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M.C.Qs. for November 2005 exam
Please select the one most appropriate answer:
1. The sixth nerve may be involved in all of the following except:
A. Benign increased intracranial pressure ( psuedotumor cerebri)
B. Pontine infarction
C. Occipital lobe infarction
D. Orbital apex syndrome
2. Regarding internuclear ophthalmoplegia all the following are true
except:
A. The lesion is in the brainstem
B. Resulting squint is incommitant
C. Multiple sclerosis is a common etiology
D. The connections between the forth & fifth nerve nuclei are involved
3. Regarding the occipital lobe all the following are true except:
A. It has dual blood supply
B. Lesions affecting it produce homonymous hemianopia
C. The field defect is on the opposite side of the lesion
D. The macula is represented by a small area near the base of the lobe
4. Regarding fast eye movements (saccadic movements) all the following
are true except:
A. They originate from the opposite frontal lobe
B. Vision is suppressed during the movement
C. Eyes move in opposite directions
D. Can be tested by optokinetic drum
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5. Pituitary tumors can present by any of the following except:
A. Congruous homonymous hemianopia
B. Headache
C. Hormonal disturbances
D. Acute loss of vision
6. Regarding highly selective prostaglandins ( e.g. Xalatan eye drops) all
the following are true except:
A. Are best used for inflammatory glaucomas
B. Increase uveoscleral outflow
C. Can cause elongation of eyelashes
D. Can change the color of the iris
7. The angle is usually open in all the following glaucomas except:
A. Phacolytic Glaucoma
B. Phacomorphic Glaucoma
C. Pseudo exfoliation syndrome
D. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
8. Regarding trabeculectomy all the following are true except:
A. Failure of the bleb can be reduced by using intraoperative
mitomicin C (MMC)
B. Postoperative hypotony can be due to choroidal effusion
C. It is the procedure of choice in neovascular glaucoma
D. Endophthalmitis rate may be increased with mitomicin C (MMC)
use
9. One of the following is better avoided in the management of
neovascular glaucoma except:
A. Cyclocryotherapy
B. Diode laser cycloablation
C. Trabeculectomy with valve implantation
D. Pilocarpine eye drops.
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10. Investigations for systemic causes of uveitis are indicated in all the
following except:
A. Unilateral acute anterior non granulomatous uveitis
B. Anterior chronic granulomatous uveitis
C. Posterior granulomatous uveitis
D. Exudative retinal detachment
11. All the following are contraindications for contact lens wear except:
A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Corneal abscess
C. Keratoconus
D. Acute glaucoma
12. One of the following can only be corrected by contact lenses (not
glasses):
A. Hypermetropic astigmatism
B. Myopic astigmatism
C. Hypermetropia
D. Irregular astigmatism
13. The spherical equivalent (-2.50) can be due to any of the following
combinations except:
A. -3.00/+1.00 Axis 180
B. -3.50/+2.00 Axis 90
C. -2.00/-1.00 Axis 90
D. -2.50/+1.00 Axis 180
14. All the following is true regarding color vision except:
A. The incidence is more in males than females
B. There are five types of color receptors in the retina
C. Color blindness can be acquired
D. Acquired color blindness can be progressive
15. Regarding accommodation all the following are true except:
A. The lens become more spherical with accommodation
B. Myopic patients need reading glasses at an earlier age than
hypermetropic patients
C. It is usually accompanied by convergence
D. Can be abolished by cycloplegics
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16. All the following can be causes of dim red reflex except:
A. Corneal opacity
B. High myopia
C. Optic atrophy
D. Cataract
17.All the following are risk factors for open angle glaucoma except:
A. High myopia
B. Family history of glaucoma
C. Congenital color blindness
D. Prolonged topical use of steroids
18. Regarding Jaxonian cross cylinder used in objective refraction all
the following are true except:
A. It is used to verify the axis of the cylindrical lens
B. It is used to verify the power of the cylindrical lens
C. its spherical equivalent is zero
D. It is used to verify the power of the spherical lens
19. All the following can occur if the center of the lens in the spectacle is
not in front of the pupil except:
A. Headache
B. Image magnification
C. Double vision (diplopia)
D. Eye strain
20. A patient complains of eye strain following prescription of -3.00
cylindrical lens axis 180 for both eyes. One of the following cannot
be the cause of his eye strain:
A. Vertical displacement of one of the lanses
B. Horizontal displacent of one of the lenses
C. Tilting of the frame
D. An error in the power of one of the lenses
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21. Regarding contact lenses all the following are true except:
A. The contact lens rests on the cornea
B. The surface of the contact lens replaces that of the anterior surface of the
cornea
C. The magnification of hypermetropic glasses is more than that of contact lenses
D. Infective keratitis is more common among contact lens users than the general
population
22. One of the following layers actively pumps the fluid out of the
cornea:
A. Endothelium
B. Bowman’s membrane
C. Stroma
D. Epithelium
23. Regarding the tear film all the following are true except:
A. The oily layer minimizes evaporation of tears
B. The aqueous layer is the outermost layer
C. The mucous layer facilitates spreading of tear film over the cornea
D. The oily layer is mainly secreted by the meibomian glands
24. All the following are true regarding anterior chamber except:
A. The iris separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber
B. The anterior chamber volume is smaller than the posterior chamber
C. Flare is due to the increased protein contents of the aqueous
D. Hypopyon is due to the increased cellular content of the aqueous
25. Regarding the visual acuity all the following are true except:
A. It is a measure of the power of resolution of the eye
B. It measures both the cone & rod functions
C. It can be affected by the size of the pupil
D. It doesn’t give a clue about the cause of deterioration of vision
26. Regarding intraocular pressure all the following are true except:
A. It is a major risk factor in the development of glaucoma but not the
only one
B. It is usually decreased in anterior uveitis
C. Goldmann tonometer is more accurate than Schiotz tonometer
D. A pressure of less than 21 mm Hg excludes glaucoma
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27. Bull’s Eye Maculopathy is a clinical feature of All of the following
are true except:
A. Stargardt Disease
B. Concentric Annular Macular Dystrophy
C. Fundus Albipunctatus
D. Cone Dystrophy
E. Chloroquine / Hydroxychloroquine toxicity
28. Cherry Red Spot is a clinical feature of All of the following are true
except:
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Tay-Sachs Disease
D. Niemann-Pick Disease
E. Gentamicin Toxicity
29. Chorioretinal Folds can be a clinical feature of: All of the following
are true except:
A. Age Related Macular Degeneration
B. Hypotony Maculopathy
C. Idiopathic Chorioretinal Folds
D. Retrobulbar Tumour
E. Sympathetic Ophthalmia
30. Cotton Wool Spots are a clinical feature of: All of the following are
true except:
A. Purtscher’s Retinopathy
B. Diabetic Retinopathy
C. Retinal Vascular Occlusions
D. Choroidal Melanoma
E. Leukemic Retinopathy
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31. Cystoid Macular Oedema is a clinical feature of: All of the following
are true except:
A. Post-Intraocular Surgery CME
B. Interferon Toxicity
C. Retinal Vein Occlusions
D. Diabetic Retinopathy
E. Vitreoretinal Traction Syndrome
32. Choroidal Neovascularization can be a clinical feature of:
All of the following are true except:
A. Nicotinic Acid Maculopathy
B. Age Related Macular Degeneration
C. Angioid Streaks
D. Myopia
E. Multifocal Choroiditis
33. Flecked Retina Syndromes can be a clinical feature of: All of the
following except:
A. Fundus Albipunctatus
B. Stargardt’s Disease
C. Vitreoretinal Traction Syndrome
D. Alport’s Syndrome
E. Flecked Retina of Kandori
34. Intraretinal Haemorrhages can be a clinical feature of All of the
following except:
A. Diabetic Maculopathy
B. Hypertensive Retinopathy
C. Macular Phototoxicity
D. Sickle Cell Retinopathy
E. Radiation retinopathy
35. Lipid Exudates can be a clinical feature of All of the following
except:
A. Pattern Dystrophy
B. Hypertensive Retinopathy
C. Coat’s Disease
D. Chronic Central Serous Chorioretinopathy
E. Juxtafoveal Retinal Telangiectasis
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36. Preretinal Haemorrhage can be a clinical feature of: All of the
following are true except:
A. Diabetic Retinopathy
B. Terson’s Syndrome
C. Tamoxifen Toxicity
D. X-Linked Juvenile Retinoschisis
E. Leukemic Retinopathy
37. Pigmented Lesions can be a clinical feature of All of the following
are true except:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Choroidal Naevus
C. Melanocytoma
D. Lyme Disease
E. Choroidal Melanoma
38. White-Centered Haemorrhages clinical features All of the following
are true except:
A. Diagnostic only for anaemia
B. Intraretinal haemorrhage with white center
C. Local capillary rupture produces haemorrhage
D. white fibrin-platelet center during repair
E. Can be seen in anaemia/thrombocytopenia, leukemia, diabetic
retinopathy and subacute bacterial endocarditis
39. White Dot Syndromes clinical features All of the following are true
except:
A. White dots or patches located at the level of the RPE or choroid
B. May affect children or adults
C. May be unilateral or bilateral
D. Can be seen only in Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome
E. May be associated with ocular inflammation
40. Achromatopsia clinical features All of the following are true except:
A. Congenital nystagmus at birth or early in life
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Photophobia with better vision in dim light
D. Partial color blindness with good visual acuity
E. ERG shows absence of cone responses and normal rod responses
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41. Progressive Cone Dystrophy clinical features All of the following are
true except:
A. Reduced VA, altered color vision and photophobia
B. Autosomal dominant, X-linked recessive and some sporadic cases
C. Normal cone-mediated ERG’s
D. Fundoscopy shows early pigment disturbance or typical Bull’s eye
maculopathy
E. Variable age of onset in first decade or early adulthood
42. Stargardt’s disease clinical features All of the following are true
except:
A. Early onset and Progressive loss of central vision
B. Good preservation of peripheral and night vision
C. Round, linear or pisciform lesions throughout the posterior pole
D. Generally autosomal dominant
E. Deposition of lipofuscin in the RPE layer gives rise to the “dark
choroid” sign on FFA
43. Best Disease (Vitelliform macular dystrophy) clinical features All of
the following are true except:
A. Age of onset is usually during childhood or adolescence
B. Initially, a bright yellow cyst forms under the RPE beneath the macula
with normal or near normal vision
C. EOG is normal
D. Autosomal dominant
E. Classical lesion is round or oval, yellow “egg yolk” lesion at the
macula
44. Leber Congenital Amaurosis clinical features All of the following
are true except:
A. Roving eye movements and unable to fix and follow at birth or in first few weeks
of life
B. Infants may have photophobia and eye-poking (Franceschetti’s sign)
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Pupil reactions are sluggish, occasionally with a paradoxical response
E. Early widespread retinopathy with peripheral pigmentation, vessel attenuation
and optic disc pallor
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45. Intravitreal Steroids All of the following are true except:
A. Can be used in cases of uveitis, retinal vascular diseases, choroidal
neovascularization and as a surgical adjunct
B. Main complications are increased IOP, cataract , endophthalmitis, haemorrhage
and retinal detachment
C. Do not cause optic neuritis or atrophy
D. Can be given without using a sterile technique
E. Can cause a pseudohypopyon (pseudoendophthalmitis)
46. All the following are true regarding the extra ocular muscles Except:
A. They contain two types of muscle cells.
B. Each of the extra ocular muscles receives two arterial branches except the
lateral rectus muscle
C. The inferior oblique arises from the orbital floor near the rim
D. The superior rectus lies superior to the superior oblique
E. The lateral rectus arises from the roof of the orbit
47. All the following statements regarding colobomas are true Except
that they:
A. Usually located superotemporally
B. May be unilateral or bilateral
C. Are termed atypical if located outside the region of the embryonic
fissure
D. Produce an absolute scotoma if they involve the retina
E. Result from incomplete closure along the embryonic fissure
48. Ocular features associated with Down's Syndrome include all the
following Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lisch nodules
Brushfield spots
Myopia
Strabismus
keratoconus
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49. Each of the following is a feature associated with hyperplastic
primary vitreous Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
High myopia
Mostly unilateral
Microphthalmos
Elongated ciliary processes
leukocoria
50. All the following are causes of pseudo-papilledema Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bergmeister papilla
Optic nerve head drusen
Hyperopia
Diabetic papillopathy
Pseudo tumor cerebri
51. Choose the structure that is incorrectly paired with the fissure or
foramen through which it passes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nasolacrimal canal—infraorbital nerve (trigeminal, second division)
Superior orbital fissure—abducens nerve
Inferior orbital fissure—inferior ophthalmic vein
Anterior ethmoidal foramen—anterior ethmoidal nerve
Optic foramen—ophthalmic artery
52. The bones of the orbit are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Frontal-zygoma-palatine-maxilla-parietal-sphenoid and lacrimal
Frontal-zygoma-maxilla-ethmoid-temporal-lacrimal and sphenoid
Frontal-zygoma-maxilla-sphenoid-mandible-lacrimal and ethmoid
Frontal-zygoma-palatine-maxilla-ethmoid-sphenoid and lacrimal
Frontal-palatine-maxilla-ethmoid-nasal-sphenoid and lacrimal
53. What is the spherical equivalent refraction of (+1.5- 5.00×90°):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
+0.5
+1.00
0D
-1.00
-2.00
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54. All are true regarding pinhole aperture Except:
A. An eye with a pupil that is miosed from the use of pilocarpine will
measure an artificially close near point of accommodation
B. The ideal diameter of a pinhole for screening refractive errors in the 5 to+5 range is 1.2mm
C. Patients with small uncorrected refractive errors often squeeze eyes to
achieve a pinhole effect
D. If a pinhole aperture is too small visual acuity will still improve and
not be affected by diffraction of rays
55. All the following are possible treatments for intermittent exotropia
Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Miotics
Eye muscle surgery
Orthoptics
Alternate patching
Overminus or underplus lenses
56. A 3 year old boy presents with a history of crossing of the eyes for
several months. You find equal vision of 6/12 in each eye, a distance
esotropia of 20Δ, and a cycloplegic refraction of +3.5 diopters in each
eye, your initial treatment is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Observation and follow up
Alternate patching
+2.50 eyeglasses
+3.50 eyeglasses
Bilateral medial rectus recession
57. A 4 year old girl on a routine visit is found to have uncorrected
distance visual acuity of 6/60 in her right eye and 6/6 in her left eye.
Cycloplegic refraction is -6.00 right eye and plano left eye. The best
initial treatment is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A contact lens in the right eye
Full time glasses -4.00 right eye and plano left eye
Full time glasses -4.00 right eye and +2.00 left eye
Full time glasses -6.00 right eye and plano left eye
Occlusion of the left eye
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58. The main indication for strabismus surgery in congenital nystagmus
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To dampen nystagmus
To improve visual acuity
To correct a head turn
To correct strabismus
None of the above
59. The muscles that have attachment to the dural sheath of the optic
nerve at their origin are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Medial rectus and lateral rectus
Medial rectus and inferior rectus
Medial rectus and superior rectus
Lateral rectus and inferior rectus
Lateral rectus and superior rectus
60. A 39 year old female diabetic reports blurred vision for distance of
one week duration. She has never worn glasses. Which of the
following would you do:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Perform an atropine refraction
Perform manifest refraction and order accordingly
Send her to her endocrinologist
Give temporary glasses
Do a stress refraction
61. In performing Douchrome test, a patient reports that the letters on
the green side are clearer. What should you do:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Add more minus sphere
Take away plus sphere
Add more plus sphere
Add minus cylinder
None of these
62. The longest acting cycloplegic agent is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atropine
Homatropine
Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide
E. Eucatropine
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63. The Weseley ring represents:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Iron deposition in the stroma of a herpetic keratitis
Melanin deposition in infected cells with herpes keratitis
Ring of melanin surrounding filtering blebs
Ring of antigen antibody complexes in the stroma of inflamed corneal
lesion
64. Complications of continuous wear hydrogel contact lens include all
Except:
A. Infection
B. Corneal vascularisation
C. Giant papillary reaction
D. Opacification of contact lens due to lipoprotein coating or calcium
deposition
E. corectopia
65. Conditions causing enophthalmus include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Horner's Syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Blow out fracture
Metastatic scirrhous carcinoma of the breast
All of the above
66. All of the following are true about rhabdomyosarcoma Except that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is the most common primary orbital tumor in children
It is histologically similar to leiomyosarcoma
The usual age of onset is from 5-10 years
It is usually unilateral
The alveolar type has the worst prognosis
67. Causes of lid retraction , other than Graves' disease include all
Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cirrhosis of the liver
Hydrocephalus
Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
Contralateral ptosis
Orbital lymphangioma
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68. All of the following are seen with Marfan's Syndrome Except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hyperplasia of the dilator muscle of the iris
Ectopia lentis
Increased incidence of myopia and megalocornea
Maldeveloped ciliary processes
Peripheral retinal degeneration
69. Trouton's giant cells are found in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Juvenile xanthogranuloma
Kaposi's sarcoma
Werner Syndrome
Icthyosis
70. The triad of brittle bones, blue sclera and otosclerosis is
characteristic of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Homocystinuria
Marfan's Syndrome
Osteopetrosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Sturge Weber Syndrome
71. All the following are generally accepted methods of management of
keratoconus except:
A. Penetrating keratoplasty
B. Intracorneal rings (INTACS)
C. Deep lamellar keratoplasty (DLK)
D. Contact lenses
E. LASIK
72.
All the following are
keratconjunctivitis except:
FALSE
regarding
adenoviral
A. Involvement of both eyes is the rule
B. Topical acyclovir is the treatment of choice
C. Nummular keratitis is a rare complication
D. The disease is not contagious
E. Pre-auricular lymphadenitis when present is helpful in diagnosis
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A 55-year old female patient calls you at night telling you that she has
severe pain in her right eye for the past two hours.
73. All the following data may help you to shorten the list of possible
diagnosis except:
A. History of hypermetropia
B. History of trauma
C. History of myopia
D. History of previous attacks
E. History of wearing contact lenses
74. All the following are true regarding ocular herpes simplex infection
except:
A. Positive Ig-G titre denotes previous exposure
B. Topical acyclovir is usually the first line of treatment for dendretic
keratitis
C. Herpetic uveitis can be associated with increased intraocular pressure
D. Dendritic keratitis is best treated by intensive steroid drops
E. Ocular involvement is usually unilateral
75. All the following are false regarding congenital ptosis except:
A. Levator muscle resection is indicated if levator muscle function is less than 4 mm
B. If the pupil is covered surgery should be performed without delay
C. Absent Bell's phenomenon is a good prognostic sign
D. The best time to do fascia lata frontalis muscle suspension is at the age of one
year
76. All the following are true regarding glaucoma medications except:
A. Atropine can be used in neovascular glaucoma
B. Pilocarpine is the drug of choice in neovascular glaucoma
C. Steroid eye drops are useful in hypertensive uveitis
D. Timolol is the first line of treatment in open angle glaucoma
77. The least possible complication of LASIK among the following is:
A. Endophthalmitis
B. Lost flap
C. Overcorrection
D. Undercorrection
E. Decentered ablation
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78. In a patient with high myopia & moderate cataract the best course
of action is:
A. LASIK
B. Phakic intraocular lens
C. Cataract extraction with intraocular lens implantation
D. INTACS (intracorneal rings).
E. Radial keratotomy (R.K.).
79. All the following are true regarding herpes zoster ophthalmicus
infections except:
A. Involvement of the tip of the nose may indicate that the eye will be involved
B. Systemic acyclovir treatment is most effective when given after the formation of
pustules
C. Should be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypertensive uveitis
D. The dose of acyclovir needed for treatment is higher than that needed for herpes
simplex virus infections
80. All the following corneal lesions will become worse with topical
steroids except:
A. Fungal keratitis
B. Bacterial keratitis
C. Herpes simplex virus dendretic keratitis
D. Nummular keratitis
81. All the following are known causes of lower lid ectropion EXCEPT
A. Age related changes
B. Tumours
C. Trachoma
D. Burns
82. In stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy all the following are present
except:
A. Cotton-wool spots
B. Focal arteriolar narrowing
C. Optic disc swelling
D. Exudates
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83. All the following corneal dystrophies are inherited as autosomal
dominant traits except:
A. Lattice dystrophy
B. Macular dystrophy
C. Granualr dystrophy
D. Reis-Bucklers' dystrophy
84. All the following are true regarding dysthyroid eye disease except:
A. The lateral rectus muscle is the most frequently involved
B. Orbital C. T. scan is helpful in diagnosis
C. Optic nerve compression is an indication for systemic steroid therapy
D. Muscle surgery is better delayed till the disease is inactive
85. The differential diagnosis of cicatrized conjunctiva includes all the
following except:
A. Chemical burns
B. Stevens-Johnsons' syndrome
C. Trachoma
D. Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis
86. Clinically Significant Macular Edema in Diabetic Retinopathy is
characterized by:
A. Thickening of the retina at or within 500 microns of the center of the
macula
B. Hard exudates at or within 500 microns of the center of the macula, if
associated with thickening of adjacent retina
C. A zone or zones of retinal thickening 1 disc area or larger, any part of
which is within 1 disc diameter of the center of macula
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
87. All the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis of
sympatheic ophthalmia except:
A. Traumatic iritis
B. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Phacoanaphylaxis
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88. All the following conditions are associated with eye lid retraction
except:
A. Thyroid disease
B. Blowout fracture with inferior rectus entrapment
C. Midbrain lesions
D. Horner syndrome
89. Deafness is usually a clinical finding in the following disorders
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada Syndrome
Intra uterine Rubella infection
Wilson's disease
Aminoglycoside toxicity
90. All the following statements regarding psuedoexfoliation syndrome
are true except:
A. Medical treatment is usually the same as in primary open angle
glaucoma
B. Laser trabeculoplasty has a low success rate
C. Trabeculectomy has results similar to primary open angle glaucoma
D. Zonule is weaker than that of normal eyes
91. The treatment of neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis requires
systemic therapy with erythromycin because:
A. Topical antibiotics are not effective in children
B. Topical antibiotics promote resistance
C. Pneumonitis or pneumonia frequently accompany chlamydial
conjunctivitis
D. Systemic erythromycin therapy is less expensive than topical treatment
92. Systemic Steroid therapy is useful in all the following conditions
except:
A. A 67-year old man with artertic type of ischemic optic neuropathy.
B. A 55-year old woman with Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis.
C. A 28- year-old woman with sudden decrease of vision in her only eye to
hand movement secondary to optic neuritis.
D. A 24-year-old man with active toxoplasma retinitis involving the macula
together with proper antiparasitic cover.
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93. All the following tests are of diagnostic importance in Myasthenia
Gravis except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tensilon Test.
CT scan of the chest.
Electromyography
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
94. One of the following is false regarding Mitomycin C:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is an antibiotic drug isolated from Streptomces caespiousus.
It might cause scleral melting.
The use of Mitomycin C in conjunction with Trabeculectomy has no
effect on the incidence of late onset endophthalmitis.
It decreases haze after photorefractive keratectomy (PRK)
95. Coat’s Disease is characterized by one of the following:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Both eyes are affected.
Females are more affected than males.
Retinal neovascularization.
leukcoria
96. Rubeosis iridis may be associated with all the following conditions
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diabetes Mellitus
cone- rode dystrophy
Central retinal vein occlusion.
Ocular ischemic syndrome.
97. Blunt trauma to the eye can cause all the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nummular keratitis
Diplopia
Enophthalmos
Macular hole
Visual field loss (partial or complete)
20
98. One of the following is true regarding corneal dystrophies:
A. All types are inherited by autosomal recessive way.
B. Usually occur in one eye only.
C. May recur after lamellar but not penetrating corneal graft.
D. Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK) might be effective procedure for
selected cases.
99. All the following may be associated with Behcet’s Disease except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Familial predisposition is common.
Genital ulcers.
Recurrent aphthous ulcers.
Thrombosis of inferior vena cava.
Retinal neovascularization.
100. One of the following is true about lid tumors:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes 90% of all primary cancers of eye lid.
Basal cell carcinoma is a common finding in Xeroderma Pigmentosum.
Sebaceous carcinoma may mimic chronic blepharitis
Keratoacanthoma of the lid metastasizes by blood route only.
GOOD LUCK
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