Download Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1 - Hatzalah of Miami-Dade

: Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1
1. A patient who is listless, slovenly, unkempt, is most likely suffering from:
Your answer:
depression
paranoia
mania
anorexia
2. For every unit of blood lost in trauma, how much crystalloid must be infused?
Your answer:
three times the amount
half as much
twice as much
equal amount
3. A 30 year old female is in a MVA and is complaining of chest pain, should be treated as a
patient with:
Your answer:
an MI
TIA
COPD
CVA
4. A patient complaining of chest apin who is showing multifocal PVCs on the monitor
should be treated with:
Your answer:
5 mg/kg bretylium infusion
1 mg/kg bretylium bolus
1 mg/kg lidocaine bolus
2-4 mcg/kg lidocaine infusion
5. Vasopressors may be indicated in which type of shock?
Your answer:
respiratory
metabolic
hypovolemic
neurogenic
6. Treatment of neurogenic shock should include:
Your answer:
oxygen, IV, valium
oxygen, IV aramine, Trendelenberg position
oxygen, IV, PASG, consider vasopressors
IV, aramine, lidocaine infusion
7. A patient with a history of seizures is most likely to take which medications:
Your answer:
lasix and lanoxin
inderal and digitalis
theo-dur and lanoxin
dilantin and phenobarbitol
8. A patient presents with vomiting, headache, and yellow vision. The monitor show rapid
atrial fib with frequent PVCs. The patient states that she takes a heart pill. She is most
likely suffering from:
Your answer:
influenza
lidocaine toxicity
lasix overdose
lanoxin toxicity
9. The preferred site for intraosseous needle placement in the field is:
Your answer:
distal femur
midshaft femur
distal tibia
proximal tibia
10. The most common cause of airway obstruction in the unconscious victim of an
unwitnessed collapse is:
Your answer:
tongue
food
mucous
dentures
11. A pregnant patient suffering from edema, hypertension and increased muscle tone is
likely suffering from:
Your answer:
preeclampsia
eccpampsia
PMS
postural hypotension
12. The problem with communication of teh elderly is most often due to:
Your answer:
confusion
organic brain syndrome
senility
hearing loss
13. The term that which describes normal respirations is:
Your answer:
eupnea
bradypnea
dyspnea
orthopnea
14. The rate of adult compressions in CPR is:
Your answer:
80-100
100 plus per minute
15-1
5-2
15. The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is:
Your answer:
irreversible death
biological death
DRT
clinical death
16. The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is:
Your answer:
20 breaths/minute
8 breaths/minute
5 breaths/minute
12 breaths/minute
17. The rescuer's initial ventilation of a person requiring CPR should be:
Your answer:
five full breaths
two full breaths
four quick breaths
one quick breath
18. Your 27 year old female patient is complaining of vaginal discharge and abdominal pain
which increases with intercourse. The patient relates that she may have been exposed to
gonorrhea. the patient is most likely suffering from:
Your answer:
AIDS
PID
uterine rupture
ectopic pregnancy
19. What is the name for alveolar collapse?
Your answer:
pulmonary edema
tension pneumothorax
atelectasis
pneumonia
20. A 31 year old female is involved in a MVA. Vital signs are 90/68, 100, and 40. Trachea is
deviated to the right, breath sounds are absent on the left, hyperresonance is noted on
the left side on percussion. What is most likely the problem?
Your answer:
hemothorax
simple pneumothorax
pericardial tamponade
tension pneumothorax
21. The first priority in management of an open pneumothorax is to:
Your answer:
insert an oral airway
cover and seal the wound
check both lung fields
deliver high flow O2
22. Uncompensated shock is evidenced by:
Your answer:
cold, clammy skin
rising pulse rate
falling blood pressure
rising temperature
23. In some people, congenitally weakened areas of the lungs may rupture causing:
Your answer:
pulmonary edema
spontaneous pneumothorax
alveolar pneumonia
hemothorax
24. Which is the most important in evaluating a patient with an illness causing abdominal
pain?
Your answer:
vital signs
appearance of the patient
patient history
palpitation
25. Insulin is secreted by the:
Your answer:
superior testines
islets of Langerhans
gall bladder
adrenal glands
26. What is the primary drug given to correct ventricular fibrillation?
Your answer:
lasix
atropine
lidocaine
inderal
27. The usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is:
Your answer:
0.2 mg in 500 ml of D5W
2 mg in 500 ml D5W
20 mg in 500 ml of D5W
1 mg in 1000 ml of D5W
28. The fluid portion of blood is the:
Your answer:
erythrocyte
albumin
leukocyte
plasma
29. Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit?
Your answer:
respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis
respiratory alkalosis
metabolic acidosis
30. The purkinge system has an intrinsic firing rate of:
Your answer:
20-40 min
40-60 min
60-70 min
10-20 min
31. You have been ordered to give a patient 7 mcg/min of isuprell. Mix 1 mg in 250 ml of
D5W and use a microdrip. What drip rate is needed?
Your answer:
90 gtts/min
105 gtts/min
210 gtts/min
28 gtts/min
32. The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack would be:
Your answer:
10 mg/kg
.001 mg/kg
.01 mg/kg
0.1 mg/kg
33. Stimulation of the beta receptors causes:
Your answer:
increased heart rate and force of contraction
bronchial constriction and tachycardia
decreased cardiac oxygen consumption
increased vascular resistance and vasoconstriction
34. You are attempting to intubate a pediatric pateint. Your best guide in choosing the correct
size tube is:
Your answer:
the pateint's ring finger
the patient's little finger
the pateint's weight
the pateint's general appearance
35. Which factor is common to all forms of shock?
Your answer:
inadequate tissue perfusion
hypovolemia
tachycardia
tachypnea
36. When a myocardial fiber is at rest the charge within the cell is:
Your answer:
positive
depolarized
polarized
negative
37. A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having:
Your answer:
a concentration the same as that in the cells
a concentration higher than that in the cells
a concentration lower than that in the cells
none of the above adequately defines the term
38. Which of the following is primarily an extracellular electrolyte?
Your answer:
calcium
potassium
sodium
nitrogen
39. Injuries that result in partial tearing of a ligment are called:
Your answer:
fractures
dislocations
sprains
strains
40. In a posterior dislocation of the hip, the leg will appear:
Your answer:
abducted and slightly flexed
lengthened and rotated outward
shortened and rotated inward
flexed to about 90 degrees
41. Lactated Ringer;s solution is a(n):
Your answer:
hypertonic solution
isotonic solution
isotonic balanced buffered electrolyte solution
hypotonic solution
42. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is usually caused by:
Your answer:
underfeeding the infant
overheating the infant
suffocation
the cause is unknown
43. The most common cause of seizures in the child is:
Your answer:
ventricular fibrillation
elevated temperature
bronchitis
inadequate tissue perfusion
44. What is the first step in the secondard survey?
Your answer:
head to tow survey
check for hemorrhage
obtain a set of vital signs
check for open fractures
45. your patient is unconscious and in apparent respiratory distress. The permission to treat
her is given by the concept of:
Your answer:
replied consent
implied consent
actual consent
applied consent
46. 23 year old male has a history of seizures. You find him having recurrent seizures without
return to consciousness. His color is poor and he is suffeing arrythmias. The patient is
suffering from:
Your answer:
status epilepticus
marital distress
petit mal seizures
focal motor seizures
47. Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of hypoxia:
Your answer:
weak and rapid pulse
thirst
restlessness
cyanosis
48. Your patient is a conscious and rational adult. Failure to get consent to treat and
transpoert could lead to what type of liability?
Your answer:
assault
battery
false imprisonment
all of the above
49. Aminophyline may be given in a dosage of range of ____ and it's main action is
___________?
Your answer:
250-500 mg slowly; bronchial dilation
500 mg rapidly; decreased urinary output
250-500 mg rapidly; bronchial dilation
300 mg slowly; increased cardiac output
50. What is the most common adverse side effect of IV push valium?
Your answer:
seizures
respiratory depression
hypotension
hypertension
Answers: Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1
1. Which of the following is a colloid solution?
Your answer: Dextran
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
CORRECT!
A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable vital signs is suffering from:
Your answer: insulin shock
CORRECT!
Uncompensated shock produces which of the following:
Your answer: pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter relaxation
CORRECT!
Kinematics of trauma; How may collisions occur?
Your answer: three
CORRECT!
Dopamine has what effects when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min?
Your answer: renal and mesenteric dilation
CORRECT!
Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is an indication of:
Your answer: cerebral focal cortex lesions
CORRECT!
The best possible score for a Glascow coma scale is:
Your answer: eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6
CORRECT!
The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
Your answer: insulin hormone
CORRECT!
The most significant sign of abdominal injury is:
Your answer: pain
CORRECT!
10. Lidocaine is usually given for:
Your answer: ventricular tachycardia
CORRECT!
11. Before applying a PASG you must:
Your answer: assess lung sounds
CORRECT!
12. Patient has high blood pressure in pregnancy:
Your answer: toxemia
CORRECT!
13. Anapylaxsis following an insect sting is treated with:
Your answer: epinephrine
CORRECT!
14. What device transmits specific tones that other receivers will recognize?
Your answer: encoder
CORRECT!
15. Who has the ultimate authority over the EMT in the field?
Your answer: on-line medical control
CORRECT!
16. A deviation from the accepted standards of care is called:
Your answer: negligence
CORRECT!
17. Which of the following is not a method of transmission of the Hepatitis virus?
Your answer: caliva
CORRECT!
18. An ovedose of Oil of Wintergreen will present similar to:
Your answer: salicylates
CORRECT!
19. Aminophylline is given:
Your answer: IV over 20-30 minutes
CORRECT!
20. You have been called to a party for a 20 year old male who bystanders state had a seizure activiely
before you arrived. The pateint is conscious and agitated, BP 132/96, pulse 132, resp. 28. He is
diaphoretic and his pupils are dilated. He denies any drug or alcholo ingestion. What do you
suspec
Your answer: cocaine
CORRECT!
21. Which of the folloiwn is NOT a predisposing factor to hypothermia?
Your answer: alcoholism
CORRECT!
22. Ions that carry a negative charge are:
Your answer: anions
CORRECT!
23. Verapamil has wha effects on the myocardium?
Your answer: negative chronotropic
CORRECT!
24. What is the chief extracellular elecrolyte?
Your answer: sodium
CORRECT!
25. The normal PR interval is _____ seconds.
Your answer: 0.12 - 0.20
CORRECT!
26. The EMT's best defense in the event of legal proceedings is:
Your answer: a detailed medical record
CORRECT!
27. The range of a portable radio transmitter/receiver is somewhat limited. The range can be extended
by the use of a(n):
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Your answer: repeater
CORRECT!
The first action an EMT takes after receiving a medication order:
Your answer: repeat the medication order
CORRECT!
Which of the following is a re-entry rhythm?
Your answer: atrial tachycardia
CORRECT!
If a patient apical pulse is 130, and their radial pulse rate is 96, what is this referred to?
Your answer: pulse deficit
CORRECT!
The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with:
Your answer: congestive heart failure
CORRECT!
The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the:
Your answer: atriventricular valves
CORRECT!
A patient who is hyperventilation may have which acid-base condition?
Your answer: respiratory alkalosis
CORRECT!
If a radial pulse is present, systolic blood presure is at least:
Your answer: 80
CORRECT!
What heart valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium?
Your answer: tricuspid valve
CORRECT!
What is pH?
Your answer: the hydrogen ion concentration
CORRECT!
What is the correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax?
Your answer: 2nd intercostal space; mid-clavicular line
CORRECT!
Airway obstruction can be caused by:
Your answer: ventral flexion
CORRECT!
What does the T wave represent on the ECG?
Your answer: atrial repolarization
CORRECT!
Which aspect of the physical exam is least helpful in the field?
Your answer: deep tendon reflex
CORRECT!
Which of teh following is the earliest sign of shock?
Your answer: resentlessness
CORRECT!
A possible complicaton of the PASG is:
Your answer: decreased ventilation
CORRECT!
The joint action of two drugs where the combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual
effect is called:
Your answer: synergism
CORRECT!
What is the action of insulin?
Your answer: transfers glucose into cells
CORRECT!
The physician orders 5mcg.kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient. You put 400mg of Dopamine
in 250mls D5W. What is the correct rate using microdrip tubing?
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Your answer: 15 gtts/min
CORRECT!
Which drug must be given cautiously to patients currently taking Digitalis?
Your answer: CaCl
CORRECT!
Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients?
Your answer: Inderal
CORRECT!
The APGAR score evaluates:
Your answer: pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace
CORRECT!
The signs of epiglottitis are:
Your answer: dysphagia and drooling
CORRECT!
A patient has an IV established and suddenly goes into V-fib. You will:
Your answer: defibrillate
CORRECT!