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1. Which of the following represents 2 isotopes of the same
element?
(A) I. Z = 5
A = 10
(D) I. Z = 1
A=3
II. Z = 10 A = 20
II. Z = 2
A=4
(B) I. Z = 6
A = 12
(E) I. Z = 7
A = 12
II. Z = 6
A = 14
II. Z = 14
A = 19
(C) I. Z = 6
A = 14
II. Z = 7
A = 14
2. Which of the following is NOT the same for isotopes of
the same element?
(A) Mass number
(B) Atomic number
(C) Number of protons
(D) Number of valence electrons
(E) Number of occupied electron shells in the ground state
3. Two isotopes of uranium are U-237 and U-238. Both
would be expected to have the same
(A) mass
(D) number of neutrons
(B) number of protons
(E) half-life
(C) decay mode
4. Whose gold foil experiment concluded that the positive
charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region?
(A) Thompson
(D) Chadwick
(B) Rutherford
(E) Dalton
(C) Bohr
5. Which of the following was NOT a conclusion of
Rutherford's gold foil alpha particle bombardment
experiments?
(A) Atoms consist mostly of empty space.
(B) Some alpha particles were deflected at large angles.
(C) Atoms contain neutrons.
(D) Almost all of an atom's mass is located in the nucleus.
(E) An atom's positive charge is centered in the nucleus.
6. Which of the following are true about the Millikan oil drop
experiment?
I. Positively and a negatively charged plates were used to
hold oil droplets in the air.
II. X rays were used to charge the oil droplets with
electrons.
III. This experiment is famous for discovering the density
of electrons.
(A) I only
(D) II and III only
(B) I and III only
(E)
I, II, and III
(C) I and II only
Base your answers to questions 7 through 12 on the choices
below.
(A) Pauli exclusion principle
(B) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(C) Hund's rule
(D) Wave nature of matter
(E) Photoelectric effect
Which gives support to the particle theory of light?
7. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
8. Which states that no two electrons in an atom have the
same four quantum numbers?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
9. Which states that electrons half fill an orbital with parallel
spin, before completly filling it?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
10. Which states that you cannot have simultaneous
knowledge of an electron's position and momentum?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
11. Which is responsible for interference patterns being
exhibited by electrons?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
12. Which predicts that an oxygen atom in the ground state is
paramagnetic.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
13. J.J. Thompson's cathode ray experiments determined that
atoms have
(A) a positively charged nucleus and electrons
(B) neutrons
(C) almost all their mass in the nucleus
(D) electrons
(E) different states of charge called "isotopes"
Page 1
14. When a chloride solution of an element is vaporized in a
flame, the color of the flame is purple. What element
could be in the solution?
(A) Barium
(D) Lithium
(B) Sodium
(E) Calcium
(C) Potassium
15. When an electron moves from the level where n=4 to the
level where n=2, the change in energy is
(A) +307.kJ•mol–1
(D) –307.kJ•mol–1
–1
(B) +246.kJ•mol
(E) –328.kJ•mol–1
(C) –246.kJ•mol–1
16. Which supports the conclusion that the energy of electrons
in atoms are quantized?
(A) Mass spectrometer beam distribution
(B) Emission spectra of gaseous elements
(C) Cathode ray deflection by a magnetic field
(D) Scattering of alpha particles by metal foil
(E) Radioactive transmutation of elements
Base your answers to questions 17 through 21 on the following
types of energy.
(A) Lattice energy
(B) Potential energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Electromagnetic energy
(E) Vaporization energy
22. One of the outermost electrons in a potassium atom can be
described by which of the following quantum numbers?
(A) 4, 0, 0, ½
(D) 4, 1, 1, ½
(B) 4, 0, 1, ½
(E) 4, 1, -1, ½
(C) 4, 1, 0, ½
23. Which of the following quantum numbers can describe a
3p electron?
(A) 3, 0, 1, ½
(D) 3, 0, –1, ½
(B) 3, 2, 1, ½
(E) 3, 1, –1, ½
(C) 3, 1, 2, ½
24. The quantum numbers 3, 2, 2, ½ can represent the highest
energy electron in the ground state for which atom?
(A) Mg
(D) Rb
(B) Mn
(E) Kr
(C) Si
25. Which of the following are the correct quantum numbers
for iodine's outermost valence electron?
(A)
(D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
Energy that is given off in waves and is defined by
17. wavelength and frequency
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
18. The energy required to change a substance from a liquid to
a gas
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
2
19. Energy that is measured by (1/2)mv
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
20. Energy that can be used to directly calculate (H
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
21. Energy that binds together ionic solids
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 26 through 29 on the following
elements.
(A) Sodium
(B) Carbon
(C) Cobalt
(D) Chlorine
(E) Neon
Has the least number of valance electrons
26. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
27. Has the highest first ionization energy
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
28. Naturally occurs diatomically
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
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29. Its salts form colored solutions in water
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 30 through 33 on the following
elements.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Germanium
Polonium
Fluorine
Iron
Calcium
Contains unpaired d electrons
30. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
31. Is a gas at room temperature
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
32. Has no stable isotopes.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
33. Is a metalloid
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
34. Which species has the same electron configuration as
neon?
(A) N3–
(D) Li+
(B) He
(E) Na+
(C) Cl–
35. What is the electron configuration of the Ni 3+ ion? (atomic
number Ni = 28)
(D)
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d7
1s22s22p63s23p63d84s2
2 2 6 2 6 7 2
(B) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
(E) 1s22s22p63s23p63d3
(C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d84s1
36. Which of the following elements are paramagnetic?
I. Al
II. Cu
III. Ne
IV. K
V. Ag
(A) I, II, IV, and V only
(D) V and II only
(B) IV and II only
(E) Al, Ne, and Ag only
(C) IV, V, and II only
Base your answers to questions 37 through 42 on the atomic
numbers given below
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 46
(D) 51
(E) 84
Which element contains 3 half-filled orbitals?
37. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
38. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
39. Which element is a metalloid?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
40. Which element does not form compounds?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
41. Which element has no stable isotopes?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
42. Which element forms ions that produce colored solutions?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
43. Which of the electron transitions between principle energy
levels would absorb the most amount of energy?
(A) from n = 2 to n = 3
(D) from n = 5 to n = 3
(B) from n = 4 to n = 2
(E) from n = 7 to n = 4
(C) from n = 3 to n =5
Page 3
44. What is the election configuration of the Fe 3+ ion?
(A) [Ar]
(D) [Ar]3d54s2
3 2
(B) [Ar]3d 4s
(E) [Ar]3d5
(C) [Ar]3d3
51. The configuration of a metalloid
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
45. A fluorine atom (F) differs from a fluorine ion (F–) in that
the ion
(A) has more occupied subshells
(B) has less stability
(C) has greater nuclear charge
(D) has higher electronegativity
(E) has a larger radius
52. The configuration of a metallic diatomic element
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
46. Which transition element has its d-orbitals completely
filled?
(A) Fe
(D) In
(B) Cd
(E) As
(C) W
47. According to valence bond theory, what are the states of
hybridization of the carbon atoms (reading from left to
right) in the following compound?
(A) sp, sp2, sp
(B) sp2, sp, sp3
(C) sp2, sp2, sp2
(D) sp3, sp2, sp3
(E) sp3, sp3, sp3
48. Which of the following elements will present a
paramagnetic electron configuration?
(A) Zinc
(D) Cobalt
(B) Cadmium
(E) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
Base your answers to questions 49 through 52 on the following
electron configurations
(A) [Xe] 4f145d106s2
(B) [Kr] 4d105s1
(C) [Ar] 3d104s24p5
(D) [Ar]
(E) [Ne] 3s23p2
The ground state of a halogen
49. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
50. A common ion of an alkali metal
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 53 through 56 on the following
types of energy
(A) Potential energy
(B) Ionization energy
(C) Activation energy
(D) Hydration energy
(E) Lattice energy
Amount of energy that must be absorbed by reactants in
53. their ground states to reach the transition state so that a
reaction can occur
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
54. Energy change associated with a mole of gas and ions
reacting with water
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
55. The energy change when a crystalline solid is formed from
its atoms, ions or molecules in the gas phase
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
56. The minimum amount of energy required to remove the
most loosely held electron of an isolated gaseous atom.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 57 through 60 on the following
electron configurations
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2s1
[Ar] 3d104s24p1
[Kr] 4d105s25p3
[Ne] 3s2
[Kr] 4d105s25p6
Represents a noble gas
57. (A) A
(B) B
(C) C
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(D) D
(E) E
58. An atom in an excited state
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
59. An atom with three valence electrons
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
60. An alkaline earth metal
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Base your answers to questions 61 through 64 on Answer the
following questions 3–6 based on the following atomic orbitals.
(A) 1s2 2s1 2p1
(B) 1s2 2s2 2p1
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(D) [Ar] 4s2
(E) [Ar] 4s2 3d4
This atom is in an excited state.
61. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
62. This element dissolves to become a colored solution.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
63. This element is a gas a room temperature.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
64. This element does not obey the octet rule frequently while
bonding and is not a transition metal.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
66. Which set of elements has nearly the same atomic radius?
(A) Li, Be, B, C
(D) Os, Ir, Pt, Au
(B) O, S, Se, Te
(E) F, Cl, Br, I
(C) Al, Si, P, S
67. As the atomic number of elements decrease from 9 to 3,
the atomic radius of the elements
(A) increases only
(B) increases, then decreases
(C) decreases only
(D) decreases, then increases
(E) cannot be determined from the information provided
68. Which of the following ions has the largest ionic radius?
(A) S–2
(D) K2+
–1
(B) Cl
(E) Ca2+
(C) Ar
Base your answers to questions 69 through 72 on the following
compounds.
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Water
(D) Sodium chloride
(E) Xenon pentafluoride
Which compound has the greatest lattice energy?
69. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
70. Which compound has a square pyramidal shape?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
71. Which compound has a high affinity toward hemoglobin?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
72. Which compound has two double bonds?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
65. A x-ray hits an oxygen atom and excites a valence electron
from the 2p level to the 3s level. After the electron drops
back down to ground state, it gives off a certain amount of
energy in the form of light. Calculate this energy.
(D) 2.178 x 10–18
(A) –3.025 x 10–19
–18
(B) –2.178 x 10
(E) 3.025 x 10–19
(C) –1.089 x 10–18
Page 5
73.
Based on the ionization energies listed above, the element
is most likely
(A) Magnesium
(D) Silicon
(B) Potassium
(E) Nitrogen
(C) Boron
74. Whose theory of the atom is best supported by the
experiment evidence shown in a graph of first ionization
energy of the elements versus atomic number?
(A) Moseley
(D) J. J. Thompson
(B) John Dalton
(E) Niels Bohr
(C) Ernest Rutherford
75. Which of the following elements has the highest
electronegativity?
(A) O
(D) Be
(B) N
(E) Li
(C) C
76. Which statements concerning potassium and bromine are
true?
(A) Bromine has a smaller atomic radius and smaller first
ionization energy.
(B) Bromine has a larger atomic radius and larger first
ionization energy.
(C) Bromine has a larger first ionization energy and a
greater electronegativity.
(D) Potassium has a smaller atomic radius and less
electronegativity.
(E) Potassium has a larger first ionization energy and a
larger atomic radius.
77. What formula would be expected for a binary compound of
gallium and oxygen?
(A) Ga3O2
(D) GaO2
(B) Ga2O3
(E) GaO
(C) Ga2O
78. Which elements would be expected to have a binary
compund of the form X3Y?
(A) Calcium and chlorine
(D) Magnesium and
oxygen
(B) Potassium and nitrogen
(E) Boron and flourine
(C) Aluminum and iodine
79. Which elements would be expected to form a binary
compound of the form XY?
(A) Sodium and sulfur
(B) Magnesium and bromine
(C) Potassium and phosphorous
(D) Aluminum and phosphorus
(E) Boron and oxygen
Base your answers to questions 80 through 83 on the elements
below.
(A) Cl
(B) N
(C) Li
(D) Ne
(E) Ca
Which forms ions in solution with charge of +1?
80. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
81. Which exists naturally as a diatomic gas?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
82. Which does not readily combine with other elements?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
83. Which element has a violent reaction when combined with
cold water?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 84 through 87 on the elements
below.
(A) Fr
(B) Sr
(C) Br
(D) Sb
(E) H
Which forms monatomic ions of charge 2+ in solution?
84. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
85. Which is a liquid in its natural state?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
86. Which contains no stable isotopes?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
87. Which is a metalloid?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
Page 6
(D) D
(E) E
88. Copper has an oxidation number of +1 in
(A) CuO
(D) CuC2O4
(B) CuBr
(E) Cu(CH3COO)2
(C) CuS
89. Which element in its ground state has the greatest number
of unpaired electrons?
(A) Fe
(D) As
(B) V
(E) Br
(C) In
Base your answers to questions 90 and 91 on the below elements.
(A) Cl
(B) N
(C) Zr
(D) Cs
(E) Ra
This element exhibits the highest number of oxidation
90. states.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
91. The most electonegative out of the five elements
(A) A
(C) C
(B) B
(D) D
Base your answers to questions 92 through 99 on the types of
solids given below.
(A) A metallic solid
(B) A molecular solid with hydrogen bonds
(C) A molecular solid with non-polar molecules
(D) A network solid
(E) An ionic solid
Which describes sodium chloride?
92. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
93. Which describes diamond (C)?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
94. Which best describes solid water?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
95. Which best describes pure tungsten?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
96. Which is described as a lattice of positive ions in a sea of
mobile electrons?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
97. Which describes solid benzene (C 6H6)?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
98. Which generally has the lowest boiling point?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
99. For solutions of equal molality, which would generally
have the greatest freezing point depression?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
100. Which of the following molecules contain a resonance
structure?
(D) NO3–
(A) C6H6
(B) SO2
(E) all of the above
(C) O3
Base your answers to questions 101 through 105 on the following
diatomic species.
(A) Br2
(B) O2
(C) N2
(D) Li2
(E) F2
Which contains a triple bond?
101. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
102. Which is not the natural state for its element
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
103. Which is a liquid at STP?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
Page 7
(D) D
(E) E
104. Which contains 1 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bond?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
112. Electrons flow in a "sea" throughout the substance
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
105. Which has the largest bond-dissociation energy?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
113. This substance has strong single covalent bonds, but weak
intermolecular forces
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 106 through 110 on the following
elements
(A) Fluorine
(B) Copper
(C) Phosphorous
(D) Neon
(E) Francium
Which element is most likely to be reduced?
106. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
107. Which element is a noble gas?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
108. Which element is a transition metal?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
109. Which element usually exists as a diatomic gas?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
110. Which element is a highly reactive metal?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Base your answers to questions 111 through 114 on the following
substances (all solids)
(A) RbCl
(B) SiO2
(C)Ag
(D) CN–
(E) C3H8
Held together by a lattice of positive and negative ions
111. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
114. Contains strong multiple covalent bonds
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
115. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
(A) SiO2
(D) C2H6
(B) LiCl
(E) Fe
(C) NH3
Base your answers to questions 116 through 119 on the following
bonding types
(A) Coordinate covalent bonding
(B) Network covalent bonding
(C) Ionic bonding
(D) Metallic bonding
(E) Hydrogen bonding
Type of bonding exhibited by two atoms with a large
116. electronegativity difference
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
117. Type of bonding that is exhibited by a substance acting as
a Lewis base
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
118. Substances with this bonding type exhibit good electrical
and thermal conductivity
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
119. Bonding associated with nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine
only
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Page 8
120. Which of the following atoms is most likely to disobey the
octet rule?
(A) B
(D) C
(B) O
(E) F
(C) N
121.
127. Copper (II) oxide and silicon dioxide are both crystalline
solids. What is the best explanation for why silicon
dioxide has a much higher melting point than CuO?
(A) Copper is a metal and silicon is a metalloid.
(B) Copper dioxide has the greater dipole moment.
(C) Van der Waals forces are only important in CuO.
(D) SiO2 is a network covalent solid.
(E) SiO2 is a body centered lattice; CuO is a face centered
lattice.
128. Molecular solids
(A) melt at lower temperatures than ionic solids
(B) cannot sublime
(C) contain at least one hydrogen bond
(D) always contain multiple covalent bonds
(E) are packed tightly into a crystal lattice
CF4 < CCl4 < CBr4 < CI4
129.
According to the above table, which substances have
metallic bonding?
(A) I and IV
(D) II and VI
(B) I and V
(E) II and IV
(C) III and IV
122. Which of the following involves the breaking of covalent
bonds?
(A) C(graphite) → C(g)
(D) Co(l) → Co(s)
(B) H2O(s) → H2O(l)
(E) Ti(l) → Ti(s)
(C) Ne(g) → Ne(s)
123. Which of the following exhibits coordinate covalent
bonding?
(A) NH3
(D) N2O
(B) NH4+
(E) CN–
(C) NO3–
124. Why is the melting point of potassium chloride lower than
that of magnesium oxide?
(A) The O2– is more negatively charged than the Cl– ion.
(B) The Cl– ion is larger than the O2– ion.
(C) The Mg2+ is more positively charged than the Na+ ion.
(D) Choices A and C are correct.
(E) Choices B and C are correct.
125. What is main reason the boiling point of methanol higher
than the boiling point of methane?
(A) Methanol is a molecular compound.
(B) Methanol undergoes hydrogen bonding.
(C) Methane contains hydrogen bonding.
(D) Alcohols are always liquids at room temperatures.
(E) Methanol contains an oxygen atom.
126. Which has the smallest force of attraction between its
molecules?
(A) H2
(D) C2H2
(B) NaCl
(E) MgO
(C) I2
According to the above trend in boiling points, which type
of bonding force explains the trend above?
(A) London dispersion forces (D) Halogen bonding
forces
(B) Covalent bonding forces (E) Hydrogen bonding
forces
(C) Dipole forces
Base your answers to questions 130 and 131 on the information
below.
Given 5 beakers containing:
I. Pure water.
II. Water solution of a sugar.
III. Water solution of silver nitrate.
IV. Water solution of methyl alcohol.
V. Water solution of sodium chloride.
Which of these liquids are good conductors of electricity?
130. (A) II and IV only
(D) I, II, IV, and V only
(B) III and V only
(E) I, II, III, IV, and V
(C) II, III, and IV only
131. Which of these liquids are not good conductors of
electricity?
(A) II and IV only
(D) I, II, IV, and V only
(B) III and V only
(E) I, II, III, IV, and V
(C) II, III, and IV only
132. In a given homologous series of hydrocarbons, the boiling
point generally increases as the size of the molecules
increases. The best explanation for this statement is that in
larger organic molecules
(A) the number of covalent bonds per molecule is greater
(B) the molecules are more symmetrical
(C) more hydrogen bonding is possible
(D) dipole forces between molecules are greater
(E) Van Der Waals forces between molecules is greater
Page 9
133. Which end of the bonds Si-Cl, At-Br, and Hg-P are
positively charged?
(A) Si, At, P
(D) Cl, Br, Hg
(B) Cl, At, Hg
(E) Si, At, Hg
(C) Cl, Br, P
134. Calculate the wavelength of light required to break the
bond between the two chlorine atoms in a chlorine
molecule. The Cl-Cl bond energy is 243 kJ mol–1.
(A) 9.34 × 10–34 m
(D) 4.93 × 10–7 m
–31
(B) 8.18 × 10 m
(E) 4.11 × 10–6 m
(C) 6.26 × 10–21 m
Base your answers to questions 142 through 144 on the following
hybirdizations
(A)sp
(B)sp2
(C)sp3
(D)dsp3
(E)d2sp3
Which type of sp hybridization is exhibited PCl5?
142. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
143. What type of sp hybridization is exhibited by XeF6?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
135.
According the the above electronegativities, which of the
following bonds has the most ionic character?
(A) P–T
(D) T–S
(B) P–Q
(E) Q–T
(C) R–S
136. Which of the following molecules is most polar?
(A) Br2
(D) NO
(B) NH3
(E) SO4–2
(C) Cl2
137. Which compound violates the simple octet rule for electron
distribution around the central atom?
(D) PF5
(A) CO2
(B) NF3
(E) AsF3
(C) OF2
138. Resonance structures would be necessary in drawing Lewis
structures for which of the following?
(A) HCN
(D) NaCl
(B) C3H8
(E) H2O
(C) SO2
144. What type of sp hybridization is exhibited by BCl3?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
145.
What type(s) of sp hybridization are found on the C atoms
in the above compound ?
I. sp
II. sp2
III. sp3
IV. dsp3
(A) I only
(D) II and III only
(B) II and IVonly
(E) III and IV only
(C) I and III only
139. How many coordinate covalent bonds are there in the
compound BF3NH3?
(A) 1
(D) 4
(B) 2
(E) 5
(C) 3
146. What types of hybridization are found on the C atoms of
butene (C4H8)?
(A) sp and sp2
(D) sp and sp3
(B) sp3 and dsp3
(E) sp2 and dsp3
3
2
(C) sp and sp
140. Which of the following compounds contains sp3
hybridization?
(A) NH3
(D) B2O3
(B) AlCl3
(E) NaCl
(C) CaF2
147. Which of the following substances exhibits d2sp3
hybridization?
(A) SrTe
(D) N2S5
(B) UH3
(E) PF6
(C) NbBr5
141. What hybridization occurs on the carbon atom in CO2?
(A) sp
(D) sp2d
(B) sp2
(E) dsp3
3
(C) sp
Page 10
Base your answers to questions 148 through 151 on Questions
15–18 refer to the following molecules.
(A) H2
(B) O2
(C) Br2
(D) N2
(E) F2
Which molecule has a bond order of 3?
148. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
149. Which molecule has one sigma bond and one pi bond?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
150. Which molecule has the shortest bond length?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
151. Which molecule as a gas effuses the fastest?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
152. In pentadiene (C5H8), how many sigma and pi bonds are
present?
(A) 12 sigma bonds, 0 pi bonds
(B) 12 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds
(C) 11sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds
(D) 13 sigma bonds, 1 pi bonds
(E) 10 sigma bonds, 4 pi bonds
Base your answers to questions 153 through 155 on the shape of
the following molecules
(A) Square planar
(B) Octahedral
(C) Trgional Planar
(D) Linear
(E) Tetrahedral
What is the shape of the XeF 4 molecule?
153. (A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
154. What is the shape of the SF 6 molecule?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
155. What is the shape of the CCl 4 molecule?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
156. Which molecules has the smallest distance between its two
carbon atoms?
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
157. The shape of a chloroform molecule, CHCl3, is
(A) linear
(D) planar triangular
(B) octahedral
(E) pyramidal
(C) tetrahedral
158. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment of
zero?
(A) CO
(D) CH4
(B) NO2
(E) H2O
(C) NH3
159. Which of the following compounds would be an electrolyte
in water?
(D) CH4
(A) SiO2
(B) NaCH3COO
(E) N2O
(C) C2H5OH
160. Which list of molecules is in order of decreasing boiling
point?
(A) H2, F2, PH3
(D) F2, H2, PH3
(B) PH3, H2, F2
(E) PH3, F2, H2
(C) H2, PH3, F2
161. Why is the CO2 molecule linear but the H2O molecule
bent?
(A) Carbon has more valence electrons than hydrogen.
(B) The central atoms exhibit different hybridizations.
(C) The central oxygen atom in water contains unpaired
electrons.
(D) The central oxygen atom in water contains unshared
electron pairs.
(E) Carbon has an even number of electrons.
Page 11
162. The half-life of 42K is about 12 hours. It takes 2.0 days for
a sample to arrive. How much should be sent if 5.0 g are
needed at the destination?
(A) 160. g
(D) 20. g
(B) 80. g
(E) 5.0 g
(C) 40. g
163. Carbon-14 has a half-life of about 5700 years. A sample
of 1.0 g is determinded to have originally weighed 32 g.
Approximately how old is this sample?
(A) 5700 years
(D) 28,500 years
(B) 11,400 years
(E) 34,200 years
(C) 22,800 years
164. The half life of 133Cs is 6.5 days. If you begin with a pure
sample of 133Cs, what percent is left after 26 days?
(A) 3.13 %
(D) 12.5 %
(B) 5.00 %
(E) 25.0 %
(C) 6.25 %
165. A sample of an ore contains 100. micrograms of
radioactive phosphorus–32 with a half-life of 14.3 days.
How many micrograms of 32P remain in the sample after
28.6 days? The symbol for the microgram is mg.
(A) 0.00 mg
(D) 50.0 mg
(B) 12.5 mg
(E) 75.0 mg
(C) 25.0 mg
166. In the decay series that starts with Fr-222, the first step
consists of a beta decay. The next three steps are alpha
particle decay. The final step is another beta particle decay.
What is the product of this decay series?
(A) Pb-212
(D) Bi-210
(B) Bi-212
(E) Pb-210
(C) Po-210
167. What is the missing product in the reaction below?
(A)
(B)
(C)
234
90 Th
234
89 Ac
234
90 Th
230
90 Ac
0
→ +1β ~ ?
(D)
(E)
230
89 Ac
234
91 Pa
168. What is the missing product in the following reaction?
212
84 Po
(A)
(B)
(C)
208
82 Pb
212
84 Pb
216
86 Rn
4
→ 2He + ?
(D)
(E)
208
82 Pb
212
82 Pb
+ 201n
169. When 12N decays by positron emission, it becomes?
(A) 13N
(D) 12C
12
(B) N
(E) 8B
(C) 13C
170. Which of the following has the greatest mass?
(A) An alpha particle
(D) A positron
(B) A beta particle
(E) A hydrogen nucleus
(C) A gamma ray
171. Which form of radioactive decay results in a decrease of
mass number?
(A) Beta particle emission
(D) Alpha particle
emission
(B) Positron emission
(E) Gamma ray emission
(C) Electron capture
172. What sort of radiation would be expected for 85B?
(A) alpha emission
(D) positron emission
(B) beta emission
(E) none, it is a stable
nucleus
(C) gamma emission
173. Which of the following choices correctly lists alpha
particles, beta particles, and gamma rays in increasing
energy?
(A) Alpha particles>beta particles>gamma rays
(B) Gamma rays>beta particles>alpha particles
(C) Alpha particles>gamma rays>beta particles
(D) Gamma rays>alpha particles>beta particles
(E) Beta particles>gamma rays>alpha particles
174.
What kind of particle or radiation is Be bombarded with to
cause it to emit a neutron?
(A) Gamma radiation
(D) Neutrino
(B) Beta radiation
(E) Positron
(C) Alpha radiation
175. When a sample of ethane gas in a closed container is
cooled so that its absolute temperature halves, which of the
following also halves?
(A) The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules
(B) The potential energy of the gas molecules
(C) The density of the gas
(D) The volume of the gas
(E) The number of molecules in the gas
176. Two containers for gases are at the same temperature and
pressure. One contains 14.0 grams of nitrogen and the
other 2.0 grams of helium. Which of the following is true?
(A) The volumes of the containers are the same.
(B) Both containers contain the same number of atoms.
(C) The average speed of the particles in both containers is
the same.
(D) The density of the containers is the same.
(E) The size of the helium atoms is the same as the size of
the oxygen atoms.
Page 12
177. A 2.70 L sample of nitrogen gas is kept at a pressure of
800. torr and 27.0ºC. what would its volume be if the
pressure was increased to 1200. torr and it was cooled to
-73.0ºC.
(A) 1.35 L
(D) 3.60 L
(B) 1.80 L
(E) 1.2 L
(C) 2.70 L
178. What is the density of a gass that has a molar mass of 336
g/mol at STP?
(A) 15 g/L
(D) 168 g/L
(B) 17 g/L
(E) 336 g/L
(C) 150 g/L
179. The pressure on a sample of gas is increased from 100 kPa
to 130 kPa at constant temperature. Which of the
following increases?
I.
II.
III.
(A)
(B)
(C)
The density of the gas
The average distance between molecules
The average speed of the molecules.
I only
(D) I and II only
III only
(E) I, II, and III
I and III only
180. At 25.ºC, C2H6 (molar mass 30. g) effuses at a rate of 0.38
mole per minute. Which gas would have a rate of effusion
approximately one-half as fast?
(A) He (molar mass 4.0 g)
(D) N2O3 (molar mass 76.
g)
(E) Cl2O3 (molar mass
(B) CH4 (molar mass 16. g)
119. g)
(C) NO (molar mass 30. g)
181. A gas gives off 1500. J of heat at the same time that it
expands from 3.000 liters to 6.000 liters against a pressure
of 1.500 atm.
(1 L•atm =101.0 J).
What is the internal energy change of the gas?
(A) –1955. J
(D) +1045. J
(B) –1803. J
(E) +1955. J
(C) –1045. J
182. In 1811 Avogadro calculated the formula of camphor by
means of elemental chemical analysis and by measuring
the density of its vapor. Avogadro found the density to be
3.84 g/L when he made the measurements at 210ºC at 1
atmosphere pressure. Which of the following is the correct
formula for camphor?
(A) C10H14O
(D) C10H18O
(B) C10H16O
(E) none of the above
(C) C10H16O2
2Li + 2H2O→ 2Li+ +2OH– + H2
183.
When 0.800 mol of Li is reacted with excess water at STP
in the equation above, what volume of hydrogen gas is
produced?
(A) 2.24 L
(D) 8.96 L
(B) 4.48 L
(E) 17.92 L
(C) 6.72 L
184. Which of the following gases is most like ideal?
(A) He
(D) CO
(B) SO2
(E) Br2
(C) H2O
185. A 1.00 L container at 460. K contains 3.23 moles of argon
gas. What is the pressure of the gas?
(A) 1.24 × 104 atm
(D) 244. atm
(B) 194. atm
(E) 87.0 atm
(C) 122. atm
186.
The graph table above shows what happens when one mole
of magnesium reacts with acid to produce one mole of H2
(g).
What is the molar volume of H2 at 760 mmHg and 298 K
using this data?
(A) 22.4 L
(D) 36.6 L
(B) 23.3 L
(E) 46.6 L
(C) 25.4 L
187. “The pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with
the absolute, Kelvin, temperature with the volume being
kept constant.” This statement best illustrates
(A) Avogadro’s Principle
(D) Gay–Lussac’s Law
(B) Boyle’s Law
(E) Charles’ Law
(C) Combined Gas Law
188. A CH4 (molar mass 16 grams) effuses at 0.080 mole per
minute at 289 K. At that temperature, a gas that effuses at
approximately double that rate has what molar mass?
(A) 4 grams
(D) 32 grams
(B) 8 grams
(E) 64 grams
(C) 16 grams
Page 13
189. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) →3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
A 0.03 mol sample of C3H8 is reacted with just enough O2
to use up both reactants in a 1 L flask at 300 K. The total
pressure in the flask after the reaction is complete is closest
to which of the following?
( Use R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 )
(A) 5.0
(D) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(E) 0.05
(C) 0.1
190. A gaseous mixture containing 6.5 moles of nitrogen, 2.0
moles of chlorine, and 1.5 moles of hydrogen exerts a total
pressure of 0.70 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of
the chlorine?
(A) 0.07 atm
(D) 0.26 atm
(B) 0.10 atm
(E) 0.31 atm
(C) 0.14 atm
191. A gaseous mixture contains 4.50 moles hydrogen, 2.50
moles oxygen, and 3.00 moles argon. This system exerts a
total pressure of 0.500 atmosphere. What is the partial
pressure of the hydrogen?
(A) 0.025 atm
(D) 0.325 atm
(B) 0.135 atm
(E) 0.356 atm
(C) 0.225 atm
192. Find the partial pressure of Hydrogen gas collected over
water at 18oC if the the vapor pressure of water at 18 oC is
15.5 torr, and the total pressure of the sample is 745 torr.
(A) 760.5 torr
(D) 727.0 torr
(B) 745.0 torr
(E) 729.5 torr
(C) 15.5 torr
195. The normal boiling point of water is often depressed at
high altitudes. Which of the following explains this
phenomenon?
(A) At high altitudes, the lower atmospheric pressure
equals the equilibrium water vapor pressure at a lower
temperature.
(B) There are fewer oxygen molecules present at high
elevations.
(C) Water molecules have greater average kinetic energies
at higher altitudes because the pressure is lower.
(D) All polar substances (such as water) have lower
boiling points at higher elevations.
(E) Water at this altitude has more nitrogen dissolved in it,
lowering the boiling the point.
196. The pressure and temperature at which a substance is in
equilibrium between solid, liquid and gas phases is known
as the
(A) freezing point depression (D) triple point
(B) STP
(E) normal boiling point
(C) osmotic pressure
197. In the phase diagram of water, graphing pressure versus
temperature, why does the equilibrium between the solid
and liquid phases curve to the left?
(A) The solid phase is more dense than the liquid phase.
(B) An increase in pressure causes the liquid to vaporize.
(C) The liquid phase is more dense than the solid phase.
(D) The liquid phase has a higher vapor pressure than the
solid phase.
(E) At higher temperatures, the liquid is more likely to
vaporize.
193. A student collected a sample of gas using water
displacement. Which of the following measurements is
necessary to determine the vapor pressure of the water in
the sample?
(A) The volume of the gas
(B) The kinetic energy of the gas
(C) The volume of the water
(D) The temperature of the water
(E) The water solubility of the gas
194. Under which conditions does a real gas most closely
approximate an ideal gas?
(A) Low pressure and low temperature
(B) Low pressure and high temperature
(C) High pressure and high temperature
(D) High pressure and low density
(E) Low temperature and high density
Page 14
Base your answers to questions 198 through 200 on this phase diagram
198. What is the normal boiling point of the substance on the graph above?
(A) 100oC
(B) 80oC
(C) 290oC
(D) 5.5oC
(E) -1.5oC
199. The critical temperature of this substance is 290oC. What is meant by the term "critical temperature"?
(A) It is the temperature at which the substance can no longer exist.
(B) It is the temperature above which a substance can no longer be evaporated.
(C) It is the temperature above which a substance can no longer be liquified.
(D) It is the temperature above which a substance can no longer be solidified.
(E) It is the temperature at which all electrons enter the excited state.
200. What information could you NOT learn from this diagram?
(A) The conditions needed for sublimation
(B) The relative densities of the three phases of this substance
(E) The triple point of the substance
(C) The critical pressure of the substance
(D) The latent heat of vaporization
201.
The phase diagram for a pure substance is shown above. What is the normal melting point temperature for this substance?
(A) 5.5oC
(B) –15.0oC
(C) 80.0oC
(D) 290.0oC
(E) 0oC
Page 15
Base your answers to questions 202 and 203 on this cooling
curve for a pure substance as it changes from a liquid to a solid
205. Which are allotropes?
234
(A) 238
92 U, 92 U
2+
(B) Fe , Fe3+
(C) O2, O3
(D) Deuterium, Tritium
(E) FeO, Fe2O3
206. Diamond and graphite are
(A) isomers
(B) anhydrides.
(C) isobars.
(D) isotopes.
(E) allotropes.
Base your answers to questions 207 through 210 on the following
terms:
According to this curve, when is the substance solidifying?
202. (A) Point B only
(B) Point C only
(C) All points between B and D
(D) All points between C and D
(E) All point between C and E
203. What is taking place between points A and B?
(A) The substance is condensing
(B) The liquid phase of the substance is cooling
(C) The substance is melting
(D) The substance is undergoing an endothermic process
(E) The substance is becoming a solid
204.
(A) Gibbs free energy
(B) Entropy
(C) Heat of Vaporization
(D) Deposition
(E) Vapor Pressure
When the solid phase of a substance is in equilibrium with
207. the gas phase, the pressure of the gas is equal to what?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
208. The energy that is required in order to overcome the
intermolecular forces between liquid molecules.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
209. This quantity is equal to 0 at the freezing point.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
210. The physical change of a gas to a solid
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Look at the heating curve for a pure substance above.
Which of the following is true about the substance from
point D to E?
(A) Kinetic energy is increasing; potential energy is
decreasing
(B) Kinetic energy is decreasing; potential energy is
increasing
(C) Kinetic energy is constant; potential energy is
decreasing
(D) Kinetic energy is constant; potential energy is
increasing
(E) Kinetic energy is increasing; potential energy is
constant
211. Of the following organic compounds, which is LEAST
soluble in water at 298 K?
(A) C6H6, benzene
(B) CH3Cl, chloromethane
(C) C2H5OH, ethanol
(D) C2H5COOH, propanoic acid
(E) C5H10O5, fructose
212. Which of the following dissolves in water to form an ionic
solution?
(D) C12H22O11
(A) O2
(B) SiO2
(E) CH4
(C) KMnO4
Page 16
213. A solution of Na+ ions would be best represented by which Base your answers to questions 214 through 217 on the ions
picture?
below.
(A) NH4+
(A)
(B) Pb2+
(C) CrO42–
(D) CO32–
(E) F–
A solution contains one or more of the above ions. Which ions
must be present to form the following observations?
(B)
(C)
There is a precipitate when added to a dilute sample of H 3
214. PO4.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
215. There is an odor when slowly added to a solution of
sodium hydroxide
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
216. The solution is colored
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D)
(E)
(D) D
(E) E
217. The solution bubbles when mixed with hydrochloric acid.
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
218. Bubbles form when Mg(s) is added to HCl(aq). The gas
produced is
(A) O2
(D) H2O
(B) H2
(E) ClO–
(C) Cl2
219. The mixture that could produce a precipitate of two
compounds is
(A) 0.2 M HgSO4 and 0.2 M FeCl2
(B) 0.2 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M MgCl2
(C) 0.2 M K2CO3 and 0.2 M CuSO4
(D) 0.2 M ZnSO4 and 0.2 M Ba(OH)2
(E) 0.2 M Na2S and 0.2 M SrCl2
220. When a solution of (NH4)2S is added to a solution of
Pb(NO3)2, what precipitate is formed?
(A) Lead sulfate
(D) Ammonium sulfide
(B) Lead sulfide
(E) Lead nitrite
(C) Ammonium nitrate
Page 17
221. Which of the following is NOT a redox reaction?
(A) Fe (s) + O2 (g) → Fe2O3 (s)
(B) Al3+ (aq) + PO43– (aq) → AlPO4 (s)
(C) Zn (s) + H+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + H2 (g)
(D) CH4 (g) +O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
(E) Fe3+ (aq) + Cu+ (aq) → Fe2+ (aq) + Cu2+ (aq)
222. Step 1. Cr3+ + V3+ → Cr2+ + V4+
Step 2. Cr3+ + V4+ → Cr2+ + V5+
Step 3. Pb2+ + V5+ → Pb4+ + V3+
229. What volume of 0.600 M HNO3 needed to neutralize 60.0
mL of 0.180 Mg(OH)2?
(A) 9.00 mL
(D) 60.0 mL
(B) 18.0 mL
(E) 60.0 mL
(C) 36.0 mL
230. Base your answer to the following question on the standard
electrode potentials given below
Au3+ (aq) + 3e– ↔ Au(s) E0 = +1.50 V
E0 = –0.25 V
Ni2+ (aq) + 2e– ↔ Ni(s)
–
2+
Ba (aq) + 2e ↔ Ba(s) E0 = –2.90 V
The above is a proposed mechanism for a catalyzed
reaction. The overall products are
(D) Cr2+ and V3+
(A) Cr3+ and Pb2+
(B) Cr2+ and Pb4+
(E) Pb4+ and V3+
2+
3+
(C) Cr and Cr
Which of the following reactions would occur
spontaneously?
I.
II.
III.
(A)
(B)
(C)
223. The oxidation number of carbon in CaC2O4 is
(A) +7
(D) +4
(B) +2
(E) +6
(C) +3
224. In which of the following does the oxidation number of
nitrogen increase?
(A) NO3– → NO
(D) NO2 → N2O5
(B) N2O4 → NI3
(C) NH3 → NH4+
(E) NO3– →NH3
225. An example of a decomposition reaction is
(A) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(B) (NH4)2CO3(s) → 2NH3(g) + H2O(g) + CO2(g)
(C) Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
(D) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) →NaNO3(aq) + AgCl(s)
(E) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
Au3+ (aq) + Ni(s) ↔ Au(s) + Ni2+ (aq)
Ni(s) + Ba2+ (aq) ↔ Ni2+ (aq) + Ba(s)
Ba2+ (aq) + Au(s) ↔ Au3+ (aq) + Ba(s)
I only
(D) II and III only
II only
(E) I, II and III
I and II only
231. Which of the following reactions is spontaneous at
standard conditions?
(A) Pb + Cu2+ → Cu + Pb2+ (D) 2Ag + Cu2+ → Cu +
2Ag+
(B) H2 + Mg2+ → Mg + 2H+ (E) Cl2 + I2 →2Cl– + 2I–
(C) Br2 + 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2Br–
232.
226. PbO2 + Pb + 4H+ + 2SO42– → 2PbSO4 + 2H2O
Which substance loses electrons in the redox reaction
above?
(A) Pb
(D) SO42–
(B) PbO2
(E) PbSO4
+
(C) H
227. __Sn2+ + __H+ + __MnO4– →__Sn4+ + __Mn2+ + __H2O
When the above equation is balanced with least whole
number coefficients, what is the coefficient on the H+?
(A) 2
(D) 10
(B) 4
(E) 16
(C) 8
Based on the table above, according to these data, which
reaction takes place?
(A) Fe3+ + Cd → Fe + Cd2+
(B) 2Fe + 3Cd2+ → 2Fe3++ 3Cd
(C) 2Fe + 3Cd → 2Fe3+ + 3Cd2+
(D) 2Fe3+ + 3Cd2+ → 2Fe + 3Cd
(E) 2Fe3+ + 3Cd → 2Fe + 3Cd2+
228. How much of 0.500 M NaOH is needed to neutralize 100.
mL of 1.00 M H2SO4?
(A) 50.0 mL
(D) 400. mL
(B) 100. mL
(E) 800. mL
(C) 200. mL
Page 18
238. __CH3COOH + __O2→ __ CO2 + __H2O
233.
How many moles of water are produced by the oxidation
of 1 mole of CH3COOH in the above reaction?
(A) 8
(D) 4
(B) 2
(E) 6
(C) 3
239. __Al2(SO4)3 + __Ca(OH)2 → __Al(OH)3 + __CaSO4
Ions of the transition elements are generally colored. Based
on the table above, what color will the final solution be
when a solution of Fe(NO3)2 is mixed with an acid solution
of KMnO4?
(A) Clear
(D) Brown
(B) Green
(E) Yellow
(C) Purple
234. The net ionic equation for a reaction between Potassium
carbonate and hydrochloric acid is
(A) K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2
(B) K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2CO3
(C) 2K+ + CO32– + 2H+ + 2Cl– → 2K+ + 2Cl– + H2O +
CO2
(D) CO32– + 2H+ → H2O + CO2
(E) CO32– + 2H+ → H2CO3
What will be the coefficient of calcium sulfate when the
above equation is balanced and all coefficients are reduced
to their lowest whole number terms?
(A) 1
(D) 4
(B) 2
(E) 6
(C) 3
__NH3 +__O2 → __NO + H2O
240.
When the above chemical reaction is balanced, and all
coefficients are reduced to their lowest whole-number
terms, what is the coefficient of water?
(A) 10
(D) 4
(B) 12
(E) 5
(C) 6
241. Which compound is correctly named?
(A) Fe2O3, iron(II) oxide
(B) H2SO4, sulfuric acid
(C) AgNO3, silver nitride
(D) MgSO3, magnesium sulfate
(E) KCl, potassium chlorate
235. Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for
the reaction between KOH(aq) and KBr(aq)?
242. What is the correct formula for iron(III) sulfate?
(A) K+(aq) + Br–(aq) → KBr(s)
(A) Fe2S3
(D) Fe2(SO4)3
–
+
(B) H (aq) + OH (aq) → H2O(l)
(B) FeSO4
(E) Fe(SO4)3
(C) KOH(aq) + HBr(aq) → KBr(s) + H2O(l)
–
–
+
+
+
(C)
FeSO
(aq) + Br (aq) + OH (aq) + H (aq) → K (aq) + Br
3
(D) K
–
(aq) + H2O(l)
Base your answers to questions 243 through 245 on on the
(E) K+(aq) + HBr(aq) → KBr(s)
following chemical reaction:
236. Equal volumes of 0.20 M H2SO4 and 0.20 M Ba(NO3)2 are
Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (s) +H2(g)
mixed together. What is the net ionic equation for the
reaction that takes place?
How many grams of Zinc (atomic mass 65.0 g) are
(A) Ba2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) → BaSO4(s)
243.
required to react completely with 1.00 mol HCl?
–
+
(B) H (aq) + NO3 (aq) → HNO3(aq)
(A) 32.5 g
(D) 195. g
(C) 2H+(aq) + SO42–(aq) → H2SO4(aq)
–
2+
(B)
65.0
g
(E) 97.5 g
(D) Ba (aq) + NO3 (aq) → Ba(NO3)2(aq)
–
+
(C) 130. g
(E) H (aq) + OH (aq) → H2O(l)
237. When 0.600 mol BaI2(aq) is mixed with 0.600 K3PO4(
aq), what is the maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2(
s) that can be produced?
(A) 0.100 mol
(D) 0.500 mol
(B) 0.200 mol
(E) 0.600 mol
(C) 0.300 mol
244. How many moles of reactants must be used to produce
33.6 L of hydrogen gas at STP?
(A) 1.50
(D) 4.50
(B) 2.00
(E) 6.00
(C) 3.00
Page 19
245. If 5.00 moles of zinc is placed into 1.50 L of a 3.00 M HCl
solution, what is the mass of the hydrogen gas produced?
(A) 0.750 g
(D) 5.00 g
(B) 2.25 g
(E) 10.0 g
(C) 4.50 g
246.
N 2 + O2 → N2O5
253. What is the formula of a substance with mass percentages
of 35.97% for S, 62.92% for O and 1.13% for H?
(D) H2S2O7
(A) H2SO3
(B) H2SO4
(E) H2S2O8
(C) H2S2O4
254. 4 HF (g) + SiO2 (s) →SiF4 (g) +2 H2O (l)
If 10. g of HF (formula mass 20. g/mol) reacts with 15. g
of SiO2 (formula mass 60. g/mol), how much water is
produced?
(A) 2.3 g
(D) 18. g
(B) 4.5 g
(E) 36. g
(C) 9.0 g
How many moles of O2 are needed to make 216 g of N2O5
in the unbalanced reaction above?
(A) 4.00
(D) 5.00
(B) 2.50
(E) 10.0
(C) 20.0
Base your answers to questions 247 through 250 on the electron
configuration for the ground state of element X, given below.
1s22s22p63s23p4
What would be the expected form of a binary compound
247. containing Calcium (Ca) and element X?
(A) CaX
(D) Ca3X2
(E) Ca2X3
(B) Ca2X
(C) CaX2
248. How many valence electrons does element X have?
(A) 0
(D) 4
(B) 2
(E) 6
(C) 3
249. Which element is X most chemically similar to?
(A) beryllium.
(D) oxygen
(B) carbon
(E) neon
(C) nitrogen
250. What is a possible excited state of element X?
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p5
(D) 1s22s22p63s23p44s2
2 2 6 1 5
(B) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
(E) 1s22s22p63s33p3
(C) 1s22s22p63s23p4
251. A sample of an organic compound is found to contain 12.0
g of carbon, 5.60 g of nitrogen and 2.40 g of hydrogen,
what is a possible formula for this compound?
(D) C2N5H12
(A) C5N2H12
(B) C2N2H8
(E) C8N3H3
(C) C5N2H24
252. A compound has the empirical formula of CH2O and a
molar mass of 150. g. What is the molecular formula of
the compound?
(D) C5H12O5
(A) C6H12O6
(B) C5H10O5
(E) C5H20N5
(C) C4H6O6
C8H18 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
255.
Based on the above unbalanced chemical equation, one
gram of octane will yield what mass of water?
(A) 0.079 g
(D) 162 g
(B) 1.4 g
(E) 0.158 g
(C) 18 g
Base your answers to questions 256 through 260 on the
chemicals below.
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Hydrofluoric acid
(C) Magnesium sulfate
(D) Potassium chromate
(E) Calcium carbonate
Which is a product of the complete combustion of
256. propane?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
257. Which is used commercially to melt ice?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
258. Which forms colored solutions in water?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
259. Which is used commercially to etch glass?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
Page 20
260. Which will form an aqueous solution with a pH closest to
7?
(A) A
(D) D
(B) B
(E) E
(C) C
261.
The hydrocarbon above is an example of which of the
following?
(A) Ester
(D) Aldehyde
(B) Ether
(E) Alcohol
(C) Ketone
262. Which of the following is an acid?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Page 21
Answer Key
1.
B
31.
C
2.
A
32.
B
3.
B
33.
A
4.
B
34.
A
5.
C
35.
A
6.
C
36.
A
7.
E
37.
D
8.
A
38.
A
9.
C
39.
D
10.
B
40.
B
11.
D
41.
E
12.
C
42.
C
13.
D
43.
C
14.
C
44.
E
15.
C
45.
E
16.
B
46.
B
17.
D
47.
C
18.
E
48.
D
19.
C
49.
C
20.
B
50.
D
21.
A
51.
E
22.
A
52.
A
23.
E
53.
C
24.
B
54.
D
25.
D
55.
E
26.
A
56.
B
27.
E
57.
E
28.
D
58.
A
29.
C
59.
B
30.
D
60.
D
Answer Key
61.
A
91.
B
62.
E
92.
E
63.
C
93.
D
64.
B
94.
B
65.
A
95.
A
66.
D
96.
A
67.
A
97.
C
68.
A
98.
C
69.
D
99.
E
70.
E
100.
D
71.
B
101.
C
72.
A
102.
D
73.
A
103.
A
74.
E
104.
B
75.
A
105.
C
76.
C
106.
A
77.
B
107.
D
78.
B
108.
B
79.
D
109.
A
80.
C
110.
E
81.
A
111.
A
82.
D
112.
C
83.
C
113.
E
84.
B
114.
D
85.
C
115.
D
86.
A
116.
C
87.
D
117.
A
88.
B
118.
D
89.
A
119.
E
90.
C
120.
A
Answer Key
121.
E
151.
A
122.
A
152.
B
123.
B
153.
A
124.
D
154.
B
125.
B
155.
E
126.
A
156.
A
127.
D
157.
C
128.
A
158.
D
129.
A
159.
B
130.
B
160.
E
131.
A
161.
D
132.
E
162.
B
133.
E
163.
D
134.
B
164.
C
135.
A
165.
C
136.
B
166.
D
137.
D
167.
A
138.
C
168.
A
139.
A
169.
D
140.
A
170.
A
141.
A
171.
D
142.
D
172.
D
143.
E
173.
B
144.
B
174.
C
145.
C
175.
A
146.
C
176.
A
147.
E
177.
E
148.
D
178.
A
149.
B
179.
A
150.
D
180.
E
Answer Key
181.
A
211.
A
182.
B
212.
C
183.
D
213.
E
184.
A
214.
B
185.
C
215.
A
186.
B
216.
C
187.
D
217.
D
188.
A
218.
B
189.
A
219.
D
190.
C
220.
B
191.
C
221.
B
192.
E
222.
B
193.
D
223.
C
194.
B
224.
D
195.
A
225.
B
196.
D
226.
A
197.
C
227.
C
198.
B
228.
D
199.
C
229.
C
200.
D
230.
A
201.
A
231.
A
202.
C
232.
E
203.
B
233.
E
204.
D
234.
D
205.
C
235.
B
206.
E
236.
A
207.
E
237.
B
208.
C
238.
B
209.
A
239.
C
210.
D
240.
C
Answer Key
241.
B
242.
D
243.
A
244.
A
245.
C
246.
D
247.
A
248.
E
249.
D
250.
B
251.
A
252.
B
253.
D
254.
B
255.
B
256.
A
257.
E
258.
D
259.
B
260.
C
261.
A
262.
A