistance
19. asymmetric-key
20. CA
21. confidentiality
22. challenge-response
23. entity authentication
24. one-wayness
25. CA
26. Nonrepudiation
27. three
28. Kerberos
29. fixed; one-time
MCQs in Security in the Internet: IPSec, SSL/TLS, PGP, VPN, and Firewalls
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IPSec
SSL
PGP
none of the above
2. IKE creates SAs for _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSL
PGP
IPSec
VP
3. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets at the IP level.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AH
ESP
PGP
SSL
4. One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________.



A)
B)
C)
IPSec
SSL
PGP

D)
none of the above
5. Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the
protocol is normally HTTP.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSL
TLS
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
6. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols.




A)
B)
C)
D)
two
three
four
five
7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AH; SSL
PGP; ESP
AH; ESP
all of the above
8. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport layer to the
network layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
tunnel
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
9. ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both inbound and
outbound.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SA
CA
KDC
IKE
10. A _______network is used inside an organization.




A)
B)
C)
D)
private
public
semi-private
semi-public
11. SSL provides _________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
message integrity
confidentiality
compression
all of the above
12. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
intranets
internets
extranets
none of the above
13. An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside users.




A)
B)
C)
D)
intranet
internet
extranet
none of the above
14. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task
Force) to provide security for a packet at the network level.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IPSec
SSL
PGP
none of the above
15. IKE uses _______.




A)
B)
C)
D)
Oakley
SKEME
ISAKMP
all of the above
16. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SAD
SAB
SADB
none of the above
17. An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model.




A)
B)
C)
D)
intranet
internet
extranet
none of the above
18. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____.




A)
B)
C)
D)
TLS; TSS
SSL; TLS
TLS; SSL
SSL; SLT
19. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any certificate.




A)
B)
C)
D)
X509
PGP
KDC
none of the above
20. The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms defines a ________
for each SSL session.




A)
B)
C)
D)
list of protocols
cipher suite
list of keys
none of the above
21. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the global Internet.



A)
B)
C)
VPP
VNP
VNN

D)
VPN
22. _______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.




A)
B)
C)
D)
X509
PGP
KDC
none of the above
23. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
tunnel
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
24. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IPSec
SSL
PGP
none of the above
25. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted authorities.




A)
B)
C)
D)
X509
PGP
KDC
none of the above
26. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.




A)
B)
C)
D)
AH
ESP
PGP
SSL
27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the message.


A)
B)
IPSec
SSL


C)
D)
TLS
PGP
28. ______ is designed to provide security and compression services to data generated
from the application layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSL
TLS
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
29. _______ provide security at the transport layer.




A)
B)
C)
D)
SSL
TLS
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
30. The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-to-end) protection
of data.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
tunnel
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
31. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the original IP
header.




A)
B)
C)
D)
transport
tunnel
either (a) or (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
32. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.




A)
B)
C)
D)
IPSec
SSL
PGP
none of the above
33. A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security services for applications.




A)
B)
C)
D)
data link
network
transport
none of the above
34. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______ keys.




A)
B)
C)
D)
secret
public
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
1. IPSec
2. IPSec
3. ESP
4. PGP
5. both SSL and TLS
6. three
7. AH; ESP
8. transport
9. IKE
10. private
11. all of the above
12. none of the above
13. extranet
14. IPSec
15. all of the above
16. SADB
17. intranet
18. TLS; SSL
19. X509
20. cipher suite
21. VPN
22. PGP
23. transport
24. PGP
25. PGP
26. AH
27. PGP
28. both SSL and TLS
29. both SSL and TLS
30. transport
31. tunnel
32. PGP
33. transport
34. public