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Advanced Electrodynamics Exercise 5 - Lorentz Force and Hodge Star This exercise will consider the Hodge star operation ? and its importance in treating physical problems in different coordinate systems. Consider for example the Lorentz force on a particle ~ F~ = q ~v × B (1) ~ in the Euclidean coordiwith F~ = (F1 , F2 , F3 ) and similarly for ~v and B nate system. Of course this equation should also hold if we go to another coordinate system. So with the transformation OF~ 0 = F~ we should have ~0 . (2) OF~ 0 = q O~v 0 × OB In terms of the basis vectors, transforming according to ei = we have for example e1 × e2 = 3 X O3j f j = j=1 3 X O1k O2l f k × f l P3 j=1 Oij f j, (3) k,l=1 It is not easy to see that this is true in general. We will now use Eqn. (173) from the fourth lecture notes, which relates the cross-product to the Hodge star operation ?, i.e. ~ ?(v ∧ B) = ~v × B. (4) We see that we actually consider the components of a one-form. Now we want to show that not only the above equality is true but that the Hodge star is basis independent under orthogonal transformations. The Hodge star operation for an n-dimensional vector space V maps Ωp (V ) → Ωn−p (V ) and is defined by acting on a dual orthogonal basis as (see Eqn. (143) and the discussion leading to Eqn. (39) in the lecture notes 4) p ? ei1 ∧ ... ∧ eip = i1 ...in g i1 i1 ...g ip ip |g| eip+1 ∧ ... ∧ ein . (5) 1 Here |g| = det(gij ) and (ip+1 ...in ) = (1...n) − (i1 ...ip ) as defined in the lecture. We then start by assuming an orthogonal transformation O from an orthonormal basis {ei } to an other orthonormal basis {fi } by fj = n X ei Oij . (6) i=1 We choose here two orthonormal basis sets p p because then we do not have to care about the factors |g(ei , ej )| and |g(fi , fj )| in the definition of the Hodge product. Further we then have for the metric λ1 ... g=λ= (7) λn where λi = ±1. Already in the first exercise we had introduced the idea of an orthonormal matrix (leaving a given metric invariant) by OT gO = g. (8) We will further assume that the basis transformation does not change the orientation, i.e. det(O) = 1. Examples would be the matrices of the proper orthochronous Lorentz group. a) Show first that from (6) we find for the dual basis ei = n X Oij f j . (9) j=1 (1 point) Using this result we can now consider the invariance of the Hodge star operation under basis transformation. Our claim is using (5), that n n X X ? ei1 ∧ ... ∧ eip = ? Oi1 j1 f j1 ∧ ... ∧ O ip jp f jp (10) j1 =1 = i1 ...in λi1 ...λip n X jp =1 Oip+1 jp+1 f jp+1 ∧ ... ∧ jp+1 =1 n X Oin jn f jn , jn =1 i.e. the Hodge star is independent whether we do a transformation before or after we have performed the operation. In order for this equality to be true we will need to derive equations connecting the sub-determinants of an orthogonal matrix. So in order to simplify matters we introduce the matrix O(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) 2 (11) consisting of the rows (i1 ...ip ) and the columns (j1 ...jp ) of the orthogonal matrix O. For example we have for O11 O12 O13 (12) O = O21 O22 O23 O31 O32 O33 the sub-matrix O(23,12) = O21 O22 . O31 O32 (13) In accordance we define the determinant of the sub-matrix O(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) as the sub-determinant |O|(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) of the matrix O. b) Derive now from Eqn. (10) the equality connecting the two sub-determinants n |O|(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) = λi1 ...λip λj1 ...λjp δji11 ...i ...jn |O|(ip+1 ...in ,jp+1 ...jn ) , (14) n where we have defined δji11 ...i ...jn as in Eqn. (38) in the lecture notes 4. (3 points) So, if the Hodge star operation is basis independent, then any two subdeterminants connected by (ip+1 ...in ) = (1...n) − (i1 ...ip ) and (jp+1 ...jn ) = (1...n) − (j1 ...jp ) in the above sense should have the same value up to a sign. On a first glance this seems strange. c) Take the matrix of the Lorentz-transformation consisting of a boost in z-direction by the constant velocity v and a rotation in the spatial part around the z-axis by an angle Θ. Take two random pairs of subdeterminants of the above form, e.g. one pair could be |Λ|(134,134) and |Λ|(2,2) , and verify that the absolute values are the same. (1 point) In a next step we will reorder the original matrix O such that the sub-matrix O(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) becomes the left upper block and O(ip+1 ...in ,jp+1 ...jn ) becomes the right lower block, i.e. A B Õ = . (15) C D where A = O(i1 ...ip ,j1 ...jp ) and D = O(ip+1 ...in ,jp+1 ...jn ) . This will help us to finally relate both sub-determinants by just considering an appropriate matrix equation. If we define the reordering matrix (ΠI )p,q = δp,iq (16) where I = (i1 ...in ) we can see (check with a simple example) that (ΠI )T O reorders the rows (1...n) → (i1 ...in ) and OΠJ reorders the columns (1...n) → (j1 ...jn ). 3 d) Show now with the definition of ΠI in (16) that Õ = (ΠI )T OΠJ . (17) Further show that det(ΠJ ) = j1 ...jn and n det(Õ) = δji11 ...i ...jn det(O). (18) Show that the reordered metric λ̃I = (ΠI )T λΠI where λ is defined in (7) obeys λ̃I,1 0 T . (19) λ̃J = Õ λ̃I Õ = 0 λ̃I,2 In what follows we will use the reordering (1...n) → (i1 ...ip ip+1 ...in ) so that I, 1 = (i1 ...ip ) and (1...n) → (j1 ...jp jp+1 ...jn ) so that J, 1 = (j1 ...jp ). (2 points) Now we will take the last step to show the above claim. To do so we define T A CT ˜I Õ. (20) R= 0 1 From Eqn. (19) we can deduce by explicitly calculating the matrix components that AT λ̃I,1 A + C T λ̃I,2 C = λ̃J,1 T T A λ̃I,1 B + C λ̃I,2 D = 0. (21) (22) e) Show now that det(D) det(λ̃J,1 ) = det(A) det(λ̃I,1 ) det(Õ) (23) and deduce from this Eqn. (14), which finishes our proof. (3 points) Maximal points: 10 Hand in Monday evening at latest 18:00 o’clock - mailbox of Robert van Leeuwen, second floor Nanoscience Building 4